METAL AFO Flashcards

1
Q

The average midsagittal line for a normal limb will intersect what three points?

A

Perineum bisect, a point 15mm medial to the leg at the knee joints axis and a point 30mm medial to the medial malleolus at the ankle joint axis

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2
Q

A midsagittal line falling more than 15 mm medial for the knee indicates

A

Genu varum

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3
Q

A midsagittal line falling more than 30mm medial from the medial malleolus indicates

A

Genu valgum

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4
Q

A shoe attached to a metal AFO must have simultaneous

A

Full heel contact and forefoot contact under the metatarsal heads

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5
Q

The location of the mechanical ankle joint axis should be

A

At the distal tip of the medial malleolus

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6
Q

What is the relationship between the proximal edge of the calf band and then fibular neck?

A

They should be 20mm apart

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7
Q

What should be the average clearance between the apex of the lateral malleolus And the lateral mechanical ankle joint?

A

5mm

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8
Q

What is the line progression?

A

The direction of forward progression

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9
Q

What is toe out?

A

The angular relationship between the line off progression and the longitudinal aspect of the foot.

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10
Q

What is tibial torsion?

A

The relative external rotation of the ankle joint axis with respect to the knee joint axis

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11
Q

A distal perpendicular from the bisect of the ankle joint axis will allow determination of the

A

Presence of a fixed subtalar deformity

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12
Q

Why is 3mm added to the amount that the medial sidebar is anteriorly deflected to accommodate external rotation of the mechanical ankle joint axis.

A

Because the mechanical ankle joint diameter is greater than that of the anatomical ankle joint diameter

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13
Q

When using 5/8 inch (15mm)x 3/16 (5mm) inch sidebar stock, the best estimate for the length of a calf band is?

A

Half the maximum anatomical, calf diameter plus 37 mm (1 1/2inches)

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14
Q

Stirrup size is determined by measuring?

A

The length from one mechanical axis to the other in the uncountered condition

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15
Q

The midsagittal line determines alignment in?

A

The coronal plane

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16
Q

The length of a solid stirrup is the algebraic sum of

A

Twice the ankle joint height, twice the sole thickness, heel width, plus 6mm

17
Q

The ideal clearance between the medial surface of the sidebars and the skin is

A

3-6 mm

18
Q

Why is it generally best not to contour the sidebars in the area of the calf band?

A

The band can be riveted without excessive stress

19
Q

Why is the calf band length greater than half the circumference of the anatomical calf?

A

To accommodate the padding plus half the sidebar width twice

20
Q

After anterior deflection of the medial sidebar/ankle joint assembly, why are the ankle joints externally rotated?

A

To make the mechanical joint surface perpendicular to the ankle joint axis.

21
Q

When anteriorly deflecting the medial sidebar/ankle joint assembly, what is the advantage of utilizing two contours vs one?

A

So that the relationship between the mechanical ankle joint and the stirrup is the same as it is laterally

22
Q

The advantage of using a single contour in the medial sidebar to approximate the anatomical ankle joint axis is

A

Improved cosmesis, less built in stress and ease of fabrication

23
Q

What is the static posture of a patients talocrural joint when wearing a standard metal AFO when the lateral sidebar is perpendicular to the ground and the shoe has a 5/8 inch heel

A

Plantarflexion

24
Q

If a patient has a fixed subtalar varus deformity, what kind of wedge would you recommend?

A

A medial heel wedge

25
Q

If a patient has a fixed subtalar valgus deformity, what kind of wedge would you recommend?

A

A lateral heel wedge

26
Q

If a patient has a flexible subtalar valgus, to what side of the shoe would you attach the correction strap?

A

Medial

27
Q

If a patient has a flexible subtalar varus, to what side of the shoe would you attach the correction strap?

A

Lateral

28
Q

What event does a cushion heel simulate?

A

Plantar flexion at loading

29
Q

What event does a rocker bar simulate?

A

Heel rise and toe off

30
Q

When might a cushioned heel be used on a AFO with restrained dorsiflexion and plantar flexion?

A

To reduce knee flexion thrust at loading

31
Q

When might a rocker bar be used?

A

When forefoot motion is undesirable

32
Q

With what type of mechanical ankle joint adjustment might you use both a cushion heel and a rocker bar?

A

Restrained dorsiflexion and plantarflexion

33
Q

What can be the eventual consequence of not accommodating tibial torsion in a free motion AFO?

A

Iatrogenic varus deformity

34
Q

Why should the tongue of a stirrup be contoured before attaching to the shoe?

A

To prevent deformation of the shoe

35
Q

Marks left by a contouring instrument should be

A

Removed to eliminate failure causing stress risers