Exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following statements is FALSE?
A. The Gordon Growth Model assumes constant dividend growth and implies that stock prices grow at the same rate.
B. A stock’s price is the present value of the expected dividends and capital gains.
C. Dealers buy and sell securities from their own inventory, while brokers bring buyers and sellers together to complete transactions.
D. Holders of preferred stock have greater voting rights in corporate decisions than holders of common stock.

A

d

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2
Q

Which of the following statements is TRUE?
A. The Gordon Growth Model assumes constant dividend growth but implies that stock prices grow at a different rate.
B. A stock’s price is the present value of its future cash flows, namely, its expected capital gains and dividends.
C. Brokers buy and sell securities from their own inventory, while dealers bring buyers and sellers together to complete transactions.
D. Holders of common stock have greater voting rights in corporate decisions than holders of preferred stock, but they have less voting rights than creditors of the corporation.

A

b

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3
Q
Newly issued securities are sold to investors in which one of the following markets?
A.	Proxy
B.	Inside
C.	Secondary
D.	Primary
A

d

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4
Q

Which of the following statements is FALSE?
A. The bid price is the price that a dealer is willing to pay for a security and is lower than the ask price.
B. Bonds trade less frequently than stocks.
C. In the stock market, the secondary market is the market where new securities are originally sold to investors by the issuing company.
D. Dividends received by corporations have a 70% to 100% exclusion from taxable income.

A

c

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5
Q

A broker is an agent who:
A. Trades on the floor of an exchange for himself or herself.
B. Buys and sells from inventory.
C. Offers new securities for sale to dealers only.
D. Brings buyers and sellers together.

A

d

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6
Q
Fill in the blanks: Stock prices fall if investors either expect \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ growth rates or require \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ returns.
A.	higher, higher
B.	higher, lower
C.	lower, higher
D.	lower, lower
A

c

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7
Q
An agent who buys and sells securities from inventory is called a:
A.	Specialist
B.	Dealer
C.	Broker
D.	Floor Trader
A

b

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8
Q

Which of the following statements is FALSE?
A. Unlike equity holders, debt holders are not owners
B. Lenders can exert control over a company’s managers by voting for its board of directors.
C. A corporation cannot deduct its payments to preferred shareholders before it pays taxes
D. Holders of convertible bonds can force bankruptcy if their coupons are not paid

A

b

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9
Q

Which of the following statements is FALSE?
A. One reason why the Average Accounting Return is a flawed measure in making business decisions is that it is based on cash flows.
B. IRR measures the dollar-weighted return on an investment.
C. In order to use the Payback Rule as a tool to determine if an investment is acceptable, a manager needs to provide a pre-specified limit of time for recouping investment costs.
D. The Profitability Index measures the value created per dollar invested, based on the time value of money.

A

a

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10
Q

If any, which of the following statements is FALSE?
A. NPV measures the value created by taking on an investment
B. NPV indicates how much a project will improve owner wealth
C. NPV is the discounted present value of a project’s expected future accounting net income at the required return, subtracting the initial investment
D. None of the above statements is false

A

c

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11
Q
Which one of the following methods of analysis is most similar to computing the return on assets (ROA)?
A.	Average accounting return
B.	Payback 
C.	Internal rate of return
D.	Profitability index
A

a

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12
Q

The average accounting return method of analyzing projects:
A. Incorporates cash flows.
B. Is similar to calculating the Return on Assets.
C. Is difficult to estimate using information from accounting statements.
D. Should accept all projects with positive AAR.

A

b

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13
Q

Which of the following statements is FALSE?
A. The internal rate of return is defined as the discount rate which results in a zero net present value for the project.
B. The primary advantage to payback analysis is that it biases companies to invest in long-term projects that require large current expenditures on research and development.
C. The average accounting return ignores cash flows is most similar to computing the return on assets (ROA).
D. The profitability index reflects the value created per dollar invested.

A

b

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14
Q

Which of the following statements is TRUE?
A. Opportunity costs are those values that have already been incurred, cannot be recouped, and should not be considered in an investment decision.
B. Under hard capital rationing, a business enforces limits on investment budgets because it prefers not to raise financing from the capital markets.
C. Managerial real options can be very valuable but difficult to measure, and ignoring them will underestimate a project’s true Net Present Value.
D. Forecasting risk is more troublesome when NPV estimates are particularly large.

A

c

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15
Q

If any, which of the following does NOT have the potential to increase the net present value of a proposed investment?
A. The ability to immediately shut down a project should the project become unprofitable
B. The ability to wait until the economy improves before making the investment
C. The option to increase production beyond that initially projected
D. All of the above have the potential to increase the NPV of a proposed investment

A

d

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16
Q

Which of the following should not be included in the analysis of a proposed investment?
A. The current market value of an existing building to be used in the project.
B. The amount paid 4 years ago for an existing building to be used in the project.
C. The expected after-tax salvage value at the end of a project of an existing building to be used in the project.
D. The net working capital balance remaining at the end of the project.

A

b

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17
Q

Which of the following statements is FALSE??
A. The impacts of estimation errors and forecasting risks are small when NPVs are large and positive.
B. Under intense competition, positive NPV projects are as common as negative NPV projects.
C. Scenario analysis helps determine the reasonable range of expectations for a project’s outcome.
D. Sensitivity analysis helps identify the variable within a project that presents the greatest forecasting risk.

A

b

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18
Q

Which of the following statements is FALSE?
A. Sensitivity analysis helps determine the reasonable range of expectations for a project’s outcome.
B. The impacts of estimation errors and forecasting risks are small when NPVs are large and negative.
C. Under intense competition, positive NPV projects are rare.
D. The error of commission, or Type 1 error NPV estimation, is the risk that a project will be accepted when its true NPV is negative.

A

a

19
Q

Sensitivity analysis:
A. looks at the most reasonably optimistic and pessimistic results for a project.
B. helps identify the variable within a project that presents the greatest forecasting risk.
C. is generally conducted prior to scenario analysis just to determine if the range of potential outcomes is acceptable.
D. illustrates how an increase in operating cash flow caused by changing both the revenue and the costs simultaneously will change the net present value for a project.

A

b

20
Q

Which of the following statements is FALSE?
A. Since errors of commission are often readily apparent, managers have a tendency to be cautious when evaluating new projects
B. Errors of omission can result in lost potential value as much as errors of commission can destroy value.
C. Type 1 errors occur when managers reject projects whose true NPVs are positive
D. Errors in projected cash flows create large forecasting risks when their net present values are particularly small in magnitude.

A

c

21
Q

Which of the following statements is FALSE?
A. Over the long run, investments in small-company stocks have had the largest return but also the most risk, when compared with large-company stocks, bonds, and T-Bills.
B. The average return is always less than the geometric return.
C. Investors who hold bonds instead of stocks over long horizons can be rational and relatively averse to risk.
D. Unlike the capital gains yield, the dividend yield can never be negative.

A

b

22
Q

Which of the following statements is FALSE?
A. Over the long run, investments in small-company stocks have had the largest return but also the most risk, when compared with large-company stocks, bonds, and T-Bills.
B. The average return is always greater than the geometric return.
C. Investors who hold bonds instead of stocks over long horizons can be rational and relatively averse to risk.
D. Like the dividend yield, the capital gains yield can never be negative.

A

d

23
Q

Which of the following statements is TRUE?
A. Efficient markets will protect investors from wrong choices if they do not diversify.
B. Consistent with efficient markets, stock prices reach equilibrium several times per week.
C. Efficient markets react to new information by instantly adjusting the price of a stock to its new fair market value without any delay or overreaction.
D. Weak form efficiency implies that all information is reflected in stock prices.

A

c

24
Q

Which of the following statements is TRUE?
A. It is better to use Geometric Return than Average Return to forecast what the stock market over the next 50 years
B. The return earned in an average year over a multiyear period is known as the geometric return
C. The compound return earned per year over a multiyear period is known as the arithmetic average return
D. The average return is always smaller than the geometric return

A

a

25
Q

If the financial markets are semi-strong form efficient, then:
A. only the most talented analysts can determine the true value of a security.
B. only individuals with private information have a marketplace advantage.
C. technical analysis provides the best tool to use to gain a marketplace advantage.
D. no one individual has an advantage in the marketplace.

A

b

26
Q

Which one of the following statements is TRUE?
A. The risk-free rate of return has a risk premium of 1.0.
B. The reward for bearing risk is called the standard deviation.
C. Risks and expected return are inversely related.
D. The higher the expected rate of return, the wider the distribution of returns.

A

d

27
Q

Under Munich, a footwear manufacturer, recently announced that they have just designed a new footwear product which includes the latest technology. This news is totally unexpected and viewed as a major advancement in the footwear industry. Which one of the following reactions to this announcement indicates the market for New Labs stock is efficient?
A. The price of Under Munich doesn’t change, but then it increases one week after the announcement.
B. The price of all stocks quickly increase in value and then all but Under Munich stock fall back to their original values.
C. The price of Under Munich’s stock suddenly increases, and then remains at that price.
D. The price of Under Munich’s stock increases rapidly, and then settles back to its pre-announcement level.

A

c

28
Q

FCF Formula

A

EBIT - Taxes + Depreciation - CapEx - change NWC

29
Q

Gordon Growth Model

A

D1 = D0*(1+g)^1

Dt = Dt-1 (1+g)1 =D0 (1+g)t

30
Q

Which of the following statements is TRUE?
A. If a portfolio has a positive investment in every asset, the standard deviation on the portfolio can be less than that on every asset in the portfolio.
B. Labor strikes and part shortages are examples of market-wide systematic risks.
C. Market-wide systematic risks can be significantly reduced by diversification.
D. Asset-specific unsystematic risks can be substantially reduced with less numerous and less correlated assets in a portfolio.

A

a

31
Q
Portfolio diversification eliminates which of the following?
A.	Total investment risk
B.	Reward for bearing risk
C.	Market-wide risk
D.	Unsystematic risk
A

d

32
Q

Which of the following statements is FALSE?
A. Asset-specific risks can be easily diversified with highly correlated assets in a portfolio
B. Asset-specific risks can be easily diversified with numerous assets in a portfolio
C. Bearing risk is rewarded with higher expected returns
D. Only market-wide risks, not asset-specific risks, should earn rewards

A

a

33
Q
Fill in the blanks: Standard deviation measures \_\_\_\_\_\_ risk, while beta measures \_\_\_\_\_\_ risk.
A.	Asset-specific; market-wide
B.	Market-wide; total
C.	Total; market-wide
D.	Total; asset-specific
A

c

34
Q

Which one of the following represents the amount of compensation an investor should expect to receive for accepting the unsystematic firm-specific risk associated with an individual security?
A. Security beta multiplied by the market rate of return
B. Market risk premium
C. Risk-free rate of return
D. Zero

A

d

35
Q

Which of the following statements is TRUE?
A. By investing in varied and numerous assets, an investor is able to virtually eliminate all asset-specific risks in her portfolio, both easily and cheaply.
B. It is possible, but not very easy, for an investor to control market-wide risks in his portfolio, and increases in these market-wide risks are costly because they reduce expected returns.
C. The most important characteristic in determining the expected return of a well-diversified portfolio is the total variance risks of the individual assets in the portfolio.
D. When a portfolio has a positive investment in every one of its assets, its standard deviation cannot be less than that on every asset in the portfolio.

A

a

36
Q

Which of the following statements is FALSE?
A. The cost to a firm for capital funding equals the expected return to the providers of those funds
B. A firm’s cost of capital depends primarily on the source of the funds, not the use
C. WACC is affected by market conditions including interest rates, tax rates, and the market risk premium
D. A firm’s WACC reflects the average risk of the existing projects undertaken by the firm

A

b

37
Q

Which of the following statements is FALSE?
A. The cost of capital is the minimum required return to compensate financial investors.
B. The cost of capital for a project depends primarily on the source of funds.
C. The cost of equity is the return required by equity investors given the risk of the cash flows from the firm.
D. A firm’s WACC reflects the average risk of the existing projects undertaken by the firm.

A

b

38
Q

A firm uses its weighted average cost of capital to evaluate the proposed projects for all of its varying divisions. By doing so, the firm:
A. Automatically gives preferential treatment in the allocation of funds to its riskiest division
B. Encourages the division managers to only recommend their most conservative projects
C. Maintains the current risk level and capital structure of the firm
D. Automatically maximizes the total value created for its shareholders

A

a

39
Q

Which of the following statements is FALSE?
A. The cost of debt for bonds is the same as the yield implied by their market quoted prices, except when that promised yield is too high due, for example, to the high default probabilities for junk bonds.
B. The cost of preferred stock equals its dividend yield as a percent of the current price, rather than the preferred dividend as a percent of its stated liquidating value, which is usually $100.
C. Judgment is typically required when estimating the cost of equity, particularly when a company pays no dividends and when its beta estimate is imprecise.
D. Due to its lower priority and greater risk, a firm’s cost of equity can sometimes be, and often is, less that its after-tax cost of debt.

A

d

40
Q

WACC Formula

A

WACC = (D/V)(1 - Tc)rD + (Pfd/V)(rPfd) + (E/V)(rE)

41
Q

P0 =

A

P0 = [D0 (1+g)] / (r-g); D1 / r-g

42
Q

r =

A

r = [D0 (1+g)] / P0 + g; (D1 / P0) + g

43
Q

NPV

A

CF0 + [CF1 / (1+r)] +[CF2 / (1+r)^2] …

44
Q

CAPM

A

E[ri] = rF + Beta (RPm)