Exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

a tribunal established by govt to hear and decide matters properly brought to it

A

court

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

the power of a court to hear and determine a given class of cases, the power to act over a particular defendant

A

jurisdiction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

judicial authority to hear a particular type of case

A

subject matter jurisdiction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

the authority to hear a controversy when it is first brought to court

A

original jurisdiction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

the power to hear and decide most controversies involving legal rights and duties

A

general jurisdiction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

the authority to only hear particular kinds of cases

A

limited (special) jurisdiction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

the power of a court to hear and decide a given class of cases on appeal from another court of administrative agency

A

appellate jursidiction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

taking a case to a reviewing court to determine whether the judgement of the lower court or admin agency was correct

A

appeal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

an error or defect in court proceedings of so serious a nature that on appeal the appellate court will set aside the proceedings of the lower court

A

reversible error

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

action taken by an appellate court that approves the decision of the court below

A

affirm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

the term used when the appellate court sets aside the verdict or judgement of a lower court

A

reverse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

term used when an appellate court sends a case back to trial court for additional hearings or a new trial

A

remand

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

a general trial court of the federal system

A

fed district court

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

the term used when the full panel of judges on the appellate court hears a case

A

en banc

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

the US supreme court granting a right of review by the court of the lower court decision

A

writ of certiorari

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

courts that resolve disputes between parties when those disputes do not exceed a minimal level, no lawyers are permitted, the parties represent themselves

A

small claims court

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

party who initiates a lawsuit

A

plaintiff

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

party who originates a criminal proceeding

A

prosecutor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

party charged with a violation of civil or criminal law in a proceeding

A

defendant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

primary officer of the court

A

judge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

right of individual to have discussions with his/her attorney kept private and confidential

A

attorney client privilege

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

a body of citizens sworn by a court to determine by verdict the issues of fact submitted to them

A

jury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

the initial pleading filed by the plaintiff in many actions, which in many states may be served as original process to acquire jurisdiction over the defendant

A

complaint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

paperwork served personally on a defendant in a civil case

A

process

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

what a defendant must file to admit or deny facts asserted by the plaintiff

A

answer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

a pleading that may be filed to attack the adverse partys pleading as not stating a cause of action or a defense

A

motion to dismiss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

a pleading to dismiss the adverse partys pleading for not stating a cause of action or a defense

A

demurrer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

a claim that the defendant in an action may make against the plaintiff

A

counterclaim

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

the papers filed by the parties in an action in order to set forth the facts and frame the issues to be tried, although, under some systems the pleadings merely give notice or a general indication of the nature of the issues

A

pleadings

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

procedures for ascertaining facts prior to the time of trial in order to eliminate the element of surprise in litigation

A

discovery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

the testimony of a witness taken out of court before a person authorized to administer oaths

A

deposition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

using prior inconsistent evidence to challenge the credibility of a witness

A

impeach

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

written questions used as a discovery tool that must be answered under oath

A

interrogatories

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

discovery tool for uncovering paper evidence in a case

A

request for production of documents

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

request that the court decide a case on basis of law only because there are no material issues disputed by the parties

A

motion for summary judgement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

one who has acquired special knowledge in a particular field as through particular experience or study, or both, whose opinion is admissible as an aid to the trier of fact

A

expert witness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

the preliminary exam of a juror or a witness to ascertain fitness to act as such

A

vior dire exam

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

statements by opposing attorneys that tell the jury what their cases will prove

A

opening statements

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

the quality of the evidence in a case that allows it to be presented to the jury

A

admissibility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

exam of a witness by his or her attorney

A

direct exam

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

the exam made of a witness by the attorney for the adverse party

A

cross exam

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

questioning after cross exam, in which the attorney for the witness testifying may ask the same witness other questions to overcome effects of the cross exam

A

redirect exam

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

an exam by the other sides attorney that follows the redirect exam

A

recross exam

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

a direction by the trial judge to the jury to return a verdict in favor of a specified party to the action

A

directed verdict

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

the attorney address that follows all the evidence presented in court and sums up a case and recommends a particular verdict be returned by the jury

A

summation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

a courts declaration that terminates a trial and postpones it to a later date, commonly entered when evidence has been of a highly prejudicial character or when a juror has been guilty of misconduct

A

mistrial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

summary of the law given to jurors by the judge before deliberation begins

A

instruction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

a judgement entered after verdict upon the motion of the losing party on the ground that the verdict is so wrong that a judgement should be entered the opposite of the verdict

A

judgement nov, non obstante veredicto

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

carrying out out of a judgement of a court, generally directing that property owned by the defendant be sold and the proceeds first be used to pay the execution or judgement creditor

A

execution

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

name given in some states to attachment proceedings

A

garnishment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

settlement of disputed questions, whether of law or fact, by one or more arbitrators by whose decision the parties agree to be bound

A

arbitration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

settlement of a dispute through the use of a messenger who carries to each side of the dispute the issues and offers in the case

A

mediation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

settlement that allows a nonparty to resolve the dispute

A

reference to a third party

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

a court created by a trade association or group for the resolution of disputes among its members

A

association tribunal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

a mock or dry run trial for parties to get a feel for how their cases will play to a jury

A

summary jury trial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

dispute resolution through private courts with judges paid to be referees for the cases

A

rent a judge plan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

a trial held on portions of the case or certain issues in the case

A

minitrial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

branch of philosophy dealing with values that relate to the nature of human conduct and values associated with that conduct

A

ethics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

balancing the goal of profits with values of individuals and society

A

business ethics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

law enacted and codified by govt authority

A

positive law

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

a system of principles to guide human conduct independent of, and sometimes contrary to, enacted law and discovered by mans rational intelligence

A

natural law

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

the term used when natural law proponents violate positive law

A

civil disobedience

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

standard of ethics that requires that we avoid one sided benefit for us as a result of a conduct or decision

A

kants categorical imperative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

the Locke and Rawlsian standard for ethics that requires that we all agree on certain universal principles in advance

A

theory of justice

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

the agreement under Locke and Rawls as to what our ethical standards will be

A

social contract

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Nozicks theory of ethics that we all have a set of rights that must be honored and protected by govt

A

rights theory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

another name for Nozicks theory that we all have certian rights that must be honored and protected by govt

A

entitlement theory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

theory of ethics that we should all act in our own self interst, the Ayn Rand theory that separates guilt from acting in our own self interest

A

ethical egoism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

theory of ethics based on doing the most good for the most people in making decisions

A

utilitarians

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

those who make decisions based on circumstances and not on a basis of any predefined standards

A

moral relativists

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

those who have a stake, or interest, in the activities of a corp, these include employees, members of the community in which the corp operates, venders, customers, and any other who are affected by the actions and decisions of the corp

A

stakeholders

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

when a decision maker views a problem from different perspectives and measures the impact of a decision on various groups

A

stakeholder analysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

the adherence to ones values and principles despite the costs and consequences

A

integrity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

conduct that compromises an employees allegiance to that company

A

conflict of interest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

above all, do no harm

A

primum non nocere

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

the system of govt in which a central govt is given power to administer to national concerns while individual states retain the power to administer to local concerns

A

federal system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

a body of principles that establishes the structure of a govt and the relationship of the govt to the people who are governed

A

constitution

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

three part division

A

tripartate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

the branch of govt forms to make the laws

A

legislative branch, congress

80
Q

the branch of govt formed to execute the laws

A

executive branch, president

81
Q

the branch of govt form to interpret the laws

A

judicial branch, the courts

82
Q

a two house form of a legislative branch of govt

A

bicameral

83
Q

powers expressly granted the national govt by the constitution

A

delegated powers

84
Q

powers that are held by both state and national govt

A

shared powers

85
Q

the power to govern, the power to adopt laws for the protection of the public health, welfare, safety, and morals

A

police powers

86
Q

a law making criminal an act that was lawful when done or that increases the penalty when done, such laws are generally prohibited by constitutional provisions

A

ex post facto laws

87
Q

federal govts superior regulatory position over state laws on the same subject area

A

preemption

88
Q

a strict constructionist interpretation of a const

A

bedrock view

89
Q

when a constitution is interpreted according to changes in conditions

A

living document view

90
Q

that section of the US constitution allocating business regulation between federal and state govts

A

commerce clause

91
Q

a guarantee of protection against the loss of property or rights without the chance to be heard

A

due process clause

92
Q

forms of hearings in which the rules of evidence and procedure are more relaxed but each side still has a chance to be heard

A

quasi judicial proceedings

93
Q

a clause that entitles a person going into another state to make contracts, own property, and engage in business to the same extent as citizens of that state

A

privileges and immunities clause

94
Q

govt body charged with administering and implementing legislation

A

administrative agency

95
Q

law governing administrative agencies

A

administrative law

96
Q

federal law that establishes the operating rules for administrative agencies

A

administrative procedure act

97
Q

federal law permitting citizens to request documents and records from administrative agencies

A

freedom of info act

98
Q

law that requires advance notice of agency meeting and public access

A

open meeting law

99
Q

fed law requiring agencies to make public disclosure of proposed rules, passed rules, and activities

A

fed register act

100
Q

govt publication issued five days a week that lists all admin regulations, all presidential proclamations and executive order, and other documents and classes of documents that the president or congress direct to be published

A

federal register

101
Q

judicial figure who hears administrative agency actions

A

admin law judge

102
Q

negotiated disposition of a matter before an admin agency, generally without public sanctions

A

informal settlements

103
Q

informal settlements of enforcement actions brought by agencies

A

consent decrees

104
Q

another name for an administrative law jude

A

hearing officer, examiner

105
Q

in admin actions, third party who have an interest in the issues being determined by an ALJ

A

intervenors

106
Q

order issued by a court or admin agency to stop a practice that it decided is improper

A

cease and desist order

107
Q

req that an agency make its final decision before the parties can go to court

A

exhaustion of admin remedies

108
Q

violation of the law that is punished as an offense against the state or govt

A

crime

109
Q

criminal offense with a sentence of less than one year that is neither treason nor a felony

A

misdemeanor

110
Q

criminal offense that is punishable by confinement in prison for more than one year or by death, or that is expressly stated by statute

A

felony

111
Q

fed standards used bu judges in determining mandatory sentence terms for those convicted of fed crimes

A

fed sentencing guidelines

112
Q

fed reforms passed as a result of the collapses of companies such as Enron, provides for longer sentences and higher fines for both executives and companies

A

white collar crime penalty enhancement act of 2002

113
Q

crimes that do not use nor threaten to use force or violence or do not cause injury to person or property

A

white collar crimes

114
Q

agreement between two or more persons to commit an unlawful act

A

conspiracy

115
Q

federal law, initially targeting organized crime that has expanded in scope and provides penalties and civil recovery for multiple criminal offenses, or a pattern of rackettering

A

rackateer influended and corrupt organizations act RICO

116
Q

qualifying inderlying offense for RICo liability

A

predicate act

117
Q

illegal demand by a public officer acting with apparent authority

A

extortion

118
Q

extortion demands made by a nonpublic official

A

blackmail

119
Q

fed law that makes it a felony to influence decision makers in other countries for the purpose of obtaining business, such as contracts for sales and services, also imposed financial reporting req of certain US corps

A

foreign corrupt practices act FCPA

120
Q

fraudulently making or altering an instrument that apparently creates or alters a legal liability of another

A

forgery

121
Q

crime of issuing or delivering a forged instrument to another person

A

uttering

122
Q

statutory offense consisting of the unlawful conversion of property entrusted to the wrongdoer

A

embezzlement

123
Q

wrongs committed using a computer or with knowledge of computers

A

computer crimes

124
Q

fed law that makes it a felony to copy, download, transmit, or in any way transfer proprietary files, documents, and info from a computer to an unauthorized person

A

economic espionage act EEA

125
Q

allows private companies to bring suit against spammers for their unauthorized use of internet service providers

A

controlling the assult of non-solicited pornography and marketing act

126
Q

privacy protection in the US Const, prohibits unauthorized searches and seizures

A

fourth amend

127
Q

judicial auth for a search of property where there is the expectation of privacy

A

search warrant

128
Q

constitutional protection against self incrimination, also guarantees due process

A

fifth amend

129
Q

warnings required to prevent self incrimination in a criminal matter

A

miranda warnings

130
Q

the constitutional right to be heard, question witnesses and present evidence

A

due process

131
Q

the US const amend that guarantees a speedy trial

A

sixth amend

132
Q

civil wrong that interferes with ones property or person

A

tort

133
Q

civil wrong that results from intentional conduct

A

intentional tort

134
Q

failure to exercise due care under the circumstances in conseqence of which harm is proximately caused to one to whom the defendant owed a duty to exercise due care

A

negligence

135
Q

civil wrong for which there is absolute liability because of the inherent danger in the underlying activity, for example the use of explosives

A

strict liability

136
Q

intentional detention of a person without that persons consent, called the shoplifters tort when shoplifters are unlawfully detained

A

false imprisonment

137
Q

right of a store owner to detain a suspected shoplifter based on reasonable cause and for a reasonable time without resulting liability for false imprisonment

A

shopkeepers priviliege

138
Q

tort that produces mental anguish caused by conduct that exceeds all bounds of decency

A

intentional infliction of emotional distress

139
Q

tort of intentional intrusion into the private affairs of another

A

invasion of privacy

140
Q

untrue statement by one party about another to a third party

A

defamation

141
Q

defamation of character by spoken words or gestures

A

slander

142
Q

written or visual defamation without legal justification

A

libel

143
Q

complete defense against the tort of defamation, as in the speeches of members of congress on the fllor and witnesses in a trial

A

absolute privilege

144
Q

media privilege to print inaccurate info without liability for defamation, so long as a retraction is printed and there was no malice

A

qualified priviliege

145
Q

malicious making of false statements as to a sellers titel

A

slander of title

146
Q

written defamation about a product or service

A

trade libel

147
Q

false statements made about a product or business

A

product disparagement

148
Q

tort is which a third party interferes with others freedom to contract

A

contract interference

149
Q

unauthorized action with respect to person or property

A

trespass

150
Q

when services are not properly rendered in accordance with commonly accepted standards, negligence by a professional in performing his or her skill

A

malpractice

151
Q

negligence of the plaintiff that contributes to injury and at common law bars recovery from the defendant although the defendant may have been more negligent than the plaintiff

A

contributory negligence

152
Q

mark that identifies a product

A

trademark

153
Q

mark that identifies a service

A

service mark

154
Q

capable of serving the source identifying function of a mark

A

distinctiveness

155
Q

through advertising, use and association over time, an ordinary descriptive word or phrase has taken on a new source identifying meaning and functions as a mark in the eyes of the public

A

acquired distinctiveness

156
Q

a legal term signifying the words in question have taken on a new meaning with the public, capable of serving a source identifying function of a mark

A

secondary meaning

157
Q

products total image including its overall packaging look

A

trade dress

158
Q

those who register and set up domain names on the internet for resale to the famous users of the names in question

A

cybersquatters

159
Q

exclusive right given by fed statute to the creator of a literary or an artistic work to use, reproduce, and display the work

A

copyright

160
Q

showing that an invention as a whole would have been obvious to a person or ordinary skill in the art when the invention was patented

A

prior art

161
Q

any formula, device, or compilation of info that is used in ones business and is of such a nature that it provides an advantage over competitors who do not have the info

A

trade secret

162
Q

specific form of expression embodied in a chip design, including the stencils used in manufacturing semiconductor chip products

A

mask work

163
Q

product placed on a piece of semiconductor matierial in accordance with a predetermined pattern that is intended to perform electronic circuitry functions

A

semiconductor chip product

164
Q

a binding agreement based on the genuine assent of the parties, made for a lawful object, between competent parties, in the form required by law, and generally supported by consideration

A

contract

165
Q

person who makes a promise

A

promisor

166
Q

person to whom a promisor is made

A

promisee

167
Q

another name for promisor

A

obligor

168
Q

promisee who can claim the benefit of the obligations

A

obligee

169
Q

succession or chain of relationship to the same thing or right such as privity of contract, privity of estate, prvity of possession

A

privity

170
Q

relationship between a promisor and the promisee

A

privity of contract

171
Q

person qho makes an offer

A

offeror

172
Q

person to whom an offer is made

A

offeree

173
Q

written conracts or agreements whose formality signifies the parties intention to abide by the terms

A

formal contract

174
Q

contract executed by affixing a seal or making an impression on the paper or on some adhering substance such as wax attached to the document

A

contract under seal

175
Q

obligation entered into before a court to do some act, as to appear at a later date for a hearing

A

recongnizance

176
Q

simple oral or written contract

A

informal contract

177
Q

agreement of the parties manifested by their words, whether spoken or written

A

express contract

178
Q

contract expressed by conduct or implied or deduced from the facts

A

implied contract

179
Q

agreement that is binding and enforceable

A

valid contract

180
Q

agreement that is otherwise binding and enforeable but may be rejected at the option of one of the parties as the result of specific circumstance

A

voidable contract

181
Q

agreement that cannot be enforced

A

void agreement

182
Q

agreement that has been completely performed

A

executed contract

183
Q

agreement by which something remains to be done by one or both parties

A

executory contract

184
Q

agreement under which one promise is given in exchange for another

A

bilateral contract

185
Q

contract under which only one party makes a promise

A

unilateral contract

186
Q

contract to hold an offer to make a contract open for a fixed period of time

A

option contract

187
Q

right of a party to meet the terms of a proposed contract before it is executed, such as a real estate purchase agreement

A

right of first refusal

188
Q

court imposed obligation to prevent unjust enrichment in the absence of a contract

A

quasi contract

189
Q

as much as deserved, an action brought for the value of the services rendered the defendant when there was no express contract as to the purchase price

A

quantum meruit

190
Q

expression of an offerors willingness to enter into a contractual agreement

A

offer

191
Q

agreement consisting of two or more parts, each calling for corresponding performances of each part by the parties

A

divisible contract

192
Q

contract to buy all requirements of the buyer from the seller

A

requirements contract

193
Q

contract of a producer to sell its entire production or output to a given buyer

A

output contract

194
Q

offer stated to be held open for a specified time, under the UCC, with respect to merchants

A

firm offer

195
Q

proposal by an offeree to the offeror that changes the terms of, and thus rejects the originial offer

A

counteroffer

196
Q

unqualified assent to the act or proposal of another, as the acceptance of a draft, of an offer to make a contract, of goods delivered by the seller, or of a gift or deed

A

acceptance