Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

MRCPsych Part B > Practice Questions 3 > Flashcards

Practice Questions 3 Flashcards

1
Q

How long does multisystemic therapy last?

A

3/12

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Who developed IPT?

A

Klermann & Weismann

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Indications for IPT

A

Bulimia
Mild-moderate depression
Dysthymia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Who developed transactional analysis?

A

Eric Bern

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is transactional analysis?

A

TA has elements of psychoanalytic, humanist and cognitive approaches. It is considered as a theory of personality and a systematic psychotherapy for personal growth and personal change.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the form of CBT that Fairburn created for bulimia?

A

Transdiagnostic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is transdiagnostic CBT?

A

2 forms; a ‘focused’ form which focuses exclusively on the eating disorder and a ‘broad’ form which addresses some of the other issues commonly found in eating disordered patients

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Principles of therapeutic communities

A

Communalism
Permissiveness
Democratisation
Reality confrontation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is defence mechanism a function of?

A

Ego

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Which therapy focuses on snags and dilemmas?

A

CAT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Who developed brief dynamic therapy?

A

Malan and Davanloo

Franz Alexander & Thomas French

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Who developed Rational Emotive Therapy?

A

Albert Ellis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Which type of family therapy encourages clear and open boundaries between the parents and the children?

A

Structural

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Which family therapy has a one-way mirror?

A

Milan systemic therapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which family therapy involves task setting?

A

Structural

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Steps of systematic desensitization

A

relaxation training
hierarchy construction
desensitization of the stimulus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Which conditions does ACT show good evidence for?

A

chronic pain, addictions, smoking cessation, depression, anxiety, workplace stress, diabetes management, weight management

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is a snag?

A

when appropriate roles are abandoned because the person makes an assumption that others would oppose them or because they are perceived as forbidden or dangerous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is a trap?

A

repetitive cycles where consequences of the behaviour feedback into its perpetuation. Here negative assumptions generate acts that produce consequences that reinforce the assumptions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Who created systematic desensitization?

A

Wolpe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Who coined the term therapeutic community?

A

Main

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Who created the four terms of therapeutic community?

A

Rapoport

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Who established the therapeutic community model?

A

Jones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Who created CBT for delusions?

A

Turkington

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Who created dual sex therapy?

A

Masters and Johnson

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Who created reciprocal inhibition?

A

Wolpe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Who created progressive muscular relaxation?

A

Hacobson

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Who created Gestalt therapy?

A

Fritz and Perls

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Who created Primal Therapy?

A

Janov

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Who created token economy?

A

Allyon, Azrin, Paul & Krasner

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Factors seen in facilitating communication in a psychodynamic group?

A 
Mirroring
Free-floating discussion
Exchange
Resonance
Translation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Theoretical basis of CAT

A
  1. Procedure sequence model

2. Role repertoires

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What percentage of people in police custody has a mental illness at the time of arrest?

A

2-5%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

The prevalence of psychotic disorders in prisons compared to the general population is?

A

10x

2-15%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

How many people in prison have PD?

A

65%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

How many people in prison have depression?

A

10%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

How many people in prison have psychosis?

A

3-7%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

To be defined as a murder-suicide event, the suicide of a homicide perpetrator must occur within a period of?

A

1 week after the murder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

The proportion of those discharged from medium secure units that are convicted for a violent offence within five years of discharge is?

A

1 in 6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What proportion of elderly offenders has a mental illness?

A

20%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What percentage of people who commit homicides have a mental illness?

A

10%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

The percentage of violence in the population that can be ascribed to psychosis is?

A

5%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Define automatism

A

If an individual commits an offence when his body is not under the control of his mind (e.g. when asleep) he is not guilty of the offence.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Define insane automatism

A

due to an intrinsic cause (e.g. sleepwalking, brain tumours, epilepsy) results in an acquittal on the grounds of insanity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Define sane automatism

A

Sane automatism- due to an extrinsic cause (e.g. confusional states, concussion, reflex actions after bee stings, dissociative states, night terrors, and hypoglycaemia) results in a complete acquittal.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Prevalence of LD in prison?

A

40%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Which offence are people with LD most likely to commit?

A

Offences against property

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Legal term for killing ones wife?

A

Uxoricide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What is Corpus deliciti?

A

Evidence of a crime being committed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

How many homicide perpretators have a MI?

A

30%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

How many homicide perpretators have had contact with MH services in the last 12 months?

A

10%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

How many homicide perpretators have MI have PD?

A

27%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

How many homicide perpretators have a primary dx of schizophrenia?

A

5%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

How many homicide perpretators with a dx of PD have had contact with MH services in the last 12 months?

A

29%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

How many homicide perpretators with PD had ot been in contact with MH services?

A

43%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

How many homicide perpretators with PD had a secondary MI?

A

55% - usually substance misuse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

How many homicide perpretators with PD were imprisoned?

A

92%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

How many homicide perpretators with PD recieved a hospital disposal?

A

4%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

How many homicide perpretators with schizphrenia were sent to prison?

A

29%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

HOw many homicide perpretators with schizophrenia had a hospital disposal?

A

71%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

How many homicide perpretators overall receive a hospital disposal?

A

6%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

How many convicted shop-lifters re-offend?

A

10%

63
Q

Proportion of prisoners who self-harmduring their prison term

A

10%

64
Q

Ice is the street name for a particularly strong and pure form of?

A

Amphetamine

65
Q

What does Suboxone contain?

A

Buprenorphine and Naloxone

66
Q

How long can LSD be detected in urine for?

A

1 day

67
Q

How long should NRT last for?

A

12 weeks

68
Q

Which drug withdrawal can cause kinaesthetic hallucinations?

A

Benzo withdrawal

69
Q

What percentage of those with alcohol withdrawal experience delirium tremens?

A

5%

70
Q

How many men drink over the drink limit?

A

27%

71
Q

How many women drink over the drink limit?

A

15%

72
Q

How many patients presenting to GP services drink a hazardous level?

A

20%

73
Q

Lifetime risk of suicide for dependence drinkers?

A

10-15%

74
Q

What is the minimum duration required to make a diagnosis of alcohol dependence according to ICD-10 criteria?

A

12 months

75
Q

How many chronic alcoholics have cerebellar degeneration?

A

40%

76
Q

How long does detox of EtOH last?

A

5-7 days

77
Q

When do sx of delirium tremens peak?

A

72-96 hours after last drink

78
Q

What treatments did the UKAT compare?

A

Motivational therapy vs. social behaviour and network therapy

79
Q

Sensitivity of MRI for Wernickes

A

53%

80
Q

Specificity of MRI for Wernickes

A

93%

81
Q

How long should IP opioid detox last for?

A

7-14 days

82
Q

Rx for Methadone OD?

A

Naloxone

83
Q

When is risk of seizures highest after someone has stopped drinking?

A

First 24 hours

84
Q

How does Acamprosate work?

A

Balancing GABA and glutamate system

85
Q

Prevalence of psych disorder in long-term cocaine users?

A

80%

86
Q

Sx of cannabis intoxication

A

Tachy
Postural hypotension
Red eyes
Lack of coordination

87
Q

Amphetamine intoxication

A 
Tachy
HTN
Tremor
Restlessness
Anorexia
88
Q

Cocaine intoxication

A 
Tachy
Tachypnoea
HTN
Headache
CP
Resp depression
89
Q

Mental state in cocaine intoxication

A 
Euphoria
Paranoia
Anxiety
Panic Attacks
Insomnia
90
Q

Mental state in amphetamine use

A

Auditory hallucinations
Paranoia
Reduced concentration

91
Q

Cocaine withdrawal sx

A

Lethargy
Decreased consciousness
Intense craving

92
Q

How long does cocaine withdrawal last for?

A

12-18 hours

93
Q

Cannabis withdrawal sx?

A

Restlessness
Irritability
Insomnia
Anxiety

94
Q

Amphetamine withdrawal sx?

A

Extreme fatigue
Hunger
Depression

95
Q

In which rec drug intoxication does one get synaesthesia?

A

LSD

96
Q

What receptor does PCP work on?

A

Glutamate

97
Q

Street name for Temazepam?

A

Jellies

98
Q

How long does amphetamine stay in urine?

A

48 hours

99
Q

What if family aggregation bias?

A

presence of a case in the family increases awareness of risk factors and exposure leading to more family members of cases reporting an exposure though controls have family members with less awareness.

100
Q

Calculation for incidence

A

(Prevalence in the exposed)(Incidence in the exposed) + (1-Prevalence in the exposed)(Incidence in the non-exposed)

101
Q

Which study can analyse multiple risk factors for a disease?

A

Case-control

102
Q

Which studies are best for rare diseases?

A

Case-control

103
Q

Which studies are best for common diseases?

A

Cohort studies

104
Q

Define power

A

Power is the ability of a study to report a difference if that difference truly exists between two groups.

105
Q

What is the name of the randomisation scheme in which the next randomisation depends on the one before it?

A

Minimisation scheme

106
Q

Describe Quasi Randomisation

A

randomizing using even/odd numbers of the date of birth, day of the week patient was seen, etc. These are not reproducible methods, and the sequences cannot ensure equal distribution of variables.

107
Q

What can we conclude if crude risk differs from stratified risk?

A

The stratified risk is a confounder

108
Q

Which technique is used to adjust for confounding factors when analysing relationships between dichotomous outcomes or risk factors e.g. odds?

A

Mantel-Haenszel

109
Q

What does it mean if stratified risk differs amongst strata?

A

It is an effect modifier

110
Q

What is Pygmalion effect?

A

Mere awareness of the experimenter’s expectations regarding treatment effect may result in a change in subject behavior in the direction of experimenter hypothesis.

111
Q

Describe Halo effect

A

first impressions or answers influence subsequent answers in a questionnaire or interview.

112
Q

What bias is important to keep in mind in mortality studies?

A

Attrition bias

113
Q

Describe theoretical sampling

A

uses categories that emerge during a qualitative interview (grounded theory process) to construct the theory. It is not an intuitive method; it does not involve randomisation or picking up of a convenient sample.

114
Q

Describe reflexivity

A

sensitivity to the ways in which the researcher and the research process have shaped the collected data, including the role of prior assumptions and experience, which can influence the results.

115
Q

What can help identify the sample number needed for a qualitative study?

A

Saturation

116
Q

How to deal with methodological heterogeneity in meta-analysis?

A

Deal with two sets of data differently and carry out two independent meta-analysis

117
Q

Whaat is effect size?

A

Effect size is the difference in mean scores between the treatment and control groups divided by the standard deviation of the scores in the control group

118
Q

Benefits of effect size

A

this does not have units that vary with outcome scales; hence it is possible to pool data from various studies in a meta-analysis using effect-size.

119
Q

Who coined the term meta-analysis?

A

Glass (1976)

120
Q

How was meta analysis first described?

A

Analysis of analyses

121
Q

Purpose of cost-effectiveness acceptaility curve?

A

represent uncertainty associated with economics of health interventions.

122
Q

What does cost-effectiveness acceptability curve present?

A

Results of cost-effectiveness analysis

123
Q

In which economic study does one use measures such as QALY/DALY?

A

Cost utility

124
Q

In which economic analysis are interventions with different outcomes reduced to monetary values?

A

Cost-benefit

125
Q

Describe average cost-effectiveness ratio

A

Cost/effect

126
Q

Calculation for ICER

A

ICER = [Cost of proposed intervention - cost of control intervention.] divided by [ Effect of proposed intervention - effect of control intervention.]

127
Q

What is ICER a measure of?

A

Additional cost per unit of health gained

128
Q

What parameters are required to create a cost-effectiveness analysis curve?

A

Willingness to pay and probability of cost effectiveness

129
Q

How is willingness to pay written?

A

Lambda value

130
Q

In a cost-effectiveness plane which quadrant indicates best cost effectiveness of an intervention?

A

SE

131
Q

Horizontal axis of cost-effectiveness plane?

A

Incremental cost

132
Q

Vertical axis of cost-effectiveness plane?

A

Incremental effect

133
Q

What does Northwest quadrant of cost-effectiveness plane suggest?

A

Positive costs, negative effects - no use of intervention

134
Q

What does southeast quadrant of cost-effectiveness plane suggest?

A

-ve costs, +ve effects - intervention preferred

135
Q

What does northeast quadrant of cost-effectiveness plane suggest?

A

+ve effects, +ve costs - needs further consideration before acceptance

136
Q

What does southwest quadrant of cost-effectiveness plane suggest?

A

-ve costs, -ve effects - not clinically effective, needs further study

137
Q

In which economic analysis are the outcomes of the comparators assumed to be equal?

A

Cost minimisation

138
Q

Describe cost benefit analysis

A

Measures all positive and negative consequences of an intervention in monetary terms.

139
Q

Benefits of cost benefit analysis?

A

Allows decision-makers to compare health outcomes of different health interventions

140
Q

What are implicit or opportunity costs?

A

Benefits forgone by a particular use of resources

141
Q

Most common level of prevention currently employed in psychiatric practice is?

A

Tertiary

142
Q

Prevalence of chronic illnesses compared to acute?

A

Higher prevalence

143
Q

When is cumulative incidence helpful?

A

When attrition is low

144
Q

Why is cumulative incidence not helpful if attrition is high?

A

Because drop outs are excluded from being counted as new cases but the denominator of the population does take them into account.

145
Q

How does one get over the diffculty of cumulative incidence being affected by attrition rates?

A

Using incidence denesity

146
Q

What is incidence density?

A

Number of new cases per person-year of observation

147
Q

Another name for incidence density?

A

Incidence rate

148
Q

When are incidence rates used?

A

When reporting results that compare 2 groups - providing a ratio

149
Q

What is a crude rate?

A

One that is applicable to the entire population

150
Q

What is case fatality ratio?

A

Ratio between number of deaths due to specific disease and number of persons affected by that disease in the population

151
Q

What is a measure of fatal severity of disease studies?

A

Case fatality rate

152
Q

What is a measure of contribution of disease to societal mortality burden?

A

Proportionate mortality rate

153
Q

Calculation of proportionate mortality rate?

A

Ratio between deathes due to specific cause and total number of deaths in a population

MRCPsych Part B (64 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions