777 Flashcards
(505 cards)
1
Q
The minimum height for autopilot engagement after takeoff for the B777-200
A/B is _____ feet AGL.
A
200
2
Q
The maximum headwind for an Autoland is _____ knots.
A
25
3
Q
The maximum tailwind for an Autoland on the B777-200 A/B is _____ knots.
A
10
4
Q
The maximum crosswind for a CAT l Autoland is _____ knots.
A
25
5
Q
On a coupled approach with NO AUTOLAND annunciated, the autopilot must be
disengaged no lower than ____ feet AGL.
A
200
6
Q
What is the maximum flaps/slats extended altitude?
A
20,000 feet
7
Q
The crosswind guideline for landing on a dry runway with good braking
action is _____ knots.
A
45
8
Q
The crosswind guideline for landing on a wet runway with good braking
action is _____ knots.
A
40
9
Q
The maximum tailwind component for takeoff and landing is _____ knots.
A
15
10
Q
The maximum crosswind, CAT II/III weather, for an Autoland is _____
knots.
A
15
11
Q
The minimum height for autopilot disengagement for nonprecision approaches
is
A
50 feet below MDA/DA.
12
Q
The minimum flightdeck oxygen pressure is _____ PSI.
A
1250
13
Q
The lower crew rest compartment (if installed) may not be occupied, and
the main entry hatch must be closed,
A
during taxi, takoff, and landing.
14
Q
The airplane maximum operating pressure altitude is _____ feet.
A
43,100
15
Q
Icing conditions can exist on the ground and for takeoff when
A
the OAT is 10° C or below.
16
Q
Icing conditions can exist in flight when
A
the TAT is 10° C or below.
17
Q
Minimum oil quantity before engine start is _____ quarts.
A
18
18
Q
When operating below .82 Mach in severe turbulence at and above 25,000
feet, maintain a minimum speed of _____ knots above the minimum
maneuvering speed.
A
15
19
Q
Maximum recommended operating speed (VMO/MMO) in severe turbulence below
25,000 feet is _____ KIAS.
A
270
20
Q
Maximum recommended operating speed (VMO/MMO) in severe turbulence at and
above 25,000 feet is _____ KIAS/.82 Mach (whichever is lower).
A
280
21
Q
The cockpit voice recorder system simultaneously records four audio
channels on a _____ minute continuous loop tape.
A
120 mins
22
Q
Which VHF radio is configured only for voice communications?
A
L
23
Q
Which VHF radio(s) can be configured for voice or data communications?
A
R and C
24
Q
Selecting the INT position of the Audio Control Panel MIC/INT switch
initiates a
A
transmission on the flight interphone system.
25
The two independent HF radios can receive
simultaneously.
26
What indication is seen on the Radio Tuning Panel if the selected radio
has failed or has been disconnected?
Dashes in the active and standby frequency windows
27
Which radio is dedicated solely to ACARS?
VHF C (center)
28
Which of the following procedures initiates an ALL CALL from the cockpit?
Pressing 55 on the interphone handset
29
When AC power is removed from the airplane, the PA system remains powered
in flight or on the ground.
30
The function of the Captain's and First Officer's CANC switch on the
glareshield is
the same as selecting CANCEL command key on the MFD.
31
Pushing the Audio Control Panel CAB transmitter select switch twice within
one second places a priority call to
the flight attendant station at Door 1L.
32
What does the Service Interphone (SERV INTPH) switch do in the ON
position?
Connects the Service and Flight Interphone systems.
33
What does a FAIL light on the Control Pedestal just forward of the handset
indicate?
The printer has failed.
34
ACARS is accessed by selecting _____ on the display select panel and
placing the
communications main menu on the appropriate display unit (DU).
COMM
35
What causes the IDG drive to automatically disconnect from the engine?
High generator drive temperature
36
If electrical loads exceed the power available (airplane or external),
ELMS automatically sheds the
C2 electric pump.
37
How does the APU generator compare to the IDGs?
It is electrically identical to the IDGs.
38
The entire airplane AC/DC electrical load is supplied by
any two main AC power sources.
39
What does the main DC electrical system use to produce DC power?
TRUs
40
The backup generator system automatically powers one or both transfer
busses when
approach mode (APP) is selected.
41
The ground handling bus powers the
forward and aft cargo doors.
42
Secondary external power can power the
left and right main busses.
43
Can you turn the battery off in flight?
No, the switch is inhibited.
44
When will the backup generators automatically operate?
When power to one or both main AC busses is lost
45
Once one engine is started, with no other electrical source providing
power and the BUS TIE switches are in AUTO, the _____ powers both main
busses.
IDG
46
If an IDG is manually disconnected in flight with the DRIVE DISC switch,
can you reconnect it?
No, maintenance action is required on the ground.
47
The _____ powers the AC standby bus if the left transfer bus is not
powered.
standby inverter
48
What is the maximum altitude for APU start?
43,100 feet
49
What happens to the APU and RAT when both transfer busses are lost in
flight?
The APU automatically starts and the RAT automatically deploys.
50
Each engine mounted backup generator contains _____ permanent magnet
generator(s) (PMG).
2
51
The primary power sources for the flight control system are the _____
backup generator PMGs.
left and right
52
If demand from the RAT exceeds capacity to provide hydraulic and
electrical power, which has priority?
Hydraulic power - electrical load is shed until satisfactory hydraulic
pressure can be maintained.
53
If the electrical loads exceed power available (airplane or external),
ELMS
automatically sheds nonessential systems.
54
The main battery provides standby power to the
hot battery bus, battery bus, and standby inverter.
55
What are the components of the standby electrical system?
The Main battery, Standby inverter, RAT generator, and the C1 and C2
TRUs.
56
The main battery charger, when powered, will power the
hot battery bus.
57
The ground service bus is normally powered by the right main bus. The
_____ and _____ are alternate sources of power.
APU generator, primary external power
58
Which of the following is NOT powered by the ground service bus?
Refueling panel
59
If primary external power is powering one or both main busses, and then
the APU is started, the APU automatically connects to _____ after reaching
operating speed.
the left main bus
60
The _____ normally supply power to the flight control DC electrical
system.
PMGs
61
During power source transfers (such as switching from the APU generator to
an engine generator) operating sources are momentarily paralleled to
prevent power interruption
on the ground.
62
While on the ground, normally the IDG can be electrically disconnected
from the main busses by selecting an external electric power source or
by selecting the GEN CTRL switch to OFF.
63
What does the illumination of a generator DRIVE light indicate?
Low IDG oil pressure
64
The primary external power AVAIL light illuminates when the
primary power source voltage and frequency are within limits.
65
The external AVAIL light means power is plugged in and
voltage and frequencies are within limits but not yet selected/connected.
66
When the GEN CTRL switches are ON, the generator breaker is armed to close
automatically when generator power is
available.
67
Inflight, when both BUS TIE switches are set to AUTO, the priority for
powering the left and right main busses is the
respective IDG, APU generator, opposite IDG.
68
Pushing the CABIN/UTILITY power switch to OFF removes power from the
ground service bus.
69
On the ground, power transfers are made without interruption, except when
switching between primary and secondary external power sources.
70
When closed, the cockpit door locks automatically if electrical power is
available and the Flight Deck Access System switch is powered. If pilots
are inadvertently locked out of the cockpit, the only means of entry is
to
use the emergency access code or depower the airplane.
71
The BACKUP GEN OFF Light illuminated indicates
a backup generator failure, a circuit fault, or the switch is off.
72
Pushing the IFE/PASS SEATS power switch to OFF removes power from what?
All inflight entertainment components
73
If the Emergency Lights are ARMED, they will automatically illuminate with
the
loss of DC power.
74
The emergency lighting system is powered by remote batteries that are
charged by the airplane electrical system. Fully charged, the batteries
can provide at least ____ minutes of operation.
15
75
A white sterile cockpit light is located in the hallway on the ceiling
panel above the cockpit door. The light automatically illuminates when
altitude is _____ feet MSL and below, and the parking brake is not set.
10,000
76
Emergency Lights that illuminate the cabin escape path and exits are
controlled by the guarded EMER LIGHTS switch on the cockpit overhead panel
and the guarded EMERG LIGHTS switch on the flight attendant panel at Door
1L. Which switch has priority?
When pushed ON, the flight attendant switch bypasses the cockpit switch
regardless of the cockpit switch position (OFF, ARMED, or ON).
77
Which EMER LIGHTS switch position(s) will allow the emergency lights
battery packs to be charged?
All three positions
78
The cabin FASTEN SEAT BELTS signs illuminate automatically when the SEAT
BELTS selector is set to AUTO and which of the following conditions
exist?
Landing gear not up and locked
79
The IND LTS switch, when held in the TEST position, illuminates all
annunciator lights to _____ brightness. After the switch has been held for
10 seconds, the lights _____ .
full, dim
80
What does the autostart system NOT monitor during engine start?
Oil pressure and oil temperature
81
The NORM mode of EECs operation provides
thrust limit and overspeed protection.
82
How does the EEC shift from NORM to the soft alternate mode of operation?
Automatically with a system malfunction
83
The EEC automatically selects approach idle when
flaps are commanded to 25 or greater for a two engine approach.
84
An autorelight is initiated anytime a flameout is detected. A flameout is
detected by the EEC when
N2 is less than idle RPM.
85
The autostart system will attempt a second start for all the following
conditions EXCEPT for
insufficient air pressure.
86
On the ground, the autostart system will attempt a maximum of _____
start(s).
2. 200C......3
87
During inflight engine start, how does the EEC react with the igniters?
It selects both ignitors.
88
The ALTN mode of EEC operation provides
overspeed protection.
89
The autostart system will not attempt a second start on the ground if
there is no N1 rotation.
90
The deployment of thrust reversers is
prohibited in flight.
91
In the alternate mode, the EEC uses _____ as the controlling parameter.
N1
92
If the EGT limit is exceeded during an inflight engine restart,
the start is temporarily discontinued.
93
During a ground Autostart with the FUEL CONTROL switch in RUN, at the
appropriate _____ the engine valve opens and the ignitor(s) energize.
N2 RPM
94
Other than for engine start, oil quantity
has no certified low limit.
95
The normal power source for engine ignition is main AC power. The backup
source for ignition is
standby AC power.
96
During a ground engine start, what action does AUTOSTART perform?
It may abort, and then re-initiate the start.
97
The EEC provides overtemperature protection
during autostart on the ground and in flight.
98
During an inflight engine autostart, if the EGT limit is exceeded, the
start is temporarily discontinued to allow engine cooling; however, the
autostart is not aborted.
99
Forward throttle movement is mechanically restricted until
the reverse thrust lever is fully down.
100
Which of the following is an indication that the thrust reversers are
fully deployed?
REV above each digital EPR indication changes to green.
101
Engine anti-ice ON (automatically or manually selected) supplies bleed air
to the engine cowl and _____ for the associated engine.
continuous ignition
102
In the normal EEC mode, the EEC sets thrust by controlling
EPR. 200A/B
103
Oil pressure, temperature, and quantity are
displayed on the secondary engine display.
104
What is the certified low oil quantity limit?
There is no certified low oil quantity limit.
105
Regarding the Thrust Reverser System, the EECs provide overboost
protection in which mode?
Reverse
106
The EECs are powered by
dedicated engine-mounted permanent magnet alternators (PMAs).
107
The START/IGNITION selectors control the _____ and provide continuous
ignition capability.
starter air valves
108
When starting an engine in flight, the START/IGNITION switch in the NORM
position operates
both ignitors continuously with the flap lever out of the UP position.
109
With Autostart switch selected OFF, the spar and engine fuel valves open,
allowing fuel flow to the engine, when the
engine fire handle is in, and the FUEL CONTROL switch is in RUN.
110
During takeoff, the EGT indication is
often in the amber band.
111
How would you know that the EEC had switched to the soft alternate mode?
EPR indication is blank.
112
Secondary engine indications are automatically displayed when
the fuel control switch is moved to CUTOFF in flight.
113
Engine failure WARNINGs occur when the engine produces less than commanded
thrust
during takeoff below 400 feet radio altitude and between 65 knots and
slightly less than V1.
114
Secondary engine indications are automatically displayed when
a secondary engine parameter is exceeded.
115
The maximum altitude the APU can be used for Pack operation is
22,000 feet.
116
How many starters does the APU have?
Two, one electric and one air turbine
117
The main airplane battery powers the APU
inlet door, fuel valve, and fire detection system.
118
In flight, the APU will automatically shut down with no cool-down period
for
an overspeed.
119
On the ground with the engines not running, the APU shuts down with no
cool-down period if which of the following occurs:
APU controller failure
120
If AC power is not available, the DC pump in the _____ tank provides APU
fuel.
left main
121
If the APU starts automatically in flight, it
can be shut down by positioning the selector to ON, then OFF.
122
With AC power available, and the APU selector to ON, the _____ and cannot
be turned off on the ground.
left forward fuel pump operates automatically
123
What occurs when the APU selector is turned to OFF?
Initiates normal shutdown
124
In flight, the APU automatically starts, regardless of APU selector
position, under which of these conditions?
Loss of both AC transfer busses
125
APU fuel can be provided by
any AC fuel pump supplying fuel to the left fuel manifold.
126
The APU continues to operate in the attended mode and the EICAS message
APU LIMIT displays for the _____ fault.
high EGT
127
How can pilots be certain that the APU is operating normally?
The message APU RUNNING is displayed on EICAS.
128
What type of fire protection system do the main wheel wells have?
The main wheel wells have fire detection capability only.
129
Normally, _____ must sense a fire or overheat condition before the pilots
are alerted.
both fire detection loops
130
If a fault is detected in one of the engine's fire detection loops,
the system automatically switches to single loop operation.
131
For fire detection, the forward and aft cargo compartments are each
equipped with
one smoke detector.
132
The fire and overheat detection system monitors the fire and overheat
detector loops for faults
continuously.
133
What level of fire detection does the nose wheel well have?
No fire detection capability
134
The APU fire protection system has _____ fire detector loop(s).
2
135
How many fire extinguisher bottles are installed for discharge into the
cargo compartments?
5
136
Can you effectively fight a cargo fire by arming both compartments before
discharge is selected?
No, this results in insufficient extinguishing agent concentration in both
compartments.
137
How many APU fire extinguisher bottles are there?
1
138
An APU fire warning on the ground with both engines shut down causes
automatic extinguisher discharge.
139
The _____ have a fire detection system; however, there is no fire
extinguishing system installed.
main gear wheel wells
140
What occurs when a fire is detected in a main wheel well?
The fire bell sounds.
141
When the AFT CARGO FIRE - ARM switch is depressed,
all cargo fire extinguisher bottles are armed.
142
Pushing the CARGO FIRE DISCH switch causes the immediate discharge of how
many bottles into the selected cargo compartment?
2
143
Illumination of the ENG BTL 2 DISCH light on the engine fire panel indicates
low pressure in the number 2 extinguisher.
144
Which of the following statements is true regarding Aural Alerts?
A Bell is used for fire warnings.
145
Pushing the CARGO FIRE DISCH switch on the ground causes the immediate
full discharge of two extinguisher bottles into the selected compartment.
After a time delay,
one of the three remaining extinguisher bottles is discharged into the
selected compartment at a reduced rate of flow.
146
Aural alerts are provided to ensure pilots' attention, recognition, and
response. What is a bell aural alert used for?
Fire warnings
147
How can the fire and overheat detection systems be manually tested?
By pushing the FIRE/OVHT TEST switch
148
When pushed and held, the FIRE/OVHT TEST switch
sends fire and overheat test signals to the engine, APU, wheel well, and
cargo compartment fire detection systems.
149
If the FIRE/OVHT TEST switch is released with the FIRE TEST IN PROG
message displayed, the test
ends without completing.
150
What happens after the CARGO FIRE DISCH switch is pushed?
All extinguishers are committed to the selected compartment.
151
What occurs when an engine fire extinguisher is discharged?
The ENG BTL (1 or 2) DISCH light illuminates.
152
What occurs if an engine fire is detected?
The Engine FUEL CONTROL switch fire warning light illuminates.
153
How does the APU Fire Warning Horn sound?
Intermittently during ground operation to indicate an APU fire or fire
test
154
Which of the following occurs if an engine overheat is detected?
An EICAS caution message displays.
155
Which of the following is accomplished by pressing the APU FIRE SHUTDOWN
switch?
The APU generator field and breaker are tripped.
156
If a fault develops in both detector loops of an engine nacelle, there is
no fire or overheat detection and
an EICAS message is displayed.
157
During a manual fire and overheat detection system test,
FIRE TEST IN PROG appears on the EICAS.
158
If the FIRE/OVHT TEST switch is released with FIRE TEST IN PROG message
displayed
the test ends without completing.
159
The maximum B777-200A Flaps 1 speed is _____ knots.
240
160
The maximum B777-200A Flaps 5 speed is _____ knots.
220
161
The maximum B777-200A Flaps 15 speed is _____ knots.
200
162
The maximum B777-200A Flaps 20 speed is _____ knots.
190
163
The B777-200A Flaps 25 speed is _____ knots.
180
164
The maximum B777-200A Flaps 30 speed is _____ knots.
170
165
The maximum B777-200B/C Flaps 1 speed is _____ knots.
255
166
The maximum B777-200B/C Flaps 5 speed is _____ knots.
235
167
The maximum B777-200B/C Flaps 15 speed is _____ knots.
215
168
The maximum B777-200B/C Flaps 20 speed is _____ knots.
195
169
The B777-200B/C Flaps 25 speed is _____ knots.
185
170
The maximum B777-200B/C Flaps 30 speed is _____ knots.
170
171
The autoland capability may be used
with Flaps 20 or 30 with both engines operative or with one engine
inoperative.
172
To protect against inadvertent flap deployment during cruise, flap and
slat extension from the UP position is inhibited at altitudes above
approximately
20,000 feet.
173
The TAC will not normally compensate for
severe compressor stalls.
174
The TAC is available during all phases of flight
above 70 knots.
175
TAC can normally compensate for which of the following engine problems?
Flameout
176
What are the three primary flight control system modes?
Normal, Secondary, and Direct
177
Which flight control system function is not available when operating in
the secondary mode?
Autopilot
178
When the autopilot is engaged, it sends commands directly to the
PFCs.
179
Manual selection of the secondary flight control mode
is not possible.
180
The PFCs automatically control pitch to compensate for
flap changes.
181
The autoslat system, if armed, enhances airplane stall protection
characteristics
when approaching stick shaker.
182
The wheel-to-rudder cross-tie system provides
up to 8 degrees of rudder deflection using control wheel inputs.
183
Which of the following sequences illustrates the Normal flight control
process while hand flying?
Pilot Input -> ACEs -> PFCs -> ACEs-> Control Surfaces
184
Which of the following sequences illustrates the Direct flight control
process while hand flying?
Pilot Input > ACEs > Control Surfaces
185
Which of the following sequences illustrates the flight control process
when the autopilot is engaged?
Autopilot Inputs > PFCs > ACEs > Control Surfaces
186
If a single spoiler fails, the corresponding spoiler on the other wing
retracts.
187
What action may cause an automatic reversion to the secondary flight
control mode?
PFC or related airplane system faults
188
What malfunction would cause the ACEs to automatically transition to the
Direct flight control mode?
Failure of all PFCs
189
Autothrottle stall protection (commonly referred to as autothrottle
wakeup) is available
in all three flight control modes if valid air data information is
present.
190
Which of the following are functions of envelope protection with the PFCs
in the normal mode?
Bank angle protection, stall protection, and overspeed protection
191
PFCs change airplane pitch based on pilot control column or autopilot
commands and airspeed. In the normal mode, PFCs automatically compensate
for
thrust changes.
192
If uncommanded stabilizer motion is sensed, what happends to the hydraulic
power?
Hydraulic power to the Stabilizer Trim Control Module that caused the
motion is automatically shut off.
193
Bank angle protection starts providing opposing forces to the roll control
wheel inputs when the airplane bank angle exceeds approximately
35 degrees.
194
Roll control is provided by movement of the
flaperons, ailerons, and asymmetrical spoilers.
195
In the Direct flight control mode, which of the following is operative?
Pitch trim
196
Flap load relief limits flap retraction to Flaps
5.
197
The spoilers are powered by _____ hydraulic system(s).
all three
198
Autothrottle Wakeup stall protection is available in _____ flight control
mode(s) if valid air data information is present.
all three
199
The pitch envelope protection functions _____ the pilot's control
authority.
do not reduce
200
On B777-200 airplanes, primary flap and slat extension from the UP
position is inhibited at speeds greater than _____ knots.
250
201
On B777-200B airplanes, primary flap and slat extension from the UP
position is inhibited at speeds greater than _____ knots.
265
202
When will the wheel-to-rudder cross-tie operate?
In flight below 210 knots
203
How is the ALTN flap mode selected?
Manually
204
What envelope protection do you have in the Normal Flight Control Mode?
Overspeed, bank angle, and stall
205
Bank angle protection provides opposing forces to roll control wheel
inputs when the airplane bank angle exeeds approximately _____ degrees.
35
206
Load relief is available for
flaps in the primary mode.
207
When does the rudder become effective?
Between 60 and 80 knots
208
To provide airplane control in the event of a jam, the control _____ are
connected through jam override mechanisms.
columns and control wheels
209
The Primary Flight Computers automatically control pitch to maintain a
relatively constant flight path. There is no need for additional control
column back pressure to compensate for turns using up to _____ degrees of
bank.
30
210
In the _____ pitch control mode(s), the PFCs automatically compensate for
thrust, gear, and speedbrake configuration changes.
Normal
211
The ALTN FLAPS selector electrically extends the flaps/slats to what
maximum position?
20/mid
212
Which of the following statements is true of the RUDDER Trim Knob?
It is spring-loaded to neutral.
213
The autoslat system enhances stall protection. When approaching stick
shaker, if armed, the system automatically moves the slats from the _____
position to the _____ position.
mid, down
214
Autoslat operation is armed at
Flaps 1 through 20 only in primary flap mode.
215
In the secondary flight control mode, the elevator variable feel system
provides
two feel force levels that change with flap position.
216
Pilot controls command the _____ actuator control electronics (ACEs) and
the _____ primary flight computers (PFCs).
4, 3
217
When the airplane is _____ feet AFE or below on takeoff, or _____ feet RA
or below on approach, the autothrottle will NOT automatically engage
(autothrottle wakeup) to support stall protection.
400, 100
218
Slat load relief is available in the _____ flap mode because slats are
fully extended in all flap positions in that mode.
secondary
219
Which function is NOT available after an automatic reversion to the
secondary flight control mode?
Automatic pitch compensation
220
Which of the following CDU inputs is NOT required to calculate the
stabilizer green band?
Flap setting
221
A loss of flap/slat position sensing
removes the tape fill and flap lever position indications.
222
With the autopilot engaged, the primary pitch trim switches are
inhibited.
223
Can TAC be overridden with the Manual Trim Cancel switch?
No
224
Placing the PRIMARY FLIGHT COMPUTERS disconnect switch to DISC puts the
flight control system in which mode?
Direct
225
The Manual Trim Cancel switch _____ rudder inputs from TAC.
has no effect on
226
On the ground, the stabilizer is directly positioned when the pilot uses
the
pitch trim switches.
227
In the Secondary Flap/Slat mode, slats are positioned
to full extension when Flaps 1 is selected.
228
In the ARMED position, the speed brake lever is driven aft to the UP
position when the landing gear is fully on the ground and
both throttles are in IDLE.
229
The dual alternate pitch trim levers on the control pedestal
have priority over the control yoke trim switches in all flight control
modes.
230
In the Normal flight control mode, what occurs with the STAB TRIM switches
in CUTOUT?
Pitch trim is still available.
231
In the secondary flight control mode, the primary pitch trim switches and
the alternate pitch trim levers move the
stabilizer directly. There is no trim reference speed.
232
Inflight, if the ADIRU switch is selected OFF,
the ADIRU remains powered.
233
During flight in the normal mode, the pitch trim switches
make inputs to the PFCs to first move the elevators to achieve the trim
change, then move the stabilzer to streamline the elevator.
234
The Manual Trim Cancel Switch is available in all flight control modes
except the _____ mode.
direct
235
In the normal mode in flight, simultaneously pushing both Pitch Trim
Switches on the yoke, changes the
trim reference speed.
236
Radio Altitude information is displayed on the PFD below _____ feet AGL.
2500
237
Pitch Limit Indication is automatically displayed on the PFD
when flaps are not up or at slow speeds with flaps up.
238
A full ADIRU alignment takes _____ minutes.
10 to 15
239
The stab green band is calculated using which of the following pilot CDU
inputs?
CG
240
After ADIRU alignment, the PFD should be checked for proper indications.
What airspeed indication is normal?
30 knots
241
If either TO/GA switch is NOT pushed on takeoff roll by 50 KIAS, the
autothrottle cannot be engaged until what minimum altitude?
Above 400 feet AGL
242
Touching a corner of the Cursor Control Device touchpad
places the cursor in the corresponding corner of the MFD.
243
The PFD speed trend vector indicates predicted airspeed in _____ seconds
based on current acceleration or deceleration.
10
244
What is the function of the NOTES key at the bottom of any checklist
page?
It displays the operational notes collected from non-normal checklists
during the flight.
245
Which Display Select Panel (DSP) display switch provides Hydraulic, APU,
Oxygen and dispatch Status messages?
STAT
246
Two toggle switches allow display of the left and right VOR and ADF
bearing pointers on
the ND.
247
The ITEM OVRD key changes the color of a highlighted item to cyan, and
indicates that an electronic checklist item
is not applicable and has been overridden.
248
How are normal checklists arranged in the ECL menu?
By phase of flight
249
The order of ECL messages in the non-normal checklist queue matches
EICAS message priority.
250
At _____ , the FLARE and ROLLOUT modes are armed and autoland status
annunciation should
show LAND 2 or LAND 3.
1500 RA
251
An empty white box next to an EICAS message indicates that
the checklist has not been accessed or has at least one incomplete step.
252
The FMC present position in MAP mode is represented by a _____ symbol on
the NDs.
white triangle
253
When the ECL system is inoperative or disabled, checklist icons on the
EICAS display are
not displayed for any messages.
254
When a single system failure causes the display of multiple EICAS alert
messages,
unnecessary non-normal checklists are inhibited from display in the
checklist queue.
255
Flap manuevering speeds are displayed on the PFD beginning at _____ feet
and below.
20,000
256
The current active waypoint always appears in which corner of the NAV
display?
Upper right
257
Center fuel tank scavenge is a(an) _____ operation.
automatic
258
The fuel system allows the crew to jettison fuel
from all fuel tanks.
259
If you are at max gross weight and you do nothing but arm the Fuel
Jettison system and open the nozzles, what weight will you dump to?
Maximum (structural) landing weight
260
The DC Fuel pump in the left main tank _____ controlled from the cockpit.
cannot be directly
261
The DC fuel pump in the left main tank automatically provides fuel
to the APU when AC power is not available and the APU selector is ON.
262
With AC power available, which fuel pump operates automatically when
starting the APU?
The left forward AC pump
263
The center tank fuel pumps override the main tank pumps so that the
center tank fuel is used first.
264
When fuel jettison is complete, at least _____ remains.
11,500 pounds in each main tank
265
Fuel can be jettisoned to a total minimum value of _____ pounds.
23,000
266
In flight, the _____ operates automatically for quick left engine relight
capability with the loss of both engines and all AC power.
DC fuel pump
267
During refueling operations, do not operate the
HF radios or WX Radar.
268
The main fuel tanks must be _____ if center tank fuel is loaded.
scheduled full
269
The center tank scavenge system automatically transfers any remaining fuel
to the main tanks whenever the main pumps are ON and the fuel quantity in
either main tank is less than _____ pounds (B777-200B, _____ pounds).
20,000, 29,000
270
The Fuel Imbalance Pointer is amber when imbalance is excessive, and _____
if fuel balancing is going in the wrong direction.
flashes
271
The FAULT light in the FUEL JETTISON - ARM switch indicates that
a system fault has occurred and fuel jettison is inoperative.
272
The CENTER PUMPS PRESS lights are inhibited
when the center tank pump switches are off.
273
An expanded FUEL QTY display appears when
one or both crossfeed valves are open.
274
What happens when fuel jettisons to the TO REMAIN quantity?
Main tank jettison pumps shut off, and center tank jettison isolation
valves close.
275
Use center tank fuel for taxi, takeoff, and cruise operations with all
boost pumps ON and cross feed valve closed until _____ or 400 pounds (2400
pounds B777-200B) of fuel remain in the center tank.
the FUEL LOW CENTER advisory message is displayed
276
An expanded FUEL QTY display appears when
center pumps are OFF with fuel in the center tank.
277
The left hydraulic system powers
some flight controls and the left thrust reverser.
278
The right hydraulic system powers
some flight controls, the right thrust reverser, and normal brakes.
279
The center hydraulic system powers
the landing gear actuation and trailing edge flaps.
280
Flight control system components are distributed so that _____ can provide
adequate airplane control.
any one hydraulic system
281
In flight, the RAT deploys automatically with loss of power to
both AC transfer busses.
282
The RAT provides hydraulic power to
only those flight control systems connected to the center hydraulic
system.
283
In the left and right hydraulic systems, the engine driven pumps receive
fluid from the
standpipes.
284
The right hydraulic system powers all of the following, except
both thrust reversers.
285
The left and right hydraulic demand pumps are driven by
electric motors.
286
The hydraulic systems power all of the following, except
nose wheel brakes.
287
Both center air demand pumps operate
to meet system demands when selected to AUTO.
288
Regarding the Center Hydraulic System, what pumps provide supplementary
hydraulic power for periods of high system demand or when primary pump
pressure is low?
Two air-driven demand pumps
289
One of the conditions that will automatically deploy the RAT in flight is
the
failure of both engines with low center hydraulic system pressure.
290
What occurs if the center hydraulic system quantity is sensed to be low
and airspeed is greater than 60 knots (in flight)?
The reserve brakes are isolated from the center system and remain
operable.
291
In flight, the RAT deploys automatically if
all three hydraulic systems lose pressure.
292
If deployed, can the RAT be re-stowed in flight?
No
293
The stabilizer is powered by which hydraulic systems?
Center and right
294
Hydraulic fluid is supplied to each hydraulic system from the respective
reservoir. The reservoirs are pressurized by
bleed air.
295
What is the minimum hydraulic quantity required for dispatch in each
system?
Above RF
296
The RAT can be deployed manually by using the RAM AIR TURBINE switch
with airplane battery or APU battery power available.
297
With AC power ON and the right electric demand pump switch in the AUTO
position on the ground, the
pump runs continuously.
298
With their respective switches in the AUTO position, the hydraulic demand
pumps operate
when primary pump pressure is low or when high demand is anticipated.
299
When a demand pump FAULT light illuminates, it indicates the following:
low demand pump output pressure, excessive demand pump fluid temperature,
or the pump is selected OFF.
300
The RAM AIR TURBINE PRESS light (overhead panel) indicates the RAT is
deployed and the _____ system(s) flight control hydraulic pressure(s)
is(are) normal.
center
301
The FLT CONTROL HYD VALVE POWER switches on the Overhead Maintenance Panel
are used only
on the ground by Maintenance.
302
When a PRIMARY ELEC (C1, C2) Hydraulic Pump Switch shows FAULT light,
which one of the following is indicated?
Low primary pump pressure
303
What does the UNLKD light indicate?
The RAT is not in the stowed position.
304
Which hydraulic pump(s) will load shed if ELMS detects an overload?
The primary C2 pump
305
The C1 primary electric pump is isolated from the center hydraulic system
when center hydraulic
quantity is low, in order to provide reserve brake pressure.
306
An RF indication next to the hydraulic quantity indicates that
the reservoir requires filling.
307
If a hydraulic system reservoir is filled to beyond the normal full
service level, _____ appears on
the Status page next to the Hydraulic QTY indication for that reservoir.
OF
308
Which cockpit windows are heated?
All windows
309
Does the cockpit window heat system have a backup system?
Yes, the forward windows have a backup electric anti-fogging system.
310
The side windows have what type(s) of protection?
Interior surface anti-fogging protection only
311
With Wing Anti-Ice selected to ON and TAT is 10o C or above, the manual
wing anti-ice operation is inhibited until
5 minutes after takeoff.
312
Automatic (AUTO) wing anti-ice operation is inhibited, independent of
TAT, for up to _____ minutes after takeoff and while in the takeoff
reference mode.
10
313
In flight, with engine and wing anti-ice selected to AUTO, when either ice
probe detects ice a second time, the probe heater cycles on again and
engine anti-ice valves open automatically to deice engine inlet cowls.
314
Which cockpit windows have exterior surface anti-icing?
The forward windows
315
Will wing anti-ice work automatically on the ground?
No, wing anti-ice is available only in flight.
316
Will engine anti-ice work automatically on the ground?
No, it works on the ground only when ENGINE ANTI-ICE is manually selected
ON.
317
When either ice detection probe detects ice for the second time,
the probe heater cycles on again, and the engine anti-ice valves open
automatically to deice engine inlet cowls.
318
The INOP light on the WINDOW HEAT switch indicates
an overheat, system fault or the switch is off.
319
How do you know when an engine anti-ice valve is open?
EAI is above N1 display.
320
What is indicated when EAI appears above the N1 indication on the EICAS
display?
An engine anti-ice valve is open.
321
The center hydraulic system powers
alternate/reserve brake system.
322
Hydraulic pressure for landing gear retraction, extension, and steering is
supplied by the _____ hydraulic system(s).
center
323
Main gear aft axle steering activates
automatically when required.
324
Autobrakes are applied if takeoff is aborted above _____ knots.
85
325
On dry runways, the maximum autobrake deceleration rate IN THE LANDING
MODE is
less than that produced by maximum effort manual braking.
326
Autobrakes provide braking to
a complete stop or until disarmed.
327
During extension how are the landing gear lowered?
They free-fall to the down and locked position.
328
The autobrake system can be disarmed after landing by
manual braking.
329
When do you have Autobrakes available?
Only when the Normal Brake system is operable
330
The autobrake system is disarmed by
manual braking.
331
The B777-200A maximum taxi weight is _____ pounds.
547,000
332
The B777-200A maximum takeoff weight is _____ pounds.
545,000
333
The B777-200A maximum landing weight is _____ pounds.
445,000
334
The B777-200A maximum zero fuel weight is _____ pounds.
420,000
335
The B777-200B maximum taxi weight is _____ pounds.
650,000
336
The B777-200B maximum takeoff weight is _____ pounds.
648,000
337
The B777-200B maximum landing weight is _____ pounds.
460,000
338
The B777-200B maximum zero fuel weight is _____ pounds.
430,000
339
The alternate/reserve brake system provides _____ protection to tandem
wheel pairs for the forward and middle axle wheels.
antiskid
340
Nose gear actuation and steering are reconnected when airspeed decreases
below _____ knots.
60
341
During IMC conditions, do not use speed brakes
from the FAF or 1500 feet AGL (whichever is lower) inbound.
342
Which input has steering override authority, nose wheel steering tiller or
rudder pedal?
Nose wheel tiller steering overrides rudder pedal steering.
343
Which of the following will NOT disarm the autobrake system?
Center system hydraulic loss
344
If the right hydraulic system pressure is low, the _____ hydraulic system
automatically supplies pressure to the alternate/reserve brake system.
center
345
The ALTN GEAR switch releases all gear uplocks and doors
by activating an electric hydraulic pump.
346
Following an alternate extension, positioning the landing gear lever to
_____ then _____ retracts the gear using the normal system, if the normal
system is available.
DN, UP
347
When the landing gear lever is moved to DN, the landing gear doors open
and the gear are unlocked. During extension
main gear trucks tilt to flight position.
348
With AUTOBRAKE _____ selected, brake application is delayed until slightly
after touchdown.
1 or 2
349
When selected prior to takeoff, RTO will operate _____ groundspeed above
85 knots.
with both throttles retarded to idle and
350
What occurs when the AUTOBRAKE Selector is turned to the RTO position?
Automatically applies maximum braking when throttles are retarded to idle
above 85 knots
351
The landing gear lever lock
is automatically released through air/ground sensing.
352
When the landing gear lever is positioned to UP, the
landing gear doors open and the main gear wheels tilt to the retract
position.
353
How do you verify that the parking brakes are set?
PARKING BRAKE SET is displayed on EICAS.
354
An EICAS message and the _____ alert the pilots if gear aft axles are not
centered and locked when takeoff thrust is applied.
takeoff warning horn sounds to
355
The BRAKE SOURCE light indicates low pressure in
both the right and center/reserve hydraulic systems.
356
If any gear is not completely locked down after normal transit time
the EICAS gear position indicator changes to the expanded format.
357
The word BRAKE in this graphic indicates the brake _____ on the respective
wheel.
is deactivated
358
In this configuration, what is the status of the nose gear landing light?
Off
359
After localizer and glideslope capture, the localizer and glideslope modes
can be disengaged by
disconnecting the autopilot and turning both Flight Directors off.
360
The minimum threshold crossing height (TCH) is _____ feet.
40
361
In flight, TO/GA is armed whenever the
flaps are not retracted or a glideslope is captured.
362
At what altitude does VNAV engage if it is armed for takeoff?
400 feet
363
Autothrottle disconnect occurs automatically under what circumstance?
A fault in the engaged autothrottle mode is detected.
364
Regarding thrust management, the second push of the TO/GA switch in
flight
engages autothrottles in THR REF mode to provide full-rated go-around
thrust.
365
Autopilot rudder commands are added only
when LAND 3 or LAND 2 is annunciated.
366
What effect do the stall and overspeed protection functions have on the
flight director?
The pitch flight director bar disappears.
367
During autolanding and initial rollout, the autopilot controls _____ to
keep the airplane on the runway centerline.
rudder and nose wheel steering
368
After manually positioning the throttles with the autothrottle system
engaged, the autothrottle does NOT subsequently reposition the throttles
in which mode?
HOLD
369
The AFDS captures the localizer when within range and within _____ degrees
of the localizer track.
120
370
If the autothrottle is used during a manual landing, the autothrottle does
not automatically retard if the pitch mode is
TO/GA or FLCH.
371
When the A/P DISENGAGE bar is positioned down,
bank angle protection is disabled and all autopilots are disconnected.
372
When the TO/GA switch is pushed to initiate a go-around, autothrottles
adjust to climb at not less than _____ FPM.
2000
373
An amber line through the pitch mode annunciation on the PFD FMA indicates
that
degradation of the pitch mode is sensed while the autopilot is engaged.
374
When the AFDS redundancy is unable to make an automatic landing, the AFDS
status annunciation is
NO AUTOLAND.
375
During climb, if the IAS/MACH window is open it will automatically change
from IAS to MACH
at 0.84 MACH.
376
The IAS/MACH window _____ when the FMC controls speed.
is blank
377
All MCP modes can be disengaged by
disconnecting the autopilot and turning both flight director (F/D)
switches OFF.
378
With the BANK LIMIT selector in the AUTO position, angle of bank varies
between
15-25 degrees, depending on TAS.
379
All automatic flight control modes EXCEPT _____ can be disengaged by
selecting another mode.
APP
380
The VNAV, LNAV, LOC, and APP modes can be disarmed by
pushing the mode switch a second time before capture.
381
Engaged or captured modes are shown at the top of the flight mode
annunciator boxes in large _____ letters.
green
382
A green box is drawn around a mode annunciation for 10 seconds when
a mode first becomes active or engaged.
383
Regarding AFDS FMA indications, armed modes (except for TO/GA in flight)
are shown in
smaller white letters at the bottom of the flight mode annunciator boxes.
384
The CLB CON thrust switch is NOT operational during takeoff below _____
feet.
400
385
Which of the following is NOT an autothrottle mode?
FLCH SPD
386
_____ is displayed on the PFD throttle FMA when thrust is set to the
selected thrust limit.
THR REF
387
The AFDS FMA HOLD indicates
the throttles are disconnected from the autothrottle servos, and pilots
can set the thrust levers manually.
388
When a specific flight director mode degradation persists, the condition
is annunciated by
removal of the affected (pitch or roll) flight director bar.
389
With LAND 2 or 3 annunciated on the PFD,
a single fault cannot cause a significant deviation from the flight path.
390
The FMC determines present position from the
ADIRS, GPS, and navigation radios.
391
LNAV becomes active after takeoff when armed, and when altitude is at or
above _____ feet when within 2.5 NM of the active route leg.
50
392
Which of the following is automatically computed and entered on the PERF
INIT page?
Gross weight
393
The three ADIRU modes of operation are
align, navigate, and automatic realign.
394
If electrical power is removed from the airplane and the battery switch is
turned OFF, the _____ continues to supply electrical power to the ADIRU.
hot battery bus
395
If the ADIRU fails, the SAARU automatically provides
backup attitude, directional gyro, and air data information.
396
SAARU power-up occurs automatically
when the airplane is powered.
397
The ADIRU and SAARU receive air data from the
left, center, and right pitot, and static systems.
398
The SAARU provides _____ minutes of backup heading following an ADIRU
failure, except in the polar region where the backup is not provided.
3
399
At cruise altitude, the FMC sets cruise speed at the default or pilot
entered speed until reaching the top-of-descent point. What are the other
two alternate cruise speed options?
Long range (LRC) and Engine out (ENG OUT)
400
The DEPARTURES page data (if available) is used to enter what
information?
Departure runway, SID, and transition (if known)
401
All flight management computing tasks are accomplished by
the active FMC.
402
What does the ON BAT light mean when illuminated?
ADIRU is being powered by the Hot Battery Bus.
403
Which radios are NOT tuned using the Radio Tuning Panel?
ADF radios
404
The SET HDG prompt on POS INIT 1/3 is not normally present. Under what
condition will this prompt automatically appear?
It is displayed three minutes after ADIRU failure.
405
The standby attitude indicator displays _____ attitude.
SAARU
406
What entry do you make on the TAKEOFF REF page 2/2 for E/O ACCEL HT if
there is no T-procedure?
800
407
What is the standard ICAO noise abatement takeoff value entry for ACCEL HT
(TAKEOFF REF page 2/2)?
3000
408
The ADIRU ON BAT light indicates the ADIRU remains powered by the _____
with all other power removed from the airplane.
hot battery bus
409
The RECMD altitude on the ACT ECON CRZ page displays the most economical
altitude for the next _____ NM.
500
410
On the POS REF page 2 of 3, what happens when the prompt at 6R (BRG/DIST)
is selected?
Prompt changes display of position data on POS REF 2/3 and 3/3 to
bearing/distance format or latitude/longitude format.
411
On the IDENT page, the nav database change-over time (when applicable) is
0901Z.
412
The valid entry range for cost index on the CDU PERF INIT page is
0-9999.
413
When the engine bleed air switches are selected ON, an engine bleed valve
closes automatically for which of the following reasons?
Duct leak
414
What condition causes the EICAS advisory message STANDBY COOLING to be
displayed?
Internal malfunctions (pack compressor or turbine failure)
415
If an automatic shutdown of the cargo heat system occurs, cargo heat
to the related compartment cannot be restored in flight.
416
When pulled ON, the LDG ALT selector removes the FMC landing altitude.
Rotating left or right manually sets landing altitude. Pushing selector in
restores FMC landing altitude.
417
Pneumatic system air can be supplied by the
engines, APU, or ground air source.
418
Appropriate valves _____ to isolate a duct leak.
close automatically
419
In flight, APU bleed air is available for pressurization at or _____
feet.
below 22,000
420
Recirculation fans _____ and allow packs to operate at a reduced flow.
enhance cabin ventilation
421
Why does the left pack supply air to the cockpit at a higher pressure than
the passenger cabin?
To prevent smoke from entering the cockpit from the passenger cabin
422
For ground operations, single air conditioning pack operation is not
recommended
because it does not reduce APU fuel consumption.
423
The _____ cargo compartments have independent bleed air heating systems.
aft and bulk
424
If both air conditioning packs are in the standby cooling mode, pack
operation
continues regardless of altitude or outside air temperature to maintain
cabin pressurization.
425
Shoulder and foot heat for pilots is available
in flight only.
426
The AIR COND reset switch resets or attempts to reset which of the
following?
Pack valves, trim air valves, recirculation fans, and fault protection
427
Fuel consumption increases approximately _____ for each recirculation fan
switch turned OFF.
0.7%
428
The pilots can set the master cabin temperature control reference between
_____ using the CABIN TEMP control.
65 degrees F and 85 degrees F
429
When on the ground, the ground crew call horn will sound and an EICAS
advisory message will be displayed when
the forward equipment cooling system is inoperative.
430
If the EQUIP COOLING OVRD light is illuminated and AUTO is visible, the
smoke override mode has been automatically selected.
431
The _____ cargo compartments are heated and pressurized.
forawrd, aft, and bulk
432
Oxygen masks and chemical oxygen generators are located above the seats in
passenger service units (PSUs). The masks automatically drop from the PSUs
if cabin altitude exceeds approximately _____ feet.
13,500
433
Passenger oxygen switch activation causes
deployment of passenger oxygen masks.
434
Oxygen bottle pressure for the pilot oxygen system is displayed on the
MFD status page.
435
What feature does the pilot obtain by selecting the EMERGENCY position on
the oxygen regulator?
100% oxygen under positive pressure is forced into the facepiece at all
cabin altitudes preventing the entrance of contaminants.
436
What does the PASS OXYGEN "ON" light mean?
Verifies the signal has been sent to unlatch the PSUs (passenger service
units).
437
When the LDG ALT selector knob is pulled out/ON,
the landing altitude can be set manually by rotating the knob left or
right.
438
An Outflow Valve takes approximately how many seconds to move the full
range, closed to open, after holding its OUTFLOW VALVE MANUAL switch to
OPEN?
30
439
The B777-200B passenger cabin is equipped with 16 supplemental oxygen
packs, which can supply oxygen
to cabin occupants in the event of a decompression.
440
Squeeze and pull the mask release levers to release the oxygen mask from
its container and inflate mask harness. Closing the left storage door and
pushing down on the PRESS TO TEST AND RESET slide lever
shuts off oxygen flow to the mask and deactivates the mask microphone.
441
The LDG ALT (landing altitude) display shows
destination airport landing altitude when more than 400 NM from departure
airport.
442
The altitude alert system is inhibited in flight when
the glideslope is captured.
443
An altitude alert occurs when the airplane altitude deviates from the
altitude selected on the MCP by _____ feet or more.
200
444
A Ground Proximity Warning of "DON'T SINK, DON'T SINK" indicates that the
GPWS detects
an altitude loss after takeoff or go-around.
445
GPWS monitors for hazardous flight path conditions and provides visual and
aural warnings, alerts, or advisories when such conditions are encountered
below _____ feet RA.
2450
446
What are the two TCAS warning advisories?
Traffic Advisory and Resolution Advisory
447
When LAND 2 or LAND 3 is displayed, EICAS caution messages are
not inhibited.
448
The STATUS message cue, communication messages (except CABIN ALERT), and
communication aural chimes are inhibited on descent from 800 feet RA until
below _____ knots groundspeed.
75
449
False GPWS warnings may occur due to
heavy rain.
450
The Predictive Windshear System (PWS) operates only below
2300 feet RA.
451
The Predictive Windshear System (PWS) is activated automatically on the
ground when the
throttles are set for takeoff.
452
In addition to the Master WARNING lights, what indications are used to
announce a Time Critical Warning?
Voice alerts, PFD indications, or stick shaker
453
When the background terrain display is selected, how is terrain shown?
The density and color of the patterns are functions of the height of the
terrain.
454
The Master WARNING lights and fire bell are
inhibited for fire from V1 until 400 feet RA, or 25 seconds after V1.
455
After engine start, the blue STATUS cue is inhibited
until 30 minutes after liftoff.
456
In the EGPWS system, if the GPS position is lost, EGPWS
capabilities are also lost soon thereafter.
457
Automatic pop-up display of terrain for BOTH pilots occurs for an EGPWS
alert when
neither pilot has the terrain display selected, and the TERR OVRD switch
is not selected.
458
Takeoff configuration warnings are inhibited when airspeed exceeds
V1.
459
At 900 feet prior to the selected altitude, a(n) _____ box displays around
the selected altitude.
white
460
The STATUS Cue is inhibited from _____ until _____ minutes after takeoff,
or until cruise altitude is reached.
engine start, 30
461
When is the Predictive Windshear System activated (armed or turned on)?
Automatically on the ground when the throttles are set for takeoff
462
When are all transponder modes inhibited?
When the mode selector is in STBY
463
Takeoff configuration warning indications are
inhibited above V1.
464
If GPS position is lost, EGPWS capabilities
are also lost.
465
Status messages, displayed on the STATUS page, support normal airplane
operation and
are not considered pilot alerts.
466
When are all continuous aural alerts silenced automatically?
When the respective alert conditions no longer exist
467
Altitude alerting is inhibited in flight with landing flaps (25 or 30)
selected and all landing gear down, or
glideslope capture.
468
What does pressing either Master WARNING/CAUTION Reset Switch do?
Silences certain warning sirens and resets the lights for subsequent
warning alerts
469
What does pressing the GND PROX FLAP OVRD switch do?
Inhibits the GPWS "TOO LOW FLAPS" voice alert
470
What does pressing the GND PROX GEAR OVRD switch do?
Inhibits the GPWS "TOO LOW GEAR" voice alert.
471
Status messages identify system faults which may affect
airplane dispatch
472
System alerts, communication alerts, and memo messages are displayed in
both prioritized and chronological order. What is the correct priority in
descending order?
Warning, Caution, Advisory, and Memo
473
In flight, the landing configuration warning system activates if any gear
is not locked down
and the flap lever is in the 25 or 30 position.
474
The EICAS advisory message, CREW OXYGEN LOW, alerts the crew that the
oxygen pressure
is low.
475
The EICAS messages display Warning Messages in
red.
476
EICAS messages displayed in white with a white dot indicate _____
Messages.
Communication
477
What warning occurs if smoke is detected in the Lower Crew Rest
Compartment?
A SMOKE CREW REST LWR - EICAS caution message displays.
478
An EICAS Caution message requires _____ pilot awareness, and action _____.
immediate; may be required
479
After engine start, status messages absent any alert-level warning,
caution, or advisory EICAS messages,
do not require pilot action.
480
During exterior inspection, what must be inspected regarding the wheels
and tires?
Condition and appropriate type
481
What does a blue stripe on the main wheels indicate?
Appropriate for B-model aircraft
482
Fluctuating and inaccurate airspeed and altimeter indications after
takeoff have been attributed to what?
Static ports obstructed by ice
483
During exterior inspection, all external lights must be checked for what?
Clean, undamaged lenses, and intact filaments where possible
484
During exterior inspection, engines should be checked for what?
Cowlings and fasteners closed
485
During exterior inspection, which one of the following is included in the
Left Mid Fuselage check?
Pack inlet and exhaust
486
The Exterior Inspection must be conducted prior to every departure, except
in what circumstance?
Diversion
487
When an aircraft is scheduled for flight with certain systems or
components inoperative, the aircraft must be operated in accordance with
limitations stated in the Flight Manual, as amended by what?
MEL
488
When an aircraft is scheduled for flight with certain secondary airframe,
engine parts, or components missing, the aircraft must be operated with
the limitations stated in the Flight Manual, as amended by what?
CDL
489
What may only be included in the PDL?
DF items
490
With whom must Maintenance coordinate before it can DF or CF a dispatch
item?
Dispatch
491
FAR 121.701 requires each certificate holder to have an approved procedure
for keeping adequate copies of the aircraft's logbook in a place, readily
accessible.
True
492
Which of the following is required by FAR 121.709 after maintenance is
performed on an aircraft?
MRD
493
When is a new MRD required prior to initial taxi?
Any items were fixed
An autoland was accomplished (SAT or UNSAT)
Any new defects or service requests were reported
494
Where on the MRD are all pertinent MEL requirements for a deferral
included?
OPS PLACARD for the deferral
495
Who should the crew contact regarding a defect when in the blocks?
Local Maintenance when in the blocks at a United maintenance station
496
What criteria must be met for a pilot-performed maintenance engine run
above idle power?
Written procedures from TOMC are received and used
Pilots accomplish all normal applicable checklists
No passengers are on board the aircraft
497
What does the SABRE computer interface use to access the manufacturer's
data analyzing takeoff performance?
Weight and temperature
Real-time conditions including altimeter settings, wind, and runway
length
A customized solution for each takeoff
498
What is flap selection based on whether the flap setting is left blank on
the ACARS Takeoff Data Request page?
Lowest flap setting for fuel economy
499
Dry Runway SABRE Performance selects a V1 halfway between V1 min and V1
max providing additional pad for
Accelerate Stop and Go
500
Using SABRE performance, the maximum thrust reduction for a reduced thrust
takeoff cannot go lower than _____% of maximum thrust.
75
501
How are MEL adjustments to V-speeds applied?
Automatically
502
Temperature, altimeter settings, and winds are used in calculating takeoff
performance. What are they based upon?
Hourly weather
503
What V-speeds are used for takeoff?
SABRE FPM-generated V-speeds
504
What is the maximum weight change allowed without requiring a new takeoff
performance data?
Plus 0, minus 7000
505
Cruise winds are updated and available for uplink every _____ hours.
6
