Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Eval Prep > Cessna Supplement Questions > Flashcards

Cessna Supplement Questions Flashcards

1
Q

During an ILS approach, when is the airplane considered established inbound?

A

1,000 feet AGL
Descending from MDA for a non precision approach
500 feet AGL for a visual approach

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

How should the approach speed be adjusted for gusty winds?

A

Add ½ the gust factor to the normal approach speed. For example, it
the wind is reported 8 gusting to 18 knots, the gust factor is 10 knots. Add ½ the
gust factor, 5 knots in this example, to the normal approach speed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Identify the range of usable fuel (smallest to largest) available in the ATP C172 fleet.

A

53 gallons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

While maintaining a stabilized approach, what control input should the pilot use to correct for the aiming point moving up in the windshield, change the pitch or change the power?

A

If the aiming point moves toward the top of the windshield, increase pitch until the aiming point is back in the correct stationary position

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What information should a visual approach briefing include?

A

During the approach checklist, conduct an approach briefing. Each briefing should be specific to the approach landing but can include:

1) Flap setting
2) Type of approach and landing (visual, instrument, short/soft field)
3) Landing Runway
4) Field Elevation
5) TPA
6) Winds (left or right crosswind? Tailwind on downwind or base?)
7) Final approach speed
8) Aiming point
9) Touchdown point

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

True/False there are different checklists for early and late model C172’s

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the VOR limits?

A

4 degrees for VOT, ground checkpoint and dual check

6 degrees for an airborne check

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

True/False Engines on all ATP C172 are identical?

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What does the MEL include and what if you’re not required to have a MEL?

A

MEL includes a list of equipment that may be inoperative for a particular phase of flight

If not required to have a MEL, comply with the minimum equipment prescribed by the FAR’s

A – airspeed indicator
T – tachometer (for each engine)
O – oil pressure gauge (for each engine using a pressure system)
M – manifold pressure gauge (for each altitude engine)
A – altimeter
T – temperature gauge (for each liquid cooled engine)
O – oil temperature gauge (for each air cooled engine)
F – fuel gauge
L – landing gear position indicator
A – anti collision lights (for aircraft certified after March 11th 1996)
M – magnetic compass
E – ELT
S – safety belts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Why is correctly adjusting the seat position before each flight important?

A

improves landing
performance and safety.

best sight picture during landing

helps prevent inadvertent brake
application during landings and ground operations.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Articulate an example visual approach briefing

A

“This will be a normal flaps 20 degree landing. Aiming at the runway numbers, touching down at the 1,000 markings on runway 26L

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

When must a for hire aircraft be inspected?

A

Must have a 100 hour inspection and an annual inspection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

When should the pilot get ATIS, brief the approach, and complete the approach checklist?

A

Getting ATIS, briefing the approach, and the Approach
Checklist should be completed no later than 15 miles from the
airport.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

If the aiming point is moving up in the windshield, is the airplane moving lower or higher reference to the constant angle glide path?

A

The airplane is moving lower

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What action should be taken if a pilot at 1,000 feet AGL maintaining a constant angle glide path is 10 knots too fast?

A

You could reduce power while maintaining a constant angle glide path

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Flaps 10 degree approach and landing

A

A flaps 10° approach and landing will be accomplished the same as a
standardized flaps 20° approach and landing with a few differences:
• Slow to 70 KIAS on base. Do not select flaps 20°.
• Maintain 70 KIAS until final when landing is assured, then slow to 65
KIAS until 10’ to 20’ above the runway.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

While maintaining a stabilized approach, what control input should the pilot use to correct for airspeed deviations, change the pitch or change the power?

A

If the airspeed is too fast reduce power, if too slow, increase power. Since constant angle glide path is a requirement for a stabilized approach, airspeed deviations should be corrected by adjusting power

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Describe ignition system

A

Dual ignition system: Engine ignition is provided by two engine driven magnetos and two spark plugs in each cylinder. Starter - fly wheel- crankshaft - magnetos - spark plugs - cylinder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the maximum recommended flap setting for crosswinds?

A

It is highly recommended that flap settings be limited to 20° during crosswind operations.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

For training and testing purposes, what speed should the plane be flown on short final when landing is assured

A

65 KIAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

When using the wing-low sideslip technique, will left or right rudder be required during a strong right crosswind?

A

Align heading with centerline, lower upwind wing and apply opposite rudder. Right wing is lower left rudder applied

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Which control surface, aileron or rudder, corrects for wind drift during a crosswind landing?

A

Ailerons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What type of stall system doe the C172 have?

A

A pneumatic type stall warning system consists of an inlet on the left wing
leading edge, which is ducted to a horn near the top left of the windshield.
As the aircraft approaches a stall, the lower pressure on top of the wing shifts
forward drawing air through horn resulting in an audible warning at 5 to 10
knots above the stall

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Is the aiming point also the touchdown point? If not what’s the difference?

A

Not the same. Aiming point is the point on the ground at which, if the airplane maintains a constant glidepath, and was not flared for landing, it would contact the ground.” Touchdown point is where the plane actually touches the ground

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is the frequency of VOR checks?

A

Equipment must be checked every 30 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Does ATP recommend the crab method or wing-low sideslip method during a crosswind approach and landing?

A

ATP standardized landing technique for the C172 and the C172 POH/AFM recommend the wing-low method for best control. It is highly recommended that flap settings be limited to 20° during crosswind operations.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

How often are pitot/static systems checked

A

Every 24 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Define Managing Energy?

A

Managing energy means the pilot controls the airplanes glide path, speed, and power setting so that altitude and airspeed are depleted simultaneously on the intended touchdown point

29
Q

What distance should the traffic pattern be flown in a single-engine plane?

A

fly the traffic pattern at a distance from the airport
that allows for a power off landing on a safe landing surface in the
event of an engine failure.

30
Q

Differences between early and late model fuel systems

A

The fuel system has a total usable fuel capacity of as little as 38 gallons (usable
fuel is placarded on fuel selector). Typically there are 3 fuel sumps (1 each wing
and 1 under engine cowling). There is no electrically driven auxiliary fuel pump.
There is no separate fuel shutoff valve. In lieu of a separate fuel shutoff valve,
the fuel selector valve has an OFF position. Fuel is delivered to a carburetor.

31
Q

Define a stabilized approach according to the AFH

A

A stabilized approach is one in which the pilot establishes
and maintains a constant angle glide path towards a
predetermined point on the landing runway. It is based on
the pilot’s judgment of certain visual clues and depends on
the maintenance of a constant final descent airspeed and
configuration.

32
Q

What control inputs, if any, should the pilot apply after the airplane touches down?

A

Increase Crosswind Control Inputs as Airplane Slows

33
Q

What is the typical approximate altitude above the landing surface to begin the roundout (Flare)

A

10 to 20 feet above the runway

34
Q

Describe electrical System

A

28 volt DC electrical system and 24 volt lead acid battery. Electrical energy is supplied by a 60 amp alternator located not he front of the engine. an external power receptacle is located on the left side of the engine cowl. Electrical power is distributed through electrical buses and circuit breakers. If an electrical problem arises, always check circuit breakers. “Essential” circuit breakers should be reset in flight only once, and only if there is no smoke or “burning smell”, and only if the affected system and equipment is needed for the operational environment. Do not reset any non-essential circuit breakers in flight.

35
Q

What is the difference between a go-around/missed approach and a rejected landing?

A

A rejected or balked landing occurs when the airplane is very low to the ground
and usually occurs after the roundout (flare) has begun

A go around is a decision to begin to climb and go around the traffic pattern again before the airplane touches down A go-around procedure must be initiated any time the conditions for a safe approach and landing are not met

A missed approach is a maneuver conducted by a pilot when an instrument approach cannot be completed to a landing

36
Q

What should a pilot do if the general conditions for a stabilized approach don’t exist during an approach? What if an instructor is on board?

A

Instructors should vigilantly monitor student approaches and landing and should command go arounds if any of the stabilized approach conditions are not met. Instructors should make every effort to avoid allowing a student to take an un stabilized approach close to the ground, requiring the instructor to take the controls and initiate a go around

37
Q

Calculate the correct approach speed until short final given the
following conditions.
• Flaps 20˚
• Winds 240 @ 8, gusting to 18

A

the gust factor is 10 knots. Add ½ the

gust factor, 5 knots in this example, to the normal approach speed.

38
Q

Engine difference for early model

A

320 cu engine

150 bhp rated 2700 rpm

39
Q

Define aiming point according to the AFH

A

is the point on the ground
at which, if the airplane maintains a constant glide path and
was not flared for landing, it would strike the ground

40
Q

In addition to fuel required to fly, what are the reserve fuel requirements for IFR and for VFR Day/Night

A

In addition to the fuel required to fly, reserve fuel of 45 mins is required for IFR flights; 30 mins for VFR Day and 45 mins for VFR night

41
Q

Are the power settings listed on the landing profiles exact or
approximate?

A

The power settings in this supplement are approximate and
can change depending on prevailing conditions. A common
mistake is to spend too much time trying to set exact power
settings

42
Q

What is the max demonstrated crosswind in the C172?

A

The demonstrated crosswind component in the C172 is 15 knots.

43
Q

What does it mean if a pilot flying in level flight has to physically keep the airplane from descending by applying aft pressure on the yoke?

A

That you are not properly trimmed.

44
Q

At what speed should the touchdown occur in a C172?

A

At minimum controllable airspeed

45
Q

According to Cessna what is the best flap setting for a normal landing C172

A

The C172 Operations Manual p. 4-32 states: “Normal landing approaches can be
made with power on or power off with any flap setting desired. Surface winds
and air turbulence are usually the primary factors in determining the most
comfortable approach speeds.”
Students must be able to determine the best flap configuration and approach
speed given the landing conditions.

46
Q

After landing, how long should the centerline be maintained?

A

Maintain centerline until taxi speed

47
Q

What is the lost comm procedure (FAR 91.185) if in VFR Conditions?

A

Squawk 7600 remain VFR and land as soon as practicable

48
Q

What does it mean if a pilot flying in level flight has to physically keep the airplane from climbing by applying forward pressure on the yoke?

A

It means you need proper trim (ask instructor)

49
Q

What conditions would NOT require an alternate airport and how long can the forecast be for?

A

If the weather at your destination is forecast to be at least 2000’ ceiling and visibility of at least three miles.

The forecast must be from one hour before to one hour after your ETA

50
Q

After touchdown, what should be done with the aileron controls as the airplane slows down? Why?

A

Increase crosswind input into the wind as the airplane slows. To prevent the upwind wing from rising, reduce side load tendencies on the landing gear, and minimize the risk of roll over accidents due to the upwind wing lifting

51
Q

What does an approach briefing accomplish?

A

It solidifies the plan between the student and instructor while visually indenting the aiming and touchdown points

52
Q

Standardized 20 flaps 20 degree approach and landing

A
  1. Complete the “Approach Checklist” before entering the airport area;
    devote full attention to aircraft control and traffic avoidance
  2. Slow to 90 KIAS prior to entering downwind or traffic pattern
  3. Enter the traffic pattern at published TPA (typically 1,000’ AGL)
  4. Complete the “Before Landing Checklist” when established on
    downwind
  5. When abeam touchdown point, on extended base, or on extended
    final (when ready to descend out of pattern altitude): Reduce power to
    approx. 1500 RPM and select flaps 10˚
  6. Descend out of TPA at 70-80 KIAS
  7. On base leg, select flaps 20° and slow to 70 KIAS
  8. Maintain 70 KIAS until short final when landing is assured, then slow to
    65 KIAS until 10’ to 20’ above the runway
53
Q

Departure procedures

A
  1. Line up on centerline positioning controls for wind
  2. Hold brakes
  3. Increase throttle to 2000 RPM
  4. Check engine gauges
  5. Release brakes
  6. Increase throttle to full power
  7. “Airspeed Alive”
  8. Start slow rotation at 55 KIAS
    (Main gear should lift off at approx. 60 KIAS. 55 KIAS is VR , not VLOF)
  9. Accelerate to 74 KIAS (VY)
    (VY may vary depending on model. Refer to POH/AFM)
  10. “After Takeoff Checklist” out of 1,000’ AGL
54
Q

VFR night MEL requirements

A

VFR Night Requirements
Requirements for VFR Night flight can be found in 91.205(c)
They include A TOMATO FLAMES plus FLAPS
F – fuses (one complete spare set)
L – landing light (only if you are flying for hire)
A – anti collision lights*
P – position lights
S – source of electricity (alternator, generator)

55
Q

What conditions must exist to descend below the DH or MDA

A

A) The required visibility is met
B) The aircraft is in a normal position to land
C) 1) the runway environment is in sight descend to land
2) approach lights in sight - descend to 100’ above touch down zone until runway environment is in sight
3) Descend and land if red terminating bars or red side row bars are in sight

56
Q

How often is ELT equipment checked?

A

Every 12 months, after half of the battery life, or after one hour of cumulative use

57
Q

How often are transponders checked?

A

24 months

58
Q

Identify various engine sizes and specifications for the various model C172’s

A 
Manufacturer: Texton Lycoming
Model: IO-360-L2A
Type: Normally aspirated direct drive air cooled horizontally opposed, fuel injected, four cylinder
360 CU in displacement 
Speed: 180 bhp rated 2700 rpm
59
Q

Difference between early and late model electrical systems

A

The airplane is equipped with a 14 volt DC electrical system and a 12 volt lead acid battery

60
Q

During crosswind landings, which control surface, aileron or rudder longitudinally aligns the airplane with the runway centerline?

A

Rudder

61
Q

No flap approach and landing

A

Steps 1-4 are identical to a normal approach and landing procedure.
5. When abeam touchdown point, on extended base, or on extended
final (when ready to descend out of pattern altitude): Reduce power to
approx. 1300 RPM
6. Slow to 70 KIAS
7. Descend out of TPA at 70 KIAS
8. Maintain 70 KIAS until landing is assured, then slow to 65 KIAS until 10’
to 20’ above the runway

62
Q

Describe the C172 Landing Gear

A

Tricycle landing gear. With a steerable nose wheel and two main wheels. Shock absorption is provided by the tubular spring steel main landing gear struts and the air/oil nose gear shock strut. Each main gear wheel is equipped with a hydraulically actuated disc type break on the inboard side of each wheel

63
Q

When flying the downwind leg with a strong tailwind, where should
the turn to base be started?

A

a strong tailwind during the downwind leg will blow the airplane too far from the runway if the pilot waits until the 45˚ point to turn base. Instead, plan the base turn early to remain the correct distance from the runway.

64
Q

What is the first step in accomplishing a good landing?

A

A good landing is a result of good planning. When planning an approach and
landing, decide on the type of approach and landing (visual or instrument,
short-field, soft-field, etc.). Decide on the flap setting, the final approach speed,
the aiming point, and where the airplane will touch down on the runway
surface.

65
Q

What are the general conditions for a stabilized approach?

A

There are 4:

1) Constant angle glide path: Proper descent angle and rate of descent must be established and maintained . All available landing aids (ILS, VASI, PAPI, etc) must be used. Non-precision approaches may require a slightly steeper angle until reaching MDA
2) Aircraft in final landing configuration (gear down and final flaps set).
3) Airspeed must be stable and within range of target speed pus 10 KIAS
4) The aircraft will touch down in the first 1000’ of the landing runway. If this is not assured, a go around must be executed.

66
Q

Where within the POH/AFM can information on engine modifications be found?

A

Section 9 on POH and form 337 on AFM

67
Q

What is in my opinion the most important part of a stabilized approach

A

Maintaining constant descent angle and rate of descent .

68
Q

What type of flaps does the C172 have?

A

single slotted fowler flaps. Fowler flaps increase the area of your wing by extending out on rails or tracks. Fowler flaps often have a series of slots to add energy to the airflow as well - they’re called slotted-Fowler flaps.

69
Q

What must a pilot do to maintain instrument currency?

A

A pilot must have made six approaches and demonstrated proper holding procedures as well as radial and bearing tracking in the last 6 months

Eval Prep (5 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions