777 Oral Questions Flashcards
777 Type Rating Oral Questions (177 cards)
1
Q
What is the wing span of the 777?
A
212’ 7” (64.8m)
2
Q
What its the length of the 777?
A
206’ 6” (63m)
3
Q
What is the height of the tail of the 777?
A
61’ 6” (28.79m)
4
Q
What is the minimum width of pavement to do a 180 degree turn?
A
157.4 (48.0m)
5
Q
What is the capacity of the main fuel tanks?
A
69K lbs (10,300 gal each tank (20,600 gals total)
6
Q
What s the capacity of the center fuel tank?
A
182.8k lbs (27,290 gals)
7
Q
What is the total capacity of fuel for all tanks?
A
320,800 lbs (47,890 gals)
8
Q
What is the minimum runway width for 777?
A
148’ (45m)
9
Q
What should be considered when first entering the cockpit before sitting down to begin Flight Preparations?
A
Do a safety check before powering up:
Battery Switch - On, Gear Lever Down, Flap Lever agrees with flap position, Alternate Flaps not ARMED, demand hydraulic pumps OFF. Check all overhead maintenance switches - guarded closed and CBs in. Check EMER equipment: First aid Kits, PBE, Fire Extinguisher, Crash Ax, Spare Bulbs, Smoke Goggles, life vests, escape ropes, fire gloves, & logbook with mx release signed. Here the CA selects ADIRU on and checks STATUS page before going into his flow.
10
Q
During the preflight of the overhead panel you notice the ADIRU ON BAT light is illuminated. What’s happening?
A
The ADIRU had been aligned and A/C power was subsequently removed or failed. The hot battery bus is powering the ADIRU. If the battery switch is selected OFF, the horn will sound in the nose wheel well.
11
Q
What happens if the ADIRU is switched off in flight?
A
System logic prevents the ADIRU from becoming un-powered in flight.
12
Q
What happens if the ADIRU fails in flight?
A
Backup attitude is available from the SAARU. The SAARU cannot navigate. After 3 minutes the heading must be entered manually at the “Set hdg” prompt on the POS INIT page. PFD attitude is supplied by the SAARU.
13
Q
When will the TAC (Thrust Asymmetry Compensator) automatically disengage?
A
When reverse thrust is applied, due to system malfunction, when engine thrust data is lost, or if the engine is damaged or surges, any time the flight controls leave the NORMAL mode and go to either secondary or direct mode.
14
Q
When the PFC (Primary Flight Control) switch is in AUTO and there are no other malfunctions, what flight control mode are we in?
A
Normal
15
Q
How do the flight controls revert to the secondary mode?
A
Automatically, as a result of internal faults or failures.
16
Q
What causes the flight controls to go from NORMAL to SECONDARY mode?
A
Loss of airspeed and/or inertial reference data to the primary flight computers (PFCs).
17
Q
What is the net result of the system going into SECONDARY mode?
A
All flight controls still function normally. The elevator and rudder may be more sensitive at some airspeeds. The following features and protections are lost: Autopilot, Auto Speed Brake, Envelope Protection, Gust Protection, Tail Strike Protection, Thrust Asymmetry Compensation, and Yaw Dampening may be degraded or inoperative.
18
Q
For the previous (SECONDARY Mode), what is the associated EICAS message?
A
FLIGHT CONTROL MODE
19
Q
How is Primary pitch trim controlled? (OM 9.20.10)
A
Normally with dual pitch trim switches on each control wheel.
20
Q
Do these pitch trim switches move the control column?
A
No
21
Q
Do the pitch trim switches have any effect when the autopilot is engaged?
A
No, they are inhibited.
22
Q
Explain how the pitch trim switches operate? (OM 9.20.10)
A
On the ground: The pilot is able to directly control the stabilizer position using the control wheel SWS or the alternate trim.
In Flight: The control wheel SWS do not position the stabilizer directly, but make inputs to the PFCs to change the trim reference speed. When trim inputs are made, the PFCs automatically move the elevators to achieve trim change and then move the stabilizer to streamline the elevator.
23
Q
What is Trim Reference Speed? (OM 9.20.10)
A
The speed at which the airplane will eventually stabilize if there are no control column inputs.
24
Q
What is the function of the Alternate Pitch Trim Levers?
A
They send trim speed commands to the PFCs in NORMAL MODE, and move the stabilizer in all modes. They have priority over control wheel pitch trim commands in ALL FLIGHT MODES.
25
Will the Alternate Pitch Trim Levers disconnect the autopilot?
No, however they DO move the stabilizer. Note: The autopilot pitch trim levers should NOT be used with the autopilot engaged, or during stall/overspeed protection.
26
What is Wheel to Rudder Cross Tie?
It allows you to control the initial effects of an engine failure with control wheel inputs only.
27
How does the Wheel to Rudder Cross Tie Work?
Control wheel inputs can deflect the rudder up to 8 degrees (full thrust engine loss requires about 12 degrees of rudder trim).
28
When is Wheel to Rudder Cross Tie available?
Below 210 knots airspeed.
29
Is there a way to manually select the secondary flight control mode?
No
30
Can we manually select the direct flight control mode?
Yes by moving the PFC switch to DISC.
31
How does the airplane fly in the Secondary or Direct mode?
Very well, like a 767, there is no TAC for power asymmetry protection and pitch stabilization to correct pitch changes with flap and thrust changes is lost.
32
Does the autopilot work in the Secondary or Direct modes?
No
33
What else doesn't work in Secondary and Direct modes?
Auto speed brake, envelope protection, gust protection, tail strike protection, TAC, and yaw dampening may be degraded or inoperative.
34
What is Bank Angle Protection?
Autopilot returns bank angle to 30 degrees if the airplane reaches 35 degrees. This feature is disarmed when the autopilot disengaged bar is down (disengaged).
35
What is Stall Protection/Auto throttle Wake up?
If auto throttle is armed and the speed gets near stick shaker speed, the auto throttle system commands thrust to increase speed to minimum maneuvering speed (top of the amber band on the speed tape).
36
What is Overspeed Protection?
As speed nears VMO/MMO nose down trim is inhibited. The pilot must apply continuous forward control pressure to increase speed.
37
What is Stall Protection?
System will not allow you to trim below minimum maneuvering speed; as airspeed approaches stall, increased control column elevator pressure is required to hold the speed you have.
38
Name the two types of computers in the flight control system.
3 PFCs (Primary Flight Computers) and 4 ACEs (Actuator Control Electronics).
39
What flight controls do you have with the loss of all four ACES?
Mechanical control of 2 spoiler panels (#s 4 and 11) and alternate pitch trim.
40
Whats happening when you get the EICAS message FLAP/SLAT CONTROL?
You've lost flap and slat sequencing. Flaps and slats will have to be extended in alternate mode, which takes longer time. So plan for it!
41
What do the Slats do in Alternate Mode?
They only go to mid position.
42
What is the maximum flap setting in the alternate mode?
20
43
What do the slats do in the secondary mode?
If they are up when the system goes to secondary, they go to full extended as soon as flaps are selected. If the are at mid when the system goes to secondary, they remain at mid position.
44
When do the slats normally go from mid to full extend?
When flaps are selected beyond 20 degrees.
45
What is the basic flap/slat sequencing?
Slats go down first, and come up last.
46
Can you turn the Battery switch off in flight?
NO, System logic prevents it.
47
What Bus does the APU automatically connect to when stared on the ground?
Left Main AC Bus
48
What should you check before disconnecting external power?
APU RUNNING in white letters on EICAS.
49
What will cause an automatic shutdown of the APU on the ground?
Fire Warning, high oil temperature, low oil pressure, HIGH EGT. On the ground, APU fire warning also discharges the fire bottle.
50
What will cause an automatic shutdown of the APU in flight?
APU Fire
51
If the APU shuts down automatically in flight because of a fire warning will the bottle discharge automatically?
No, the crew will have to discharge it.
52
What happens when you pull the APU fire switch?
Shuts off fuel, air, electric, closes the APU door, and arms the fire bottle for discharge.
53
When is the APU fire switch lock automatically released?
When a fire is detected.
54
What does the APU FAULT light mean?
HIGH EGT, or HIGH OIL Temp or LOW OIL PRESS
55
What is the corresponding EICAS message for one of these following conditions: HIGH EGT, or HIGH OIL Temp or LOW OIL PRESS?
APU LIMIT
56
When does the APU start automatically, regardless of switch position?
In flight if both AC transfer busses lose power (this might be loss of both engines). To turn it off once it's running, in this situation the switch must be selected to ON then OFF.
57
What is the altitude limit for APU Starting?
43,100'
58
What is the purpose of the backup generators (PMGs - Permanent Magnet Generators)?
To power one or both transfer busses if their respective main AC bus power is lost, to furnish a separate autopilot power source during auto land operations, to furnish primary power to the flight controls.
59
What causes the generator drives to disconnect automatically?
Hight Oil Temperature.
60
What is the priority sequence for AC power (controlled by the bus tie)?
First, respective engine driven generator if available, 2nd APU generator if available, 3rd is the opposite engine driven generator.....ground power must be selected manually.
61
When will the RAT deploy automatically?
Double engine failure and center hydraulic pressure low, both AC transfer busses un-powered, all three hydraulic system pressures low.
62
Can the RAT be deployed manually?
Yes, push the RAT switch...requires hot battery bus being powered.
63
What does the PRESS green light mean once the RAT is deployed?
It is operating normally and at least 1500 psi.
64
What does the RAT shed first when airspeed slows?
Electrical loads before hydraulic.
65
With the RAT as the only source of power, other than batteries, what is powered?
Both Captain's and First Officer's flight instrument busses.
66
With only battery power, what is powered?
Captain's flight instrument bus.
67
Can the RAT be stowed in flight?
No
68
When pressurizing the hydraulics, which pump is turned on first and off last? Why?
Right electric demand pump. To prevent fluid transfer between systems.
69
What is the purpose of the demand pumps?
Provide supplementary hydraulic power during periods of high system demand, and provide a backup power source for the engine driven primary pumps.
70
When do demand pumps run?
During takeoff, landing, when system or primary engine pump pressure is low and when selected ON.
71
What does the associated demand FAULT light mean?
High fluid temperature or pump is off.
72
Which hydraulic system reservoirs have standpipes?
All three: Left, Center and Right.
73
What are the standpipes for?
Reserve fluid for the demand pumps.
74
What is the significance of the standpipes and the demand pumps in the center system?
It also powers reserve brakes and nose gear steering and deployment and is only connected to the C1 hydraulic pump.
75
What system powers normal brakes?
The right system.
76
What will cause the emergency lights to illuminate automatically when armed?
Loss of DC power. Batteries last 15 minutes.
77
What does the PAX/SPN oxygen system deploy automatically?
Cabin altitude above 13,500'
78
When will the passenger sign come on automatically regardless of switch position?
Whenever passenger oxygen is on (Cabin altitude >13,500').
79
When does the door automatic flight lock occur?
80 Kts.
80
What is the max speed for opening the flight deck side windows?
Vref + 80 kts. (roughly 210kts)
81
When should the beacon be used?
From just before engine start to just after engine shutdown.
82
What is the backup system to the window heat?
Electric anti-fog for forward 4 windows if primary system fails.
83
What is the purpose of the master bright switch?
Limits control of individual light dimmers to the mid range and allows control of all light intensity from one switch.
84
What position must all light switches be in for the master bright switch to work?
12 o'clock position on individual selectors.
85
Is it necessary to test the fire detection/protection systems during preflight?
No.
86
Why is testing the fire system not required?
Self test on power up and constant monitoring.
87
How many fire detection/overheat loops does each engine have?
2
88
Does each engine have 4 loops?
No, each loop is both fire detection and overheat warning.
89
What causes a fire or overheat warning?
Detection of the condition by both loops is required unless one loop has failed. If one loop has failed, detection by the other loop triggers the warning.
90
How many fire warning loops does the APU have?
2
91
Does the APU have overheat protection?
No, only fire detection....no overheat detection.
92
How many loops are required to sense a fire for auto shut down of the APU?
On the ground, only one loop....in the air both loops must be functioning and sensing fire.
93
What happens when you pull an engine fire switch?
Shuts off the fuel, air, electrical, hydraulic, depressurizes the hydraulic pump, disarms the respective thrust reverser, and arms both bottles for discharge.
94
What type of fire detection is used in the cargo compartment?
Smoke detectors.
95
Is a cargo fire a recall/memory item?
No.
96
How many fire bottles are in the cargo fire protection system?
5 or 6 on the 300s.
97
What happens when you press either FWD or AFT CARGO Fire Arm Switch?
Extinguisher bottles are armed for firing, valves are selected to the proper compartment, shuts off cargo heat, selects equipment cooling to override if FWD, shuts off BULK ventilation and activates lower crew rest EVAC SYS if AFT.
98
When fighting a cargo fire, what is the bottle discharge sequence?
IN FLIGHT: 2 bottles discharge immediately under high flow, the other 3 bottles are discharged at a reduced rate starting 15 minutes later. If the airplane lands before the bottles are discharged, on of the 3 remaining bottles discharges at the reduced rate on touchdown.
ON THE GROUND: 2 bottles discharge immediately but only one of the remaining bottles discharge after a time delay.
99
What does the equipment cooling system do when the forward cargo fire switch is armed?
It goes into override mode: The RECIRC fans are shutdown, shuts down cargo heat flow and fans, packs go to min flow, override valve opens to vent pressurized air overboard to draw air from the flight deck for equipment cooling (sufficient cooling at cruise, high differential pressure), but at a lower altitudes lower differential pressure causes airflow to decrease.
100
What do we need to be aware of when the equipment cooling is operating in the override mode and we are at low altitude and high ambient temperatures?
Possible equipment failure from overheat due to low air flow.
101
After fighting a cargo fire would you expect to see the EICAS message go away?
Not immediately because the smoke detectors cannot distinguish smoke from halon.
102
What keeps the EECs (Electronic Engine Controls) powered during a double engine failure.
PMGs
103
What is the backup power source for the EECs?
Aircraft AC power.
104
What protections do the EECs provide in the ALTERNATE MODE?
Overspeed only.
105
What happens if the EECs detect an internal fault?
They automatically go into the Soft Alternate Mode.
106
Why do we select the Hard Alternate Mode if the EEC has gone into the Soft Alternate Mode?
To prevent thrust lever stagger at even thrust settings or to prevent asymmetrical thrust when levers are not staggered. Also to regain the command and reference prompts on the N1 indications and to use a broader data base.
107
What must we do before selecting the Hard Alternate Mode? Why?
Retard the thrust levers to the mid position; to prevent over boost.
108
Is the autothrottle available in the Hard Alternate Mode?
Yes.
109
What should you know about thrust lever position and actual thrust between the Normal and Alternate Mode?
The same thrust lever position in the Alternate Mode yields either equal or greater thrust than the Normal Mode.
110
What is the difference between Soft and Hard Alternate with respect to reference data?
Soft Alternate freezes what is happening NOW and uses it for as long as it is active, Hard Alternate has as standard program already preset for reference.
111
How many start attempts will the Auto-Start System make on the ground/in flight?
3/unlimited.
112
When will Auto-Start not attempt another start on the ground?
No N1, insufficient air pressure, starter shaft failure, starter duty cycle exceeded.
113
What does Auto-Start not monitor?
Oil temperature and pressure.
114
What action should you take for no oil pressure during start?
Fuel Control Switch to CUTOFF, call maintenance, do not motor engine.
115
What is displayed on the EICAS when the fuel jettison switch is armed?
Fuel to remain is displayed in magenta in place of fuel temp, the value depicted is calculated to yield max landing weight.
116
What do you do to dump to a weight lower than max landing weight?
Select the fuel to remain you desire by pulling the selector switch out and manually selecting the amount of fuel you want remaining after the dump.
117
What is the minimum fuel to remain that the system will allow?
11,500 lbs in each main tank, standpipe protected (8500 lbs for SA planes).
118
What kind of duration will the max dump leave you?
About 2 hours.
119
Want is the purpose of the extra cross feed valve?
To meet 2 engine ETOPs redundancy requirements.
120
During preflight with all fuel pumps "OFF" you notice the left forward fuel boost pump pressure light is not illuminated. What causes this?
Means the APU is running. When the APU is running, the left forward pump comes on automatically to supply the APU fuel. So no pressure light even though the switch is OFF.
121
What other fuel pump source is available to the APU?
There is a DC fuel pump in the left main for APU start when no AC is available.
122
What other functions does the DC pump provide?
It starts automatically in flight with dual engine failure to provide fuel for APU auto start, and provides some fuel pressure to help start the left engine.
123
How many pumps are in the left main tank?
Four counting the jettison and DC pumps.
124
What is the sequencing of fuel usage with center tank fuel?
Center first, then wing tanks.
125
What makes the Center tanks sequence fuel before the main tanks?
Center tank pumps are over ride/jettison pumps with higher pressure than the wing tank pumps.
126
What is the fuel scavenge system?
Center tank fuel is transferred to the mains by the savage system whenever either the main is below 29000 lbs on the 200ER/LR and 300/300ER or 20000 lbs on the 200 and center tank fuel is down to 35000 lbs on all but the 200. It happens below 8500 lbs on SA planes, until the center tank is exhausted.
127
When can you use Wing Anti-Ice on the ground?
Never
128
What is the requirement for using Engine Anti-Ice on the ground?
Temperature 50F (10C) or less with: visible moisture (vis < 1 mile in fog), rain, snow, ramps contaminated or other precipitation.
129
When do you need to do a run-up before takeoff (GE)?
Temperature 3C or lower and Anti-Ice on ground requirement.
130
What is the cold weather Run-Up procedure?
Position and Hold, engines to 50% N1, Stable, check all engine instruments normal, then go. No time requirement at stable.
131
How often is the Run-Up procedure required during extended ground ops with Anti-Ice requirement?
Every 15 minutes.
132
What is the difference between Wing and Engine Anti-Ice in flight?
Engine Anti-Ice comes on as soon as the ice detector detects ice, more of an Anti-Ice. Wing Anti-Ice waits for several cycles of the ice detector (detecting ice being heated and cleared and then detecting ice again, etc.) before Wing Anti-Ice is activated, more of a de-ice.
133
What happens when the gear is retracted with the nose and taxi light switches still on?
The lights extinguish with gear retraction.
134
What is an easy way to eliminate unwanted galley odors quickly?
Turn OFF the RECIRC fans.
135
What causes a pack to enter the standby cooling mode?
Internal malfunctions. They may automatically shut down in high outside temps or at low altitudes and then restarts when conditions permit. If both packs are in STBY or the other is inop, the other pack will continue to run to maintain pressurization.
136
What is the EICAS message for this and what is usually the cause?
PACK MODE, the air cycle machine has failed; only have heat exchangers operating so no cooling on the ground or at low altitudes.
137
What does the trim air do?
It is hot air which is added to the conditioned air to control the temperature in each zone.
138
Can cabin zone temperature be maintained with the loss of trim air?
Yes, cabin temperature controllers attempt to maintain all zones at an average target temperature.
139
What is the purpose of the bleed isolation valve?
If a leak is detected, they work automatically to isolate the leak. The detection process is automatic. The left and right are normally open and the center is normally closed.
140
What causes the APU bleed valve to open automatically?
It is armed to open whenever the APU is running and the altitude is <22000'.
141
What do you see on the EICAS when an outflow valve is selected to manual?
Compact pressurization synoptic at the bottom of the screen next to the fuel information.
142
What is the best way to manually control the pressurization?
Only use the aft outflow valve. One second = 100fpm.
143
What should you do if the EFIS control panel fails?
Select alternate EFIS control thru the CDU. Go to MENU, select EFIS CONTROL, then DISPLAY which gets EFIS control in text format on 2 pages.
144
What should you do if the DISPLAY SELECT PANEL fails? What is the EICAS message?
Just like above, only select the DISPLAY CONTROL prompt. There is no EICAS message for this one!
145
What is the minimum altitude for autopilot engagement and usage?
200' AGL min on takeoff, must be disconnected when 50' below MDA when on a NON-PRECISION approach, without LAND 3 or LAND 2 annunciated you must disconnect before going below 200' AGL when on an ILS (CAT1).
146
What does the Autopilot Disengage Bar do besides disengage the autopilot?
Disables bank angle protection.
147
What is the CLB CON switch used?
It is ions on the ground and below 400' after takeoff. With 2 engines operating, it changes the TRUST LIMIT to the FMC selected climb thrust With 1 engine inoperative, it changes the thrust limit to MAX CONTINUOUS.
148
Once in the approach mode and below 1500' with LAND 3 or LAND 2 annunciated, can you de-select APP by pushing the switch again?
No, however, you can de-select APP if above 1500'.
149
What do you have to do to get out of the APP mode when below 1500'?
Disconnect the Autopilot, turn off both FDs. Then you may re-select whatever you want (AP or FD and the modes you want) or push TOGA button...of course you'll get a go-around, then you may re-select whatever modes you want.
150
Wha generator.t happens if the left or right PFD screen fails?
The PFD is automatically shifted to the inboard screen.
151
What do you do if both PFD displays go blank?
Select alternate on the DSPL CTRL to select another display generator.
152
What would cause you to have to take the step in the above question?
Automatic selection of a working display generator has failed. Selecting DSPL CTRL selects a working display generator manually.
153
How many display generators are in the system?
4
154
Can you manually select standby navigation?
Yes, NAV switch and select CDU.
155
What pages are available in standby navigation?
LEGS, PROG, and NAV/RAD.
156
Is automatic approach frequency radio tuning available in standby nav?
No, each CDU must be tuned to the ILS or VOR frequency.
157
What does pushing the AIR DATA/NAV switch do?
Selects Captain on SAARU single channel air data and SAARU altitude. On the F/O side selects F/O on ADIRU single channel air data and SAARU altitude.
158
How do you reset communications after using tiger oxygen mask?
Reset switch on panel and insure the white flag in the left door is not visible as you close the door.
159
What is the quickest way contact the purser station?
Depress the "CABIN" Mic selector 2 times in one second.
160
Who is the PF and PM on a CAT II or CAT III approach?
Captain is always PF and F/O is alway PM.
161
What after landing items should be accomplished before runway turnoff?
Disarm auto brakes (usually automatic so just ensure it happens) and autopilot off.
162
What is the maximum speed to exit the runway?
Taxi speed (30 Kts).
163
When is the Ground Handling Bus powered?
Whenever external power is plugged in or the APU is running, external has priority.
164
What does the Ground Handling Bus power?
Cargo Doors, Cargo Lights, Outside Mx Lights, Fueling Bay.
165
Why should we know the ground service bus exists?
It powers the Main and APU battery chargers.
166
What is the ground service bus's normal and alternate source of power?
Right Main AC Bus and APU.
167
What is the BUS TIE Priority sequence?
Respective Engine GEN, APU GEN, Opposite Engine GEN....external must be selected manually.
168
What warnings are flashed in red on the PFD with a corresponding oral warning?
ENG FAIL, WINDSHEAR, and PULL UP, TERRAIN (ENG FAIL is un-inhibited from 65 kts to V1 -6 kts.
169
What is the minimum clearance from an object before initiating taxi?
15'
170
Why is 15' required?
Rear two wheels turn in the opposite direction of the turn so back of airplane and wing tip move opposite to turn direction briefly.
171
What does the "BRAKE SOURCE' light being illuminated tell you?
Center and Right hydraulic system pressure are zero.
172
When does the TAC spring into action?
When N1 values vary by 10% or more.
173
How many converters are there to make sure backup generator frequency and voltage are correct?
One.
174
How many backup generators can be on line at once?
One....because of the previous answer.
175
Can one backup generator power both transfer busses?
Yes.
176
When normal brakes are lost, do you still have auto brakes?
No.
177
When normal brakes are lost, do you still have anti-skid?
Yes, but not individual wheels, only in lateral pairs.
