Oral Board Questions Flashcards

1
Q

Training

Types / times / circuit heights / restrictions

A
  • Subject Aerodrome authority and ATC WM approval
  • No training from mil fast jet / chinooks / non-Birmingham based aircraft/operators (Brize accepted)
  • Only 1 turbo-jet at a time for 2 hours per day
  • Training hold at GROVE
  • Circuits for larger / jet aircraft east of airfield, 2500ft
  • Circuits for light / non jet aircraft 1000ft QFE
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2
Q

Coventry

Responsibilities / How would you work IFR inbound/outbounds

A
  • IB north route to CHASE FL90
  • Ideally descend below controlled airspace and route east, alternatively west of BHX
  • OB North: remain outside of BHX controlled airspace and contact East Midlands Radar
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3
Q

Primary only procedures

A
  • Cancel silent handovers
  • Aircraft primary transfer of identification from TC/PC
  • Departures not validated/verified
  • Subject workload / identification, full radar services may be provided
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4
Q

Claxby only procedures

A
  • 5nm separation
  • 7 trail dots
  • Pilots aware of limitations
  • PC/TC advised
  • SSR only radar handovers
  • No radar services outside CAS
  • No radar service below 3000ft
  • 10nm final approach spacing
  • No IFR transits below 3000ft
  • No instrument training
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5
Q

Radar fail - initial actions

A

Establish separation as soon as possible - essential traffic information / emergency 500ft separation
Suspend all departures - Check all
Traffic not on an instrument approach - ask if can continue visually / separate and route to hold
Inform PC/TC/S23 - suspend further arrivals

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6
Q

VFR light aircraft engine failure 10NM west EGBB - actions

What if 4NM west

A

Light aircraft can glide 2-3 miles per 1000ft
Unlikely to reach airfield at 10NM west
If 4NM at 2000ft may be able to reach airfield

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7
Q

Where is Overgreen farm?

What are the inbound and outbound procedures?

A
  • Location 5NM North of EGBB
    OB:
  • Call ATC WM before flight, exchange ETD, SSR code, route
  • Call Radar prior to departure or as soon as airborne
  • NAB 800ft AGL until east of airfield
  • Then NAB 1500ft leaving CAS to the North

IB:

  • Call Radar for joining clearance
  • NAB 1500ft VFR
  • NAB 500ft agl when west of airfield, remain east of A38
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8
Q

Visual approaches - who is responsible for separation?

A
  • Pilot accepts responsibility for separation against preceding aircraft when visual and given wake turbulence information
  • Controller remains responsible for separation against other aircraft
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9
Q

ATSOCAS

BS, TS, DS

A

BS:
- Info for safe and efficient flight
- Traffic info in general terms only
- Warnings given for significant proximity hazards
TS:
- Provisions of BS plus traffic info
- Relevant traffic 3nm/3000ft
- Headings/levels may be provided for positioning/sequencing
- Terrain warning provided below unit terrain safe level
DS:
- Provisions of BS plus traffic info and deconfliction advice
- Deconfliction minima 5nm/3000ft / 3nm/1000ft against coordinated traffic
- IFR flights only

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10
Q

When would you cancel silent handovers?

A
  • Holding is anticipated
  • Conflicting overflying traffic
  • QNH is 976hPa or below (Min stack FL90)
  • Secondary radar unserviceable
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11
Q

Describe coordination between Radar 1 and Radar 2

A

All inbound aircraft will be transferred to Radar 1 from TC/PC/S23 on appropriate STARs to
the respective holds. Radar 1 shall effect coordination with Radar 2 to ensure aircraft are
transferred clean and appropriately positioned to ensure a safe, expeditious and orderly flow of air traffic.

Radar 2 area of responsibility, coordination for transits
Radar 1 responsible for imposing checks

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12
Q

Dead ringers

Duty of care

A

“If a controller notices that a definite risk of collision exists, a warning shall be issued to the
pilot. (SERA)”

“The decision to make any alteration to the flight remains with the pilot and traffic avoidance advice shall not be issued.”

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13
Q

Scenario: aircraft departed Coventry VFR, lost above cloud layer, not IMC rated.
Actions?

A
  • Instruct to remain VMC
  • Attempt to identify, turn method only if VMC (ask route, last seen landmark)
  • Advise of local weather, advise to descend through gap in clouds if safe to do so to then remain in sight of surface
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14
Q

NPRs, when can you take aircraft off?

A

Noise preferential routing

  • Aircraft not taken off early unless for safety
  • NPRs cease at 2DME or 3000ft RWY33/15 NB, 6000ft or 2/4DME RWY15 SB
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15
Q

MOSUNS

A

-

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16
Q

SSR Only Cleehill and Claxby

A

Clee Hill only:

  • 5nm separation
  • 7 trail dots
  • Pilots aware of limitations
  • PC/TC advised
  • SSR only radar handovers
  • No Deconfliction service outside CAS
  • IFR flights not below highest MSA (2500ft) until established on approach
  • Reduced traffic service:
    “Birmingham Primary radar is out of service, this will be a reduced Traffic Service based on transponding aircraft only”
  • No check + chuck (aircraft not identified on departure)

Claxby only:

  • 5nm separation
  • 7 trail dots
  • Pilots aware of limitations
  • PC/TC advised
  • SSR only radar handovers
  • IFR flights not below highest MSA (2500ft) until established on approach
  • No radar services outside CAS
  • No radar service below 3000ft
  • 10nm final approach spacing
  • No IFR transits below 3000ft
  • No instrument training
  • No check + chuck
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17
Q

Minimum Fuel

A

Controllers shall respond to a pilot’s declaration of “MINIMUM FUEL” by confirming the estimated delay he can expect to receive expressed in minutes, or the remaining track mileage from touchdown if the aircraft is being vectored to an approach

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18
Q

VFR/SVFR - can you use headings / levels?

A

Yes - for sequencing, positioning, navigational assistance, coordination against other aircraft

  • Exercise extreme caution in vectoring VFR flights
  • Pilot must be asked to report if headings issued are not acceptable due to the requirements to remain in VMC, avoid obstacles, and comply with the low flying rules.
  • Some pilots may not be sufficiently experienced to comply accurately with vectors, or to recover to visual navigation after vectoring

If it is necessary for a Special VFR flight to be given vectors to establish it in the landing sequence, controllers shall ensure that vectors given do not preclude the responsibility for the pilot to remain clear of cloud, with the surface in sight and keep clear of obstacles by visual reference to the surface.

Controllers have no responsibility for the terrain clearance of, and shall not assign levels to, aircraft operating Special VFR or VFR within controlled airspace which accept vectors

Controllers shall only give heading instructions when the aircraft is at or above an ATC unit’s terrain safe level. However, if pilots request a heading to fly from the controller whilst operating below the ATC unit terrain safe level, this may be provided as long as the controller reminds the pilot that he remains responsible for terrain clearance.

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19
Q

MOSUN inbounds scenario involving deconfliction minima

A

-

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20
Q

Primary radar failure - actions

A

-

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21
Q

Use of CEDAR/MAPLE

A

Fixes still exist but no longer used for Radar fail procedures

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22
Q

TCAS

A

Traffic Alert and Collision Avoidance System
TA - 45 seconds before assumed collision
RA - 30 seconds before assumed collision

(At FL200)

23
Q

ATSOCAS scenario - one on TS dead ringer for 7000 - actions?

A

“If a controller notices that a definite risk of collision exists, a warning shall be issued to the
pilot. (SERA)”

“The decision to make any alteration to the flight remains with the pilot and traffic avoidance advice shall not be issued.”

24
Q

Methods of identification - SSR and PSR, examples / does this count?

A

PSR

Turn method - ascertain heading, observe track, alter heading by 30 degrees or more
Departing aircraft method - observe and correlate position indication of departing aircraft to airborne time. Within one mile of end of runway unless otherwise authorised (BHX 3 miles)
Position report method - correlating position indicator with report over exact reporting point / VRP / geog feature or within 30 miles VOR/DME

SSR

Select discrete 4 digit code
Recognising validated 4 digit code / code/callsign pairing
Ident feature

Mode S

Check mode S readout corresponds to flight
HLE53 = HLE53E/A
Aircraft reg does not mean identification, even if confirmed by pilot

25
Q

Procedures for using 3NM separation

A
  • Between identified aircraft with primary radar contacts
  • Below FL195
  • within 40nm ATZ
  • Same or co-located controllers
  • Wake turbulence applied if greater
26
Q

When would you open Radar 2?

A
  • High infringement risk day
  • Aircraft emergencies
  • Traffic workload has increased
  • Weather situations
  • Special events
  • Training
27
Q

Which departures are RSR?

A

• Non SID IFR departures e.g. MOSUN departure
• Departures following non SID IFR departures
• Special VFR departures.
• VFR Departures unable to comply with not above 2000ft and a routing via one of the
4 designated VRP exit points will require a release from Radar 1.
• Whenever the Air controller intends to depart successive aircraft which would be
separated by less than the specified separation.
• Whenever a departing aircraft wishes to deviate from the NPR.
• From the point at which a runway change has been agreed until lifted by Radar 1.
• Aircraft departing from the non-duty runway.
• Aircraft types not included in Freeflow SID departure table
• Following a Go around (including training aircraft.)

28
Q

Actions on unidentified primary contact inside controlled airspace

A
  • 5NM separation
  • attempt to call aircraft
  • likely to be clutter?
  • call adjacent aerodromes
  • is the weather good, can tower see?
29
Q

LVPs

A
  • 15/33 are CAT III ILS
  • LSA safeguarding - 137m from runway centreline, from when I/B is 2nm final
  • Lighting system on standby generators

Safeguarding implemented when Met vis or IRVR is 1000m or cloud ceiling 300ft and forecast to decrease

  • Air to inform Radar of safeguarding and agree final approach spacing
  • A-SMGCS safeguarding map
  • Taxii restrictions/no free-ranging

LVP Amber instigated when touchdown/midpoint IRVR 600-400m and/or cloud ceiling is 200/100ft

LVP Red instigated when touchdown/midpoint IRVR <400m and/or cloud ceiling is <100ft

  • Pilots informed of IRVR / CAT II/III unserviceabilities / when LVPs start/cease
  • Pilots must be informed whenever IRVR 600m and/or cloud 200ft and LVPs have not yet been implemented
  • 10nm finals
  • Increased arrival spacing (10nm behind Heavy)
  • Flow rate 10/15 per hour
30
Q

Winter Ops

A
  • Point of contact: ADM (Snow Controller)
  • 2 categories of snow warning - Preliminary snow warning (up to 24hrs) and snow warning
  • Runway surface contamination reports:
    “Touchdown: XX %, Type XX, Depth XX mm”
  • SNOCLO 2: clearance deemed attainable
  • SNOCLO 4: update every 2 hours
  • More guidance: Winter Operations Folder (held in VCR)
31
Q

Difference between Swanwick Mil, Western Radar and Sector 23

A
  • LACC Brecon Sector 23
32
Q

What are SLPs, where are they?

A
  • Speed Limit Points

NW to CHASE - HON DME 25
NE to CHASE - PEDIG
S, SE to GROVE - HON DME 12

33
Q

What is the LARS range of East Midlands?

Of Brize Norton?

A
  • 30nm

- 60nm (?)

34
Q

What LARS units are there around Birmingham

A
  • East Midlands
  • Shawbury
  • Brize Norton
35
Q

Handling diversions

What is Plan 39?

A
  • Inform WM / VCR assistant, ascertain Birmingham diversion status

“In the event of a request being made to ATC for an aircraft to divert in to Birmingham for any
reason other than safety, this request must forwarded to the ADM.
The ADM will advise ATC if the aircraft can be accepted.”

36
Q

Evacuation

A

Immediate evacuation (RED beacon):

  • Separate traffic / emergency separation / use holds
  • Inform TC/PC of evacuation, all traffic to 121.030
  • Broadcast “ATC service terminated due to Tower evacuation, all aircraft contact London control 121.030”
  • Leave building, take ATC log book, watchlist folder, attendance sheet, CATCU case
  • Dial 999 as backup call

Controlled evacuation (AMBER beacon):

  • Separate all traffic, use holds
  • Inform TC / PC of evacuation
  • Transfer traffic to London Control 121.030
  • Leave building, take ATC log book, watchlist folder, attendance sheet, CATCU case
  • Dial 999 as backup call
37
Q

Alerting service - definition and actions

A
  • An Alerting Service is provided to notify appropriate organisations regarding aircraft in need of SAR aid and assist such organisations as required.
  • Activate local procedures - S7 C12
    Non-appearance of Aircraft Having Commenced Intermediate Approach
    Overdue Action - Aircraft Routeing Across Irish Sea - 15 minutes ETA
  • Contact LACC Watch Supervisor
38
Q

What is TASCOMP?

Where is it?

A

Alarm system, displays in VCR and ACR

39
Q

What approaches are and are not available without DME?

A
  • ILS 33/15 available with range checks given at 7/9NM outbound, 4NM inbound
  • LOC/NDB 33/15 not available
  • RNP 33/15 available
40
Q

What are the idents and frequencies for:
ILS / GP
DME
NDB

A
  • ILS/LOC 110.1
  • GP: 334.40
  • DME: 110.1 (paired with ILS)
  • 33 ident IBIR
  • 15 ident IBM
  • NDB: BHX 406kHz
41
Q

Describe the Radar 2 area of responsibility

A

-

42
Q

What are the latest TOIs / SIs etc?

A

SI:

  • Daventry Gliding Box
  • Plan 39 Mass Diversion Protocol (3 aircraft: Ryanair, Jet2, TUI)
  • Runway vacated
  • New RNAV SIDs

TOI:

  • Runway Inspections following Code E/F departures from A1
  • Level Assessments Addendum

OPNOT:

  • Removal of Non-Radar SIDs
  • Upper Wind Validity Terminology on IDS
43
Q

What altimeter setting regions are around Birmingham?

A

Barnsley

Cotswold (S)

44
Q

What are the VFR and SVFR minima?

A

SVFR:
- fixed wing: < 1500m vis / 600ft cloud
- helicopter: < 800m vis / 600ft cloud
Does not apply to Police; Helimed, Rescue, Electricity, Grid, Powerline, Pipeline or SAR helicopters

45
Q

Describe the airspace around Birmingham

A

-

46
Q

What are the differences between Class A and Class D airspace?

A

-

47
Q

Scenario: LVPs, holds full, aircraft declares mayday and must land
Actions?

A

-

48
Q

Radio failure inbound procedures

A

Before ETA / EAT:

  • fly to the hold (GROVE or CHASE);
  • hold at the last assigned level until ETA + 10 or EAT
  • commence descent for landing, land within 30 minutes (or later if visually)

Initial/Intermediate/Final approach:

  • Continue visually
  • If unable, 2500ft or last assigned higher altitude to BHX missed approach

VMC generic:

  • Set Mode A, Code 7600 with Mode C and land at the nearest suitable aerodrome
  • Enter controlled airspace if cleared. Do not enter if not unless overriding safety reason

IMC generic:

  • Maintain current speed and level / MSA for 7 minutes or;
  • Maintain current vector and level / MSA for 3 minutes
  • rejoin flight planned route to designated landing aid (BHX or DCT arrival from CHASE/GROVE)
  • if Delay Not Determined, divert

If leaving track 270°T at last assigned altitude

SVFR generic:

  • Do not enter CTR even if cleared
  • If inside CTR, continue as per clearance to land or leave by most direct route
49
Q

Mode C discrepancy, actions if not accurate

A
  • Reset the assigned code
  • Select code 0000
  • Switch off the transponder

(corrupt code may be retained to assist identification and tracking provided the Mode C has been verified. Inform associated ATC units)

50
Q

Scenario: Oxford trainer on final, reports established on ILS but looks off the centerline. How long would you let it continue before breaking it off?

A
  • Until 5DME

- Aircraft should be at 2000ft and above the minimum sector altitude (1800ft fillet)

51
Q

S23 call with RYR requesting diversion. Actions?

A

Take details, advise you will call back with confirmation.

Call Air, advise and ask to call ADM for confirmation.

52
Q

When and who is the Cotswold FUA open to?

A

Mon to Thurs 1700L-0900L,
Friday or the day preceding a PH 1700L, to 0900L Mon or the day following a PH
Open to turboprop/jet traffic flight planning FL140 or above.

53
Q

What are the minimum and maximum holding levels at CHASE and GROVE?

A

Min stack to FL140

Radar monitored at FL120 and above