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Dragon Fruit > C > Flashcards

C Flashcards

1
Q

What is the ECAM definition of a memo?

A

Functions or systems that are used temporarily in normal ops.

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2
Q

What is a primary failure?

A

A failure of a system that costs the aircraft the use of other systems.

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3
Q

Which computer generates Cautions and Warnings?

A

FWC

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4
Q

What is the significance of a Level 2 Amber caution?

A

The flight crew should be aware of the configuration or failure

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5
Q

In the event of DMC 1 failing, how will it be indicated?

A

PFD1, ND1 and upper ECAM DU will display a diagonal line

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6
Q

The lower ECAM DU can display 12 system pages, which page cannot be selected manually?

A

Cruise page

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7
Q

If the ECAM control panel fails, which pushbuttons should still be available?

A

CLR, RCL, STS, EMER CANC. and ALL.

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8
Q

When does the LDG INHIBIT memo appear on ECAM?

A

800Ft to 80Kts

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9
Q

What is the significance of ECAM text being coloured blue?

A

These are actions to be carried out or limitations.

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10
Q

Only one ECAM display is powered. How can a system page be displayed?

A

Press the related page button for a maximum of 30 seconds

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11
Q

What are the indications for an APU auto shutdown?

A

APU Fault light and an Auto Shutdown caution on ECAM

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12
Q

The APU had been supplying bleed air before it was shut down. How long will the APU continue to run?

A

60-120 seconds

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13
Q

Which of the following would automatically activate the CVR?

A

On the ground, during the first five minutes after electric network energised.

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14
Q

Which buses are powered by the Emergency Generator?

A

AC Ess, AC Ess Shed, DC Ess and DC Ess Shed

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15
Q

With the engines shut down, what indication shows in the Generator Control switches with Bat. and Grd. Pwr. connected?

A

Fault.

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16
Q

How long does a monitored CB have to be tripped before an ECAM warning is triggered?

A

One minute

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17
Q

What is the power supply that charges the batteries?

A

DC BAT Bus through the Battery Charge Limiters

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18
Q

What source powers the GND/FLT buses with the Maint. Bus switch on?

A

External Power only.

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19
Q

When is the HDG/TRK preset function available?

A

Takeoff up to 30Ft RA and LOC* through to Go around.

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20
Q

What pitch and roll annunciations would you expect to see passing 40’ RA?

A

Flare

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21
Q

Passing through 200’ RA on an autoland approach, you experience a 1/2 dot localiser deviation. What warnings will be given?

A

Localiser and glideslope scales flash, with red autoland warning.

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22
Q

What does a white box around a FMA mode indicate?

A

Mode has been engaged within the last 10/15 seconds.

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23
Q

During a climb at 300Kts, what would happen if the Expedite button were pushed?

A

The target speed for pitch becomes green dot speed.

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24
Q

When is the Altitude Alert inhibited?

A

When the landing gear is locked down.

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25
Q

What PFD indication does Altitude Alert provide during deviation from selected altitude?

A

250Ft away, the Alt window on the PFD flashes amber and you will hear a continuous C chord.

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26
Q

How is the secondary flight plan shown on the ND

A

Continuous white line.

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27
Q

How is a primary flight plan shown on the ND when in heading mode?

A

Dotted green line

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28
Q

How is an active flight plan TO waypoint depicted on the ND?

A

White diamond.

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29
Q

TCAS is active. How is a TA Intruder shown on the ND?

A

An amber circle.

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30
Q

Managed descent mode is disengaged during a descent. What mode will the system revert to?

A

V/S.

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31
Q

What is the normal pneumatic system pressure?

A

45 psi ± 5

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32
Q

The engines are supplying bleed air, what happens when the APU bleed switch is pressed?

A

Both engine bleeds close ,the APU bleed valve and the X bleed open.

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33
Q

Where is the air precooler outlet temperature indicator?

A

On the ECAM BLEED page

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34
Q

You have 140 passengers on board an A320. What pack flow rate should be selected?

A

NORM

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35
Q

In single pack operation, what flow rate will be selected automatically?

A

HI

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36
Q

In total, how many pack control valves are fitted between the pneumatic system and the mixer unit?

A

Two

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37
Q

The ground icon appears on the Bleed page whenever…….

A

the aircraft is on the ground.

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38
Q

The CAB FANS switch on the overhead panel, control fans for…

A

Cabin Air re-circulation

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39
Q

When is gravity feeding of fuel from the Centre Tanks possible?

A

Never.

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40
Q

What indication would you expect if ECAM detects a difference of more than 1500Kgs between the contents of the wing tanks ?

A

The highest fuel quantity indication pulses in green.

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41
Q

When compared to forward idle thrust, reverse idle thrust is…?

A

Higher than forward idle.

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42
Q

What does the small white circle by the EPR indicator show?

A

Thrust lever position.

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43
Q

What will ECAM display if an engine hydraulic pump is on, but pressure is low?

A

“LO” in amber

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44
Q

Which hydraulic system powers the cargo doors

A

Yellow system.

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45
Q

During ALTERNATE braking, which hydraulic system powers the brakes and anti-skid?

A

Yellow

46
Q

What is the maximum allowable speed to lower the landing gear?

A

250Kts.

47
Q

In Normal Law, you are holding 15° of bank. When you release the sidestick, what bank angle will the aircraft adopt?

A

15°

48
Q

A single SFCC has failed. Which of the following is true?

A

The slats and flaps operate at half speed

49
Q

When will the Flap legend on the EWD turn amber?

A

The wingtip brakes are on.

50
Q

What is the significance of the Red APU Extinguisher disc on the rear fuselage?

A

If it is visible, no overpressure discharge has occurred.

51
Q

How many fire detection loops are there in the APU?

A

2.

52
Q

With the windshield heat selected to AUTO, the system is activated when the…

A

First engine is started.

53
Q

When will the Wing anti ice system be inhibited when switched on?

A

On the ground.

54
Q

What are you looking for on the ECAM DOOR page during the Safety Check?

A

No amber half box.

55
Q

How many VHF radio transmitters can be selected at the same time by one RMP?

A

1.

56
Q

How many passenger doors does the A319/20/21 have?

A

4.

57
Q

In clean config, what are the manoeuvring load acceleration limits?

A

-1G to +2.5G

58
Q

What is the maximum demonstrated crosswind for take off?

A

29kts gusting to 38kts

59
Q

What is the maximum speed at which the cockpit window may be opened?

A

200kts

60
Q

What is the maximum tyre limiting speed?

A

195kts

61
Q

What is the maximum crosswind limit for a CATII/CATIII

Automatic approach?

A

20kts

62
Q

What is the maximum allowable imbalance between the outer tanks on an A319/320?

A

530kg

63
Q

A319/320(IAE) has the park brake set to ON. What is the maximum
EPR that may be set on both engines?

A

1.50

64
Q

What is the maximum recommended bank angle during normal operation?

A

25°

65
Q

Which of the following messages may be displayed and still allow you to start the APU?

A

ADD OIL

66
Q

What is the maximum altitude for flight with Flaps/Slats extended?

A

20,000ft

67
Q

What is the minimum oil pressure for the IAE?

A

60 psi

68
Q

What are the starter motor limitations for the IAE engine?

A

3 cycles , 2 of 2 minutes, 1 of 1 minute.

69
Q

A WET Runway is defined as?

A

A shiny appearance and up to 3mm of water on surface

70
Q

If you are planning to take off from a WET runway, the determination of take off distance with one engine inoperative is based on clearing a
a screen height of?

A

15 feet

71
Q

If a take off is to be performed on a contaminated runway, the minimum cleared runway width should be:

A

30m

72
Q

What is ASDA?

A

TORA + STOPWAY

73
Q

Which of the following factors must V1 never exceed?

A

VMBE

74
Q

V1 must never be less than which of the following factors?

A

VMCG

75
Q

Which of the following aircraft systems are NOT taken into account
during dry runway take off distance calculations

A

Reverse Thrust

76
Q

What does a cost index of 00 on a Cirrus Flight plan mean?

A

Minimum fuel.

77
Q

During refuelling, if the fuel level selected means that the centre tank will contain fuel. Which tanks are fuelled first?

A

Outer and centre tanks

78
Q

For a load sheet to be in compliance, what is the limitation on TOW?

A

+1000kgs or –2000kgs

79
Q

When are the engine fire warnings inhibited?

A

Engine fire warnings are never inhibited.

80
Q

What happens if an APU fire warning occurs when airborne?

A

The APU will not auto shutdown and the crew must action the APU fire drill.

81
Q

What is the effect of the cabin altitude going above 9550 ft?

A

Master warning light, repetitive chime and EXCESS CAB ALT on the EWD.

82
Q

Which is the first memory action when an emergency descent is initiated?

A

CREW OXYGEN MASK ………. ON

83
Q

AC Bus1 and AC Bus2 fail in flight, how long should RAT extension and emergency generator coupling take?

A

8 seconds.

84
Q

How long may TOGA power be selected if an engine fails during take off?

A

10 minutes.

85
Q

When performing a MANUAL engine start what is the first memory action if an engine tailpipe fire occurs?

A

MAN START ………. OFF

86
Q

If required the passenger oxygen masks may be deployed manually by operation of which control?

A

The MASK MAN ON switch on the flight deck overhead panel.

87
Q

What does a Transmissometer measure?

A

Runway visual range.

88
Q

What actions are required before touchdown if visual reference is lost below DH?

A

Immediate go around

89
Q

Which is the alert height during a CAT 3 fail operational dual autoland?

A

100 feet radio

90
Q

Which flap setting is recommended for CAT 2/3 landings?

A

Flap full.

91
Q

What result would you expect during the autoland light test?

A

Red autoland light and ILS deviation scales flash.

92
Q

How is excess ILS localiser deviation indicated once the aircraft descends below 400 feet radio on the approach?

A

Localiser scale on the PFD will flash.

93
Q

During an autoland approach at which radio altimeter height should LAND annunciate on the FMAs ?

A

400 feet radio.

94
Q

During an autoland approach at which radio altimeter height should rollout annunciate on the FMAs ?

A

0 feet radio on touchdown.

95
Q

When will the Sidestick position (order) indicator first be displayed on the PFD?

A

As soon as one engine is started.

96
Q

When is the Stall Warning Speed (VSW) displayed on the PFD ?

A

When operating in pitch alternate or pitch direct law.

97
Q

What happens if the Captain’s PFDU fails?

A

The PFD transfers automatically to the Captain’s NDU.

98
Q

What happens to the VS digital display as vertical speed drops below
200 fpm?

A

It disappears

99
Q

What does it signify if the PFD target airspeed is blue?

A

That it is the FCU selected speed.

100
Q

What does the yellow speed trend indicate?

A

The tip shows the speed the a/c will reach in 10 seconds.

101
Q

What colour is the ADF Navaid identification on the ND?

A

Green.

102
Q

When does the PFD Radio Altitude display appear during descent?

A

2500’ RA

103
Q

If IMM EXIT is depressed whilst in the hold, how will the aircraft depart?

A

Immediate turn to overfly the fix, and then pick up course to the next waypoint.

104
Q

When does the INIT B Page automatically revert to FUEL PRED page?

A

After the first engine is started

105
Q

During a managed climb, what would the mode annunciations for Autothrust and Pitch be?

A

THR CLB and CLB

106
Q

How are pseudo waypoints shown?

A

In parentheses or brackets.

107
Q

How is Aircraft Status page displayed?

A

Automatically at power up or by pressing the DATA key.

108
Q

hat is the significance of amber box screen prompts on the MCDU?

A

Data entry is mandatory for FMGC to perform all functions

109
Q

Which page would you use to cross-check the Nav. Accuracy of the FMS, if required?

A

PROG

110
Q

If the MCDU locks up, how is the system reset?

A

Pull the associated circuit breaker, then reset.

Dragon Fruit (13 decks)

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