8) Infectious Disease (Part 2) Flashcards

(83 cards)

1
Q

TB transmission

A
  • Person to person by droplet nuclei

- Aerosolized by coughing, sneezing or speaking

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

TB infectivity correlates

A
  • Concentration of organisms in expectorated sputum
  • Extent of pulmonary disease
  • Frequency of cough
  • Intimacy & duration of contact
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Pathophysiology of TB

A
  • Aerosolized droplets enter lungs
  • Tubercle Bacilli reach the alveoli and are ingested by alveolar macrophages
  • In most individuals, M. tuberculosis infection is contained initially by host defenses, and infection remains latent
  • Infection occurs if the inoculum escapes alveolar macrophage microbicidal activity
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Latent TB infection

A
  • T cells and macrophages surround the organisms in granulomas that limit their multiplication and spread
  • These people do not have active disease and cannot spread the disease to others
  • Clinically asymptomatic
  • CXR is negative
  • The only evidence of infection may be a reaction to the tuberculin skin test or positive interferon gamma release assay (IGRA)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Increased risk populations for TB

A
  • Contacts of persons to have suspected or confirmed TB
  • IV drug users
  • Foreign born persons who recently arrived from a country with high TB incidence
  • Health care workers who serve high-risk patients
  • Residents and employees of high risk settings (correctional institutions, nursing homes, mental institutions, homeless shelters)
  • Children and adolescents exposed to adults in high-risk categories
  • Medical risk factors that increase the risk for TB (i.e. silicosis, HIV infection, CKD, leukemia, lymphoma, DM, unintentional weight loss, patients receiving immunosuppressive therapy etc.)
  • Mycobacteriology laboratory personnel
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Screening for latent TB

A
  • Tuberculin skin test (TST) Or the interferon gamma release assay (IGRA)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Reading the Tuberculin Skin Test (Mantoux test of purified protein derivative/PPD)

A
  • Measure reaction in 48 to 72 hours
  • Measure induration (not erythema)
  • Record reaction in millimeters, not “negative” or “positive”
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Tuberculin skin test false positives

A
  • Previous BCG vaccination
  • Infection with nontuberculosis mycobacteria
  • Incorrect method of TST administration
  • Incorrect interpretation of reaction
  • Incorrect bottle of antigen used
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Tuberculin skin test false negatives

A
  • Cutaneous anergy (anergy is the inability to react to skin tests because of a weakened immune system…such as HIV/AIDS)
  • Recent TB infection (within 8-10 weeks of exposure)
  • Very old TB infection (many years)
  • Very young age (less than 6 months old)
  • Recent live-virus vaccination (e.g., measles and smallpox)
    Overwhelming TB disease
  • Some viral illnesses (e.g., measles and chicken pox)
  • Incorrect method of TST administration
  • Incorrect interpretation of reaction
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

interferon-gamma release assay (IGRA) tests for TB infection

A
  • Blood Tests (must be processed within 8-16 hours after collection)
  • Only one visit to health care provider to draw the blood
  • Results can be available in 24 hours
  • Results are not affected by prior (bacille Calmette-Guérin) BCG vaccination
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Blood tests for TB

A
  • Must be processed within 8-16 hours after collection
  • QuantiFERON®-TB Gold test (QFT-G)
  • QuantiFERON®-TB Gold In-Tube test (GFT-GIT)
  • T-SPOT®- TB
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Latent TB infection test results

A
  • Positive Tuberculin skin test OR Positive QFT blood test
  • Negative chest radiograph
  • No symptoms or physical
    findings suggestive of TB
    disease
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Pulmonary TB disease test results

A
  • Tuberculin skin test or QFT (QuantiFERON-TB/QuantiFERON-Gold) blood test positive
  • Chest radiograph may be abnormal
  • Symptoms may include one or more of the following: fever, cough, night sweats, weight loss, fatigue, hemoptysis, decreased appetite
  • Respiratory specimens may be smear or culture positive
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Why treat latent TB?

A
  • Reactivation possible
  • Active Pulmonary TB Disease may occur in 10% of persons with Latent TB Infection
  • Up to 50% of persons with HIV will develop Active Pulmonary TB Disease within 2 years of infection
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Other conditions associated with increased incidence of developing Active Pulmonary TB Disease

A
  • Silicosis
  • DM
  • Patient taking immunosupressive medications
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Tx option for latent infection (negative CXR and no symptoms)

A
  • Once weekly Isoniazide (INH) + Rifapentine x 3 months
  • Daily Rifampin x 4 months
  • Daily INH + Rifampin x 3 months
  • INH x 6-9 months
  • Supplement pyridoxine (vitamin B6) if prescribing INH to avoid peripheral neuropathy side effects
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Active Pulmonary TB Disease

A
  • 90% of the time, in adults, represents activation of latent disease
  • Slow Progression of Constitutional Symptoms
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Constitutional symptoms (slow progression) of active pulmonary TB disease

A
  • Fever
  • Loss of Appetite
  • Weight Loss
  • Night Sweats
  • Fatigue
  • Cough
  • Blood-streaked sputum
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

CXR pulmonary TB

A
  • Apical localization is characteristic
  • This localization has been attributed to hyperoxic environment of apices
  • Upper lobe disease marked by irregular reticular & nodular densities
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Work-up and diagnosis of TB

A
  • Respiratory isolation for all patients suspected of having Active TB
  • Sputum cultures x 3 for Acid Fast Bacilli (stained smear + AFB confirmed with identification of M. tuberculosis in cultures).
  • Xpert MTB/RIF, a rapid molecular test that accurately diagnoses TB and MDR-TB in 100 minutes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Sputum cultures x 3 for Acid Fast Bacilli in TB patients

A
  • Stained smear + AFB confirmed with identification of M. tuberculosis in cultures
  • Sample must be brought up from a productive cough
    Induced sputum production by inhalation of aerosolized sterile hypertonic saline solution may be performed if pt is unable to produce sputum
  • Bronchoscopy with bronchial washings & bronchoalveolar lavage may be performed if necessary
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Mycobacterium bacteriology

A
  • Distinguished by their surface lipids, which cause them to be acid-fast bacilli in lab
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Active pulmonary TB Tx

A
  • Do not delay treatment if there is a high clinical suspicion
  • Multidrug regimen (RIPE includes commonly used first-line drugs)
  • Rifampin
  • Isoniazid
  • Pyrazinamide
  • Ethambutol
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Miliary TB

A
  • Often called “disseminated TB”
  • Due to hematogenous spread & may represent either newly acquired infection or reactivation
  • PPD - 50% of untreated cases & sputum smears - in 80%
    Transbronchial, liver & BM biopsy + in 2/3
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Miliary TB signs and symptoms
- Fever, night sweats, anorexia, weakness & weight loss characterize majority of cases - Hepatomegaly, splenomegaly, lymphadenopathy, & ocular tubercles may occur
26
Extrapulmonary TB (rare nowadays because of treatment…however, could occur in HIV/AIDS patients)
- Lymph nodes - Pleura - GU tract - Bones and joints - Meninges - Peritoneum - Any organ system can be affected
27
HIV transmission
- Anal or vaginal sex - Sharing needles, syringes, or other drug injection equipment (cookers) - Babies can also get HIV during pregnancy, birth, or breastfeeding
28
AIDS (stage 3)
- Defined when CD4 cell count drops below 200 cells/mm or the development of certain opportunistic illnesses - People with AIDS can have a high viral load and be very infectious
29
HIV screening guidelines
- U.S. Preventive Services Task Force (USPSTF) upgraded from Grade “C” to Grade “A” recommendation to screen for HIV infection in adolescents and adults ages 15 to 65, and also < age 15 to > age 65 who are at risk for infection
30
Diagnosis of HIV
- 4th generation duo antigen/antibody test - Antibodies take 4 weeks to develop - P24 antigen and HIV RNA is also tested with 4th generation - 10 days after exposed, will now become positive
31
Routine labs in HIV positive patients (general)
- CBC with Diff - CMP (includes Cr. Glucose and LFTs) - Lipid Profile - TB screen (PPD or IGRA) - Pap smear w/ HPV (cervical and/or anal) - Gonorrhea and Chlamydia - Serologies
32
Serologies used in routine HIV positive patients (general)
- Toxoplasmosis - Cytomegalovirus - Varicella IgG - Hepatitis A/B/C - RPR
33
Routine labs in HIV positive patients (HIV specific)
- CD 4 Count - HIV RNA Assay (viral load) - HIV-resistance (genotype) - HLA B*5701 (hypersensitivity to Abacavir )
34
Medications for initial antiretroviral therapy
- Bicteravir/emtricitabine/tenofovir alafenamide (Biktarvy) - If B*5701 negative, Dolutegravir/abacavir/lamivudine (Triumeq) - Dolutegravir (Tivicay) + emtricitabine/tenofovir disoproxil fumarate (Truvada) or emtricitabine/tenofovir alafenamide fumarate (Descovy) - Raltegravir (Isentress) + emtricitabine/tenofovir disoproxil fumarate (Truvada) or emtrictabine/tenofovir alafenamide fumarate (Descovy)
35
HIV disease management ART goals
- Keep viral load as low as possible | - Increase CD4 cell count
36
Prophylaxis is recommended for these diseases
- Varicella-Zoster Virus - Pneumocystitis Pneumonia (PCP) - Histoplasmosis (if high risk from occupational exposure ir residence) - Toxoplasma gondii enceohalitis - Mycobacterium avium complex (MAC)
37
Varicella-Zoster Virus prophylaxis
- Any CD4 count - Recombinant zoster vaccine (Shingrix) - 2 doses 2 months apart - Zostavax (zoster vaccine live) is CONTRAINDICATED in AIDS patients (CD4 counts <200)
38
Pneumocystitis Pneumonia (PCP) prophylaxis
- CD4 < 200 | - TMP-SMX (Bactrim) or Dapsone (if sulfa allergy)
39
Histoplasmosis prophylaxis
- CD4 count < 150 | - Iatroconazole
40
Toxoplasma gondii enceohalitis prophylaxis
- CD4 count < 100 | - TMP-SMX (Bactrim) or dapsone (if sulfa allergy)
41
Mycobacterium avium complex (MAC) prophylaxis
- CD4 count < 50 | - Azithromycin or Clarithromycin
42
Mycobacterium TB latent infection summary
- TST 5mm or greater or positive IGRA, Negative CXR, Negative Symptoms - Treatment: Isoniazid (INH)* and Rifapentine (RPT) x 3 mo, Rifampin (RIF) x 4 mo, INH and RIF x 3 mo or INH* x 6-9 mo
43
Mycobacterium TB active disease summary
- TST 5mm or greater** or positive IGRA, positive CXR, positive symptoms (fever, cough, night sweats, weight loss), positive Sputum for Acid Fast Bacilli - Extrapulmonary symptoms with advanced immunosuppression (nodal involvement, CNS, pleural, pericardial, ascites) - Treatment: RIPE (plus pyridoxine) or others in CDC guidelines and based on culture and sensitivity report
44
In TB patients, give pyridoxine (vit B6) if using INH to prevent
- Neuropathy side effect
45
Pneumocystitis jirovecii
- Ubiquitous fungus | - Most occur in patients unaware of HIV status or low CD 4 counts
46
Clinical manifestation of Pneumocystitis jirovecii
- Subacute (days to weeks) - Progressive dyspnea, fever, non-productive cough, and chest discomfort - +/- hypoxia - Elevated LDH - Spontaneous pneumothorax may occur
47
Pneumocystitis jirovecii CXR
- Diffuse bilateral “ground glass” interstitial infiltrates from the hila in a butterfly pattern or normal
48
Pneumocystitis hirovecii Tx
- TMP-SMX (Bactrim)
49
Neurologic syndromes associated with cryptococcosis
- Subacute meningitis | - Meningoencephalitis
50
Subacute meningitis or meningoencephalitis (cryptococcosis) signs and symptoms
- Fever, malaise, and headache - Lethargy, altered mental status, photophobia, neck stiffness - Usually disseminated when diagnosed in HIV patient (skin lesions mimicking molluscum contagiosum, pulmonary infections ARDS mimicking Pneumocystitis…any organ can be involved) - Ubiquitous in the environment, possible exposure to aged bird droppings may increase risk of infection
51
Subacute meningitis or meningoencephalitis (cryptococcosis) Dx
- CSF shows mild elevation of protein, low-normal glucose, elevated lymphocytes, increased opening pressures - Diagnosed with culture, CSF microsocopy, or cryptococcal antigen detection
52
Subacute meningitis or meningoencephalitis (cryptococcosis) Tx
- Amphotericin B plus flucystosine
53
Ring enhancing lesions
- Weakness, seizure fast onset (CNS toxoplasmosis…most common in US) – responds quickly to treatment - Weakness, seizure slow onset (lymphoma) - Endemic area (TB)
54
Toxoplasmosis (Toxoplasma gondii)
- Reactivation of latent tissue cysts | - Eating undercooked meat, raw shellfish; exposure to cat litter/feces
55
Toxoplasmosis (Toxoplasma gondii) clinical manifestations
- Focal encephalitis (headache, confusion, motor weakness, fever) or non-specific headache and psychiatric symptoms
56
Toxoplasmosis (Toxoplasma gondii) Tx
- Pyrimethamine plus sulfadiazine (clindamycin in sulfa allergy) plus leucovorin
57
Progressive Multifocal Leukoencephalopathy (PML)
- Major opportunistic infection causing reactivation of the John Cunningham (JC) virus - May occur shortly after initiation of ART due to immune reconstitution inflammatory syndrome (IRIS)
58
Progressive Multifocal Leukoencephalopathy (PML) clinical manifestations
- Altered mental status - Visual changes - Ataxia - Seizures
59
Progressive Multifocal Leukoencephalopathy (PML) imaging
- Multifocal process limited to the white matter
60
Progressive Multifocal Leukoencephalopathy (PML) Dx
- Brain biopsy
61
Progressive Multifocal Leukoencephalopathy (PML) Tx
- ART to restore immune system | - Adding high dose glucocorticoids if evidence of brain swelling due to immune response inflammatory syndrome (IRIS)
62
Progressive Multifocal Leukoencephalopathy (PML) prognosis
- Often fatal
63
CMV retinitis
- Most common clinical manifestation of CMV in HIV patients | - Usually starts as unilateral, but can progress to bilateral if not treated
64
CMV retinitis presentation
- May be asymptomatic or present with floaters, scotomata, or peripheral visual field defects - Full-thickness necrotizing retinitis, with classic “fluffy yellow-white” retinal lesions with or without intraretinal hemorrhage
65
CMV retinitis Tx
- IV ganciclovir followed by oral valganciclovir
66
Other HIV presentations
- CMV polyradiculoapthy (saddle paresthesias, asymmetiric lower extremity weakness, bowel dysfunction) - Emergency...diagnosed via CMV culture of CSF and TX
67
Shingles in young pt (25% chance this is HIV) Tx
- Antivirals & pain meds - Acyclovir, valacyclovir, or famciclovir - Hospitalization with IV acyclovir if disseminated - Emergent ophthalmic referral if involving trigeminal (V1)
68
Kaposi's sarcoma
- Human Herpes Virus 8 - Transmission most likely via oral (kissing) - Red-Purple papular lesions and plaques, nodules with edema (similar to Bacillary Angiomatosis)
69
Kaposi's sarcoma Tx
- TX with ART, others may need low dose chemotherapy
70
Risk of transmission from a single percutaneous needle stick or cut with a scalpel from an infected patient
- Hepatitis B is about 6-30% - Hepatitis C is about 1.8% - HIV is about 0.3%
71
Factors that increase the risk of exposure to body fluids
- Failure to adopt universal precautions - Not following established a protocol of safety - Performing high-risk procedures that increase the risk of blood exposure - Using needles and other sharp devices that lack safety features
72
What should be the first response to a percutaneous exposure?
- Wash the area thoroughly with soap and water - Punctures and small lacerations could be cleaned with alcohol based hand solution - Mucous membranes should be extensively irrigated with water or saline
73
Second response to percutaneous exposure (after cleaning)
- Report the exposure and obtain Hepatitis and HIV screening for both the provider and the source patient (per protocol of institution) and discuss need for post-exposure prophylaxis
74
What are the indications for HIV Post Exposure Prophylaxis (PEP)?
- A percutaneous, mucous membrane, or nonintact skin exposure to blood or bloody body fluids of a patient with known HIV infection - If HIV status of the source patient is unknown & if the source has risk factors for HIV infection (injection drug users, men who have sex with men) or symptoms suggesting HIV infection & you are waiting for HIV testing
75
When should HIV PEP start?
- As soon as possible! Less than 2 hours after exposure give a “starter pack” (don’t wait for HIV results if they are not back yet!) - If more than 72 hours, most should not get PEP - If it is a very high-risk exposure (sharps injuries from a needle that was in an artery or vein of an HIV-infected source patient), PEP can be offered up to one week after the exposure
76
What PEP meds should be used (3-drug regimen)?
- tenofovir DF 300 mg and fixed dose combination - emtricitabine 200 mg (Truvada) once daily with - raltegravir (Isentress) 400 mg twice daily or dolutegravir (Tivicay) 50 mg once daily
77
How long should PEP be taken?
- 4 weeks | Discontinue if source patient is shown to be negative
78
Hepatitis B prophylaxis if the healthcare provider is already vaccinated and patient is HBsAg positive
- Check an anti-HBs level in the healthcare worker - If the post-vaccination anti-HBs level is high (greater than 10 mIU/mL), this is known to be protective, and there is no need for further treatment, and a booster shot is not recommended - If the post-vaccination anti-HBs titer is low, the healthcare worker should be administered hepatitis B immunoglobulin
79
Hepatitis B prophylaxis if the healthcare provider is already vaccinated and patient is HBsAg negative
- Observe the healthcare worker and monitor anti-HBs levels
80
Hepatitis B prophylaxis if the healthcare provider is already vaccinated if patient has been discharged or not available for testing
- Most infectious disease experts treat such cases as if the source was HBsAg negative unless the source has a high risk for HBV infection (such as current or former IV drug use) - In this case, the assumption is made that the patient is HBsAg positive, and Post-exposure prophylaxis is initiated
81
Hepatitis B prophylaxis if the healthcare provider is NOT vaccinated and patient is HBsAg positive
- The healthcare worker should be administered HBV immunoglobulin immediately, followed by a rapid course of active immunization starting 14 days later
82
Hepatitis B prophylaxis if the healthcare provider is NOT vaccinated and patient is HBsAg negative
- No need to administer hepatitis B immunoglobulin | - Healthcare worker should strongly be recommended to get the Hepatitis B vaccine
83
Hepatitis B prophylaxis if the healthcare provider is NOT vaccinated and patient is not available for testing
- If there is any suspicion about the patient’s clinical status, workers must be offered Hepatitis B immunoglobulin, and active vaccination should be recommended in 14 days time