Theory Test #5 Flashcards

1
Q

Which statement about the structure of the knee is TRUE?
A) All knee ligaments attach to the femur and the tibia
B) The lateral meniscus is larger than the medial
C) The medial collateral ligament attaches to the smaller meniscus
D) The Popliteus tendon separates the lateral meniscus from the lateral collateral ligament

A

D) The Popliteus tendon separates the lateral meniscus from the lateral collateral ligament

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2
Q
A trigger point in which muscle may cause a client to describe a feeling of the knee buckling or giving out?
A) Rectus Femoris
B) Vastus Lateralis
C) Vastus Medialis
D) Vastus Intermedius
A

3) Vastus Medialis

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3
Q
Which muscle does not adversely affect the tracking of the patella?
A) Vastus Lateralis
B) Gluteus Maximus
C) Adductor Magnus
D) TFL
A

C) Adductor Magnus

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4
Q
The development of an emotional relationship on the part of the therapist towards the client, where the client comes to represent someone from the therapists past, defines what?
A) Interference
B) Transference
C) Counter-Interference
D) Counter-Transference
A

D) Counter-Transference

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5
Q
In which direction do you glide the patella to increase knee flexion?
A) Lateral
B) Medial
C) Inferior
D) Superior
A

C) Inferior

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6
Q

According to the Health Care Consent Act, what is NOT a criterion for being a substitute decision-maker?
A) Be at least 16 years of age
B) Be capable with respect to treatment
C) Be the spouse of the incapable person
D) Be available to communicate with the client

A

C) B the spouse of the incapable person

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7
Q

What is a sign/symptom of mild anterior compartment syndrome?
A) Intermittent pain
B) Pain on toe flexion
C) Inability to weight bear
D) Anesthesia in the dorsal web space of foot

A

D) Anesthesia in the dorsal web space of foot

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8
Q
Which excessive movement may result in injury of the posterior cruciate ligament?
A) Tibiofemoral distraction
B) Anterior glide of the femur
C) Anterior glide of the tibia
D) Lateral deviation of the tibia
A

B) Anterior glide of the femur

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9
Q

What does NOT constitute an act of professional misconduct?
A) Treating a client for a condition that requires hospitalization
B) Treating a client after you took an antihistamine
C) Treating your client on unwashed sheets
D) Treating a friend of the family

A

D) Treating a friend of the family

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10
Q

Which statement about the duties and powers of the Minister of health is false?
A) The minister of health is responsible for administering of the RHPA
B) The minister of health ensures each college has standards of practice
C) The minister of health reviews the activities of the council of a college
D) The minister of health reviews the activities of an individual therapist

A

D) The minister of health reviews the activities of an individual therapist

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11
Q
During the straight leg raise test, which amount of hip flexion places the sciatic nerve under maximal tension?
A) 0-35
B) 70+
C) 35-70
D) 45-80
A

C) 35-70

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12
Q
Principle II of the Code of Ethics, “Responsible Caring” is primarily concerned with what?
A) The dignity and value of all persons
B) Providing quality massage therapy
C) Providing honest and diligent service
D) Accountability in the public domain
A

B) Providing quality massage therapy

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13
Q

Which statement about the temporomandibular disc is TRUE?
A) it is attached to the joint capsule by the sphenomandibular ligament
B) It consists of hyaline cartilage, which decreases friction during jaw movement
C) It is convex inferiorly to accommodate the shape of the mandibular condyle
D) It glides anteriorly during depression, and posteriorly during elevation

A

D) It glides anteriorly during depression, and posteriorly during elevation

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14
Q

What is NOT a function of the RHPA?
A) Standardize operating procedures of regulatory bodies of the professions
B) Set up Colleges to act as regulatory bodies for a specific profession
C) Set the fee for massage therapy treatments
D) Regulate new health care professions

A

C) Set the fee for massage therapy treatments

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15
Q

Which statement about the TMJ Dysfunction is TRUE?
A) The Mandible shifts to the hypermobile side with C-curve deviations
B) S-curve deviations seen early in opening are indicative of capsular restriction
C) A shortened lateral Pterygoid causes contralateral deviation and difficulty opening the mouth
D) A shortened medial Pterygoid causes contralateral deviation and difficulty opening the mouth

A

D) A shortened medial Pterygoid causes contralateral deviation and difficulty opening the mouth

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16
Q

To give informed consent on the behalf of an incapable client, a person must be ______
A) At least 14 years of age, unless they are the client’s sibling
B) Willing to assume responsibility of providing consent
C) A family member, no matter what the relation
D) The client’s mother, or father

A

B) Willing to assume responsibility of providing consent

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17
Q

When opening their mouth, a client’s jaw deviates to the left at the end of the range. They are just barely able to open their mouth enough to perform the three-knuckle test. Which technique is indicated for treating this client?
A) Trigger point release of right Masseter
B) Trigger point release of right lateral Pterygoid
C) Peripheral joint mobilization of the left temporomandibular joint
D) Peripheral joint mobilization of the right temporomandibular joint

A

C) Peripheral joint mobilization of the left temporomandibular joint

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18
Q
Which tissue manifestations are often due to the body’s response to stress?
A) Scar tissue and atrophy
B) Spasm and inflammation
C) Hypertonicity and trigger points
D) Contracture and adhesions
A

C) Hypertonicity and trigger points

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19
Q
Which group of lymph nodes is located deep to the SCM?
A) Superficial cervical
B) Posterior cervical
C) Deep cervical
D) Submental
A

C) Deep cervical

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20
Q

Which statement about temporal Arteritis is TRUE?
A) It most commonly affects young children
B) Local massage is indicated to reduce pain
C) The client complains of facial pain and headaches
D) It is caused by inflammation of the temporal nerve

A

C) The client complains of facial pain and headaches

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21
Q

Which technique is effective for treatment of a client that suffers from tension headaches due to occupational stress
A) Cool cloth to the posterior cervical spine
B) Trigger point release of the suboccipitals
C) Light hacking to the upper trapezius
D) Frictions on the Levator scapula

A

B) Trigger point release of the suboccipitals

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22
Q

Which set of techniques is indicated for a client with a sinus headache in the chronic stage?
A) Cervical traction, passive stretching, contrast towels
B) Facial expressions, fascial stretches, warm towels
C) Steam inhalation, facial vibrations, light tapotement
D) Cold towels, effleurage, cranial compressions

A

C) Steam inhalation, facial vibrations, light tapotement

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23
Q

Which statement about the lymphatic system is true?
A) The thoracic duct collects lymph from the left side of the body
B) Lymph vessels contain thin layers of smooth muscles that pump lymph
C) The right lymphatic duct collects lymph from the entire right side of the body
D) Approximately 70% of lymph vessels are found deep, below the fascia

A

A) The thoracic duct collects lymph from the left side of the body

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24
Q
Which structure is least likely to be damaged during flexion-extension whiplash injury of the cervical spine?
A) Facet joints
B) Suboccipital muscles
C) Hyoid bone
D) Longitudinal ligaments
A

C) Hyoid bone

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25
Q

Which technique is appropriate when treating a client who sustained whiplash from a rear-end collision 3 days ago?
A) Grade III C/S traction
B) Muscle stripping to the longus colli
C) Lymphatic drainage to anterior neck
D) Passive angular stretches for the C/S extensors

A

C) Lymphatic drainage to anterior neck

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26
Q

Which short term aim is NOT indicated when initially treating a client with a mild extension whiplash injury in the chronic stage of healing?
A) Reduce adhesions found in the Prevertebral muscles
B) Strengthen the posterior cervical spine muscles
C) Increase cervical spine range of motion
D) Decrease facet joint capsule adhesions

A

B) Strengthen the posterior cervical spine muscles

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27
Q

A client complains about a persistent headache behind the right eye and top of the head, following a car accident 4 months ago. She does not remember from which direction she was hit. Observation and assessment reveal:
- Anterior head carriage, Protracted shoulders, Kemps test- Pain at C5/C6, Neurological exam-negative, Fibrotic tissue-SCM and hyoids
What is the most likely direction of impact?
A) Rear-ended
B) Front-ended
C) Side impact
D) Roll-over

A

A) Rear-ended

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28
Q
Which trigger point refers to the breast and mimics a heart attack?
A) Subscapularis
B) Pectoralis Major
C) Pectoralis Minor
D) Subclavius
A

B) Pectoralis Major

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29
Q
Which assessment protocol would give the least amount of information about the AC joint?
A) Scapulothoracic rhythm
B) Drop arm test
C) AC shear test
D) Painful arc test
A

B) Drop arm test

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30
Q
Which technique is contraindicated when treating a client with fibromyalgia?
A) Long duration treatment
B) Warm hydrotherapy
C) Vibrations and GTO release
D) AR ROM
A

A) Long duration treatment

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31
Q

What is an unlikely symptom associated with fibromyalgia syndrome?
A) Congestive Dysfunction like difficulty with focus and memory
B) Increased energy levels after exercise
C) Digestive dysfunction
D) Insomnia

A

B) Increased energy levels after exercise

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32
Q
Which approach is indicated when treating a client suffering from constipation?
A) Hold/relax to Iliopsoas MTPs
B) Hot compress to abdomen
C) Heating compress to abdomen
D) Stripping to L/S erector spinae
A

A) Hold/relax to Iliopsoas MTPs

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33
Q
Which muscle, when hypertonic, restricts exhalation?
A) Serratus posterior superior
B) Serratus anterior
C) Rhomboid major
D) Pectoralis major
A

A) Serratus posterior superior

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34
Q
Hyperventilation is often associated with \_\_\_\_
A) Asthma
B) Emphysema
C) Cystic fibrosis
D) Chronic bronchitis
A

B) Emphysema

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35
Q
Which sing/symptom is NOT typically associated with dyspnea?
A) Abnormal breathing patterns
B) Pursed-lip breathing
C) Upper chest breathing
D) Abdominal breathing
A

D) Abdominal breathing

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36
Q

In which position should you place the client for postural drainage of the posterior upper right segment?
A) Right side-lying position
B) Sims position with right side up
C) Prone, in a 45degree head down position
D) Prone with pillows under the pelvis

A

B) Sims position with right side up

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37
Q
Which condition is a local contraindication to massage?
A) Lymphodema
B) Varicose veins
C) Hypertension
D) Diabetes
A

B) Varicose veins

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38
Q

Which technique is contraindicated when treating a client with Raynaud’s disease?
A) Parrafin wax on the hands
B) Thumb kneading on the palm
C) Low grade joint mobilizations of the fingers
D) Slow, soothing techniques applied to the upper limb

A

A) Parrafin wax on the hands

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39
Q
Which sign/symptom is seen early in the development of AIDS?
A) Edema
B) Pneumonia
C) Kaposi’s sarcoma
D) Swollen lymph nodes
A

D) Swollen lymph nodes

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40
Q

A client has edema around the right knee. Which one of the following techniques is ineffective in decreasing the swelling?
A) Inguinal lymph node pumping
B) Compressions to the right quadriceps
C) Gentle PR ROM of the right hip and knee
D) Running vibrations proximally from the knee

A

B) Compressions to the right quadriceps

41
Q

Which statement about patellofemoral syndrome is false?
A) The onset is sudden
B) Pain may be felt medial, or lateral, to the knee
C) Genu valgus may cause patellofemoral syndrome
D) May be caused by trigger points in the quadriceps muscle

A

A) The onset is sudden

42
Q

Which injury is unlikely to damage the ACL?
A) Blow to the lateral knee
B) Forced hyperextension with internal rotation of the tibia
C) Severe quadriceps strain
D) Blow to the posterior tibia

A

C) Severe quadriceps strain

43
Q

What is an effective remedial exercise for a client with an acute meniscus injury?
A) AR ROM of the quadriceps and the hamstrings
B) Pain free isometric contraction of quadriceps
C) Muscle setting of the quadriceps
D) Hamstrings isotonic strengthening

A

C) Muscle setting of the quadriceps

44
Q

What is a sign/symptom of a mild anterior compartment syndrome?
A) Intermittent pain
B) Pain on toe flexion
C) Inability to weight bear
D) Paresthesia in the dorsal web space of foot

A

D) Paresthesia in the dorsal web space of foot

45
Q

What is the open packed position of the hip joint?
A) Slight abduction
B) 30degree flexion and 30degree abduction
C) 25degree flexion and 25degree adduction
D) 55degree abduction, 30degree horizontal adduction

A

B) 30degree flexion and 30 degree abduction

46
Q

Which description about the TMJ is true?
A) Hypervascular and pain sensitive
B) Attached posteriorly to the lateral Pterygoid muscle
C) Attached anteriorly to connective tissue
D) Hypovascular and not pain sensitive

A

D) Hypovascular and not pain sensitive

47
Q
A client suffered a hyperextension injury to the neck and now experiences TMJ pain. You assess the TMJ and find diminished joint spaces and the teeth are approximated. Spasm in which muscle may cause the phenomenon?
A) Lateral Pterygoid
B) Levator scapula
C) Longus colli
D) Digrastric
A

D) Digastric

48
Q
Which condition may be caused by the body’s response to stress?
A) Tendonitis, muscle strain
B) Tension headaches, hyperkyphosis
C) Disc herniation, sprains
D) Constipation, subluxation
A

B) Tension headaches, hyperkyphosis

49
Q

Which procedure for contrast foot baths is indicated for treating a subacute ankle sprain?
A) 30 seconds of warm application followed by 30 seconds of cold application
B) 90 seconds of cold application followed by 90 seconds of warm application
C) 90 seconds of warm application followed by 30 seconds of cold application
D) 30 seconds of warm application followed by 90 seconds of cold application

A

C) 90 seconds of warm application followed by 30 seconds of cold application

50
Q
Pain in the occipital region of the head is most likely caused by which one of the following?
A) Sinusitis
B) Constipation
C) Trigger points
D) Trigeminal Neuralgia
A

C) Trigger points

51
Q
Which sign/symptom is most commonly seen in sinus headaches?
A) TMJ dysfunction
B) Upper trapezius trigger points
C) Pulsating, unilateral head pain
D) Bilateral frontal pain
A

D) Bilateral frontal pain

52
Q

Manual lymph drainage techniques are applied ______
A) Using deep pressure
B) So that lymph is directed distally
C) When a client has an acute infection
D) At a rate of about one stroke every 1-4 seconds

A

D) At a rate of about one stroke every 1-4 seconds

53
Q

Which one of the following statements regarding a hyperextension injury of the neck is FALSE?
A) It is the most common direction of impact injury
B) The head and neck are forcibly thrown into forward flexion
C) The trunk forward accelerates relative to the head and neck
D) The head and neck move in backward acceleration relative to the trunk

A

B) The head and neck are forcibly thrown into forward flexion

54
Q
What is a possible side effect of MLD in clients with an acute whiplash injury?
A) Feeling nauseated after treatment
B) Increased pressure and pain
C) Irritation and increased inflammation
D) Decreased ROM
A

A) Feeling nauseated after treatment

55
Q
Which condition is an uncommon one to secondary to whiplash?
A) Headaches
B) TMJ Dysfunction
C) Medial epicondylitis
D) Thoracic outlet syndrome
A

C) Medial epicondylitis

56
Q

A client rear-ended a car two weeks ago and you notice a reduction in cervical lordosis. The client most likely has a_____ injury with damage to the _____
A) Extension/SCM and hyoids
B) Extension/Splenii and multifidi
C) Flexion/Scalenes and suboccipitals
D) Flexion/Upper trapezius and Levator scapula

A

D) Flexion/Upper trapezius and Levator scapula

57
Q

Client with a Flexion injury w/ damage to Upper trapezius and Levator scapula. An Assessment will reveal all of the following except
A) Muscle atrophy and tropic skin changes
B) Muscle hypertonicity and adhesions
C) Residual edema and inflammation
D) Pain at the end range of motion

A

A) Muscle atrophy and trophies skin changes

58
Q

Flexion injury w/ damage to Upper trapezius and Levator scapula
Which muscle needs to be strengthened to restore the cervical lordosis and mobility?
A) Scalenes
B) Multifidi
C) Digastric
D) Trapezius

A

B) Multifidi

59
Q
What is not an aggravating factor to fibromyalgia?
A) Cold weather
B) Emotional stress
C) Excessive muscle exertion
D) Light regular aerobic exercise
A

D) Light regular aerobic exercise

60
Q
Which situation is NOT a cause of constipation?
A) Dehydration
B) High fibre intake
C) Sedentary lifestyle
D) Excessive laxative use
A

B) High fibre intake

61
Q

Which one of the following statements regarding respiration is TRUE?
A) Diaphragmatic contraction decreases thoracic volume
B) The diaphragm is active during exhalation
C) The diaphragm depresses the ribs
D) The diaphragm moves inferiorly

A

D) The diaphragm moves inferiorly

62
Q
Which condition is characterized by excessive tracheo-bronchial mucus production?
A) Asthma
B) Emphysema
C) Cystic fibrosis
D) Chronic Bronchitis
A

D) Chronic Bronchitis

63
Q

Postural drainage is indicated for clients _____
A) With severe hypertension
B) With excess blood in the sputum
C) Who are experiencing an asthma attack
D) With residual fluid in the lungs due to pneumonia

A

D) With residual fluid in the lungs due to pneumonia

64
Q
In which one of the following can you find a list of controlled acts?
A) The regulation
B) RHPA main body
C) Massage Therapy Act
D) RHPA - Schedule 2
A

B) RHPA main body

65
Q
Which set of structures supports the medial aspect of the knee?
A) Medial meniscus, MCL, PCL
B) MCL, PCL, Lateral Meniscus
C) MCL, ACL, Semitendinosus
D) ACL, MCL, Medial meniscus
A

D) ACL, MCL, Medial meniscus

66
Q
Which anatomical structure does NOT play a role in ensuring proper tracking of the patella?
A) Patellar ligament
B) Vastus Medialis
C) Vastus Lateralis
D) Meniscus
A

D) Meniscus

67
Q

Which one of the following statements regarding ligaments of the knee is true?
A) ACL runs from the anterior tibial intercondylar area to the lateral femoral condyle
B) ACL runs forms the anterior tibial intercondylar area to the medial femoral condyle
C) PCL runs from the posterior tibial intercondylar area to the lateral femoral condyle
D) PCL runs from the anterior tibial intercondylar area to the medial femoral condyle

A

A) ACL runs from the anterior tibial intercondylar area to the lateral femoral condyle

68
Q
When assessing a client’s knee a valgus stress test gives a positive result. What other structure should you assess for injury?
A) Medial meniscus
B) Posterior cruciate ligament
C) Medial collateral ligament
D) Lateral collateral ligament
A

A) Medial meniscus

69
Q
Which protocol is indicated when treating a client with chronic posterior compartment syndrome?
A) Hold relax for the fibularis longus
B) Muscle stripping to the gastrocnemius
C) Grade I subtalar joint mobilization
D) AR isometric plantar flexion
A

B) Muscle stripping to the gastrocnemius

70
Q
Which one of the following techniques is indicated when treating a client currently experiencing a flare-up of late-stage rheumatoid arthritis in the hip?
A) Warm foot bath
B) Frictions to the joint capsule
C) Pain-free AR ROM exercises
D) PR and AA ROM within pain-free ranges
A

D) PR and AA ROM within pain-free ranges

71
Q
Which topic is addressed by the Massage Therapy Act Regulations?
A) Acts of professional misconduct
B) Duties and powers of the CMTO
C) Powers of the Minister of Health
D) Scope of Practice of Massage Therapy
A

A) Acts of professional misconduct

72
Q

Which selfcare program is indicated for a client whose assessment findings include a positive varus stress test, positive Ober’s test and positive Noble test?
A) Passive stretching of the Iliopsoas muscle
B) Strengthening of the abdominal muscles
C) Passive stretching of the iliotibial band
D) Active free ranges of motion for the hip

A

C) Passive stretching of the iliotibial band

73
Q
Pain in the occipital region of the head is most likely caused by which one of the following?
A) Sinusitis
B) Constipation
C) Trigger points
D) Trigeminal neuralgia
A

C) Trigger points

74
Q

Which hydrotherapy protocol is effective when treating a client experiencing a tension headache due to an upper trapezius trigger point?
A) Cold towel on the trigger point
B) Hot towel roll to the posterior cervical spine
C) Contrast towels to the posterior cervical spine, ending in cold
D) Cold towel on the trigger point and warm cloth on the forehead

A

B) Hot towel roll to the posterior cervical spine

75
Q

Which statement about the acute stage of whiplash is false?
A) Milder soft tissue injuries are painful after 24 hours
B) Client complains of ‘sharp’, ‘intense’, ‘all-ver’ pain
C) Vertebral fractures will cause immediate, intense pain
D) Special tests are used to determine the severity of the injury

A

D) Special tests are used to determine the severity of the injury

76
Q

A client is experiencing radiating pain in the posterior aspect of the upper extremity. Assessment reveals positive compression test and positive distraction test. Which clinical impression is correct?
A) Disc herniation at the level of C4-C5
B) Thoracic outlet syndrome caused by Scalenes
C) Disc herniation at level of C7-T1
D) Muscle strain of the Scalenes and Levator scapula

A

C) Disc herniation at level of C7-T1

77
Q

If a muscle tissue is weak, what is not indicated?

A

Stretching

78
Q

Which C/S muscles are impacted by a hyperextension whiplash?

A

Anterior

79
Q

When opening the jaw, it may deviate toward which joint?

A

Hypomobile

80
Q

One of the postural issues associated with Ankylosing Spondylitis

A

Hyperkyphosis

81
Q

A joint that is NOT likely to be affected by RA

A

Sacroiliac

82
Q

An increase in Q angle will cause the patella to track in which direction

A

Lateral

83
Q

One area a Supraspinatus trigger point refers to

A

Lateral Brachium

84
Q

Trigger points in Tibialis posterior will mimic this tendonitis

A

Achilles

85
Q

Which trigger point refers to McBurney’s point

A

Rectus Abdominis

86
Q

We typically follow a 3:1 ratio for which type of hydrotherapy

A

Contrast

87
Q

High grade joint mobs are Ci’d when the joint exhibits this

A

Hypermobility

88
Q

Most common type of headache

A

Tension

89
Q

The joint in the ankle that allows for flexion and extension

A

Talocrural

90
Q

You glide the patella in this direction in order to increase knee flexion

A

Anterior

91
Q

When experiencing a hypertension whiplash, what direction does the jaw move

A

Opens

92
Q

This separates the lateral meniscus from the LCL

A

Popliteus tendon

93
Q

The acronym Lynette uses for the capsular pattern of the GH joint

A

Clam?

94
Q

This can cause constipation

A

Dehydration

95
Q

A possible side effect of MLD

A

Headache

96
Q

One of the hallmarks of TMJ Dysfunction

A

Clicking

97
Q

One of the muscles that closes the jaw

A

Masseter

98
Q

Which stress test will test the MCL

A

Valgus