801 Flashcards
(194 cards)
1
Q
Software that temporarily stores print jobs on the computer hard disk or in memory until the printer is ready to print them is called:
Print Spooler
Task Manager
Feed Assembly
Task Scheduler
A
Print Spooler
2
Q
In impact printing, calibration helps to ensure that the colours and layout represented on the monitor display match the colours and layout of the printed image.
(True or False)
A
False
3
Q
Which of the following printer types use inked ribbon to produce an imprint on paper?
A
Dot matrix and Daisy wheel
4
Q
Parallel printer cable connectors include:
USB Type A connector DB-25 connector IEEE 1394 RJ-45 Centronics connector
A
Centronics connector
DB-25 connector
5
Q
List the correct order of the laser printing process?
Processing, charging, exposing, developing, transferring, fusing, cleaning
Developing, cleaning, exposing, transferring, charging, fusing, processing
Processing, exposing, charging, transferring, developing, fusing, cleaning
Cleaning, fusing, exposing, developing, transferring, processing, charging
A
Processing, charging, exposing, developing, transferring, fusing, cleaning
6
Q
Installing a third-party printer driver in Windows requires administrative access.
(True or False)
A
True
7
Q
Which extinguisher type should be used for fires that involve ordinary solid combustibles, such as paper and wood?
A
Class A
8
Q
Print device sharing through a wired connection can be implemented with the use of which of the following interfaces?
Parallel USB Bluetooth Serial 802.11x Ethernet
A
Parallel, USB, Serial, and Ethernet
9
Q
Which extinguisher type should be used for fires that involve ordinary flammable liquids and gases?
A
Class B
10
Q
Software that cannot be clearly classified as malware is known as:
A
Grayware
11
Q
The quality of output produced by 9-pin dot-matrix printers is referred to as:
A
Draft Quality
12
Q
Which extinguisher type should be used for fires that involve energized electrical equipment?
A
Class C
13
Q
Which of the following answers lists an example of a connectionless protocol?
A
User Datagram Protocol (UDP)
14
Q
Which of the following answers list the characteristics of Microdrive (MD): (Select 2 answers)
Solid-State Drive (SSD) USB thumb drive Fits into CF II slot Fits into CF I slot Small form factor HDD
A
Fits into CF II slot and Small form factor HDD
15
Q
ExpressCard /34 and ExpressCard /54 are two form factors specified by the ExpressCard standard. Numbers after slash in these two form factors refer to the card’s:
A
Width
16
Q
Every computer on a single LAN must have the same host ID and unique network ID. True or False
A
False
17
Q
Flash memory card formats include: (Select all that apply)
xD-Picture Card CompactFlash (CF) Secure Digital (SD) eSATA SmartMedia Memory Stick
A
xD-Picture Card
CompactFlash (CF)
Secure Digital (SD)
SmartMedia
18
Q
Which of the following tools would be the best for verifying the correct electrical connections of wires in a cable?
A
Cable tester
19
Q
The two most common form factors used in modern HDDs include: (Select 2 answers)
5.25-inch
3.5-inch
2.5-inch
ATX
1.8-inch
A
- 5-inch
2. 5-inch
20
Q
Inverter: (Select 2 answers)
Inverter: (Select 2 answers) Converts AC power into DC power
Supplies voltage to backlights of an LCD panel
Converts DC power into AC power
Supplies voltage to backlights of an OLED display
A
Supplies voltage to backlights of an LCD panel
Converts DC power into AC power
21
Q
Which of the following answers lists an HDD form factor used in laptops?
A
2.5-inch
22
Q
Which of the following answers lists an HDD form factor used in desktops?
A
3.5-inch
23
Q
A dedicated computer appliance designed for storing and serving files on a network is known as:
A
NAS
24
Q
The term “brownout” refers to what kind of situation?
A
Temporary drop in voltage
25
A network protocol that allows multiple devices on a private LAN to connect to a public network with the use of the same public IPv4 address is called:
NAT
26
Which of the following technologies simplifies configuration of new wireless networks by providing non-technical users with a capability to easily configure network security settings and add new devices to an existing network?
WPS
27
Which of the following wireless standards allows for the highest data transfer rate?
IEEE 802.11n
28
Which of the following offers the highest level of security?
802.11i
29
IEEE 802.11g offers backward compatibility with which of the following wireless standards?
802.11b
30
802.11a devices operate in the frequency range of:
5 GHz
31
Which of the following standards allows for achieving the highest distance between Wireless Access Point (WAP) and connecting wireless devices?
IEEE 802.11n
32
802.11a devices support data transfer rates of up to:
54 Mbps
33
802.11b devices operate in the frequency range of:
2.4 GHz
34
UTP cabling falls into the category of:
Twisted-pair cabling
35
802.11b devices support data transfer rates of up to:
11 Mbps
36
802.11g devices operate in the frequency range of:
2.4 GHz
37
Which of the following hides the internal IP addresses by modifying IP address information in IP packet headers while in transit across a traffic routing device?
NAT
38
IEEE 802.11n offers backward compatibility with which of the following standards? (Select all that apply)
802. 11g
802. 11a
802. 3
802. 11b
802. 11g
802. 11a
802. 11b
39
In structured cabling, the interference between signals sent over adjacent wires is commonly referred to as:
Crosstalk (XT)
40
802.11g devices support data transfer rates of up to:
54 Mbps
41
A type of network topology where each node has a connection to every other node in the network is known as:
Mesh
42
802.11n devices operate in the frequency range of: (Select all that apply)
2.4 GHz
| 5 GHz
43
In UTP and STP cabling wires in wire pairs are twisted around one another in order to minimize signal interference.
True
44
802.11n devices support data transfer rates of up to:
100+ Mbps
45
Fast Ethernet is a collective term for a number of Ethernet standards that carry traffic at the nominal rate of:
100 Mbps
46
802.11n improves upon the previous IEEE 802.11 standards by offering which of the following features?
MIMO
47
Which of the following uses Advanced Encryption Standard (AES)?
WPA2
48
TCP port 143 is used by:
Internet Message Access Protocol (IMAP)
49
Which of the following port numbers is used by Telnet?
23
50
An Internet service that translates domain names into IP addresses is called:
DNS
51
File Transfer Protocol (FTP) runs by default on TCP ports: (Select 2 answers)
20 and 21
52
A security access control method whereby the 48-bit address assigned to each network card is used to determine access to the network is called:
MAC filtering
53
LDAP is an example of:
Directory access protocol
54
Which of the following TCP port numbers is used by Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP)?
25
55
An IPv4 address consists of:
32 bits
56
Which of the following port numbers is used by DNS?
53
57
Server Message Block (SMB) is an example of:
Network file sharing protocol
58
TCP port 80 is used by:
HTTP
59
Which of the following network protocols provides secure alternative to FTP?
SFTP
60
TCP port 443 is used by:
Hypertext Transfer Protocol over TLS/SSL (HTTPS)
61
A lightly protected subnet placed on the outside of the company's firewall consisting of publicly available servers is commonly referred to as:
DMZ
62
An IPv6 address consists of:
128 bits
63
IEEE 802.11 is a set of standards for implementing:
WLANs
64
Post Office Protocol v3 (POP3) runs on TCP port:
110
65
IEEE 802.16 is a series of standards defining high-speed, long-distance wireless communication, also known as:
WiMAX
66
Which of the following default port numbers is not used by a remote administration tool?
25
67
A computer network consisting of interconnected PDA devices is known as:
PAN
68
Which of the following port numbers is used by Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP)?
3389
69
The SATA standard defines data cable connector consisting of:
7 pins
70
Which of the following acronyms refers to a technology enabling more efficient use of electric power in a PSU?
PFC
71
The colored stripe on one of the edges of a floppy drive ribbon cable is used to indicate the proper alignment between the cable connector and the motherboard socket.
True
72
Which of the following connectors increases the power consumption limit for advanced graphics cards?
PCIe 6/8-pin
73
Main motherboard power connectors typically consist of: (Select 2 answers)
20 pins and 24 pins
74
The floppy drive ribbon cable connector consists of:
34 pins
75
Which of the following auxiliary connectors is used to supply dedicated power for a high-end CPU?
4/8-pin 12v
76
The SATA standard specifies power connector consisting of:
15 pins
77
Which of the following connectors are used with optical fiber cabling? (Select all that apply)
ST, SC, and LC
78
An Ethernet crossover cable uses:
T568A pin/pair assignment on one end and T568B pin/pair assignment on the opposite end
79
Optional 8-pin PCIe power connector increases the power consumption limit for connected device to:
150 W
80
The FTP protocol is designed for:
File exchange
81
Which of the following connector types can be used for connecting keyboards and mice to a PC? (Select all that apply)
PS/2
6-pin Mini-DIN
USB
82
Which of the following connector types are used with twisted-pair cabling? (Select 2 answers)
RJ-45
| RJ-11
83
What is the function of IMAP and POP?
Retrieval of email messages from servers
| Serving of web pages
84
Which of the following acronyms refers to a Microsoft-proprietary protocol providing a user with graphical interface to connect to another computer over a network connection?
RDP
85
Optional 6-pin PCIe power connector increases the power consumption limit for connected device to:
75 W
86
Which of the following answers refer to specifications used for coaxial cabling? (Select all that apply)
RG-6
| RG-59
87
Which of the following protocols was designed as a secure replacement for Telnet?
SSH
88
A twist in the floppy ribbon cable wiring is used to identify drives on the cable.
True
89
Which of the following acronyms refers to a protocol used in network management systems to monitor network-attached devices?
SNMP
90
Which of the following connectors are used with coaxial cabling? (Select 2 answers)
F-connector
| BNC
91
Which of the following answers describe the features of tape drives? (Select 3 answers)
Magnetic media
Slow seek times
High capacity
92
A smaller, faster memory type for storing copies of the data from frequently used main memory locations used by the central processing unit of a computer to reduce the average time to access memory is called:
CPU cache
93
Which of the answers listed below refers to the Video Graphics Array (VGA) connector?
Three-row 15-pin connector
94
A computer on a network where most functions are carried out on a central server or a software application that uses the client-server model where the server performs all the processing is called:
Thin client
95
What unit is used for measuring clock speed in modern CPUs?
GHz (gigahertz)
96
List storage media types arranged from lowest to highest capacity?
Floppy disk, CD, DVD, BD (Blu-ray), Tape
97
Which two hardware components would have the highest priority while building a custom workstation designed to run virtual machines?
CPU
| RAM
98
What is the name of a microprocessor component that performs all comparisons and calculations?
ALU
99
Which terms refer to CPU technologies designed to minimize the CPU's power consumption and heat generation? ( 2 answers)
CPU throttling
| SpeedStep
100
Brightness of an LCD monitor (the level of light emitted by an LCD display) is measured in:
Candelas per square metre (cd/m2)
101
A component of computer graphics display adapters which converts digitally encoded images into analog signals that can be displayed by a monitor is called:
RAMDAC
102
Name two display standards that use 4:3 aspect ratio?
UXGA
| SVGA
103
In order to ensure the sharpest text and image displayed by a CRT monitor it is usually recommended setting the monitor to run only at a specific resolution (which is also referred to as the CRT's native resolution). (true or false)
False
104
What terms refers to a monitor filter used to reduce reflection from the surface of a CRT or LCD display?
Antiglare
105
Describe the disadvantages of virtualization?
Multiple virtual machines run on a single host share hardware resources which has a degrading effect on performance
Hardware used for hosting virtual machines becomes a single point of failure
106
In personal computer microprocessor architecture, a computer bus used to connect the CPU to CPU cache memory is called:
Back-side bus (FSB)
107
Which interface is used for digital audio?
S/PDIF
108
In virtualization technology, a software program that manages multiple operating systems (or multiple instances of the same operating system) on a single computer system is called:
Hypervisor
109
Give a physical security measures can be applied to a computer screen?
Privacy filter
110
Which of the following statements apply to the USB 3.0 standard?
Speed of up to 5 Gbps
Backward compatibility with USB 2.0
USB 3.0 is also commonly referred to as SuperSpeed USB
111
Which of the following ATA versions allows for attaching devices other than hard drives?
ATAPI
112
What is the maximum data transfer rate supported by the SATA 3.0 standard?
6 Gbps
113
IEEE 1394 standard specifies the maximum cable length of:
4.5 meters
114
The SATA standard specifies a power connector consisting of:
15 pins
115
What is the maximum data transfer rate supported by the SATA 2.0 standard?
3 Gbps
116
A single Serial ATA (SATA) data cable can be used to connect one motherboard socket with:
Only 1 device
117
Which of the following statements list(s) data transfer rates of the USB 1.1 standard?
12 Mbps
| 1.5 Mbps
118
Parallel ATA (PATA) cables have a maximum allowable length of:
18 inches
119
What is the maximum data transfer rate offered by Hi-Speed USB?
480 Mbps
120
Which type of standard FireWire connector has the capability of supplying voltage to a device?
6-pin connector
121
Serial ATA (SATA) cables have a maximum allowable length of:
1 meter
122
What is the maximum data transfer rate offered by SuperSpeed USB?
5 Gbps
123
Which of the following are parallel communication interfaces?
AGP
PCI
IEEE 1284
124
What is the maximum data transfer rate offered by Low-Speed USB?
1.5 Mbps
125
Which of the following statements apply to the IEEE 1394a standard?
FireWire 400
| Data transfer rate of up to 400 Mbps
126
What is the maximum data transfer rate supported by the SATA 1.0 standard?
1.5 Gbps
127
Which of the following interfaces is used for digital audio?
S/PDIF
128
What is the maximum data transfer rate offered by Full-Speed USB?
12 Mbps
129
A feature that can be found in some types of PC Power Supply Units that allows a PSU to automatically adapt to the AC voltage supplied from the power socket is called:
Auto-switching
130
A single IEEE 1394 host controller can support up to:
63 devices
131
Which of the following statements apply to the IEEE 1394b standard?
FireWire 800
| Data transfer rate of up to 800 Mbps
132
What is the maximum length for external SATA (eSATA) cable?
2 meters
133
SCSI ID:
Identifies physical device on a SCSI chain
134
Platters of a magnetic hard drive spin at a rate measured in:
Revolutions per minute (rpm)
135
Which of the following characteristics apply to tape drives? (Select 3 answers)
High capacity
Magnetic media
Slow seek times
136
What is the capacity of a standard-size single-layer Blu-ray disc?
25 GB
137
RAID Level 10 requires a minimum of:
4 drives
138
A single-sided, single-layer DVD disc can store up to:
4.7 GB of data
139
What is the maximum number of USB devices that can be connected to a single USB host controller?
127
140
Red stripe on the edge of the floppy disk ribbon cable is used for:
Marking the connection with PIN 1 on the motherboard
141
What is the maximum cable length for USB devices?
5 meters
142
What is the capacity of a dual-layer mini Blu-ray disc?
15.6 GB
143
What is the maximum speed supported by the USB 1.1 standard?
12 Mbps
144
Which of the following terms refer to RAID Level 1? (Select two answers)
Disk duplexing
| Disk mirroring
145
A memory cache on the microprocessor chip is known as:
Level 1 (L1) cache
146
What is the maximum allowable cable length defined in the Parallel ATA (PATA) interface standard?
18 inches
147
Which of the following values refers to the number of pinouts that can be found on a floppy disk cable?
34
148
Cable length for FireWire devices is limited to:
4.5 meters
149
Which of the following is the maximum speed supported by the IEEE 1394b interface?
800 Mbps
150
A 3½-inch floppy disk can store up to:
1.44 MB
151
Which of the following are the two main CPU manufacturers for personal computers? (Select 2 answers)
AMD
| Intel
152
A single-sided, double-layer DVD disc can store up to:
8.5 GB of data
153
Which of the following is an example of a serial expansion bus?
PCIe
154
For CPUs without integrated memory controller, which part of chipset manages communication between the CPU and memory?
Northbridge
155
Which of the following slots on the motherboard allow for attaching a dedicated video card? (Select 2 answers)
PCIe
| AGP
156
CNR slot:
Is used for specialized networking, audio, and telephony equipment
157
Which of the following devices can be installed in an AMR slot?
Modem
158
ECC type RAM:
Can detect and correct errors
159
Certain types of RAM take advantage of an additional bit in order to detect whether a data error has occurred. An extra bit is used to store information about the number of bits set to the value of one in a given string of data (typically one byte) and by examining that information at different stages of processing it is possible to detect whether the data has been corrupted or not. What is the name of that extra bit? (Select best answer)
Parity bit
160
Compared to a non-ECC type of memory, the ECC RAM is a less expensive option and will always perform faster.
False
161
Which of the following sockets is designed to work with CPUs manufactured by AMD?
Socket AM3
Socket T
LGA 1366
Socket B
Socket AM3
162
A type of PCI slot designed for expansion cards installed in laptops characterized by a much smaller form factor when compared to its desktop version is called:
miniPCI
163
Each switch and LED on the front panel of a computer case has a connector attached to it that must be attached to the appropriate pins on the:
Motherboard
164
The most notable difference between pin grid array (PGA) and land grid array (LGA) packaging relates to the placement of contact pins, which in case of PGA can be found on the socket, and in case of LGA on the CPU.
False
165
Rambus DRAM design requires memory modules to be installed in sets of two. Any remaining open memory slots must be filled with:
Continuity modules (CRIMMs)
166
An expansion card equipped with slots for additional adapter cards is called: (Select best answer)
Riser Card
167
Which of the following configuration settings can be applied to Parallel ATA (PATA) drives to set their priority when multiple drives are attached to the same cable? (Select all that apply)
Cable select
Master
Slave
168
Which of the following CPU socket types is compatible with an AMD microprocessor?
Socket FM1
169
A storage technology that combines multiple disk drive components into a single logical unit to increase logical volume size, improve performance, or reliability is known as:
Redundant Array of Independent Disks (RAID)
170
Hardware-based RAID Level 0: (Select 3 answers)
Is also known as disk striping
Decreases reliability (failure of any disk in the array destroys the entire array)
Is also referred to as disk mirroring
Offers less volume capacity in comparison to RAID 1
Requires at least 3 drives to implement
Is suitable for systems where performance has higher priority than fault tolerance
Is also known as disk striping
Decreases reliability (failure of any disk in the array destroys the entire array)
Is suitable for systems where performance has higher priority than fault tolerance
171
Hardware-based RAID Level 1: (Select 3 answers)
Requires at least 2 drives to implement
Is also known as disk striping
Offers improved performance in comparison to RAID 0
Offers improved reliability by creating identical data sets on each drive (failure of one drive does not destroy the array as each drive contains identical copy of the data)
Is also referred to as disk mirroring
Requires at least 2 drives to implement
Offers improved reliability by creating identical data sets on each drive (failure of one drive does not destroy the array as each drive contains identical copy of the data)
Is also referred to as disk mirroring
172
Hardware-based RAID Level 5: (Select 2 answers)
Continues to operate in case of failure of more than 1 drive
Requires at least 3 drives to implement
Offers increased performance and fault tolerance (single drive failure does not destroy the array and lost data can be re-created by the remaining drives)
Requires at least 5 drives to implement
Requires at least 3 drives to implement
Offers increased performance and fault tolerance (single drive failure does not destroy the array and lost data can be re-created by the remaining drives)
173
Which of the following socket types are designed for Intel CPUs? (Select 3 answers)
```
Socket 940
Socket FM1
LGA 1366 / Socket B
Socket AM3
LGA 775 / Socket T
LGA 1156 / Socket H
```
LGA 1366 / Socket B
LGA 775 / Socket T
LGA 1156 / Socket H
174
After completing the initial diagnostics and assigning system resources, the startup BIOS program checks for information about secondary storage devices that might contain the OS. The list of devices and the order in which they should be checked can be found and arranged in the CMOS setup utility, and this option is commonly referred to as:
Boot sequence
175
After a normal system shutdown, when the computer is turned off, contents of the memory used to store BIOS settings are:
Retained
176
Which of the following terms refers to a technology that allows for storing passwords, certificates, or encryption keys in a hardware chip?
Trusted Platform Module (TPM)
177
Which of the following are power management specifications? (Select two answers)
ACPI
| APM
178
What kind of security features can be set in BIOS? (Select all that apply)
User password required to proceed when the computer is powered on
Group Policy settings
Password-restricted access to the BIOS setup utility
179
A computer supporting LoJack technology has two main components installed: an Application Agent residing in the operating system which sends tracking signals to the monitoring center allowing the law enforcement to locate and recover stolen device, and Persistence Module which restores the Application Agent and allows it to survive operating system re-installation or hard drive format. The highest level of security offered by LoJack can be achieved when Persistence Module resides in:
Computer's BIOS
180
Which of the following is an example of firmware?
Basic Input / Output System (BIOS)
181
Chassis intrusion detection is an option that can be enabled / disabled in the BIOS setup utility (if a BIOS comes equipped with this feature). Coupled with a hardware sensor mounted inside the computer case, this option can be used to check if the case was opened and display a notification alert during next boot.
True
182
Which of the following resources can be used by an operating system to communicate with hardware? (Select two answers)
System BIOS
Device drivers
183
After replacing a modular hardware component inside computer case, the updated information about specific parameters of the new device is stored in:
CMOS RAM
184
A BIOS might be reflashed in order to: (Select all that apply)
Fix known programming errors discovered in the current BIOS version
Repair damaged BIOS
Provide support for new types of attached hardware
185
The CMOS setup utility can be accessed by pressing: (Select best answer)
The key set by the motherboard manufacturer for accessing CMOS setup utility during boot
186
A software embedded into a hardware chip is also referred to as:
Firmware
187
After launching Windows Virtual PC application technician receives error message stating that the hardware-assisted virtualization (HAV) feature is not enabled on the computer. Which of the following steps might help in fixing this problem? (Select best answer)
Getting into the CMOS setup utility and enabling the virtualization technology setting
188
Which Windows OS utility can be used to view basic information about computer's BIOS?
MSINFO32.EXE
189
CMOS settings can be set to factory defaults by: (Select all that apply)
Using a jumper that can be found on the motherboard
Changing settings in Windows Device Manager
Reseating the CMOS battery on the motherboard
Choosing the default configuration option in the CMOS setup utility
Using a jumper that can be found on the motherboard
Reseating the CMOS battery on the motherboard
Choosing the default configuration option in the CMOS setup utility
190
Which of the following terms refer to BIOS types that can be updated without removing the BIOS chip from a motherboard? (Select two answers)
EEPROM
Flash Memory
191
While trying to enable the entire drive encryption feature in Windows technician receives the following error message: "A compatible Trusted Platform Module (TPM) Security Device must be present on this computer, but a TPM was not found". Knowing that the system has a TPM chip installed, which of the following steps might help in solving this problem?
Enabling the TPM security feature in CMOS setup menu
192
Which of the following acronyms refers to an integrated circuit that keeps track of the current time in a PC?
RTC
193
Which of the following are the features offered by LoJack? (Select all that apply)
Remote installation of LoJack's BIOS component
Remote sanitation (removal of data)
Remote device lock to deny access to any unauthorized users
Ability to track down the physical location of a stolen device
Remote sanitation (removal of data)
Remote device lock to deny access to any unauthorized users
Ability to track down the physical location of a stolen device
194
The term "BIOS extension" refers to a situation where peripheral cards such as hard-drive controllers or video display adapters come equipped with their own BIOS chips to provide additional functionality or to replace the motherboard BIOS services with their own versions of those services. BIOS found on extension cards is also referred to as:
Option ROM
