Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

CP > Systems CBT > Flashcards

Systems CBT Flashcards

1
Q

(1) What actions trip the autopilot?

A

All answers are correct. (a) The manual trim or quick disc switches activated, column shakers are activated, (b) A column and control wheel force monitor sensor trips, & (c) The fly-by-wire system in direct mode, aileron and elevator system disconnects.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

(2) Which system provides information and alerting to detect a potentially hazardous terrain situation in order to prevent CFIT?

A

EGPWS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

(3) With the Ice Detection Mode Selector knob set to ON, when will the engine anti ice systems operate?

A

Whenever the engines are running

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

(4) Which flight controls does Hydraulic System 3 power?

A

Rudder, right elevator and both ailerons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

(5) What is the max thrust of one engine?

A

14,200 lbs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

(6) How many igniters are energized for each engine start?

A

One on the ground and two in flight

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

(7) Which electric hydraulic pumps are automatically switched on for takeoff and landing?

A

System 1 and 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

(8) The emergency ram air valve is commanded open:

A

If Pack1 and Pack2 are commanded⁄failed OFF, and the altitude is less than 25,000 ft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

(9) Where is the crew oxygen pressure indication?

A

On the status synoptic page on MFD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

(10) What color are EICAS status messages displayed in?

A

White

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

(11) How many service doors provide access for service access?

A

2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

(12) During normal operation, air data readouts on the Captains PDF are from which ADS?

A

ADS 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

(13) TCF (terrain clearance floor) function is based on airplane present position, radio altitude, and:

A

Glideslope deviation distance to the nearest runway on database

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

(14) What is the maximum altitude for conditioning air operation from the APU?

A

15,000 ft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

(15) The cabin zone temperature control:

A

Can be transferred from a cockpit control panel to the flight attendant control panel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

(16) Above what cabin altitude will the NO SMOKING and FASTEN SEAT BELT signs automatically illuminate?

A

14,000 ft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

(17) Pushing the test button on the fire extinguisher panel in the cockpit will:

A

Test the engine- and APU-fire detection system, as well as the cargo smoke detection system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

(18) The STBY AC BUS is normally powered by the ESS AC BUS. It will be powered by the inverter:

A

When the aircraft is powered by batteries only

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

(19) What does pressing the back up trim switch while the autopilot is engaged do?

A

The autopilot disconnects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

(20) In the event of a failure in the PSEM electronics, the landing gear should be extended by means of:

A

The electrical override switch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

(21) In case of a single electric motor failure within the flap PDU, how will the system operate?

A

The flap⁄slat system will operate at low rate speed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

(22) How long is the wingspan of the aircraft?

A

26 m or 85 ft 4 in

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

(23) The Air Data System comprises which components?

A

4 ADSPs, 2 TAT probes, 3 ADAs and the Baro Set on the GP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

(24) When are the ADSP and TAT probe heaters powered?

A

Whenever the engines are running

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

(25) With the Ice Detection Mode Selector knob set to AUTO and the T⁄O DATASET “REF A⁄I” set to OFF:

A

The wing A⁄I system is inhibited until 1,700 ft AGL or 2 min after liftoff

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

(26) The warning message CABIN ALT HI together with a red cabin altitude indication will be displayed whenever the cabin altitude exceeds:

A

9,700 ft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

(27) What functions does the guidance panel provide?

A

All answers are correct. (a) Lateral and vertical guidance control, (b) Two independent A and B channels, & (c) AFCS management control.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

(28) During normal operation, the landing gear system is:

A

Electronically controlled and hydraulically operated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

(29) How many Electric Hydraulic Pumps are used for each system?

A

System 1 and 2 have one Electric Hydraulic Pump each; System 3 has two Electric Hydraulic Pumps

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

(30) The flight control system can operate in normal or direct mode. Which of the following statements concerning the two different modes is true?

A

In direct mode, FCM commands are removed from the control loop

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

(31) What is the primary means of radio tuning?

A

MCDU

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

(32) Each thrust reverser half has:

A

2 hydraulic actuators

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

(33) How far can the long-haul version fly with standard reserves left in the tank?

A

2,000 NM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

(34) Towing is not allowed when:

A

All answers are correct. (a) If any of the brakes are pressurized, (b) When operation is in active mode, (c) The steering motor is pressurized.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

(35) The HS-ACE responds to:

A

Trim commands from the Backup trim, Pilot trim, Co-Pilot trim and FCM trim inputs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

(36) Hydraulic System 3 powers which elevator PCU?

A

Right outboard

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

(37) If the APU is available and one engine generator fails, what replaces the failed generator?

A

The APU generator

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

(38) Pressing the NAV button enables lateral navigation. What does the FMA annunciator display?

A

LNAV, LOC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

(39) EICAS messages are sometimes inhibited to prevent it from being a nuisance. K2b coded messages are inhibited:

A

On takeoff roll

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

(40) Can you reconnect the IDG in flight?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

(41) What is the theoretical minimum pavement width required to perform a 180 degree turn for the E175 (not E170)?

A

19m or 59ft 2in (17 m or 54 ft 8 in)

42
Q

(42) What type of engine is the General Electric CF34-8E?

A

High-Bypass two spool turbofan (OR “High-Bypass twin rotor turbofan”)

43
Q

(43) In the event of an APU fire on the ground:

A

The APU will shut down after 10 seconds if there is no commanded shut down through the APU emergency stop switch

44
Q

(44) The PTU transfers hydraulic power from System 1 to System 2 to guarantee normal operation of which systems?

A

Landing gear

45
Q

(45) How can you activate the microphone in one of the pilots oxygen masks?

A

Open the door of the stowage box or press the Test⁄Reset button

46
Q

(46) The DC fuel pump:

A

Is located in the right wing tank and can be used in flight and on the ground

47
Q

(47) Which EICAS message indicates an abnormal operational or airplane system conditions that requires immediate crew awareness and a subsequent corrective or compensatory action?

A

CAUTION

48
Q

(48) During normal engine start:

A

The FADEC opens and closes the Starter Control Valve automatically.

49
Q

(49) If only a single power source is available in flight and both windshield heating systems are operative, which windshield system is powered?

A

Left

50
Q

(50) To correct lateral imbalances using the crossfeed function, the pilot must:

A

Select the XFEED switch to the LOW1 or LOW2 position, while the two AC Aux pump switches must remain in AUTO

51
Q

(51) Pulling down an Engine Fire Handle in the cockpit will:

A

Shut off the fuel system, the hydraulic fluids, and the bleed air system of the respective engine

52
Q

(52) Which of the following systems are NOT driven by Fly-By-Wire (FBW) technology?

A

The ailerons only; all other systems are driven by Fly-By-Wire technology

53
Q

(53) What does selecting SECTOR SCAN on the weather radar do?

A

Reduces the sweep angle to +⁄- 30 degrees and increases the sweep rate to 24 spm

54
Q

(54) During normal operation, the conditioned air consists of:

A

52 percent fresh air and 48 percent recirculation air

55
Q

(55) The IESS can display which of the following?

A

All answers are correct. (a) Attitude, altitude, IAS, (b) Match, VMO⁄MMO, slip indication, VS, & (c) ILS, Barometric pressure, altitude in meters.

56
Q

(56) What controls the Fuel Metering Unit?

A

The FADEC

57
Q

(57) What is the correct sequence of slats⁄flaps extension and retraction?

A

Slats extend first, while flaps retract first

58
Q

(58) What does pressing the centre of the ALT selector knob do?

A

Provides the selected ALT in METERS to be displayed on the PFD

59
Q

(59) During cruise below 37,000 ft, the nominal differential pressure is limited to:

A

7.8 PSID

60
Q

(60) Where is the flight crew oxygen cylinder stored?

A

In the forward cargo compartment

61
Q

(61) What does pushing the emergency stop button on the APU panel cause?

A

The APU to stop immediately

62
Q

(62) When IDG1 or IDG2 is selected OFF:

A

The generator is de-energized and the line contactor is open

63
Q

(63) If activated, how long do the chemical oxygen dispensing units supply oxygen for a passenger?

A

12 minutes

64
Q

(64) The Cabin Pressure Control System consists of the following main components.

A

One cabin pressure controller, one cabin outflow valve, one negative relief valve, one positive pressure relief valve, and one static port.

65
Q

(65) What is the maximum altitude for starting the APU?

A

30,000 ft

66
Q

(66) When the Elev Disc Handle is pulled following a jammed control column (pitch):

A

The unrestricted control column controls its own side elevator

67
Q

(67) What causes the APU to automatically shut down on the ground?

A

All answers are correct. (a) APU fire, EGT over temp, sensor failure, (b) Overspeed, FADEC critical fault, & (c) APU high oil temperature, APU low oil pressure

68
Q

(68) At what nominal pressure do the EMBRAER 170 Hydraulic Systems operate?

A

3,000 PSIG

69
Q

(69) The two aileron PCUs per side operate the aileron surface:

A

In an active active configuration

70
Q

(70) In case of total power loss:

A

DC power provides Emergency lighting

71
Q

(71) When smoke is detected in the forward lavatory:

A

All answers are correct. (a) An EICAS warning LAV SMOKE will be displayed in the cockpit, (b) The flashing amber lights on both attendant light indicator panels will be activated, (c) An alarm will sound and the red alarm indicator will illuminate.

72
Q

(72) How long will the wing and engine anti-ice systems remain active following automatic activation and when icing conditions are no longer sensed?

A

5 minutes

73
Q

(73) The CPCS calculates the target cabin altitude for each of the following CPCS flight modes:

A

Ground, takeoff, climb, cruise, descent, and abort

74
Q

(74) In a turn, what requires the largest clearance?

A

Tail

75
Q

(75) A single trim command for yaw and pitch is limited to:

A

3 seconds

76
Q

(76) The Elevator Thrust Compensation (ETC) function, stabilizing the aircraft around the pitch axis, will be available:

A

In normal mode only, as it is computed in the FCM unit

77
Q

(77) Which BCM protections are still available during auto-brake control?

A

Anti-skid control, touchdown protection, locked wheel protection

78
Q

(78) What is the certified ceiling of the ERJ175?

A

41,000 ft

79
Q

(79) The lavatory fire extinguisher is:

A

Activated automatically when a certain temperature has been reached

80
Q

(80) What does the AVAIL lamp on the overhead electrical panel indicate?

A

The external power is connected and all quality requirements are satisfied

81
Q

(81) Where is the EICAS display brightness control knob located?

A

On the left-hand glare shield light control panel

82
Q

(82) The positive pressure relief valve (safety valve) opens independently whenever the differential pressure exceeds:

A

8.6 PSID

83
Q

(83) What powers the IESS in case of an electrical emergency?

A

RAT or batteries

84
Q

(84) How many minutes of cockpit audio can the DVDR record?

A

120 minutes

85
Q

(85) What services are available during a normal APU shutdown?

A

Electrics only

86
Q

(86) When will a Fuel Imbalance caution message display on the EICAS?

A

Whenever a lateral fuel imbalance exceeding 360 kg (800 lbs) exists

87
Q

(87) Which IRS is the primary source for the Captain PFD?

A

IRS 1

88
Q

(88) Pushing the dump switch on the pressurization panel in the cockpit:

A

Will depressurize the cabin to a maximum of 12,400 ft cabin altitude, and deactivate the recirculation fans and the ECS packs

89
Q

(89) Which of the following components regulates the air flow into the ECS packs?

A

The flow control valve

90
Q

(90) In the event of a failure of both electronic and electrical override systems, the landing gear should be extended by means of:

A

The alternate gear extension lever

91
Q

(91) Above what cabin altitude will the passenger oxygen system deploy automatically?

A

14,000 ft

92
Q

(92) What is the purpose of the wing surge tanks?

A

The surge tanks collect the fuel during wing-down or uncoordinated flight maneuvers

93
Q

(93) With the engines running, through which pumps are the engines and the APU fed?

A

The primary ejector pumps

94
Q

Per E175 limitation, the maximum altitude for flap extension is:

A

20,000ft MSL

95
Q

Per E175 limitations, a hydraulic warm-up is required before engine start whenever:

A

The aircraft has been without power overnight and the temperature is below -18°C.

96
Q

The APU can be started using:

A

Battery #2 or a DC power cart

97
Q

What is the minimum battery temperature for an APU start?

A

-20 C

98
Q

When the ram air turbine is deployed, what is the minimum airspeed to ensure adequate airflow for electrical power?

A

130 KIAS

99
Q

What is the maximum crosswind component for takeoff and landing on compacted snow?

A

20 knots

100
Q

What is the maximum altitude for single pack operations?

A

31,000 feet

CP (5 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions