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pharmacology > Exam 1 > Flashcards

Exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Inhibitor of folate metabolism. Inhibits dihydropteroate synthase, a pathway not needed in humans

A

Sulfamethoxazole (sulfonamides)

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2
Q

Inhibitor of folate metabolism. Inhibits bacterial DHFR about 50,000x more selectively compared to human

A

Trimethoprim

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3
Q

Inhibitors of central dogma processes. Type II topoisomerase inhibitors.

A

Fluoroquinolones (ciprofloxacin, levofloxacin)

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4
Q

Inhibitors of central dogma processes. RNA polymerase inhibitors.

A

Fidaxomicin, Rifampin

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5
Q

RNA polymerase inhibitor used exclusively for Clostridium difficile.

A

Fidaxomicin

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6
Q

Protein inhibitor; bactericidal; synergistic with beta-lactams; used for serious Gram-negative infections.

A

Aminoglycosides: Gentamycin, Tobramycin

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7
Q

Protein inhibitor; blocks tRNA binding to 30S subunit; broad spectrum bacteriostatic, often 2nd line choice

A

Tetracyclines: Doxycycline

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8
Q

Macrolides; high tissue penetration followed by slow release; elimination half-life ~3 days

A

Azithromycin

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9
Q

Macrolides; inhibits CYP3A4

A

Clarithromycin

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10
Q

Protein inhibitor; prevents translocation from A site to P site; used in respiratory infections, STIs; potential for QT prolongation

A

Macrolides

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11
Q

Protein inhibitor; prevents peptide bond formation; effective against drug-resistant Gram-postives such as MRSA; can cause myelosupression and neuropathy

A

Oxazolidinones: Linezolid, tedizolid

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12
Q

Protein inhibitor; prevents peptide formation; used for staph and step infections, can be used for patients allergic to beta-lactams; can cause pseudomembranous colitis from C.difficile overgrowth

A

Lincosamides: Clindamycin

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13
Q

Protein inhibitor; when reduced, creates cytotoxic free radicals leading to DNA strand breakage; selective for anaerobes; bactericidal and concentration-dependent; used for C. diff and parasitic infections

A

Nitroimidazoles: Metronidazole, tinidazole

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14
Q

This drug causes an adverse effect of increasing anticoagulant effect of warfarin; potential carcinogenic effects; avoid alcohol due to disulfiram-like hangover effect

A

Nitroimidazoles: Metronidazole, tinidazole

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15
Q

Antimycobacterial drug (TB and leprosy); binds to RNA polymerase, inhibiting transcription; adverse effect is lowering efficacy of oral contraceptives

A

Rifampin

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16
Q

Antimycobacterial drug (TB and leprosy); inhibits the synthesis of mycelia acid; only effective against mycobacteria; can cause hepatotoxicity

A

Isoniazid

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17
Q

Penicillins; primarily Gram-positive, some Gram-negative; susceptible to beta-lactamase

A

Natural penicillins: Penicillin G, benzathine penicillin G, penicillin V

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18
Q

Drugs that affect the cell wall or membrane

A

Beta-lactams, glycopeptides

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19
Q

Penicillins, cephalosporins, monobactams, carbapenems, beta-lactamase inhibitors

A

Beta-lactams

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20
Q

Covalently binds to transpeptidase and inhibit peptidoglycan cross linking; time-dependent; bactericidal in growing cells

A

Beta-lactams

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21
Q

Penicillins; similar to natural penicillins but also resistant to staphylococcal penicillinase; used against penicillinase-producing staphylococci

A

Anti-staph penicillins: methicillin (no longer used in US), nafcillin

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22
Q

Penicillins; improved activity against gram positive and gram negative relative to natural penicillins but susceptible to beta-lactamase; commonly used for sinusitis and otitis media

A

Amino penicillins: Amoxicillin

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23
Q

Penicillins; same as aminoPCN plus additional gram negative; generally used with tazobactam for more serious infections

A

Extended Spectrum penicillins: Pipercillin

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24
Q

Beta-lactamase inhibitors

A

clavulanic acid, tazobactam

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25
Q

Binds covalently to transpeptidases; bacterial resistance by bacterial enzymes, decreased permeability of the cell wall, alterations in penicillin-binding proteins; organized into five generations

A

cephalosporins

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26
Q

Cephalosporin; active against many gram positives; used for skin infections, surgical prophylaxis

A

1st generation: Cefazolin (parental), Cephalexin (PO)

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27
Q

Cephalosporins; increased gram negative coverage, less gram positive; used for respiratory infections

A

2nd generation: Cefuroxime (parental or PO)

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28
Q

Cephalosporins; extended gram negative activity; commonly used for pneumonia, meningitis

A

3rd generation: Ceftriaxone (parental)

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29
Q

Cephalosporin; good gram positive and gram negative coverage; effective against Pseudomonas

A

4th generation; Cefepime (parental)

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30
Q

Cephalosporin; broadest spectrum; active against certain drug-resistant strains

A

5th generation: Ceftaroline (parental)

31
Q

Narrow spectrum of activity- is effective against aerobic gram negative bacteria; can be used in patients that have displayed Type I hypersensitivity runs to other B-lactams

A

Aztreoman (monobactam)

32
Q

Broad spectrum of activity; active against both gram positive and gram negative bacteria; not effective against multi drug resistant bacterial strains

A

Imipenem (Carbapenems) (when combined with cilastatin it inhibits a metabolizing enzyme in renal system)

33
Q

Glycopeptides

A

Vancomycin, Dalbavancin

34
Q

Active primarily against gram positive bacteria; PO can be used for C.diff, IV for more serious infections; can cause Red Man Syndrome, nephrotoxicity

A

Glycopeptides: Vancomycin, Dalbavancin

35
Q

Binds to ergosterol and forms pores in membrane; broadest spectrum anti fungal; limited by adverse effects “ampho-terrible”

A

Amphotericin B

36
Q

Inhibitor of ergosterol synthesis; most widely used anti fungal; generally well-tolerated but inhibit CYP3A4

A

Azoles: Fluconazoles

37
Q

Inhibitors of ergosterol synthesis; accumulates in skin and nails; primarily for superficial infections

A

Allylamines: Terbinafine

38
Q

Inhibit the synthesis of glucans; newer drug; well-tolerated; IV only

A

Echinocandins: Micafungin

39
Q

Anti-herpesvirus drug

A

Acyclovir

40
Q

Therapeutic effects include shorten duration of symptoms, faster healing, and reduced viral shedding

A

Anti-herpesvirus drug: Acyclovir

41
Q

Forms a nucleoside triphosphate analog; nucleoside triphosphate analog is incorporated into growing viral DNA strand which prevents further elongation

A

Acyclovir

42
Q

Anti-influenza drug; neuraminidase inhibitor; effective influenza A & B

A

Oseltamivir (Tamiflu)

43
Q

Anti-influenza drug; cap-dependent endonuclease inhibitors; inhibits viral mRNA transcription; shortens symptoms; requires only a single dose

A

Baloxavir marboxil (Xofluza)

44
Q

Muscarinic agonist (direct acting); resistant to hydrolysis by AChE and very low nicotinic activity; treatment of non-obstructive GI hypo motility; urinary retention

A

Bethanechol

45
Q

Muscarinic agonist (direct acting); used for glaucoma and xerostomia (dry mouth)

A

Pilocarpine

46
Q

Anticholinesterase (indirect acting); irreversible covalent inhibitor; potent nerve agent

A

Organophosphates

47
Q

Drug that can remove organophosphates from AChE if given soon after exposure

A

Pralidoxime (2-PAM)

48
Q

Anticholinesterase (indirect acting); reversible covalent inhibitor; treats muscle weakness by increasing each at neuromuscular junction

A

Neostigmine

49
Q

Muscarinic antagonists; used to reverse bradycardia caused by excess vagal discharge; antidote for cholinergic poisoning; causes dilation

A

Atropine

50
Q

Blocks signaling by vestibular apparatus; treats/prevents motion sickness

A

Scopolamine

51
Q

Treats overactive bladder; somewhat more selective for M3 receptors on bladder

A

Tolterodine

52
Q

Nonselective M antagonist, but systemic effects reduced by delivery system-inhalation; reduces or prevents bronchospasm

A

Tiotropium

53
Q

Dopamine, norepinephrine and epinephrine all derived from amino acid tyrosine

A

Catecholamines

54
Q

Released from sympathetic neurons

A

Norepinephrine

55
Q

Released from adrenal gland when SNS is activated; used vasoconstrictor in combination with local anesthetics

A

Epinephrine

56
Q

Alpha-adrenergic agonist; alpha-1 selective; used as decongestant

A

Phenylephrine

57
Q

Alpha-adrenergic agonist; somewhat alpha-1 selective, primarily acts on alpha-1 because it is applied directly to tissue; decongestant nasal spray

A

Oxymetazoline

58
Q

Alpha-adrenergic agonist; alpha-2 selective; decreases sympathetic outflow, reduces blood pressure

A

Clonidine

59
Q

Alpha-adrenergic antagonists; alpha-1 selective antagonist; antihypertensive

A

Prazosin

60
Q

Alpha-adrenergic antagonists; alpha-1 selective antagonist; relaxes prostatic smooth muscle in benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH)

A

Tamsulosin

61
Q

Beta-adrenergic agonists; beta-1 agonist; increases cardiac output in acute heart failure; used in conjunction with imaging as a pharmacologic stress test

A

Dobutamine

62
Q

Beta-adrenergic agonists; beta-2 selective agonist used for acute asthma exacerbations “rescue inhaler”

A

Albuterol

63
Q

Beta-adrenergic agonists; long-acting beta-2 selective agonist used for asthma

A

Salmeterol

64
Q

Non-selective beta blockers; decreases CO by blocking beta-1 receptors in the heart; may produce bronchoconstriction by blocking beta-2 receptors in the lungs; may impair glucose mobilization by blocking beta-2 receptors in liver

A

Propranolol

65
Q

Beta-1 selective beta blocker; decreases CO by blocking beta-1 receptors in the heart; avoids bronchoconstriction and hypoglycemia

A

Metoprolol (tartrate= immediate release, succinate= extended release)

66
Q

Beta blocker; has intrinsic sympathomimetic activity; functions as partial agonist; avoids bradycardia that occurs in some patients

A

Acebutolol

67
Q

Beta blocker; blocks beta-1, beta-2, and alpha-1; useful in hypertension

A

Labetalol

68
Q

Sympathomimetic; inhibits NET and NE re-uptake

A

Cocaine

69
Q

Sympathomimetic; enhances NE release and blocks reuptake

A

Amphetamine

70
Q

Sympathomimetic; probably enhances NE release and also have direct agonist activity

A

Ephedrine/pseudoephedrine

71
Q

Cholinomimetics; facilitate drainage through trabecular meshwork by contracting iris and ciliary muscle

A

Physostigmine (anti cholinesterase) and Pilocarpine ( M agonist)

72
Q

Beta blockers; reduces production of aqueous humor

A

Timolol

73
Q

Inhibitor of ACh release; cleavage of SNARE proteins which prevents NT vesicle fusion; most lethal toxin known

A

Botulinum Toxin A

pharmacology (2 decks)

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