Final Flashcards

1
Q

Production possibilities frontier (PPF)

A

A line or curve that shows all possible combinations of outputs that can be produced using all available resources.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

absolute advantage

A

when a producer can generate more output than others with a given amount of resources.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

comparative advantage

A

when a producer can make a good at a lower opportunity cost than other producers.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

specialization

A

when a country focuses on producing the good for which it has a comparative advantage, increasing total production

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

gains from trade

A

improvement in outcome that occurs when specialized producers exchange goods and services.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

balance of trade

A

the value of exports minus the value of imports

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

trade deficit

A

a negative balance of trade

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

trade surplus

A

a positive balance of trade

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

foreign direct investment (FDI)

A

when a firm runs part of its operation abroad or invests in another company abroad

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

foreign portfolio investment

A

investment funded by foreign sources but operated locally

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

net capital outflow

A

the net flow of funds invested outside of a country.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

balance-of-payments identity

A

an equation that shows the value of net exports is equal to the value of net capital outflow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

exchange rate

A

the value of one currency in terms of another

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

exchange rate appreciation

A

when the value of a currency increases relative to the value of another currency.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

floating exchange rate

A

currency that can be freely traded and its value is determined by the market.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

fixed exchange rate

A

an exchange rate set by the government.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What can a fixed exchange rate manage?

A

It can’t conduct monetary policy, it can only manage investment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

nominal exchange rate

A

the stated rate at which ones country’s currency can be traded for another country’s currency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

real exchange rate (definition)

A

the value of goods in one country in terms of the same goods in another country

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

real exchange rate (formula)

A

=nominal exchange rate x
domestic price level
——————————–
foreign price level

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

arbitrage

A

gaining financially due to discrepancies in exchange rates.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Crowding out effect

A

Theory that rising public spending drives down private spending

Due to the increased interest rates from the government borrowing to spend

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Transfer payments

A

Payments from government accounts to individuals for programs that do not involve the purchase of goods or services
I.e. welfare

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Taxation multiplier (formula)

A

-MPC
————
1 - MPC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Taxation multiplier (definition)

A

The amount GDP decreases when taxes increase by 1$

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Government spending multiplier (formula)

A

1
————
1 - MPC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Government spending multiplier (definition)

A

The amount by which GDP increase when government spending dung increases by 1$

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Marginal propensity to consume (MPC)

A

The amount by which consumption increases when after tax income increases by 1$

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Short run and long run supply shock

A

Output and price move in opposite directions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Long run demand side shock

A

Output stays the same, price increases or decreases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Short run demand side shock

A

Price and output move the same direction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Classical / real-wage unemployment

A

The effect of wages remaining persistently above the market clearing level

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Structural unemployment

A

Unemployment caused by a mismatch between the skills workers can offer and the skills that are in demand

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Frictional unemployment

A

Unemployment caused by workers who are changing their location, job, or career.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Unemployment rate (formula)

A

of unemployed
———————— x 100
Labour force

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

GDP year A in terms of growth rate formula

A

GDP year B x

(1 + growth rate)^A-B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Years until income doubles

A

Rule of 70

       70 ——————— Real growth rate
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Real value year B in terms of CPI

A

= real value year A x

CPI year A
—————
CPI year B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Cost of living adjustment

A

Real year B =

Nominal year A x
CPI year B
——————
CPI year A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Real GDP per capital growth rate =

A

Nominal GDP growth rate - inflation rate - population growth rate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

PPP adjusted GDP (formula)

A

Nominal dollars
————————————
1 - price level adjustment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Purchasing power parity (PPP)

A

Purchase power should theoretically be the same everywhere when stated in common currency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Consumer price index (CPI) (formula)

A

Basket price in desired year
————————————— x 100
Basket price in base year

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

GDP deflator

A

Measures change in price

Nominal GDP/real GDP x 100

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Nominal GDP

A

Calculated with goods and services at current prices

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Real GDP

A

Calculated with goods and services held at constant prices

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Gross national product (GNP)

A

The sum of all final goods and services produced by the citizens of a country within a given period of time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Gross domestic product (GDP)

A

The sum of the market value of all final goods and services produced within a country in a given period of time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

financial market

A

a market in which people trade future claims on funds or goods.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Functions of a bank

A
  • It acts as an *Intermediary between borrowers and savers.
  • *Liquidity: it makes it easier to have access to cash when and where you want it.
  • It helps savers and borrowers *diversify risk
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

market for loanable funds

A

market in which savers, who have money to lend, supply funds to those who borrow for their investment spending needs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

savings

A

The portion of income that is not immediately spent on consumption of goods and services.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

investment

A

spending on productive inputs such as factories, machinery, and inventories.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

interest rate

A

the price of borrowing. the price charged by a lender to a borrower for the use of funds.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

factors that shift the supply of savings (determinants of savings)

A
  • culture
  • social welfare policies
  • wealth
  • current economic conditions
  • expectations about future economic conditions
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

default

A

when a borrower fails to pay back a loan according to the agreed upon terms.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

credit risk

A

the risk of a borrow defaulting on a loan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

risk-free rate

A

the interest rate at which one would lend if there were no risk of default. Usually approximated by interest rates on Canadian government debt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

credit spread / risk premium

A

the difference between the risk-free rate and the interest rate a particular investor has to pay

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

financial system

A

the institutions that bring together savers borrowers, investors, and insurers in a set of interconnected markets where people trade financial products

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

financial intermediary

A

institutions that channel funds from people who have them to people who want them

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

liquidity

A

a measure of how easily a particular asset can be converted quickly to cash without much loss of value.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

diversification

A

process by which risks are shared among many different assets or people, reducing the impact of a particular risk on any one individual.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

stock

A

a financial asset that represents partial ownership of a company. An equity asset.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

dividend

A

a payment made periodically, typically annually or quarterly, to all shareholders of a company.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

loan

A

an agreement in which a lender gives money to a borrower in exchange for a promise to repay the amount loaned plus an agreed upon amount of interest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

bond

A

a promise by the bond issuer to repay the loan at a specified maturity date, and to pay periodic interest at a specific percentage rate.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

securitization

A

turns many loans into a single larger asset thus reducing the risk to the lender of any individual borrower defaults on the loan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

derivative (futures contract)

A

an asset whose value is based on the value of another asset, such as a home loan, stock, bond, or barrel of oil.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

mutual fund

A

a portfolio of stocks and other assets, managed by a professional who makes decisions on behalf of clients

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

index fund

A

mutual fund where the funds buy all the stocks representing a broad market, with a goal of mirroring the same return as the market average.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

specialized fund

A

mutual fund where the dude is researching specific companies and picking stocks they hope will earn higher returns than the market average.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

pension fund

A

professional managed portfolio of assets intended to provide income to company retirees

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

market risk (systemic risk)

A

any risk that is broadly shared by the entire market of economy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

idiosyncratic risk

A

unique to a particular company or asset

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

standard deviation

A

a measure of how spread out a set of numbers is

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

net present value (npv)

A

a measure of the current value of a stream of cash flows expected in the future

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

efficient-market hypothesis

A

market prices always incorporate all available information and therefore represent true value as correctly as possible. Only in a closed economy?

79
Q

closed economy

A

an economy that does not interact with other countries’ economies

80
Q

open economy

A

interacts with other countries’ economies

81
Q

net capital flow

A

the difference between capital inflows and capital outflows

82
Q

capital outflow

A

when money saved domestically is invested in another country

83
Q

capital inflow

A

when savings from another country finance domestic investment

84
Q

fundamental analysis

A

refers to finds out as much information as possible on the firms or governments that issue securities

85
Q

technical analysis

A

bases predictions for future security performance on past performance

86
Q

money

A

the set of all assets that are regularly used to directly purchase goods and services

87
Q

functions of money

A

store of value
medium of exchange
unit of account

88
Q

store of value

A

an item that represents a certain amount of purchasing power that is retained over time.

89
Q

medium of exchange

A

an item that can be used to purchase goods and services

90
Q

barter

A

to directly offer a good or service in exchange for a desired good or service

91
Q

unit of account

A

a standard unit of comparison

92
Q

intrinsic value

A

value unrelated to an items use as money

93
Q

commodity-backed money

A

any form of money that can be legally exchanged for a fixed amount of an underlying commodity

94
Q

fiat money

A

money created by rule, without commodity to back it

95
Q

demand deposits

A

funds held in banks that can be withdrawn by depositors at any time without advance notice

96
Q

reserves

A

the cash that a bank keeps in its vault

97
Q

reserve ratio (definition)

A

the ratio of the total amount of deposits at a bank to the amount kept as cash reserves.

98
Q

reserve ratio (formula)

A

amount kept
= ————————- x 100
amount deposited

99
Q

desired reserves

A

the amount the bank is desired to keep on hand

100
Q

excess reserves

A

any additional amount beyond the desired reserves that the bank chooses to keep in reserve

101
Q

money multiplier (definition)

A

the ratio of money created by the lending activities of the banking system to the money created y the governments central bank.

102
Q

money multiplier (formula)

A

1
= ———-
reserve ratio

103
Q

fractional-reserve banking

A

banking system in which banks keep on reserve less than 100% of their deposits

104
Q

money supply

A

the amount of money available in the economy

105
Q

M1

A

definition of money, includes cash (hard money) plus chequing account balances.

106
Q

M2

A

definition of money, includes M1, personal savings accounts, and non-personal notice deposits where money is locked away for a specified period of time.

107
Q

central bank

A

the institution ultimately responsible for managing the nations money supply and coordinating the banking system to ensure a sound economy

108
Q

monetary policy

A

actions by the central bank to manage the money supply, in pursuit of certain macroeconomic goals

109
Q

reserve requirement

A

the regulation that sets the minimum fraction of deposits banks must hold in reserve

110
Q

open market operations

A

sales or purchases of government securities by the central bank to or from banks on the open market.

111
Q

contractionary monetary policy

A

actions that reduce the money supply in order to decrease aggregate demand

112
Q

expansionary monetary policy

A

actions that increase the money supply in order to increase aggregate demand

113
Q

overnight rate

A

the interest rate at which banks choose to lend reserves held at the Bank of Canada to one another, usually just overnight

114
Q

liquidity preference model

A

explains that the quantity of money people want to hold is a function of the interest rate

115
Q

inflation

A

an overall rise in prices in the economy. each dollar becomes less valuable over time.

116
Q

deflation

A

an overall fall in prices in the economy

117
Q

core inflation

A

a measure of inflation that excludes goods with historically volatile prices

118
Q

headline inflation

A

a measure of inflation that includes goods with historically volatile items.

119
Q

overall inflation

A

a measure of inflation that includes virtually all of the goods that the average consumer purchases.

120
Q

aggregate price level

A

a measure of the average price level for GDP and is measured by either CPI or the GDP price deflator

121
Q

neutrality of money

A

the idea that aggregate price levels do not affect real outcomes in the economy

122
Q

quantity theory of money

A

the aggregate price level is determined by the money supply. That inflation/deflation are primarily the result of changes in money supply.

123
Q

velocity of money (definition)

A

the number of transactions in which a typical dollar is used during a given period.

124
Q

velocity of money (formula)

A

money supply

125
Q

menu costs

A

the cost of changing prices to keep pace with inflation

126
Q

shoe leather costs

A

the cost people must spend managing cash in the face of inflation

127
Q

nominal interest rate

A

the reported interest rate

128
Q

real interest rate (definition)

A

the interest rate adjusted for the effects of inflation

129
Q

real interest rate (formula)

A

nominal interest rate - inflation rate

130
Q

disinflation

A

a period during which overall inflation rates, while still positive, are falling.

131
Q

hyperinflation

A

extremely long-lasting and painful increases in the price level, usually enough to render currency completely valueless or close to it

132
Q

potential output

A

the total amount of output the country could reasonably produce if all of its people and capital resources were fully engaged

133
Q

output gap

A

when an economy’s actual output differs from its potential at some point in time

134
Q

Phillips curve

A

the negative relationship between inflation and unemployment.

135
Q

non-accelerating inflation rate of unemployment (NAIRU)

A

the lowest possible unemployment rate that will not cause the inflation rate to increase

136
Q

demand pull inflation

A

occurs when the price level changes in response to changes in the business cycle

137
Q

cost-push inflation

A

occurs when the price of a key input increases suddenly

138
Q

Why can an economist compare apples and oranges?

A

When they calculate GDP they convert production to its dollar value.

139
Q

Which approach to calculating GDP best highlights
the relative importance of different factors of
production?

A

The income approach

140
Q

In a press conference, the president of a small country
displays a chart showing that GDP has risen by 10
percent every year for five years. He argues that this
growth shows the brilliance of his economic policy.
However, his chart uses nominal GDP numbers. This
chart might be wrong because it:

A

relies on nominal GDP which might have
increased because of price increases and not
output increases.

141
Q
A major category of economic activity that is not
counted as part of GDP is:
a. firm production
b. consumption
c. Illegal drug trade
d. imports
A

c. Illegal drug trade

142
Q

What is not included in calculating GDP
a. Prime Minister’s Salary
b. International student paid tuition fee
c. Factory releases contaminated water that
severely effect the fishing industry.
d. Computer newly produced that year but unsold
and keeping in a warehouse

A

c. Factory releases contaminated water that

severely effect the fishing industry.

143
Q

If a country experiences a negative growth rate in

real GDP, it means

A

There are less goods to allocate in the

economy than before.

144
Q

What is not the theoretical explanation of
economic convergence?
a. Diminishing return to capital accumulation
b. Technological transfer
c. Growing in labor input
d. Government decreases income tax rate

A

d. Government decreases income tax rate

145
Q

Gross National Product is (nasty formula you should know)

A
GDP + (Net income earned by domestic
residents/businesses from overseas
investments) – (Net income earned by
foreign residents/businesses from domestic
investments)
146
Q

Which activity is included in the GDP
a. Value of stock local stockbroker executes for
clients
b. Bike store sells used bikes
c. Foreign tourists buy souvenir from a dutyfree shop
d. The government pays $100 million to war
veterans.

A

c. Foreign tourists buy souvenir from a dutyfree shop

147
Q

If the GDP was 1,500,000 million dollars in 2005,
the real economic growth is constant at 4 percent
annually. What was the approximate value of GDP
in 2018?

A

2,500,000

148
Q

When the market basket is tracked over time

A

the goods within the basket remain the

same, so only changing prices are captured

149
Q

The GDP deflator differs from the CPI in its

measurement of inflation in that

A

it measures the price changes of all goods,
not just those in a typical consumer’s
basket.

150
Q

The Big Mac index

A

is a simple measure that indicates
differing costs of living in different
countries

151
Q

In 1976, the cost of a movie was $4. In 2012, it’s
$9. If the CPI for 1976 is 56, and 228 for 2012,
then we could say the cost of a 1976 movie in 2012
would be:

A

$16.29, so the cost of movies has not

increased as much as general inflation

152
Q

What is the difference between headline inflation

and core inflation?

A

Core inflation excludes energy and food

from the market basket.

153
Q

The labour force includes:

A

those who want to work.

154
Q

If we wanted to describe unemployment in terms

of supply and demand, we could say

A

there is a surplus of labour.

155
Q

An economic slow-down predicts the new

equilibrium wage would be

A

lower because the labour demand curve

shifts left

156
Q

What is not the impact of aging population due to
the change in demographic structure?
a. Labour Force declines.
b. Government revenue increases.
c. Government expenditure on health care
increases.
d. Pension fund will require higher funding.

A

b. Government revenue increases.

157
Q

If the minimum wage is set at a level above the

equilibrium wage

A

it could cause unemployment.

158
Q

The Canadian labour force as of 2018 was 32.7
million. There were 30.9 million employed. What
the unemployment rate would be?

A

5.5

159
Q

If economy has experienced the long economic
recession, the number of discourage worker
increases and hence we would expect:

A

Labour Force Participation Ratio to

decrease

160
Q

. If Canadian prices increase relative to the rest of

the world, we would expect

A

net exports to decrease.

161
Q

A decrease in business confidence will cause:

A

a shift in aggregate demand to the left.

162
Q

. Stagflation refers to a situation in which the

economy is experiencing

A

low economic growth and high inflation.

163
Q

If a hurricane were to wipe out the majority of the

eastern seaboard in Canada, it would likely cause a:

A

long-run supply shock.

164
Q

“Fracking” is a newly invented technology that
allows drillers to extract significantly larger
quantities of natural gas from existing deposits
than was previously possible. How is this
discovery likely to affect the economy? This
discovery will likely:
a. increase AD, SRAS, and LRAS, leading to a
long-term increase in output and an
uncertain change in prices.
b. increase both SRAS and LRAS, leading to
a long-term increase in output and
decrease in prices.
c. decrease both SRAS and LRAS, leading to a
long-term decrease in output and increase in
prices.
d. increase AD but decrease both SRAS and
LRAS, leading to an uncertain change in
long-term output and a decrease in prices

A

b. increase both SRAS and LRAS, leading to
a long-term increase in output and
decrease in prices.

165
Q

. Suppose that a statement by the governor of the
Bank of Canada about the state of the economy
causes a loss of consumer confidence. What will
be the long-run impact on the economy if the
government allows the economy to adjust without
a policy response?

A

Output will return to its initial level in the

long run but the price level will be lower.

166
Q
If the government undertakes expansionary fiscal
policy, it might:
a. increase income taxes.
b. decrease income taxes.
c. decrease government spending.
d. increase corporate income taxes
A

b. decrease income taxes

167
Q

A bank allows us to diversify risk because:

A

it has a big pool of borrowers and savers, so the risk of repayment is
spread among many.

168
Q

An example of a seller in a financial market would be:

A

individuals who have a savings account.

169
Q

A persistent government budget deficit can hurt a closed economys ability to engage
in economic investment because in a closed economy national savings is

A

equal to economic investment.

170
Q

Which of the following is a way to describe the risk of a financial asset?

(a) Interest rate
(b) Overnight rate
(c) Standard deviation
(d) Inflation rate

A

(c) Standard deviation

171
Q

Your buddy says. Have you ever noticed that you can get the same type and size of
tire for 30 dollars cheaper in the next county over? Ive got a way to make profits for
yearswell buy the tires where theyre cheaper and bring them back here to sell.” What
is the financial term for the transaction your friend wants to make?

A

Arbitrage

172
Q

Does the level of taxation in a closed economy have an impact on national savings?

A

No. Taxes increase public savings but decrease private savings.

173
Q

If citizens expect to bear more of the burden for their own health care and retirement
costs in the future, then we would expect their:

A

supply of loanable funds further right than it would otherwise be.

174
Q

As the real interest rate rises, the quantity of loanable funds:

A

supplied also rises

175
Q

Money contributes to economic activity and allows for a more complex society than
barter does because:

A

barter is inefficient. Each time you want to make a trade, you have to
find a partner who has something you want and wants what you have
to offer.

176
Q

The essential functions of any central bank are:

A

managing the money supply, and acting as a lender of last resort.

177
Q

If the reserve ratio was 100 percent, then:

A

no lending would occur using deposits.

178
Q

If a central bank wanted to increase the money supply, they could do what to the reserve requirement?

A

decrease the reserve requirement, reducing the reserve ratio

179
Q

If a central bank wanted to increase the money supply, they could: (in respect to a bond)

A

buy a bond from a bank, giving the bank cash in return, which it can
then lend out.

180
Q

If the reserve ratio is 5 percent, then the money multiplier is approximated to be:

A

20

181
Q

If a central bank wanted to decrease the money supply, one way to make an enormous
impact would be to:

A

increase the reserve requirement, which would decrease the money multiplier.

182
Q

When the Bank of Canada buys bonds through open market operations, it gives banks
money in return, which:

A

increases their ability to lend, and increases aggregate demand.

183
Q

In the liquidity-preference model, the money supply curve:

A

is vertical, and moves at the sole discretion of the Bank of Canada.

184
Q

An decrease in interest rates:

A

increases aggregate demand, increasing economic activity.

185
Q

If the economy is in a recession, the Bank of Canada is likely to:

A

buy bonds through open market operations.

186
Q

According to the quantity theory of money, a decrease in prices would be due to:

A

a decrease in the money supply.

187
Q

If an economy produces 4,000 units of output with a price level of 2 and with a velocity
of money of 8, we know that the money supply must be:

A

1,000.

188
Q

According to the quantity theory of money, increasing the money supply:

A

leads to inflation.

189
Q

The severe oil shortages can create:

A

cost push inflation.

190
Q

Suppose the nominal interest rate is 7 percent annually, and you deposit 1,000. Inflation in the economy throughout the year is 7 percent. At the end of the year, you
have earned:

A

no increase in your purchasing power

191
Q

. If the nominal interest rate is the same as the real interest rate, then inflation must
be:

A

0

192
Q

The net result of deflation is to:

A

decrease consumption and investment, decreasing aggregate demand

193
Q

Conducting expansionary monetary policy when the economy is at its long-run equilibrium causes the Phillips Curve:

A

to shift straight up