777 Oral Questions Flashcards
(175 cards)
1
Q
What is the wingspan
A
199’ 11”
2
Q
What is the length
A
209’ 1”
3
Q
What is the height
A
60’ 6”
4
Q
What is the min width of payment to do a 180 degree turn
A
155.8’
5
Q
What is the capacity of the center tank
A
174,900 lbs
6
Q
What is the capacity of the main tanks
A
64,100 Lbs
7
Q
What should be considered when first entering the cockpit before sitting down to begin flight preparation
A
- A safety check before powering up: battery switch on, gear leaver down, flap leaver agrees with flap position, alternate flaps not armed, demand hydraulic pumps off.
- check all overhead maintenance switches guarded closed and circuit breakers are in.
- check emergency equipment: first aid kit, PBE, fire extinguisher, crash axe, spare bulbs, smoke goggles, life vest, escape ropes, fire gloves,
- logbook with maintenance release signed
- ADIRU selected on and check status page before starting flows
8
Q
During preflight of the overhead panel you notice that the ADIRU ON BAT light is illuminated. What is happening?
A
The ADIRU had been aligned and AC power was subsequently removed or failed. The hot battery bus is powering the ADIRU. If the battery switch is selected off, the horn with sound in the nose wheel well.
9
Q
What happens if the ADIRU is switched off in flight
A
System logic prevents the ADIRU from becoming unpowered in flight
10
Q
What happens if the ADIRU fails in flight
A
Backup attitude is available from the SAARU. The SAARU cannot navigate. After 3 min the heading must be entered manually at the “set hdg” prompt on the POS INT page. PFD attitude is supplied by the SAARU
11
Q
When will the TAC automatically disengage
A
When reverse thrust is applied,
due to system malfunction,
when engine thrust data is lost,
the engine is damaged or surges,
below 70kts on the ground
anytime the flight controls leave the NORMAL mode and go to either secondary or direct
12
Q
When the PFC switch is in auto and there are no other malfunctions, what control mode are we in
A
Normal
13
Q
How do the flight controls revert to the secondary mode
A
Automatically, as a result of internal faults or failures
14
Q
What causes the flight controls to go from normal to secondary mode
A
Loss of airspeed/ or inertial reference data to primary flight computers
15
Q
What is the net result of the flight control system going into secondary mode
A
All flight controls still function normally. The elevator and rudder may be more or less sensitive at some airspeeds. The following features are lost:
Yaw dampner (may be degraded)
Envelope protection
Autopilot
Thrust asymmetry
Auto speed brakes
Guest suppression
Tail strike protection on some planes
16
Q
How is the primary pitch trim controlled
A
Normally with dual pitch trim switches on each control wheel
17
Q
Do the pitch trim switches move the control column
A
No
18
Q
Do the pitch trim switches have any effect when the autopilot is engaged
A
No they are inhibited
19
Q
Explain how the pitch trim switches operate
A
- on the ground: the pilot is able to directly control the stabilizer postion using the control wheel switches or the alternate trim
- in flight: the control wheel switches do not position the stabilizer directly, but make inputs to the PFC’s to change the trim reference speed. When trim inputs are made, the PFC’s automatically move the elevators to achieve trim change and then move the stabilizer to streamline elevator.
20
Q
What is trim reference speed
A
The speed at which the airplane will eventually stabilize if there are no control column inputs
21
Q
What is the function of the alternate pitch trim levers
A
- they send trim reference speed commands to the PFC’s in normal mode, and move the stabilizer in all modes
- they have priority over control wheel pitch trim commands in all flight modes
22
Q
Will the alternate pitch trim levers disconnect the autopilot
A
No, however they do move the stabilizer.
Note: the alternate pitch trim levers should not be used with autopilot engaged, or stall/over speed protection
23
Q
What is wheel to rudder cross tie
A
Allows you to control the initial effects of an engine failure with control wheel inputs only
Note: operates in NORMAL mode only, in flight, below 210 KIAS
24
Q
How does the wheel-rudder crosstie work
A
Control wheel inputs can deflect the rudder up to 8 degrees
Note: Full thrust engine lost requires about 12 degrees of rudder
25
When is wheel to rudder cross tie available
In flight Below 210 kts airspeed
26
Is there a way to maually select the secondary flight control mode
No
27
Can we manually select the direct mode
Yes, by moving the PFC switch to DISC
28
How does the airplane fly in the secondary or direct modes
Very well, like the 767, there is no TAC for power asymmetry protection and pitch stabilization to correct pitch changes with flaps and thrust changes is lost
29
Does the autopilot work in the secondary or direct modes?
No
30
What do you loose with the flight controls in secondary and direct modes?
-Auto speed brakes
-Envelope protection
-Gust suppression
-Tail strike protection
-TAC
-Yaw dampening may be degraded or inop
-autopilot
31
What is bank angle protection?
Autopilot returns bank angle back to 30 degrees if the airplane reaches 35 degrees. This feature is disarmed when the autopilot disengage bar is down
32
What is stall protection/autothrottle wake up?
If autothrottle is armed and the speed gets near stick shaker speed, the autothrottle system commands thrust to increase speed to minimum maneuvering speed or MCP command speed, whichever is higher
33
What is over speed protection?
As speed nears Vmo/Mmo, nose down trim is inhibited. The pilot must apply continuous forward control pressure to increase speed
34
What is stall protection?
System will not allow you to trim below minimum maneuvering speed; as airspeed approaches stall, increased control column elevator pressure is required to hold the speed you have
35
Name the 2 types of computers in the flight control system.
* 3 PFC's (Primary Flight Computers)
* 4 ACE's (Actuator Control Electronics)
36
What flight control do you have with the loss of all 4 ACE's?
Mechanical control of 2 spoiler panels and alternate pitch trim (4 & 11)
37
What's happening when you get the EICAS message FLAP/SLAT CONTROL?
You have lost flap and slat sequencing. Flaps and slats will have to be extended in alternate mode, which takes a long time so plan for it
38
What do the slats do in alternate mode?
They only move to the mid position
39
What is the max flap setting in the alternate mode?
20
40
What do the slats do in the secondary mode?
If they are up when the system goes to secondary, they go to full extend as soon as flaps are selected. If they are at mid when the system goes to secondary, they remain at the mid position until flaps extend beyond 20.
41
When do the slats normally go from mid to full extend?
When flaps are selected beyond 20 degrees.
42
What is the basic flap slat sequencing?
Slats go down first and come up last.
43
Can you turn the battery switch off in flight?
No, system logic prevents it.
44
What bus does the APU automatically connect to when started on the ground?
Left main AC bus.
45
What should you check before disconnecting external power?
APU RUNNING in white letters on EICAS.
46
What will cause an automatic shutdown of the APU in unattended mode
Fire or inlet over temp,
Overspeed or loss of speed protection,
APU controller failure,
Speed droop,
High EGT,
High oil temp,
Low oil pressure,
Gen oil filter approaching bypass,
Intake door failure,
No combustion on start,
No acceleration on start
47
What will cause an automatic shutdown of the APU in attended mode
Attended mode:
fire or inlet door overheat,
overspeed or loss of over speed protection,
loss of APU controler,
Speed droop.
48
If the APU shuts down automatically in flight because of a fire warning, will the bottle discharge automatically?
No, the crew will have to discharge it.
49
What happens when you pull the APU fire switch?
Shuts off fuel, air, electric, closes the APU door and arms the bottle for discharge.
50
When is the APU fire switch lock automatically released?
When a fire is detected.
51
What does the APU fault light mean?
Fire or fault detected (may shutdown)
Momentarily during APU self test
52
When does the APU start automatically, regardless of switch position?
In flight if both AC transfer busses lose power
To turn it off once it's running in this situation, the switch must be selected to on then off.
53
What is the purpose of the backup generators (BUG)
To power one or both transfer busses if the respective main AC bus power is lost
54
What causes the generator drives to disconnect automatically?
High oil temperature
55
What is the priority sequence for AC power (controlled by the bus tie?)
1. Respective engine driven generator if available
2. APU generator if available
3. Opposite engine driven generator
Ground power must be selected manually.
56
When will the RAT deploy automatically?
1. Double engine failure and center hydraulic pressure low
2. Both AC transfer busses unpowered
3. All 3 hydraulic system pressure low
57
Can the RAT be deployed manually?
Yes, push the RAT switch. Requires hot battery bus being powered.
58
What does the press green light mean once the RAT is deployed?
Operating normally and at least 1,500 psi
59
What does the RAT shed first when airspeed slows?
Electrical loads before hydraulic
60
With the RAT as the only source of power other than batteries, what is powered?
Both captain's and first officer's flight instrument busses.
61
With only battery power, what is powered?
-left and center flight control PSA’s
-Captain's flight instrument bus
-Standby inverter
-hot battery bus
-battery bus
62
Can the rat be stowed in flight?
No
63
When pressurizing the hydraulics, which pump is turned on first and of last? Why?
Right electric demand pump
to prevent fluid transfer between systems.
64
What is the purpose of the demand pumps?
* Provide supplementary hydraulic power during periods of high system demand
* Provide a backup power source for the engine driven primary pumps
65
When do demand pumps run?
* During takeoff
* During landing
* When system or primary engine pump pressure is low
* When selected ON
66
What does the associated hyd demand fault light mean?
High fluid temperature or
Low output pressure or
pump is off
67
Which hydraulic system reservoirs have standpipes?
Left, Center, Right
68
What are the standpipes for?
Reserve fluid for the demand pumps
69
What is the significance of the standpipe and the demand pump in the center system?
It powers reserve brakes and nose gear steering and deployment and only connected to C1
70
What system powers normal brakes?
Right
71
What will cause the emergency lights to come on automatically when armed?
Loss of DC power
Batteries can last 15 minutes
72
When does the PAX oxygen system deploy automatically?
Cabin altitude above 13,500'
73
When will the passenger signs come on automatically regardless of switch position?
Whenever passenger oxygen is on (cabin altitude > 13,500')
74
When do the entry doors handle lock
80 kts.
75
What is the max speed for opening the flight deck side windows?
Vref + 80 kts.
76
When should the beacon be used?
From just before engine start to just after engine shutdown.
77
What is the backup system to the window heat?
Electric anti-fog for forward 2 windows if primary system falls.
78
What is the purpose of the master bright switch?
Controls brightness of all panel lights and displays
Overrides individual control settings
Limits adjustment range of individual controls
79
What position must all light switches be in for the master bright switch to work?
12 o'clock position on individual selectors.
80
Is it necessary to test the fire detection/protection systems during preflight?
No.
81
Why is testing the fire systems not required?
Self test on power up and constant monitoring.
82
How many fire detection/overheat loops does each engine have?
2
83
Does each engine have 4 loops?
No, each loop is both fire detection and overheat warning
84
What causes a fire or overheat warning on the engines?
Detection of condition by both loops is required unless one loop has failed.
If one loop has failed detection by the other loop triggers the warning
85
How many fire warning loops does the APU have?
2.
86
Does the APU have overheat protection?
No, only fire detection... no overheat detection.
87
How many loops are required to sense a fire for auto shut down of the APU
One loop in unattended mode
both loops must be functioning and sensing fire In attended mode
88
What happens when you pull an engine fire switch?
-Arms both fire extinguishers
-Closes spar fuel valves
-Closes bleed air valves
-Trips the generators
-Shuts off hydraulic fluid
-Depressurizes engine drive hydraulic pump
-Removes power to thrust reverser isolation valve
89
What type of fire detection is used in the cargo compartments?
Smoke detectors
90
Is a cargo fire a recall item?
No
91
How many fire bottles are in the cargo fire protection system?
Five
92
What happens when you press either FWD or AFT cargo fire arm switch?
Arms, Aims, Air
Arms Extinguisher bottles
Aims- arms selected compartment extinguisher valve
Air- turns off both lower recirculation fans, shuts down cargo heat, packs go to min air flow
FWD- puts equipment cooling into override
AFT- shuts down bulk cargo ventilation and lavatory and galley vent fan
93
What is the bottle discharge sequence when fighting a cargo fire
In flight: Two bottles discharge immediately under high flow, other three bottles at reduced rate starting 15 minutes later
If the airplane lands before all bottles discharge, one of the remaining three discharges at reduced rate on touchdown.
On the ground: 2 bottles discharges immediately but only one of the remaining bottles discharges after a time delay
94
What do we need to be aware of when the equipment cooling is operating in override mode at low altitude and high ambient temperature?
Possible equipment failure from overheat due to low air flow
95
After fighting a cargo fire, would you expect to see the EICAS message go away?
Not immediately because the smoke detectors cannot distinguish smoke from halon.
96
What is the backup power source for the EEC's?
Aircraft AC power
97
What protections do the EEC's provide in the normal mode?
- Over speed
- Over boost
98
What protections do the EEC's provide in the alternate mode?
- Over speed only
99
What happens if the EEC's detect an internal fault?
They automatically go into the soft alternate mode.
100
Why do we select the hard alternate mode if the EEC has gone into soft alternate mode?
- To prevent thrust lever stagger at even thrust settings
- To prevent asymmetrical thrust when thrust levers are not staggered
- To regain the command and the reference prompts on the N1 indications
- To use a broader data base
101
What must we do before selecting the hard alternate mode?
Retard the thrust levers to the mid position; to prevent over boost.
102
Is the autothrottle available in the hard alternate mode?
Yes
103
What should you know about thrust lever position and actual thrust between the normal and alternate modes?
The same thrust lever position in the alternate mode yields either equal or greater thrust than the normal mode.
104
What is the difference between soft and hard alternate with respect to reference data?
- Soft alternate freezes what is happening now and uses it for as long as it is active
- Hard alternate has a standard program already preset for reference
105
How many start attempts will the autostart system make on the ground/in flight?
2; Unlimited, provided the start EGT limit is not exceeded.
106
When will autostart not attempt another start on the ground?
No N1, insufficient air pressure, starter shaft failure, started duty cycle exceeded.
107
What does the autostart not monitor?
Oil temperature and oil pressure.
108
What action should you take for no oil pressure during start?
Fuel control switches to cutoff, call maintenance, do not motor the engine.
109
What is displayed on the EICAS when the fuel jettison switch is armed?
Fuel to remain is displayed in magenta in place of fuel temperature; the value depicted is calculated to yield max landing weight.
110
What do you do to dump to a weight lower than max landing weight?
Select the fuel to remain you desire by pulling the selector switch out and manually selecting the amount of fuel you want remaining after the dump.
111
What is the minimum fuel to remain that the fuel jettison system will allow?
11,500 lbs in each main tank; standpipe protected.
112
What kind of duration with the max dump leave you?
About 2 hours.
113
What is the purpose of the extra cross feed valve?
To meet 2 engine ETOPS requirements, redundancy.
114
During preflight with all fuel pumps 'off', you notice the left forward fuel boost pump pressure light is not illuminated. What causes this?
The APU is running. When the APU is running the left forward fuel pump comes on automatically to supply the APU...so no pressure light even though the switch is off.
115
What other fuel pump source is available to the APU?
There is a DC fuel pump in the left main for APU start when no AC is available.
116
What other functions does the DC pump provide?
It starts automatically in flight with dual engine failure to provide fuel for APU auto start, and provides some fuel pressure to help start the left engine.
117
How many pumps are in the left main tank?
4; counting the jettison and DC pump
118
What is the sequence of fuel usage with center tank fuel?
Center first then wing tanks
119
What makes the sequence of fuel usage happen?
Center tank pumps are over ride/jettison pumps with higher pressure than the wing tank pumps
120
What is the fuel scavenge system?
Center tank fuel is transferred to the mains by the scavenge system whenever main is < 29,000 lbs and center tank is < 35,000 lbs
121
When can you use wing anti-ice on the ground?
Never
122
What is the requirement for using engine anti-ice on the ground?
Temperature < 10 C, visible moisture, snow, rain, fog with < 1 mile visibility; ramps contaminated or other precipitation
123
When do you need to do an engine run up before takeoff?
Temperature is 3 C or lower and anti-ice on ground required
124
What is the run up procedure?
Position and hold, engines to 50% N1, stable, check all engine instruments normal, then go. No time requirement at stable
125
How often is the run up required during extended ground ops with anti-ice requirements?
Every 15 minutes
126
What is the difference between wing and engine anti-ice in flight?
Engine anti-ice comes on as soon as the ice detector detects ice, more of an anti-ice. Wing anti-ice waits for several cycles of the ice detector before activation, more of a de-ice
127
What happens when the gear is retracted with the nose taxi light switches still on?
The lights extinguish with gear retraction
128
What is an easy way to eliminate unwanted galley odors quickly?
Turn off the recirc fans
129
What causes a pack to enter the standby cooling mode?
Internal malfunctions
130
What does the trim air do?
Adds hot air to conditioned air to control temperature in each zone
131
Can cabin zone temperatures be maintained with the loss of trim air?
Yes
Cabin temperature controllers attempt to maintain all zones at an average target temperature.
132
What is the purpose of the bleed isolation valves?
To isolate a leak if detected
The detection process is automatic; left and right valves are normally open, and the center is normally closed.
133
What do you see on the EICAS when an outflow valve is selected to manual?
Compact pressurization synoptic at the bottom of the screen next to the fuel info
134
What is the best way to manually control the pressurization?
Only use the aft outflow valve. 1 second = 100 pm
135
What should you do if the EFIS control panel fails?
Select alternate EFIS control thru the CDU
Go MENU, select EFIS CONTROL, and then DISPLAY to get EFIS controls in text format on 2 pages.
136
What should you do if the display control panel fails?
Select the DISPLAY CONTROL prompt
There is no EICAS message for this failure.
137
What is the minimum altitude for autopilot engagement and usage?
200' AGL minimum on takeoff; must disconnect when 50' below MDA on non-precision approach; disconnect before going below 200' AGL on ILS (CAT 1) without LAND 2 or LAND 3 annunciated.
138
What does the autopilot disengage bar do besides disengage the autopilot?
Disables bank angle protection.
139
Once in approach mode and below 1,500' with LAND 2 or LAND 3 annunciated, can you de-select approach by pushing the switch again?
No, however you can de-select approach if above 1,500'.
140
What do you have to do to get out of the approach mode when below 1,500'?
Disconnect the autopilot, turn off both FD's, then re-select desired modes or push TOGA button for a go-around.
141
What happens if the left or right PFD screen fails?
The PFD is automatically shifted to the inboard screen.
142
What do you do if both PFD displays go blank?
Select alternate on the DSPL CTRL to select another display generator.
143
What would cause you to have to take the step in the above question?
Automatic selection of a working display generator has failed.
144
How many display generators are in the system?
4 (#3 signal generator is the back-up).
145
Can you manually select standby NAV?
Yes, NAV switch and select CDU.
146
What pages are available in standby NAV?
Legs, progress, and nav/rad.
147
Is automatic approach frequency radio tuning available in standby NAV?
No, each CDU must be tuned to the ILS or VOR frequency manually.
148
What does pushing the air data/nav switch do?
Selects Captain on SAARU single channel air data and SAARU attitude. On the F/0 on ADIRU single channel air data and SAARU attitude.
149
How do you reset communications after using the oxygen mask?
Reset switch on panel and ensure the white flag in the left door is not visible as you close the door.
150
What is the quickest way to contact the purser station?
Depress the 'cabin' mic selector 2 times in 1 second.
151
Who is PF and PM on a CATII or CATIII approach?
Captain is always PF and F/O is always PM.
152
What after landing items should be accomplished before runway turn off?
Disarm auto-brake and autopilot off.
153
What is the max speed to exit the runway?
Taxi speed (30 kts.).
154
When is the ground handling bus powered?
Whenever external power is plugged in or the APU is running, external power has priority.
155
What does the ground handling bus power?
* Cargo doors
* Cargo lights
* Outside maintenance lights
* Fueling bay
156
Why should we know the ground service bus exists?
It powers the main and APU battery chargers.
157
What is the ground service bus's normal and alternate source of power?
* Right main AC bus
* APU
* Primary external power
158
What is the bus tie priority sequence?
* Respective engine gen
* APU gen
* Opposite engine gen
* External must be selected manually.
159
What warnings are flashed in red on the PFD with a corresponding oral warning?
ENG FAIL, WINDSHEAR, and PULL UP
ENG FAIL is uninhibited from 65 kts to 6 kts before V1.
160
What is the minimum clearance from an object before initiating taxi?
15'
161
What does the 'BRAKE SOURCE' light being illuminated tell you?
Center and right hydraulic system pressures are zero.
162
When does the TAC spring into action?
When N1 values vary by 10% or more.
163
How many converters are there to make sure backup generator frequency and voltage is correct?
1
164
How many backup generators can be online at once?
1
165
Can one backup generator power both transfer busses?
Yes
166
When normal brakes are lost, do you still have auto brakes?
No
167
When normal brakes are lost do you still have anti-skid?
Yes, but not individual wheels, only in pairs of wheels across the wheel trucks.
168
What is the ADIRU
(Air data inertial reference system)
Supplies primary flight data, inertial reference, and air data.
It is fault-tolerant and fully redundant
169
Hwo will you know which PFC mode you are in
Look at the synoptic flight control
170
When do the PFCs do a self test
After all hydraulics are shutdown
This happens about 2 min after the EICAS message HYD PRESS SYS L+C+R
171
How to do you know which autopilot is working
You wouldn’t. But it alternates between all 3
172
When is wing anti ice inhibited
On the ground and 10 mins after takeoff
173
When does the back up generators automatically provide power
-only one main AC generator is available
-power to one or both AC busses is lost
-approach mode is selected for autoland
174
What is the airflow path for the forward equipment cooling
Draws air from the cabin to the equipment and the ventilates the warm air into the forward exhaust valve or the forward cargo compartment
175
What is the airflow path for the AFT equipment cooling
