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Dentistry BDS4 > Oral surgery > Flashcards

Oral surgery Flashcards

1
Q

What are the criteria for a dento-alveolar surgery flap?

A

must be full thickness
base must be wider than incision site
must not split interdental papilla
avoid important structures

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2
Q

What do you use to remove bone and why?

A

Must use an electric drill rather than air turbine as air turbine driven instruments can force air into the cavity and cause a surgical emphysema
the drill is cooled with sterile water to reduce heat (>55* will kill bone) and reduce infection, increase visibility

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3
Q

What is the difference between Asepsis, antisepsis sterilisation and disinfection?

A

asepsis - avoidance of pathogenic material - aseptic technique in surgery

antisepsis - application of agent which inhibits growth of microorganisms when in contact with them

sterilisation - destruction or removal of all forms of life

disinfection - inhibition or destruction of all pathogens

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4
Q

What types of extraction forceps are used?

A 
upper anteriors - straight and narrow
upper molars - 90* angle beak to cheek
lower anteriors - 90* angle and narrow
lower molars - 90* angle and two beaks
cowhorns - for removal of teeth with splayed roots - penetrate bifurcation
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5
Q

What are elevators used for?

A

Elevators dilate the sockets. Always used to remove impacted teeth.
Couplands, Cryers, Warick james

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6
Q

What periosteal elevators are used?

A

These pull back the periosteum from the bone, they are blunt, curved instruments
Howarths periosteal elevator

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7
Q

What is the mitchells trimmer for?

A

this is a curette. this is used for finding a weak spot of bone overlying pathology to be removed

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8
Q

What are dissecting forceps for?

A

They hold soft tissue without damamging it, Gillies dissectors.

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9
Q

What order should you extract molar teeth (if all are going) and why?

A

Extract from the most posterior to the most anterior.

Prevents a single standing tooth left in a weakened bone - reduces chance of alveolar or tuberosity fracture

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10
Q

What are the techniques for removing teeth?

A

1/2/3 - conical roots, twist
4/5 - 2 roots - move buccal-palatally
6/7 - move buccally

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11
Q

What are common complications of extracting teeth?

A

Access - infection, small mouth, malpositioned teeth
pain - LA, infection
inability to mobilise tooth - ankylosed tooth, bulbous or diverging roots, long roots
breaking the tooth - can leave <3mm of a deeply buried apex, remove what you can
#alveolar +/- basal bone - if # restricted to alveolus, remove anything not attached and close. if other teeth are involved - splint for 4 weeks
basal bone needs ORIF

loss of tooth - STOP. try to locate, determine if pt has swallowed. if breathing changes or cannot find it - Xray

damage to other tissues - apologise to patient

dislocated jaw - relocate and provide instructions. dont continue with XLA

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12
Q

what different types of post-op bleeding are there?

A

immediate (at surgery no haemostasis achieved)

reactionary ( within 48 hours - rise in BP)

secondary (~7 days post op. infection and destruction of clot)

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13
Q

If a patient comes in to your surgery the day after an Xn with bleeding, how would you deal with them?

A

Reassure the patient that it is ok and they wont bleed to death

repeat a full Hx inc DH. Get pt to bite on gauze
suction socket, clean pt
identify source of bleeding - if coming from socket then squeeze the gingivaea of outer walls with finger and thumb. if stops, was gingival. if from bone vessels, needs packing

can use bone wax, fibrin foam, sutures, collagen sponge,

recall the next day

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14
Q

What suture would you use for an extraction socket?

A

Resorbable suture, monofilament, 18mm curved tapered needle

simple interrupted suture

knot is tied twice one way and once the other (two surgeons knot, one locking knot)

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15
Q

What is MRONJ and what can cause it?

A

medication related osteonecrosis of the jaw - non healing socket or wound >8 weeks, bone seen, halitosis

caused by monoclonal antibody medications, RANK-L inhibitors, bisphosphonates and anti-angiogenics (VEG-F inhibiotors)

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16
Q

What would you be looking for in someones history to see if they would be at riskof MRONJ?

A

A history of metastatic breast or bone cancer

osteoporosis, Pagets disease

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17
Q

What increases a patients risk of MRONJ?

A

Hx of MRONJ
If they on AR or AA drugs for management of cancer
on BPs for >5 years
on denosumab in last 9 months + systemic glucocortioid or <5years BPs + systemic glucocorticoid

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18
Q

How does your treatment change for a high risk patient vs a low risk patient

A

low risk - simple extractions, dont Px ABs
High risk - explore all other possibilities to retain teeth (RR)

for both groups, review healing

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19
Q

How do you raise a flap to remove: maxillary canines, palatally impacted?

A

Radiographs to assess position
palatal flap - incision 6-6, full thckness of mucoperiosteum and reflect back.
do not cut at 90* to mucosal crevice as can cut the palatine artery. always use envelope flap.
remove bone over bulbosity of crown

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20
Q

How do you raise a flap to remove: Impacted 8s

A

Cut down around 7 and half of 6, vertical relieving incision down into buccal mucosa
must be full thickness flap and make sure base is thicker than top.
distal reliving incision back from the 8 along the external oblique ridge
dont go lingually as risk of hitting lingual nerve

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21
Q

What are indications for removal of 8s?

A 
recurrent pericoronitis
unrestorable caries in 8
external or internal resorption (caused by 8 or in)
cystic change
periodontal disease distal of 7
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22
Q

When would you perform a coronectomy on an 8?

A

increased risk of nerve damage (proximity to nerve canal, narrowing or diversion of canal, darkening of root/interruption of tram lines, interuption of lamina dura, juxta-apical area)

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23
Q

What are the contraindications for a coronectomy?

A

predisposition to local infection (medically compromised)
mobile teeth
non-vital lower 8
horizontal or distoangular impaction where sectioning crown puts the nerve at risk
if root becomes mobile in surgery it must be removed
if there is caries in the 8

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24
Q

How do you perform an apicectomy?

A 
raise a 2 or 3 sided flap
reflect and retract above apex
detect bony bulge over apex
create bony window to visualise the apex
excise apical 2mm and remove granulation tissue
cut root at 90 degrees to long axis (reduces dentinal tubules exposed)
seal canal with MTA
close up - interrupted mattress sutures
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25
Q

What surgical options are there for impacted canines?

A
  1. removal
  2. surgical exposure and ortho alignment (attaching a bracket and gold chain to re-position)
  3. auto transplantation
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26
Q

How would you distinguish a tooth with an apical abscess?

A

teeth with apical abscesses are TTP, non vital, discoloured, Hx of trauma or RCT. Radiograph shows well demarcated PA radiolucency with widening of the lamina dura

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27
Q

how would you distinguish dry socket?

A

pain 2-4 days post extraction
worse than preceeding toothache
exposed bone is visible - no clot in socket
socket looks inflamed

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28
Q

How do you treat dry socket?

A

warm LA in socket so you can clean
Alvogyl in socket
CHX mw or hot salty MW, NSAIDs

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29
Q

What is actinomycosis and how do you treat it?

A

low grade infection of the bone, multiple sinuses. doesnt follow path of least resistance

6 weeks amoxicilln 500mg tds

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30
Q

What is ludwigs andgina?

A

Medical emergency
abscess and cellulitits spreading throught he submandibular space and sublingual space

patient might complain of tongue being pushed up or problems swallowing
soft tissues of FOM and neck are hard, airway is at risk

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31
Q

When do you do an incisional biopsy?

A

when the lesion is large and complete removal is not possible or advised
when the lesion is suspicious and identification of location is required

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32
Q

When do you do an excisional biopsy?

A

when the lesion is likely to be benign and you can remove the whole lesion quickly in one surgery - a second surgery would be unnecessary

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33
Q

what should you biopsy?

A 
all red lesions
most white lesions
all white lesions in a smoker
growths
persistant ulcers
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34
Q

What is a brown tumour?

A

non tumour soft tissue lump
Not true tumour - giant cell lesion
associated with 2* hyperparathyroidism

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35
Q

What is a congenital epulis?

A

non tumour soft tissue lump
present at birth. pedunculated nodule.
histo path shows large granular cells. excise

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36
Q

what is a giant cell epulis?

A

non tumour soft tissue lump
(peripheral giant cell granuloma)
deep red gingival swelling, from chronic irritation.
vascular lesion, multinuclear giant cells.
excise, strip periosteum

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37
Q

What is a pregnancy epulis?

A

non tumour soft tissue lump
increased inflammatory response to plaque during pregnancy. indistinguishable from pyogenic granuloma (just on gingiva)
OHI, will reduce after birth

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38
Q

what is a pyogenic granuloma?

A

non tumour soft tissue lump
red fleshy swelling, nodular, response to recurrent trauma/non specific infectio n.
proliferation of vascular CT

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39
Q

What is a fibroepithelial polyp?

A

non tumour soft tissue lump
response to recurrent low grade trauma. sessile or pedunculated. excise with base. dense collagenous fibrous tissue lined by keratinised st sq ep

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40
Q

What is denture hyperplasia?

A

non tumour soft tissue lump
hyperplastic response to chronic trauma. rolls of tissue in the sulcus relating to denture flange. similar to FEP. complete excision, temporary removal of denture/relieve denture.

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41
Q

What is a mucocele?

A

non tumour soft tissue lump
mucous extravasation cyst - saliva leaknig from traumatised duct. compressed CT capsule

mucouse retention cyst - blockage of slaivary duct

most common in lower lip

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42
Q

What is a ranula?

A

non tumour soft tissue lump
a mucocele of the sublingual gland
if it extends down the neck, plunging ranula

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43
Q

What is a haemangioma?

A

non tumour soft tissue lump
developmental lesion of blood vessels. present at birth. blanch on pressure. Do not biopsy - most regress. can cryotherapy

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44
Q

what is lymphangioma?

A

non tumour soft tissue lump

developmental lesion, micro or macrocytic. tongue/cheek/lip or neck swellings.

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45
Q

What are warts/squamous papillomata?

A

non tumour soft tissue lump

HPV infection. multiple pappilated pink asymtomatic lumps. excise and Bx

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46
Q

What are Tori?

A

non tumour hard tissue lump

bony exostoses. both jaws. developmental abnormality, not sinister

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47
Q

What is a giant cell granuloma?

A

non tumour hard tissue lump

intrabony swelling or symptomless radiolucency. enucleate

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48
Q

What is Pagets disease of bone?

A

non tumour hard tissue lump
skull, pelvis, long bones and jaws.
max>mand
hypercementosis of roots. replacement of bone abnormality. bone pain and cranial neuropathy occuts. Cotton wool appearance of bones. Avoid GA, treat with BPs

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49
Q

what is fibrous dysplasia?

A

non tumour hard tissue lump
areaas of bone replaced by fibrous tissue
ground glass appearance of bone.

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50
Q

What is cherubism?

A

non tumour hard tissue lump

bilateral variant of fibrous dysplasia and multinucleated giant cells.

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51
Q

what is a radicular cyst?

A

cyst of the jaw
apical or lateral or residual. from reduced enamel epithelium.
marsupialise of enucleate

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52
Q

What is an odontogenic keratocyst?

A

cyst of the jaw
lined by parakeratinised epithelium, derived from remnants of dental lamina. fluid filled with low protein content. can aspirate for biochem.
outpouching walls make satellite cysts - high recurrence rate

multiloculated - look like ameloblastoma so must check

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53
Q

What is an aneurysmal bone cyst?

A

cyst of the jaw

expansile. full of vascular spongy bone. symptomless swelling.

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54
Q

What is a squamous cell papilloma?

A

benign tumour of the mouth - non odontogenic

resembles white/pink cauliflower. HPV

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55
Q

what is a fibroma?

A

benign tumour of the mouth - non odontogenic

pink and pedunculated

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56
Q

what is a lipoma?

A

benign tumour of the mouth - non odontogenic

slow growing yellowish lump from fat cells

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57
Q

what is an osteoma?

A

benign tumour of the mouth - non odontogenic

benign neoplasm of bone. smooth. unilateral, covered by mucosa - not in same place as tori

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58
Q

what is a neurofibroma?

A

benign tumour of the mouth - non odontogenic

tumour of fibroblast of peripheral nerve

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59
Q

what is a neurolemma?

A

benign tumour of the mouth - non odontogenic

tumour of schwann cells

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60
Q

what is an ossifying fibroma?

A

benign tumour of the mouth - non odontogenic
well demarcated fibro osseous lesion of jaw. painless, slow growing. buccal-lingual expansion.
radiolocent area with corticated margin.

61
Q

What is an ameloblastoma?

A

benign tumour of the mouth - odontogenic
common tumour. 3 types - unicystic, polycystic, peripheral. uni = least aggressive - expands tissue rather than invade like the other 2

62
Q

What are odontomes?

A

compound - denticles in a sac
complex - irregular mass of dental tissues
treat as malpositioned/impacted teeth

63
Q

what is the difference betwen OAF and OAC?

A

OAC - oroantral communication. not lined by epithelium, can heal closed. acute
OAF - fistula, lined by epithelium. needs removal of the lining and surgically closing. chronic

64
Q

what teeth are most likely to give OAC?

A

max 6/7/8

65
Q

How do you treat OAC

A

inform patient
if small (<2mm) - encourage clot, suture,
if large - lift buccal advancement flap - parallel incisions - full thickness
score periosteal layer so it becomes stretchy
advance over defect and suture close

give ABs - 7 days amoxicillin 500mg TID
post op instructions: steam inhalations. no blowing nose/sneezing/playing wind instrument/using straw for 2 weeks/give decongestants
review after 6 weeks

66
Q

What is osseointegration?

A

direct and functional structural connection between a load bearing dental implant and living bone

2 stages
1: primary osseointegration, implant anchored into bone due to frictional forces provided between osteotomy and dental implant design freatures

2: secondary osseointegration. the process of functional connection between bone and dental implant. living bone cells grow into the surface of the dental implant

67
Q

What does granulation tissue mean?

A

Granulation tissue is new connective tissue and microscopic blood vessels that form on the surfaces of a wound during the healing process. Granulation tissue typically grows from the base of a wound and is able to fill wounds of almost any size.

68
Q

what is supra-crestal soft tissue like for teeth vs implant?

A

more fibroblasts, less collagen, collagen fibres orientated perpendicular to root

for implant -
less fibroblasts
more collagen
collagen fibred parallel to implant crown

this will affect probing

69
Q

what is sub-crestal tissue like for teeth vs implant?

A

tooth
anchored to bone by PDL complex, physiologic adaption, resillient

implant - anchored with direct functional contact
no physiolocical adaption

70
Q

What are implant material options?

A

Titanium, Ti-Zr (stronger than Ti) ceramic (yittra stabilised zirconia. non-metallic coloured, high survival

71
Q

What are the implant design options and what are the benefits?

A

bone level implants, tapered, straight, tissue level
different diameters and lengths - select due to site, indication and local anatomy
bone level for aesthetic areas
tissue level for posterior
tapered for root convergence areas

surface treatments - different roughnesses, and different treatment (sand blasting, acid etch, plasma spray) all designed for cells to stick to to aid osseointegration

72
Q

what are the purpose of implants

A

replace missing teeth - function, aesthetics, psychologically

it is a replacement for a missing tooth, not a natural tooth

73
Q

what is involved in the patient assessment?

A 
CO, motivation, MH, DH, SH, age/skeletal maturity
mouth level - 
EOE - aesthetic zone
IOI
smile line
vertical maxillary excess
site level
74
Q

what parts of MH can affect survival or success of implant?

A

ASA classification, haematological probems

medications (SSRIs, PPIs, BPs, Steroids), RTxH&N, poorly controlled diabetes, CVD

75
Q

What parts of SH can affect survival of implant

A

smoking - dose dependant <10 medium risk, >10 high risk

affects vascularity, fibroblast and osteoblast function

76
Q

When is the earliest you can place an implant?

A

After the cessation of growth (around 20).
if not skeletally mature - get relative infra occlusion, sub optimal aesthetics
implant fenestration, occlusal disharmony

77
Q

How does the width of the span affect implants?

A

too narrow can damage adjacent teeth or roots, risk of necrosis between teeth and implants

too wide - hard to fill, leave residual space
assess space in 3d (CBCT)

need to be aware of local anatomy

78
Q

What diagnositic aids are there?

A

study models, Dx wax ups, surgical template, essex retainer, clinical photos, CBCT, surgical guide

79
Q

how close can implants be to adjacent teeth?

A

minimum distance of 1.5mm

if you are placing two implants together then they need twice the biologic width

80
Q

What nerves do you need to anaesthetise to extract a lower permanent molar?

A

inferior alveolar nerve, long buccal, lingual nerve

81
Q

how to do check for IAN, long buccal and lingual nerve for anaesthesia?

A

check for altered sensation in the lower lip on that side, gingivae around the tooth (buccal and lingual side), altered sensation in that side of the tongue

82
Q

What are different IDB techniques?

A

Halsteads technique
Indirect technique
Anterior ramus technique (limited mouth opening)
Gow-gates technique (long buccal at same time)
Akinosi (limited mouth opening and long buccal at the same time)

83
Q

What principles of flap design should you adhere to when raising a mucoperiosteal flap?

A 
Avoid vital structures
full thickness of flap raised - not saw-toothed
edges must close over bone
base must be wider than the apex
provide access to the surgical site
be able to be closed at the end of surgery
minimise trauma to papilla
reflect flap clealy
healing by primary intention
84
Q

What guidelines can you follow for determining the removal of a wisdom tooth?

A

NICE (guidance on the extraction of wisdom teeth)

SIGN 43

85
Q

How would you judge the relationship of a root to the IAN?

A

Radiographically:

  1. do the tramlines converge or disappear
  2. is there a shadow across the root
  3. loss of the cortical outline as it passes the root
  4. deflection of the roots
  5. bifid root apices
  6. diversion of the canal
  7. juxta apical area
86
Q

What are indications for 3rd molar removal?

A 
recurrent cases of pericoronitis
caries in 8/7
periodontal disease
cystic change
external resorption of 8/7
mandibular fracture
tumour resection
autogenous transplantation to 1st molar socket
pt unlikely to be able to access dental care for significant period of time
orthognathic surgery
GA required anyway
87
Q

What are contraindications for 3rd molar removal?

A 
likely to erupt and be functional
medically contraindicated
no local/systemic issues
high risk of surgical fracture
close association with IAN
88
Q

What information is given for consent?

A

must be written and verbal
description of procedure in patient friendly terms
risks/warnings - pain, swelling, bruising, bleeding, infection, dry socket, jaw stiffness, damage to adjacent, potential damage to nerves (specifically - permanent risk, temporary risk, what it will feel like, distribution), jaw fracture, anesthetic

89
Q

When would you consider a coronectomy?

A

when there is significant damage to IAN or fracture of jaw.
When you want to deliberately retain the roots

if you mobilise the roots at all, you must remove them

might need second surgery for removal

90
Q

What are bisphosphonates and what are the risk categories?

A

anti resoptive drugs.
If patient has Hx of MRONJ, on BPs for Tx of cancer, taken them >5 years and concurrent Tx with glucocorticoid puts patient in high risk

91
Q

When would you refer a patient at risk of MRONJ?

A

if an extraction socket has not healed within 8 weeks, or there is evidence of spontaneous MRONJ - refer to oral surgery/SCD

92
Q

You have a patient who is about to start treatment with BPs, how would you manage them?

A
  1. OH is imperative - consequences of not
  2. examine dental tissues for evidence of active infection - Tx
  3. examine prosthesis for trauma potential
  4. teeth with poor prognoses/ poor long term retention XLa
  5. educate pt on signs and symptoms of MRONJ
  6. must be dentally fit before treatment starts
93
Q

Patient on BPs at high risk needs XLA. How would you manage them?

A

pre-operative rinse with CHX, atruamatic surgical technique, primary closure of soft tissues without stripping periosteum
post-operative CHX until mucosa has healed. review patient until socket has healed.
do not attempt further XLA until socket has healed

94
Q

How would you diagnose pt with MRONJ?

A

be on, or have been on, anti-resorptive medication
exposed bone or probe bone through fistula of maxfacs region >8 weeks
no obvious metastatic disease to the jaws

95
Q

Why might a patient be on anti-resorptive drugs?

A 
osteoporosis
prevention of skull fractures
Paget's disease of the bone,
metastatic bone disease
multiple myeloma
renal cell carcinoma
96
Q

What is used for IHS?

A

nitrous oxide

97
Q

What are safety mechanisms on the IHS machine?

A
  • Colour coding
  • pin attachement system wont allow the wrong gas cannister
  • active scavenger
  • will cut out if the oxygen flow stops
  • back up cylinder carried
  • minimum oxygen concentration of 30%
  • tubing diameter wont allow wrong cylinder connectin
  • ## oxygen flush button
98
Q

What is conscious sedation?

A

Medically induced state of relaxation where verbal communication with the patient is not lost. can be inhalational or intravenous, or oral

99
Q

What are indications for conscious sedation?

A

anxious patients
medical conditions restricting access ot oral cavity
strong gag reflex

100
Q

What is used for IV sedation and what dose?

A

Midazloam, 5mg in 5ml, give 1-2ml bolus, then 1ml every minute until sufficient level of sedation achieved

101
Q

What is the reversal agent for midazolam and the dose?

A

Flumazenil is given - a short acting benzo with increased affinity for GABA receptor. 200ug in 15 seconds, 100ug per min until reversal occurs
as short acting, might need more doses

102
Q

What can cause displacement of a mandibular fracture

A

unfavourable fracture line
excessive force
actions of muscles

103
Q

What are different types of implants?

A

bone level, tissue level, ceramic, titanium/zirconia or titanium type 4, roxolid surface, different diameters, tapered

104
Q

How are implants treated to increase bone contact?

A

sandblasting and acid etching the surface

105
Q

What are primary and secondary stablility?

A

primary - osteoclasts removing surface of implant

secondary - osteoblasts building bone around

106
Q

When would you use a tapered implant?

A

when you need increased primary stability - when you want to place a crown immediately

107
Q

What would patients complain of if they have an OAF?

A 
fluids in nose
nasal tone to speech
problems playing wind instruments
problems smoking or using straws
halitosis/bad taste/pus
sinusitis
108
Q

How do you tread OAF?

A 
• Excise sinus tract/fistula
• Buccal Advancement Flap
• Buccal Fat Pad with Buccal Advancement
Flap
• Palatal Flap
• Bone Graft/Collagen Membrane
109
Q

What are diagnostic criteria for a fractured maxillary tuberosity?

how would you manage?

A

noise
movement (seen or felt)
>1 tooth moves
tear of mucosa on palate

dissect and close wound/reduce with forceps and stabilise (ortho wire + Composite, arch bar, splints)
any teeth involved need RCT
check occlusion is free
review 8 wks

110
Q

What radiographic views would you take to identify a root/tooth in the antrum?

A

OPT
upper occlusal
periapical

111
Q

how would you retrieve a root from max antrum?

A 
• If retrievable remove at once
• If not:
-inform patient
-take a radiograph
-document in patient notes
-place patient on appropriate medications
-refer patient to OMFS or ENT
through socket
small curettes
irrigation
ribbon gauze
cauldwell-luc procedure
endoscopic retrieval
112
Q

What dental causes can sinusitis mimic?

A
  • Periapical abscess
  • Periodontal infection
  • Deep caries
  • Recent extraction socket
  • MFPDS
  • Neuralgia or atypical facial pain
113
Q

What would you use to remove bone from a socket?

A

rongeurs (bone nibblers)

114
Q

How do you keep the open exposure of a canine open?

A

use whiteshead varnishpack - physical barrier to healing closed
use horizontal mattress suture to hold in place

115
Q

What are the different lines for reading an OM radiograph

A

first line is traced from one zygomaticofrontal suture to another, across the superior edge of the orbits
second line traces the zygomatic arch, crosses the zygomatic bone, and traces across the inferior orbital margins to the contralateral zygomatic arch
third line connects the condyle and coronoid process of the mandible and the maxillary antra on both sides
fourth line crosses the mandibular ramus and the occlusal plane of the teeth
The face is inspected for any asymmetry along these lines and Dolan’s lines.

116
Q

What are dolans lines?

A

secondary lines for reading an OM view

orbital line traces the inner margins of the lateral, inferior, and medial orbital walls, and the nasal arch
zygomatic line traces the superior margin of the zygomatic arch and body, extending along the frontal process of the zygoma to the zygomaticofrontal suture
maxillary line traces the inferior margin of the zygomatic arch, body, and buttress, and the lateral wall of the maxillary sinus

117
Q

Patient has diplopia and unable to look up - what is the underlying injury? how would you investigate?

A

orbital floor fracture
order Hess chart to asssess mobility
CT scan

118
Q

list the aetiology of facial hard tissue trauma

A 
Assault 65 %
Fall 15%
Sports 9%
RTA 9%
Industrial
Iatrogenic
War
Associated with Social circumstances, alcohol,drugs and
unemployment
119
Q

What are the different imaging views you would take for a facial trauma?

A 
Plain Radiographs:
–OPG/PA Mandible
–OM 15/30 Views (facial views)
• CT Imaging
–Midface and Orbital injuries
–Axial and Coronal fine cuts required
–3-dimensional CT
120
Q

a symphyseal fracture is one type of fracture to the mandible, list the rest

A 
body
parasymphyseal
condylar
subcondylar
coronoid process
ramus
angle
121
Q

What are Hendersons 7 classifications of ZOM fractures?

A
  1. undisplaced
  2. zygomatic arch
  3. tripod # with f-z undisplaced
  4. tripod # with f-z displaced
  5. orbital blow out
  6. orbital rim
  7. communited
122
Q

What is the surgical manouver to lift a fractured zygoma?

A

gillies lift

123
Q

What is the aetiology behind panfacial and maxillary fractures?

A

high energy forces (RTA, falls, assault, industrial injuries, ballistics)

124
Q

how would a patient present with a mid face fracture?

A

palatal bruising
bilateral periorbital ecchymosis
oral step deformities

125
Q

what is a retrobublar haemorrhage?

A

medical emergency - loss of vision is possible
onset of decreasing visual acuity, pain, proptosis, opthalmoplegia, Hx of trauma
needs lateral canthotomy to decompess the orbital compartment syndrome

126
Q

which nerves are at risk of damage form 8s removal?

A

lingual
IAN
mylohyoid
long buccal

127
Q

When assessing a 3rd molar for removal, what does the depth indicate?

A
  • Superficial – crown of 8 related to crown of 7
  • Moderate – crown of 8 related to crown and root of 7
  • Deep – crown of 8 related to root of 7
128
Q

Signs and symptoms of peridoconitis

A
  • Pain
  • Swelling – Intra or extraoral
  • Bad taste
  • Pus discharge
  • Occlusal trauma to operculum
  • Ulceration of operculum
  • Evidence of cheek biting
  • Foetor oris
  • Limited mouth opening
  • Dysphagia
  • Pyrexia
  • Malaise
  • Regional lymphadenopathy
129
Q

Where can swelling from pericoronitis extend to?

A

extraoral - angle of mand, sub mand

laterally to cheek
submasseteric space
sublingual/submand
parapharyngeal space

130
Q

How do you treat pericoronitis?

A 
I+D of abscess if required
LA if required
irrigate with warm saline under operculum
XLA upper 8s if traumatising operculum
frequent HSMW
analgesia
only ABs if systemically unwell
131
Q

What are the stages of surgery for 8s removal?

A
  • Anaesthesia
  • Access
  • Bone removal as necessary
  • Tooth division as necessary
  • Debridement
  • Suture
  • Achieve haemostasis
  • Post-operative instructions
  • Post-operative medication
132
Q

What would you use for soft tissue elevation and retraction?

A

Howarths periosteal elevator
wards periosteal elevator
buser periosteal elevator

bowdler-henry rake retractor
Lacks retractor
minnesota retractor

133
Q

List some uses of elevators

A
  • To provide a point of application for forceps
  • To loosen teeth prior to using forceps
  • To extract a tooth without the use of forceps
  • Removal of multiple root stumps
  • Removal of retained roots
  • Removal of root apices
134
Q

Where are the application points for an elevator and what actions would you use?

A

mesial, buccal and distal

wheel and axle, wedge, lever

135
Q

What instruments could be used to debride a socket after extraction?

A 
bone file
mitchells trimmer
victoria curette
irrigation
suction
136
Q

List post-op analgesia and doses

A

Ibuprofen – 200 or 400mg, 6 hourly or 3 times daily.
Avoid in asthmatics, bleeding disorders/Warfarin, on other
NSAIDs – see BNF. Note some asthmatics can take it but
check, and if they’ve never had it don’t prescribe it.
• Paracetamol 500mg tablets, 2 tabs 4-6 hourly, no more
than 8 a day. Overdose serious.
• Cocodamol – contains 8mg codeine and 500mg
Paracetamol (stronger contains 30mg codeine/500mg
Paracetamol). 2 Tabs 4-6 hourly, do not exceed 8 in a day.

137
Q

Whats the surgical procedure for a coronectomy?

A 
consent
LA
raise flap
transsect tooth 3-4mm below ADJ
elevate crown (dont mobilise roots)
leave pulp
can reduce roots below alveolar crest if poss
irrigate socket 
replace flap - can be physiological closure or primary closure
post op advice
138
Q

How do you reduce the chance of a fractured tuberosity in 8s removal?

A

not last standing tooth

support with finger and thumb

139
Q

list some perioperative complications of surgery

A 
# tooth/root/adjacent 
lingual plate/alveolus/mandible #
max tuberosity #
OAC/loss of tooth into sinus
trauma to IAN
bleeding
crush/puncture/laceration injuries to soft tissue
burns
140
Q

list some postoperative complications of surgery

A 
pain
swelling
bruising
trismus
para/ana/dysaesthesia
altered taste
infection
dry socket
port op bleeding
haematoma
osteomyelitis
MRONJ/ORNJ
actinomycosis
141
Q

what are post operative techniques for controlling bleeding?

A

• Post-operative
– Pressure (finger or via swab or pack)
– LA with vasoconstrictor infiltration in
soft tissues, inject into socket, or on a
swab
– Diathermy
– Haemostatic Agents – Surgicel/Kaltostat
– Sutures
– Bone wax smeared on socket wall with
blunt instrument
– Haemostatic forceps/ artery clips

142
Q

what are peri-operative techniques for controlling bleeding?

A 
Peri-operative
– Pressure
– LA with vasoconstrictor
– Artery forceps
– Diathermy
– Bone wax
143
Q

what are symptoms of OAC?

A 
hollow suction
nasal sounding voice
air coming through mouth
bubbling of blood
pt hold nose and breathe out when you look in mouth you can see air
144
Q

What would you prescribe for OAC after closing?

A 
SDCEP sinusitis meds
amox 500mg TDS 7/7
ephedrine nasal drops 0.5% one in each nostril TDS
menthol crystals steam inhalation
CHX MW 0.2%
145
Q

how can you close an OAF?

A

remove ep lining.
full thickness buccal advancement flap
split thickness palatal rotational flap
buccal fat pad

146
Q

how can you retrieve a root in the antrum?

A

ribbon gauze
suction
patient can move their head to move it around
endoscope removal

147
Q

What benefits does IHS have over IVS?

A
  • non escort needed
  • no needles
  • rapid recover
  • controls gag reflex
  • little effect on CV and resp
  • easier to change level of sedation and reverse
  • no metabolism of drug
  • fewer side effects
  • mild analgesia
148
Q

What are the doses of meds for IVS?

A

midazolam at 1mg/ml, give 1 ml bolus followed by 1ml every min until level of sedation achieved. normally 5-7mg

flumazenil at 100ug/ml - give 1ml

149
Q

what drugs can affect clot formation and how?

A

aspirin - prevents platelet aggregation
warfarin - prevents formation of clotting factors
herparin - reduces action of platelets
NOACs - direct factor X inhibitors

Dentistry BDS4 (20 decks)

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