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Year 3 revision > EMQ book key points > Flashcards

EMQ book key points Flashcards

1
Q

slow rising pulse is in

A

aortic stenosis

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2
Q

collapsing pulse is in

A

aortic regurgitation

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3
Q

3 causes of bounding pulse

A

acute CO2 retention
hepatic failure
sepsis

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4
Q

radiofemoral delay is in

A

coarctation of aorta

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5
Q

jerky pulse is in

A

hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy

mitral regurgitation

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6
Q

absent ‘a’ waves in JVP is in

A

atrial fibrillation

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7
Q

cannon ‘a’ waves in JVP is in

A

complete heart block
AV dissociation
ventricular arrhythmias

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8
Q

rumbling mid-diastolic murmur at apex is in

A

mitral stenosis

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9
Q

displaced apex beat and pansystolic murmur is in

A

mitral regurgitation

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10
Q

narrow pulse pressure, soft second heart sound and ejection systolic murmur is in

A

aortic stenosis

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11
Q

wide pulse pressure and early diastolic murmur is in

A

aortic regurgitation

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12
Q

pansystolic murmur is in

A

tricuspid regurgitation

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13
Q

harsh pansystolic murmur and left parasternal heaves are in

A

ventricular septal defect

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14
Q

pulsatile hepatomegaly is in

A

tricuspid regurgitation

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15
Q

bifid p wave is in

A

left atrial hypertrophy e.g. mitral stenosis

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16
Q

peaked p wave is in

A

right atrial hypertrophy e.g. pulmonary hypertension, tricuspid stenosis

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17
Q

2 causes of ST elevation

A

MI

left ventricular aneurysm

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18
Q

saddle shaped ST elevation is in

A

acute constrictive pericarditis

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19
Q

flattened t waves and prominent u waves are in

A

hypokalaemia

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20
Q

long QT interval, tetany, perioral paraesthesia are in

A

hypocalcaemia

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21
Q

impotence, SOB and cold peripheries are side effects of

A

beta blockers

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22
Q

gynaecomastia is side effect of

A

digoxin

spironolactone

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23
Q

hyper/hypothyroidism, corneal microdeposits and lung/liver fibrosis are side effects of

A

amiodarone

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24
Q

gout is side effect of

A

thiazide diuretic

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25
Q

radiofemoral delay is in

A

coarctation of aorta

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26
Q

jerky pulse is in

A

hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy

mitral regurgitation

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27
Q

absent ‘a’ waves in JVP is in

A

atrial fibrillation

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28
Q

cannon ‘a’ waves in JVP is in

A

complete heart block
AV dissociation
ventricular arrhythmias

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29
Q

rumbling mid-diastolic murmur at apex is in

A

mitral stenosis

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30
Q

displaced apex beat and pansystolic murmur is in

A

mitral regurgitation

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31
Q

candidiasis mouth/pharynx can be side effect of

A

inhaled high-dose corticosteroid

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32
Q

saddle shaped ST elevation is in

A

acute constrictive pericarditis

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33
Q

flattened t waves and prominent u waves are in

A

hypokalaemia

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34
Q

long QT interval, tetany, perioral paraesthesia are in

A

hypocalcaemia

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35
Q

impotence, SOB and cold peripheries are side effects of

A

beta blockers

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36
Q

gynaecomastia is side effect of

A

digoxin

spironolactone

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37
Q

hyper/hypothyroidism, corneal microdeposits and lung/liver fibrosis are side effects of

A

amiodarone

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38
Q

side effect of methotrexate, bleomycin and busulphan

A

pulmonary fibrosis

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39
Q

gout is side effect of

A

thiazide diuretic

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40
Q

stony dull percussion is in

A

pleural effusion

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41
Q

fine crepitations are in

A

pulmonary oedema

pulmonary fibrosis

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42
Q

7 respiratory causes of clubbing

A 
bronchial carcinoma 
bronchiectasis
lung abscess
empyema
CF
mesothelioma
TB
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43
Q

2 respiratory things NOT causing clubbing

A

asthma

COPD

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44
Q

Kerley B lines and batwing shadowing are in

A

heart failure

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45
Q

tramline shadowing is in

A

bronchiectasis

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46
Q

wedge-shaped infarct is in

A

PE

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47
Q

ground glass appearance on CXR is in

A

pulmonary fibrosis

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48
Q

6 signs of UMN lesion

A
  • weakness in upper limb extensors and lower limb flexors
  • increased tone
  • hyperreflexia, clonus
  • pronator drift
  • loss of abdominal reflexes
  • extensor plantar response
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49
Q

early onset emphysema plus liver disease can be found in

A

alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency

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50
Q

occupation involving water systems can result in

A

legionella infection

51
Q

HIV +ve and bilateral hilar shadowing can be a sign of

A

pneumocystis carinii pneumonia

52
Q

candidiasis mouth/pharynx can be side effect of

A

inhaled high-dose corticosteroid

53
Q

reticulocytosis on blood film is found in

A

bleeding, haemolysis

54
Q

target cells on blood film are found in

A

liver disease, iron deficiency anaemia

55
Q

macrocytic anaemia + glossitis + peripheral neuropathy =

A

vitamin B12 deficiency

56
Q

macrocytic anaemia + phenytoin/trimethoprim =

A

folate deficiency

57
Q

2 signs of posterior circulation stroke

A

CN palsies/cerebellar signs e.g. vertigo, dysarthria, ataxia, choking
isolated homonymous hemianopia

58
Q

microcytic anaemia + menorrhagia/chronic NSAIDs =

A

iron deficiency anaemia

59
Q

microcytic anaemia + increased HbF =

A

beta-thalassaemia

60
Q

when can anaemia NOT be called anaemia of chronic disease

A

if Hb <8 (because AOCD is normocytic - endocrine dysfunction can cause normocytic anaemia)

61
Q

when to use colchicine for gout

A

alternative to NSAIDs in acute presentation if NSAIDs contraindicated (e.g. allergy or heart failure)

62
Q

flushing, abdo pain, diarrhoea and heart failure are signs of

A

carcinoid syndrome

63
Q

side effect of methotrexate, bleomycin and busulphan

A

pulmonary fibrosis

64
Q

drop foot after hip replacement is caused by

A

sciatic nerve injury

65
Q

what else can phenytoin cause

A

folate-deficiency macrocytic anaemia

66
Q

most common cause of pancreatic pseudocyst

A

CHRONIC pancreatitis

67
Q

2 side effects of lamotrigine

A

rash and blisters in mouth

flu symptoms

68
Q

what is increased if lamotrigine and sodium valproate are used together

A

risk of TEN/SJS

69
Q

drug to treat AACG

A

acetazolamide

70
Q

treatment of GCA

A

high dose oral prednisolone

71
Q

drug to treat trigeminal neuralgia

A

carbamazepine

72
Q

what can a headache worsening on coughing/sneezing indicate

A

mass lesion

73
Q

6 signs of UMN lesion

A
  • weakness in upper limb extensors and lower limb flexors
  • increased tone
  • hyperreflexia, clonus
  • pronator drift
74
Q

3 signs of LMN lesion (lesion at level of anterior horn cells or distal to it)

A

fasciculation and wasting
loss of reflexes
hypotonia

75
Q

type of tremor in PD

A

pill-rolling

76
Q

what is Shy-Drager syndrome

A

combination of parkinsonism plus primary autonomic failure e.g. postural hypotension

77
Q

triad in Wernicke’s encephalopathy (caused by thiamine deficiency)

A

nystagmus
ophthalmoplegia
ataxia

78
Q

type of gait in peripheral neuropathy

A

high stepping/stamping (sensory ataxia)

79
Q

type of gait in cerebellar lesion

A

wide-based

80
Q

ptosis, eye deviated laterally and downwards is

A

CN III lesion (defective elevation, depression, adduction)

81
Q

3 signs of anterior circulation stroke

A

unilateral weakness/sensory deficit
homonymous hemianopia
higher cerebral dysfunction e.g. dysphasia, neglect

82
Q

2 signs of posterior circulation stroke

A

CN palsies/cerebellar signs e.g. vertigo, dysarthria, ataxia, choking
isolated homonymous hemianopia

83
Q

2 signs of SLE

A
  • symmetrical joint inflammation (no bony erosion)

- lung involvement (50%) e.g. pleuritic chest pain, pleural effusion, pneumonitis

84
Q

radiological bone erosions in psoriatic arthritis vs RA

A

psoriatic = central erosions

85
Q

what does Schirmer’s test do

A

identify insufficient production of tears in Sjogren’s

86
Q

when to use colchicine for gout

A

alternative to NSAIDs in acute presentation if NSAIDs contraindicated (e.g. allergy or heart failure)

87
Q

why do renal and liver tests for methotrexate

A

cumulative toxicity

88
Q

side effect of sulphonamides

A

exfoliative dermatitis (emergency)

89
Q

drop foot after hip replacement is caused by

A

sciatic nerve injury

90
Q

bile stained vomit shows an obstruction in the

A

small bowel

91
Q

most common cause of pancreatic pseudocyst

A

CHRONIC pancreatitis

92
Q

gynaecomastia, testicular atrophy and Dupuytren’s contracture can be a sign of

A

chronic liver disease 2

93
Q

where do direct hernias push through

A

directly through the posterior wall of the inguinal canal

94
Q

where does diverticular disease mostly occur

A

sigmoid colon

95
Q

symptoms of duodenal vs gastric ulcer

A 
duodenal = relieved by eating and drinking milk
gastric = aggravated by easting
96
Q

main treatment of Mallory-Weiss tear

A

antiemetic therapy

97
Q

what is pseudomembranous colitis

A

inflammation of colon due to C. diff

98
Q

test for coeliac disease with greater sensitivity and specificity than anti-gliadin antibodies

A

anti-endomysial antibodies (serum IgA)

99
Q

5 symptoms of hypercalcaemia

A 
thirst
tiredness
depression
bone pain 
constipation
100
Q

most common cause of upper GI bleed when patient has known cirrhosis

A

varices (otherwise usually PUD) - do upper GI endoscopy

101
Q

treatment of severe UC

A

IV hydrocortisone

102
Q

anti-spasmodic agent used in IBD

A

mebeverine

103
Q

buccal pigmentation is found in

A

Addison’s disease

104
Q

aphthous ulceration is found in

A

IBD

coeliac disease

105
Q

10 signs of chronic liver disease

A 
clubbing 
flapping tremor 
Dupuytren's contracture 
palmar erythema
gynaecomastia
spider naevi
splenomegaly
testicular atrophy 
ascites
encephalopathy
106
Q

barium enema result in CD vs UC

A 
CD = cobble stoning and rose-thorn ulcers
UC = loss of haustra
107
Q

do ACEis cause hyperkalaemia or hypokalaemia

A

hyperkalaemia (opposite of diuretics)

108
Q

2 things raised in tertiary hyperparathyroidism

A

calcium
phosphate

unlike secondary hyperparathyroidism - calcium low or normal

109
Q

what is necrobiosis lipoidica

A

shiny areas on shins + yellow colour and overlying telangiectasia (often in diabetes)

110
Q

reduced QT interval is found in

A

hypercalcaemia

111
Q

can nitrofurantoin be used in pregnancy

A

not if at term or breastfeeding (can earlier on)

112
Q

what to avoid when taking tetracyclines

A

milk products - decrease absorption

113
Q

antibiotic to use in severe CAP

A

IV combo of co-amoxiclav/cephalosporin + macrolide (e.g. clarithromycin + erythromycin)

114
Q

antibiotic for meningococcal meningitis

A

IV benzylpenicillin

115
Q

what do TCAs e.g. amitriptyline do to pupils

A

dilate them

116
Q

side effect of amiodarone

A

photosensitive rash

117
Q

type of diuretic precipitating gout

A

thiazide

118
Q

when is metformin contraindicated

A

in patients who are at risk of lactic acidosis (e.g. significant renal impairment)

119
Q

proximal myopathy can be a side effect of

A

corticosteroids (iatrogenic Cushing’s syndrome)

120
Q

spironolactone and digoxin can both cause

A

gynaecomastia

121
Q

flushing and ankle swelling can be caused by

A

nifedipine (CCB)

122
Q

acute dystonic reactions are a side effect of

A

metoclopramide

123
Q

acute pancreatitis is an adverse effect of

A

sodium valproate

124
Q

dyspepsia is a common side effect of

A

NSAIDs

Year 3 revision (9 decks)

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