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IFR written prep > IFR and Navigation > Flashcards

IFR and Navigation Flashcards

1
Q

If a pilot elects to proceed to the selected alternate, the landing minimums used at that airport should be the

A

minimums specified for the approach procedure selected

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2
Q

If RVR (runway visual range) is inoperative for the runway in use, you must

A

convert RVR minimums and use the value as ground visibility

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3
Q

A RVR of 1,600’ is how many statute miles if RVR is inop?

A

1/4sm

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4
Q

A RVR of 2,400’ is how many statute miles if RVR is inop?

A

1/2sm

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5
Q

A RVR of 3,200’ is how many statute miles if RVR is inop?

A

5/8sm

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6
Q

A RVR of 4,000’ is how many miles if RVR is inop?

A

3/4sm

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7
Q

A RVR of 4,500’ is how many miles if RVR is inop?

A

7/8sm

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8
Q

A RVR of 5,000’ is how many miles if RVR is inop?

A

1sm

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9
Q

A RVR of 6,000’ is how many miles if RVR is inop?

A

1 1/4sm

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10
Q

What point should be used to compute the estimated time en route on an IFR flight plan?

A

The point of first intended landing

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11
Q

How many degrees of deflection does each dot indicate on a VOR?

A

2 degrees

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12
Q

A VOR receiver shows a three dot deflection at 30NM from the station. How far is the aircraft displaced from the course centerline?

A

3NM

1 radial = 1nm at 60nm
6 degree radial deflection
30NM is half of 60nm
6 x 1) x (1/2

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13
Q

In IMC, a pilot often interprets acceleration or deceleration forces as a sensation of

A

climbing or descending

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14
Q

How fast is a standard rate turn?

A

3 degrees per second.

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15
Q

How long does it take to complete a 360 degree standard rate turn

A

2 minutes

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16
Q

How fast is a half-standard-rate turn?

A

1.5 degrees per second

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17
Q

What causes the northerly turning error in a magnetic compass?

A

The pull of the vertical component of the Earth’s magnetic field

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18
Q

The miniature airplane on the turn coordinator indicates

A

the Rate and Roll of a turn

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19
Q

When an aircraft is accelerated, some attitude indicators will incorrectly indicate a

A

climb

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20
Q

When an aircraft is decelerated, some attitude indicators will incorrectly indicate a

A

descent

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21
Q

What indication should be observed on a turn coordinator during a left turn while taxiing?

A

The miniature aircraft will show a turn to the left and the ball moves to the right

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22
Q

On a taxi check, the magnetic compass should

A

swing freely and indicate known headings

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23
Q

When is an attitude indicator considered unreliable during taxiing preflight

A

If the horizon bar fails to remain in the horizontal position during straight taxiing, or tips in excess of 5 degrees during taxi turns

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24
Q

What preflight check should be made of a vacuum driven heading indicator in preparation for an IFR flight>

A

Start the engines and after 5 minutes (to allow the gyro to spin up) set the indicator to the magnetic heading and check for proper alignment after taxi turns

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25
Q

In correct sequence, what are the three fundamental skills of instrument flight

A

Cross-check, Instrument interpretation, Aircraft control

CIA

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26
Q

Which instruments are pitch instruments?

A

Attitude indicator
Altimeter
Airspeed Indicator
Vertical Speed Indicator

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27
Q

What instruments are bank instruments?

A 
Attitude indicator
Engine Instruments:
    Manifold Pressure Gauge
    Tachometer/RPM
    Engine Pressure Ratio (in Jets only)
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28
Q

When checking the flight instruments while taxiing, the vertical speed indicator indicates a descent of 100fpm. In this case, you should

A

take off without a need to deviate. You may use the 100 foot descent indication as the zero indication

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29
Q

As a rule of thumb, altitude correction of less than 100’ should be corrected by using

A

a half bar width on the attitude indicator

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30
Q

Altitude corrections of more than 100’ should be corrected using what on the attitude indicator?

A

A full bar width

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31
Q

What instrument is the primary instrument for bank control in straight and level flight

A

Heading indicator

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32
Q

What instrument is the primary instrument for pitch control in straight and level flight?

A

Altimeter

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33
Q

What instrument is the primary instrument for power control in straight and level flight?

A

Airspeed indicator

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34
Q

The glide slope and localizer are centered but the airspeed is too fast. What should initially be adjusted?

A

Power only. You can increase pitch only as necessary to stay on glide path

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35
Q

What is the primary pitch instrument during a stabilized climbing turn at cruise climb

A

Airspeed indicator

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36
Q

What are the supporting bank instruments when entering a constant airspeed climb from straight-and-level?

A

Attitude indicator and turn coordinator

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37
Q

By what percentage of the indicated vertical speed should be used to determine how many feet to lead the level off from a climb or descent?

A

10%

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38
Q

What indication is presented by the miniature aircraft of the turn coordinator?

A

Indirect indication of the bank attitude

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39
Q

While recovering from an unusual attitude without the aid of the attitude indicator, approximate level pitch attitude is reached when

A

the altimeter and airspeed stabilize

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40
Q

How can you determine pitch without the attitude indicator

A

Airspeed indicator and altimeter

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41
Q

What is the correct sequence for recovery from a spiraling, nose low, increasing airspeed unusual flight attitude?

A

Reduce power, correct the bank attitude to straight, and raise the nose to a level attitude

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42
Q

During recoveries from unusual attitudes, level flight is attained the instant that

A

the altimeter and airspeed needles stop prior to reversing their direction of movement

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43
Q

What is the correct sequence for recovery from an unusual attitude. Both descending and ascending

A

If Descending:
Reduce Power
Level the wings
Bring pitch attitude to level using ailerons and rudder

If Ascending:
Add power
Lower Nose
Level wings
Return to the original attitude and heading
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44
Q

What angular deviation from a VOR course centerline is represented by a full scale deflection of the CDI?

A

10 degrees

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45
Q

What is considered to be STATION PASSAGE when using a VOR for navigation?

A

The first positive, complete reversal of the TO FROM indicator

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46
Q

After passing a VORTAC, the CDI (course deviation indicator) shows 1/2 scale deflection to the right. What is indicated if the deflection remains constant for a period of time

A

The airplane is flying away from the radial

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47
Q

What is a CDI and how does is it different from using a VOR to navigate?

A

Course deviation indicator
it shows how many degrees you are off the desired radial. Since the radial gets farther apart the you get fro, the station ( 1 NM apart for every 60NM away from the station) the CDI may show no relative movement but you may still be moving farther away from the station

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48
Q

Full scale deflection of a CDI occurs when the course deviation bar or needle

A

deflects from the center of the scale to either far side of the scale

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49
Q

With regard to slant range error, approximately how far from the DME facility can you be to consider the DME reading usable? When is the error greatest and smallest?

A

One or more miles for each 1,000 feet of altitude above the facility.
The error is smallest at low altitudes and/or at long ranges.
The error is greatest when the aircraft is closer to the facility

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50
Q

When tracking inbound on the localizer, what is the proper procedure for drift correction?

A

Drift corrections should be accurately established before reaching the outer marker and completion of the approach should be accomplished with heading corrections no greater than 2 degrees

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51
Q

What is a way point when used for an IFR flight?

A

A predetermined geographical position used for an RNAV route or an RNAV instrument approach

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52
Q

To maintain a 3 degree glide slop, when ground speed increases due to wind, what must happen to the rate of descent

A

rate of descent must increase

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53
Q

Under what condition is pressure altitude and density altitude the same value?

A

At standard temperature

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54
Q

At what condition will pressure altitude be equal to true altitude?

A

When standard atmospheric conditions exist

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55
Q

What kind of distance is displayed by the DME indicator?

A

Slant Range distance in NM

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56
Q

At 17,000’ MSL, H class VORTACS used to define a direct route of flight should be no farther apart than

A

200 NM

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57
Q

What indication should a pilot receive when a VOR station is undergoing maintenance and may be unreliable?

A

No coded identification. You may still receive unreliable navigation indications

58
Q

What is the meaning of a single coded identification received only once every 30 seconds from a VORTAC?

A

The DME component is operative and the VOR component is inoperative

59
Q

How often is the coded identification for a DME pinged from a VORTAC?

A

once every 30 seconds at 1350 Hz

60
Q

When installed with the ILS and specified in the approach procedure, DME may be used in lieu of

A

the OM (outer marker)

61
Q

What is an SDF facility?

A

Simplified Directional Facility..
It is a localizer based approach that is not as precise as an LDA
SDF courses may not be aligned with the runway and the course may be wider than an ILS

62
Q

What is an LDA facility?

A

Localizer directional facility
More precise than a SDF but not as precise as an ILS\
LDAs are not aligned with the runway.

63
Q

What is the difference between an SDF and a LDA facility?

A

The SDF course width is either 6 degrees or 12 degrees while the LDA course width is approximately 5 degrees

64
Q

What range facility associated with ILS is identified by the last two letters of the localizer identification group?

A

Middle compass locater

65
Q

What range facility associated with ILS is identified by the first two letters of the localizer identification group?

A

Outer compass locator

66
Q

What indication will a pilot receive where an IM (inner marker) is installed on a front course ILS approach?

A

Six dots per second and a flashing white light

67
Q

Approximately what height is the glide slope centerline at the middle marker of a typical ILS?

A

200 feet

68
Q

If a localizer in INOP, can an ILS approach be authorized?

A

No

69
Q

If a glide slope fails during an ILS approach. can an approach be authorized?

A

Yes. When the glide slope fails, the ILS reverts to a non-precision approach

70
Q

Hand held GPS systems and GPS systems certified for VFR but not IFR may be used during IFR operation as

A

an aid to situational awareness

71
Q

If a control tower and a FSS are located on the same airport, what function is provided by FSS during the periods when the tower is closed?

A

Airport Advisory Service

72
Q

What service is provided for IFR arrivals by FSS located at an airport without a control tower?

A

Airport Advisory Service

73
Q

What clearance procedures may be issued by ATC without prior pilot request.

A

DP’s, STAR’s, and visual approaches

74
Q

The most current en route and destination flight information for planning an instrument flight should by obtained by

A

contacting FSS at 1800-wxbrief or the website 1800wxbrief.com

75
Q

What action is required if a pilot does not wish to use a DP?

A

Enter “No DP” in the remarks section of the IFR flight plan

76
Q

What information is always given in an abbreviated departure clearance?

A

Destination plus specific altitude and fix

77
Q

If an instrument departure procedure is accepted, the pilot must at least possess

A

the textual description of the procedure.

it probably wouldnt be a bad idea to have the graphical description as well… =)

78
Q

During a takeoff into IFR conditions, when should the pilot contact departure control?

A

When advised by the tower.

Pilots should not change to the departure control frequency until requested.

79
Q

What does the inverted T in the triangle in the minimums section of the IAP indicate?

A

Takeoff minimums are not standard and/or departure procedures are published

80
Q

What are the conditions required before a timed approach from a holding fix may be conducted?

A

1.) A control tower is in operation at the airport of the approach
2.) Direct communications are maintained between the pilot and the center or approach controller until the pilot is instructed to contact the tower
3.) If more than one missed approach procedure is available, none require a course reversal
4.) If only one missed approach procedure is available…
a.) Course reversal is not required; and,
b.) Reported ceiling and visibility are equal to or
greater than the highest prescribed circling minimums
for the IAP
5.) When cleared for the approach, pilot shall not execute a procedure turn

81
Q

If a pilot loses visual reference while circling to land from an instrument approach and ATC radar service is not available, the missed approach action would be to

A

make a climbing turn towards the landing runway and continue the turn until established on the missed approach point

If radar service IS available. adhere to the vectors assigned by ATC

82
Q

The maximum speed for a procedure turn is

A

200 knots IAS

83
Q

What is the purpose of STARs?

A

to simplify the clearance delivery procedures

84
Q

If you execute the missed approach before reaching DA or MDA, you must

A

fly to the MAP at or above DA/MDA before making any turns

85
Q

How does a pilot receive radar advisories when simultaneous approaches are in progress?

A

On tower frequency

86
Q

Under what conditions is the holding pattern course reversal not required?

A

When radar vectors are provided

87
Q

How much radar separation is required for parallel ILS approaches?

A

1 1/2 miles radar separation between successive aircraft on the adjacent localizer course

88
Q

To request ATC authorization for a contact approach, what prerequisites must be met?

A

Clear of clouds and at least 1SM of flight visibility

89
Q

Aircraft approach categories are based on

A

1.3 times the stall speed in landing configuration at maximum gross landing weight

90
Q

What is the main difference between a visual approach and a contact approach?

A

The pilot must request a contact approach; the pilot may be assigned a visual approach and higher weather minimums exist

91
Q

When cleared to execute a published side step maneuver for an approach with parallel runways, when will the pilot commence the maneuver?

A

as soon as possible after the runway environment is in sight

92
Q

What conditions are necessary for ATC to authorize a visual approach?

A

The airport must be in sight or a preceding aircraft to be followed, and you must be able to proceed to the airport in VFR conditions

93
Q

During a “no gyro” approach, before being handed off to the final approach controller, the pilot should make all turns

A

standard rate unless otherwise directed

A no gyro approach is used when the DG is inop

94
Q

During a “no gyro” approach, after being handed off to the final approach controller, the pilot should make all turns

A

one-half-standard rate unless otherwise directed

A no gyro approach is used when the DG is inop

95
Q

Landing on a narrow runway may cause the pilot to perceive the aircraft as

A

higher than the actual altitude

96
Q

A narrower than usual runway will also look like an

A

upsloping runway

97
Q

Abrupt head movement during prolonged constant rate turns in IMC can cause

A

Coriolis illusion

98
Q

An abrupt transition from a climb to straight and level can create the illusion of

A

tumbling backwards. Inversion Illusion

99
Q

A rapid acceleration during takeoff can create the illusion of

A

being in a nose up attitude. Somatogravic illusion

100
Q

How can a pilot best overcome spatial disorientation during IMC?

A

Read and interpret the flight instruments and act accordingly

101
Q

What does the RVR value indicate?

A

RVR = Runway visual range

The horizontal distance a pilot should see when looking down the runway from a moving aircraft

102
Q

How can an initial approach fix be identified on a approach procedure chart?

A

All fixes that are labeled as IAF

103
Q

What does the absence of the procedure turn barb on a approach chart indicate?

A

A procedure turn is NOT authorized

104
Q

What is autokinesis?

A

In the dark, a stationary light will appear to move when started at

105
Q

What is elevator illusion?

A

An abrupt upward vertical acceleration, usually by an updraft, can create the illusion of being in a climb.
An abrupt downward vertical acceleration, usually by a downdraft, will have the opposite effect

106
Q

An abrupt correction of bank attitude, when the bank has accrued slowly, will cause illusion?

A

The leans. The abrupt correction can cause the illusion of banking in the opposite direction

107
Q

Why is a graveyard spin in IMC so deadly

A

Because the illusion makes you think you are descending with wings level. The pilot pulls back on the yoke, which tightens the spiral

108
Q

What practical test should be made on the electric gyro instruments prior to starting the engine?

A

Turn on the electrical power and listen for any unusual or irregular mechanical noise

109
Q

What indications should be observed on the turn and slip indicator during taxi?

A

The ball moves freely opposite the turn, the needle deflects in the direction of turn

110
Q

PRM (precision runway monitoring) is

A

A radar system for monitoring approaches to closely spaced parallel runways

111
Q

What checks and inspections of flight instruments or instrument systems must be accomplished before an aircraft can be flown IFR?

A

VOR within 30 days, altimeter within 24 calendar months, transponder within 24 calendar months

112
Q

What condition would cause the altimeter to indicate a lower altitude than actually flown?

A

Air temperature warmer than standard

113
Q

What condition would cause the altimeter to indicate a higher altitude than actually flown?

A

Air temperature colder than standard

114
Q

For a stabilized approach, what is the maximum acceptable descent rate during the final stages of an approach?

A

1,000 FPM

115
Q

When conducting a GPS approach, if you disengage the auto sensitivity, what will occur?

A

The approach mode annunciation will disengage

116
Q

The ILS critical area boundary sign identifies

A

The edge of the ILS critical area

117
Q

How does Baro-VNAV provide vertical guidance during an RNAV approach

A

By defining the vertical angles or altitudes as fixes throughout the procedure using the local altimeter setting

118
Q

When filing a composite flight plan where the first part of the flight will be IFR, your IFR flight plan must include

A

all points of transition from one airway to another,
fixes defining direct route segments,
and the clearance limit fix

119
Q

When using a non WAAS GPS (TSO-C129 or TSO-C196) for navigation and IAP, any required alternate airport must have

A

an approved operational instrument approach other than GPS

120
Q

The standard IFR ATC climb gradient is

A

200’ per NM

121
Q

To avoid restricted areas, stay at least how far from them?

A

3 NM

122
Q

What is OROCA and what is its purpose?

A

OROCA- off route obstruction clearance altitude
provides obstruction clearance with a 1,000’ buffer in non mountainous terrain areas and 2,000’ buffer in mountainous terrain

123
Q

What may you not receive when adhering to OROCA?

A

The altitude may not provide signal coverage from ground-based navigational aids, radar, or communications coverage

124
Q

When will an ILS have an inner marker?

A

When it is a category II ILS

125
Q

What does the outer marker on an ILS indicate

A

indicates a position that an aircraft at the appropriate altitude on the localizer course will intercept the ILS glide path

126
Q

What does the middle marker on an ILS indicate

A

indicates a position approximately 3,500’ from the landing threshold.
This is also the position where the aircraft on the glide path will be at an altitude of 200’ or above the elevation of the touchdown zone

127
Q

What aural indication is received when passing the MM?

A

alternating dots and dashes

dot,dash,dot,dash

128
Q

If you accelerate on a heading of east or west, the magnetic compass will

A

initially indicate a turn to the north

129
Q

If you decelerate on a heading of east or west, the magnetic compass will

A

initially indicate a turn to the south

130
Q

What weather would be expected when moist, cool air blows over warm land?

A

Thunderstorms

the air is warmed from below causing convection

131
Q

Flight at the MOCA gives

A

it meets obstruction clearance requirements and assures acceptable navigational signal coverage only within 25sm (22nm) of a VOR

132
Q

Under what conditions can you perform a straight in approach when the IAP only specifies circling minimums?

A

A straight in landing may be performed if the runway is in sight and the aircraft is in a position to make a normal approach

133
Q

The minimum safe altitudes listed in an IAP, depicted in the MSA circle, are intended for

A

emergency use

they guarantee 1,000 feet obstruction clearance in the sector indicated with reference to the bearings in the circle

134
Q

While taxiing for departure on an IFR flight, you notice the attitude indicator tilts more than 10 degrees when making turns, you determine that

A

The aircraft cannot be flown under IFR

Cannot tilt more than 5 degrees during taxi turns

135
Q

What do instrument DPs enable?

A

A preplanned IFR obstruction clearance route from the terminal area to the enroute structure

136
Q

ATC has cleared you direct to the XYZ VOR and instructed you to hold east as published. You should

A

proceed direct to the VOR and enter the published hold

137
Q

What does a bolded square W mean on top of an RNAV approach plate?

A

Non-reliable WAAS coverage zone

138
Q

In order to guarantee navigational signal reception, what is the maximum distance between two VORs when your altitude is 7,000’

A

80 NM

139
Q

The primary reason for DPs is

A

to provide obstacle clearance protection information for the pilot

140
Q

What aural indication will you receive when passing the OM?

A

Two dashes per second

dash, dash, dash, dash

IFR written prep (5 decks)

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