Cardiology embryo and physio Flashcards

1
Q

gives rise to :

  1. smooth parts (outflow tract) or left and right ventricles
  2. atrial septum, membraneous interventricular septum, (AV and semilunar valves)
  3. coronary sinus
  4. inferior vena cava
  5. trabeculated part of the left and right atria
  6. smooth part of left atrium
  7. tracbeculated part of the left and right ventricles
  8. superior vena cava
  9. smooth part of the right atrium (sinus venarum)
  10. ascending aorta and pulmonary trunk
A
  1. bulbus cordis
  2. endocardial cushion
  3. left horn of sinus venosus
  4. posterior, subcardinal and supracardinal veins
  5. primitive atrium
  6. primitive pulmonary vein
  7. primitive ventricles
  8. right common cardinal vein, and right anterior cardinal vein
  9. right horn of sinus vensous
  10. truncus arteriosus
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2
Q

primary heart tube loops to establish L-R polarity beginning week 4 of gestation

Defect in L-R Dynein can lead to dextrocardia as seen in kartagener syndrome (primary ciliary dyskinesia)

A

cardiac looping

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3
Q

what is the process of sepatation of the chambers

atria

  1. septum primum grows toawrd endocardial cushions, a narrow foramen primum forms
  2. foramen secundum forms in septum primum (foramen primum disappears)
  3. septum secundum develops as the foramen secundum maintain R-L shunt
  4. septum secundum expands and covers most of the foramen and form the foramen ovale
  5. remaining portion of the septum primum forms valve of the foramen ovale
  6. septum secundum and septum primum fuse to form the atrial septum
  7. foramen ovale usually closes soon after birth because of increase LA and decrease RA pressure

what happens when the septum primum and septum secundum fails to fuse after birth?

A

patent foramen ovale- if left untreated can lead to paradoxical emboli (venous thromboemboli that enter systemic arterial circulation) similar to those resulting from the ASD.

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4
Q

ventricles

  1. muscular interventricular septum forms to form the opening of the interventricular foramen
  2. aorticopulmonary septum rotates and fuse with muscular ventricular septum to form the membranous interventricular septum, closing the interventricular foramen
  3. growth of endocardial cushion separates atria from ventricles

what is the most common congenital cardiac anomaly that occur int he membranous septum?

A

ventricular septal defect

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5
Q
  1. what forms the ascending aorta and pulmonary trunk?
  2. what fuses to form that?
  3. what structures migrate to form that?
A
  1. aorticopulmonary septum
  2. truncal and bulbar ridges
  3. neural crest and endocardial cushion
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6
Q
  1. aortic/ pulmonary valves derived from?
  2. mitral/tricuspid: derived from what?
A
  1. endocardial cushions of outflow tract
  2. fused endocardial cushions of AV canal
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7
Q

what is the process of fetal circulation?

remember umbilical vein carries oxygenated blood and umbilical arteries carried deoxygenated blood.

  1. blood enters fetus through umbilical vein conducted via ductus venosus into the IVC to bypass the hepatic circulation
  2. high oxygenated blood that reaches the heart via IVC is directed by the foramen ovale
  3. deoxygenated blood from SVC pass through the RA–> RV–> main pulmonary artery –> ductus arteriosus–> descending aorta due to high pulmonary artery resistance

what happens are birth that changes every?

A

infant takes breath leading to reduced resistance in pulmonary vasculature –> increase left atrial pressure compared to RA pressure–> foramen ovale closes (now called fossa ovalis).

the increase O2 and decrease prostaglandins (from the placental separation) –> closure of the ductus arteriosus

  1. indomethacin helps PDA –> ligamentum arteriosum
  2. prostaglandiss E1 and E2 keeps the PDA open
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8
Q

fetal structures

  1. allantois–> urachus
  2. ductus arteriosus
  3. ductus venosus
  4. foramen ovale
  5. notochord
  6. umbilical arteries
  7. umbilical vein
A

post-natal derivates

  1. median umbilical ligament
    - note: urachus is part of the allantoic duct between bladder and umbilicus
  2. ligamentum arteriosum
    - note: near the left recurrent largyneal nerve
  3. ligamentum venosum
  4. fossa ovalis
  5. nucleus pulposus
  6. medial umbilical ligaments
  7. ligamentum teres hepatis (round ligament)
    - note: contained in falciform ligament
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9
Q
  1. what is the most most posterior part of the heart?
  2. enlargement can causes dysphagia (due to compression of the esophagus) or horseness (compression of the left recurrent (a branch of the vagus nerve))
  3. which chamber is the most anterior part of the heart making it prone to injury and trauma?
A
  1. LA
  2. RV
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10
Q

3 layers of the heart (from outer to inner)

  • fibrous pericardium
  • parietal layer of the serous pericardium
  • visceral layer of the serous pericardium

pericardial cavity is between the parietal and viceral layer

1. which nerve innverate the pericardium?

2. where does pericarditis referred pain to?

A
  1. phrenic nerve
  2. pericarditis referred pain to the neck, arms, and one or both shoulders (often the left)
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11
Q

LAD-and its branches supply the anterior 2/3 of the interventricular septum, anteriolateral papillary, anterior surface of the LV and most commonly occluded

PDA- supplies AV nodes (dependent on dominance), 1/3 of interventricular septum and posterior 1/3 of the ventricle wall. supplies posteriomedial papillary muscles

-right marginal artery supplies RV

RCA- supplies SA node (independent of dominance). infarct may cause nodal dysfucntion (bradycardia or heart block)

describe the dominance

A

right dominance circulation (85%) = PDA arises from RCA

Left-dominant circulation (8%) = PDA arises from LCX

codominant circulation (7%)= PDA arises from LCX an RCA

coronary flow peaks during diastole

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12
Q
  1. which volume is affected by contractility, afterload and preload?
  2. what causes answer volume in terms of these variables?
  3. what happens during heart failure?
A
  1. stroke volume
  2. increased contractility, increased preload, decrease afterload
  3. decreased SV
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13
Q

catecholamines stimulate beta-recetors –> calcium channels get phosphorylated–> increase calcium entry–> Ca induce more Ca release from sarcoplasmic reticulum

phospholamban phosphorylation activate Ca ATPase to increase Ca storage in SR

  1. phospholamban is an inhibitor of cardiac muscle sarcoplasmic reticulum Ca++-ATPase (SERCA2) which transports calcium from cytosol into the sarcoplasmic reticulum. When phosphorylated (by PKA) - disinhibition of Ca++-ATPase of SR leads to faster Ca++ uptake into the sarcoplasmic reticulum
    - increase intracellular Ca
    - decrease intracellular Na (decrease activity of Na/Ca exchanger)

what does digitalis do?

which factors can decrease contractility?

A

digitalis- block Na/K pump to increase Na intracellularly leading to decrease Na/Ca exchanger–> increase intracellular Ca

factors decreases contractility

B1-blackers

HF with systolic dusfunction

acidosis

hypoxia/hypercapnia

non-dihydropyridine Ca channel blockers

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14
Q

preload determined by ventricular EDV and depends on venous tone and circulating blood

what drugs can decrease preload?

A

venous vasodilator (nitroglycerin)

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15
Q

afterload approximated by MAP

increase afterload–> increase pressure–> increase wall tension per Laplace’s law

1. How does the LV compensate for the increased afterload?

2. which drugs decrease afterload?

A
  1. the LV hypertrophy to decrease the wall tension

2. arterial vasodilator (hydralazine) decreases afterload

ACE inhibitor and ARB decrease both preload and afterload

chronic HTN (MAP) –> LV hypertrophy

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16
Q

mycocardial O2 demand increased by

increase: contractility, afterload, HR, diameter of ventricles (increase wall tension)

what is Laplace’s law?

A

wall tension follows Laplace’s law

wall tension= pressure X radius

wall stress= (pressure X radius)/ 2 X wall thickness

17
Q

stroke volume= EDV-ESV

Ejection fraction= SV/EDV or (EDV-ESV)/EDV

CO+ SV X HR

pulse pressure: PP= SBP-DBP

Mean arterial pressure= CO X TRP

A

EF is an index of ventricular contractility (decreased in systolic HF; normal in diastolic HF)

early stages of exercise, CO maintained by increase HR, and increase SV. later stages CO maintained by increased HR only (SV plateaus)

diastole is shortened with increase HR (ventricular tachycardia)–> decreased diastolic filling time –> decreased SV

increased PP in hyperthyroidism, aortic regurg, sortic stiffening (isolated systolic HTN in elderly), obstructive sleep apnea, exercise (transient)

decreased PP in aortic stenosism cardiogenic shock, tamponade, advanced HF

MAP (at resting HR)= 2/3 DBP + 1/3 SBP or DBP + 1/3 PP

18
Q

change in pressure is QXR

Q= volumetric flow rate = flow velocity (v) X cross-sectionall area (A)

resistance is increased with viscosity, length, decreased by radius

increased in resistance if placed in series (R1+R2), decreased resistance if placed in parallel (1/R1 + 1/R2)

A

1. capillaries have highest total cross-sectional area and lowest flow velocity

  1. pressure gradient drive the flow velocity from high to low

3. arterioles have the most TPR and veins provide most blood storage capacity

  1. viscosity depends on Hct
  2. viscosity increased in hyperproteinemic states (multiple myeloma), polycythemia

5. viscosity decrease in anemia

6. compliance = changed in volume/change in pressure

19
Q

give examples of each (both negative and positive)

  1. inotropy
  2. venous return
  3. total peripheral resistance
A
  1. catecholamine, digoxin, exercise (positive)
  2. HF with reduced EF, narcotic overdose, sympathetic inhibition (negative)
  3. fluid infusion, sympathetic activity (postive)
  4. acute hemorrhage, spinal anesthesia (negative)
  5. vasopressin (+)
  6. exercsie, AV shunt (-)
20
Q
  1. isovolumetric contraction-period between mitral closing and aortic opening
  2. systolic ejection- between aortic opening and closing

isovolmetric relaxation-between aortic closing and mitral opening

reduced filling- period just before mitral closing

A

heart sounds

S1: mitral and tricuspid closure (loudest at mitral area)

S2: aortic and pulmonary valve closure (loudest at left upper sternal border)

S3: early diastolic during rapid ventricular filling phase associated with increaed filling pressure

-mitral regurg, HF) and dilated ventricles normal in children and yound adults

S4: late diastolic (atrial kick) best heard at apex in lateral recumbent

-high arterial pressure (hypertrophy)-LA pushing against stiff LV wall, consider abnormal regardless of age.

21
Q

Jugular venous pulse (JVP)

a wave- atrial contraction- absent in atrial fibrillation

c wave- RV contraction- (closed tricuspid bulging into atrium)

x descent- downward displacement of tricuspid valve during ejection phase, reduced or absent in tricuspid regurgitation and right HF because pressure gradient reduced

v wave- increased atrial pressure due to filling against closed tricuspid valve

y descent- RA emptying into RV prominent in constrictive pericarditis, absent in cardiac tamponade

A

aortic stenosis: LV, ESV, EDV, SV

mitral regurg: ESV, EDV, SV

Aortic regurg: EDV, SV, pulse pressure

mitral stenosis: LA pressure, EDV, ESV, SV

aortic stenosis-increased LV pressure, and ESV,

no change to EDV

decrease SV

ventricular hypertrophy–> decrease ventricular compliance–> increase EDP for given EDV

mitral regurgitation-

no true isovolumetric phase,

decrease ESV due to decrease resistence increase regurg into LA uring systole,

increase EDV due to increase LA volume/pressure from regurg–> increase ventricular filing increase SV

aotic regurgitiation

  • no true isovolumetric phase,

increase EDV, SV, pulse pressure

mitral stenosis-

increased LA pressure,

decreased EDV because of impaired ventricular filling,

decrease ESV and SV

22
Q

normal splitting- inspiration–> drop intrathoracic pressure –> increase venous retrun –> increased RV stroke volume–> increased RV ejection time–> delayed closure of pulmonic valves –> decreased pulmonary impedance (increase capacity of the pulmonary circulation) also occurs during inspiration, contribute to delayed closure of the pulmonic valve

wide splitting- seen in delayed RV emptying )pulmonic stenosis, right bundle branch block)-caused delayed pulmonic sound on inspiration (an exageration of of normal splitting)

fixed splitting-heard in ASD–> L-R shunt–> increase RA and RV volumes–> increase flow through pulmonic valve regardless of breath. pulmonic closure is greatly delayed

paradoxical splitting- heard in condition that delay aortic valve closure (aortic stenosis, left bundle branch block. P2 sound occurs before delayed A2 sound

-therefore, inspiration P2 closes later and moves closer to A2, thereby “paradoxically” eliminating the split (usually heard in expiration)

A
23
Q

inspiration (increase venous reutrn to right atrium)-increase intensity of right heart sounds

hand grip (increase afterload)

-increase intensity or MR, AR, VSD

decrease hypertrophy cardiomyopathy and AS murmurs

MVP: later onset of click/murmur

valsalva (phase 2), standing up (decrease preload)

decrease intensity of most murmur

increase intensity of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy murmur

MVPL early onset of click/murmur

rapid squating (increased venous return, increase preload, increase afterload, increase peripheral resistance)

decrease intensity of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy murmur

increase intensity of of MR, AR, VSD

MVP: late onset

systolic murmurs- aortic/pulmonic stenosis, mitral/tricuspid regurgitation, VSD, MVP, hypertrophic cardiopathy

diastolic heart sound include murmur of aortic/pulmonic regurgitation, mitral/tricuspid stenosis

A

murmurs

SYSTOLIC MURMUR

aortic stenosis

-crescendo-decresendo systolic ejection murmur. loudest at heart base; radiates to carotids

pulsus parvus et tardus-weak delayed pulses

can lead to Syncope, Angina, Dyspnea on extertion (SAD)

commonly due to calcification older patients or in younger patients with early-onset in younger adults with calcification on bicuspid valve

mitral/tricuspid regurgitation

holosystolic, high pitched “blowing murmur”

mitral is loudlest at apex and radiate to axilla, MR are often due to ischemic heart disease (post-MI), MVP, LV dilation

tricuspid- loudest at tricuspid area, commonly due to RV dilation,

rhematic fever, infective endocarditis can cause both MR and TR

mitral valve prolapse

late systolic cresendo murmur with mid-systolic click due to suddent tensing of chordae tendineae

(chordae cause cresendo with click)

most frequent valvular lesion best heard over apex, loudest just befor S2

predisposed to IE, can be caused by myxomatous degeneration (marfan or Ehler’s Danlos syndrome) rheumatic fever, chordae rupture

ventricular septal defect

holosystolic-sounding murmur, loudest at tricuspid area

DIASTOLIC MURMUR

aortic regurgitation

high-pitched blowing murmur with early diastolic decresendo with low diastolic murmur, hyperdynamic pulse (bounding pulses), head bobbing when severe/chronic

wide pulse pressure- (high pulse pressure)

often due to aortic root dilation, biscuspid aortic valve, endocarditis, rheumatoid fever, progresses to left HF

mitral stenosis

opening snap (due to abrupt halt in leaflet motion in diastole after rapid opening due to fusion at leaflet tips

delayed rumbling diastolic murmur

often a late sequela of rheumatic fever, chronic MS can result in LA dilation–> dysphagia/hoarseness viacompression of eosphagus/left recurrent

CONTINUOUS

patent ductus arteriosus-continous machine-like murmur best heard at left infraclavicular area, loudest at S2

often due to rubella or prematurity

24
Q

Tosrades de pointes (twisting of points) -ventricular tachycardia characterised by shifting sinusoidal waveforms that progress to ventricular fibrillation

long QT interval predisposes condition

caused by drugs that decrease K, Mg, Ca, congenital anomalites

TX with magnesium sulfate

drugs classes that induce QT prolongation

  1. antiarrhythmics (class 1A, 3)
  2. Antibiotics (macrolides)
  3. anticythotic (haloperidol)
  4. antidepressants
  5. antimetics (ondansetron)

congenital long QT syndrome-defect of myocardial repolarization due to channel defect (increase risk of sudden cardiac death due to torsades de pointes

  1. autosomal dominant, pure cardiac phenotype (no deafness) what is this?

2. autosomal rrecessive, sensorineural deafness what is this?

  1. AD most common in asian males, ECG pattern of pseudo-right bundle branch block and ST elevation in V1-3. what is this?
    - increase risk of Vtach and SCD (prevented SCD with implantable cardioverter-defibrillator (ICD)
  2. most common type of ventricular preexcitation syndrome. abnormal fast accessory conduction pathway bypassing the srate-slowing AV node via bundle of Kent. what is this?

the ventricule begin to depolarize earlier–>characteristic delta wave with wide QRS and shorten PR

can result in reentry circuit–> supraventricular tachycardia

A

1. Romano-Ward syndrom

2. Jervell and Lange- Nielsen sydrome

1. Brugada syndrome

1. Wolff-Parkinson-White (WPW) syndrome

25
Q
  1. choatic, erratic baseline with no discrete P wave, most common risk factor include HTN, CAD, occasionally seen after binge drining. can lead to thromboembolic event (stroke)

Tx with anticoagulation, rate controlm rhythm control and cardioversion

  1. rapid succesion of identical back to back atrial depolarization thta looks like sawtooth

Tx- like A fib, definitive treatment with catheter ablation

A
  1. atrial fibrillation
  2. artial flutter
26
Q
  1. completely erratic rhythm with no identifiable waves, fatal arrhythmia without immediate CPR and defibrillation
  2. PR interval prolonged >200msec). benign and asymptomatic (no tx)
A
  1. Ventricular tachycardia
  2. 1st degree AV block
27
Q

progressive lengthening of PR interval until beat is “dropped” (a P wave not followed by QRS complex) asymptomatic

dropped beats that are not preceded by a change in length of PR, may progress to 3rd degree block

tx with pacemaker

atria and ventricles beat independently of each other. P waves and QRS complexes not rhythmically associated. Atrial rate > ventricular rate. usually treated with pacemaker, can be caused by lyme disease

A
28
Q

released from atrial myocytes in response to increase blood volume and atrial pressure, causes vasodilation and decrease Na at the renal collecting tubules. dilate afferent renal arterioles and contricts efferent arterioles, promoting diuresis and contributing to “aldosterone escape” mechanism

released from ventricular myocytes in response to increase tension. like ANP but will longer half-life. used for diagnosing HF. avalible in recombinant form (nesiritide) for treatment HF

A

atrial natriuretic peptide

B-type (brain) natriuretic peptide

29
Q

receptor- aortic arch transmits via vagus nerve to solitary nucleus of medulla (response to BP changes)

carotid sinus (dilated region at carotid bifurcation) transmits via glossopharygneal nerve to solitary nucleus of medulla (responds to down and increase BP)

Baroreceptor

hypotension-decreased arterial pressure–>decrease stretch–> decreased afferent barorecetptor firing–> increase efferent sympathetic firing and decrease efferent parasympathetic –> vasocontristion, increase HR, contratility, BP. important for hemorrhage

Carotid massage- increase pressure on carotid sinus–> increase stretch–> increase afferent baroreceptor–> increase AV node refractory period–> decrease HR

chemoreceptor

peripheral-carotid and aortic bodies are stimulated by decrease PO2 (<60mmHg), increased PCO2 and decrease pH of blood

central-are stimulated by changes in pH and Pco2 of brain omterstitial fluid, which in turn are influenced by arterial CO2. do not respond to PO2

A

NOTE: component of Cushing reflex (triad: hypotension, bradytachycardia, and respiratory depression)- increase intracranial pressure contrictions arterioles–> cerebral ischemia–> increase PCO2 and decrease pH–> central reflex sympathetic increase in perfusion pressure (hypertension)–> increased stretch –> peripheral reflex baroreceptor-induced bradycardia.

30
Q

pulmonary capillary wedge pressure (PCWP; in mmHg) is a good approximation of left artial pressure. in mitral stenosis, PCWP > LV end diastolic pressure. PCWP is measured with pulmonary artery catheter (Swan-Ganz catheter)

A

edema

excess fluid outflow into the interstitium commonly caused by:

increase capillary pressure ( HF)

increase capillary premeability (toxin, infection, burns)

increased interstitial fluid colloid osmotic pressure (lymphatic blockage)

decreased plasma protein ( nephrotic syndrome, liver failure, protein malnutrition)

Pc=capillary pressure

Pi=interstitial fluid pressure

pi C=plasma colloid osmotic (oncotic) pressure

pi I=interstitial fluid colloid osmotic pressure

31
Q
A