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FCPS > Tanveer Notes > Flashcards

Tanveer Notes Flashcards

1
Q

Patient with bone pains having normal Calcium,Inc Alkaline phosphatase most
likely suffering from?

A 
= Paget’s Disease
●Osteoporosis = Labs are normal
●Pagets disease = only ALP is raised
●Osteopetrosis = Only Ca is dec
●Osteomalacia = Vit D dec → dec Ca & phosphates → inc PTH & ALP
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2
Q

Erythropoiesis occurs in middle trimester mainly from?

A 
= liver
(Regarding Fetal erythropoiesis
●3 to 6 weeks = Yolk sac
●6 weeks till birth = Liver
●10 to 28 weeks= Spleen
●18 weeks to adult = Bone Marrow)
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3
Q

Vertebrae is derived from?

A

= Sclerotome

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4
Q

Memory center is located in?

A

= Temporal lobe

Also the centre for Deja vu Phenomena!!!

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5
Q

The most common type of salivary gland tumor is?

A

= Parotids

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6
Q

Destruction of Ant.pituitary gland causes dec.functioning of?

A

= Glom.fasiculata
( Remember the Mnemonic GFR ie
●Glomerulosa → aldosterone and this one is under the control of Angiotensin
not Fasiculata → Cortisol and this one is under the control of pituitary
●Reticularis → Sex steroids )

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7
Q

A normal looking Girl came to you with primary amenorrhea, on examination she was having short blind vagina wid normal vulva, scanty pubic n axillary hairs, normal breasts, absent uterus, her karyotype is?

A

= 46XY

Androgen Insensitivity Syndrome or Testicular Feminization!

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8
Q

Nerve supply to extensors of arm is supplied by?

A

= Post cord
(Radial nerve is from posterior cord )
(Medial side of the arm is supplied by Medial Cord).

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9
Q

Nerve injured in Ant dislocation of Shoulder joint is?

A

= Axillary

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10
Q

Damage to scaphoid bone causes injury to?

A

= Radial Artery

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11
Q

Common site of fracture at rib is?

A

= Angle

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12
Q

Most common histology found in lung tumors is?

A

= Adenocarcinoma

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13
Q

Patients comes with Rt. deviation of tongue, Dec.sense of touch and vibrations,the artery commonly involved in brain is?

A

= Ant.Spinal artery

whenever u see deviation of tongue in such a scenario, look for ant spinal artery in options

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14
Q

Soldier comes with heavy bleeding,the ideal fluid replacement would be?

A

= Whole blood for 3 days ( same for same, ie for heavy blood loss, prefer blood )

  • If Bleeding is Moderate Enough = 3 Times RL as resuscitation first. If not RL in the options, Choose NS.
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15
Q

Maxillary sinus opens into?

A

= Middle meatus

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16
Q

Patient having increased levels of IgE,most probably suffering from?

A

= Parasitic infection

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17
Q

Autopsy done on the patient having CRF,most probable finding would be?

A

=

Hypertrophied PTH gland

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18
Q

Excitation of hypothalamus would cause?

A

= Shivering
(note for hypothalamus remember that
ANTERIOR is for cooling and POSTERIOR is for heating
ANTERIOR is parasympathetic center while POSTERIOR is sympathetic)

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19
Q

Foetal period starts after which week?

A

=8th (3-8 weeks = Embryonic period, this is most sensitive to teratogens, while fetal
period starts after week 8)

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20
Q

21-Patient having dec levels of factor II,VII,IX,X,most likely have

A

= Dec Vit.K

memorize vit K DEPENDENT FACTORS by 1972 ie factor 2,7 .9 ,and 10 consider 1 as = Factor 10

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21
Q

22-Young pt having Hb:6.0,TLC:3.5/ul,Plts:1lac is suffering from

A

= Aplastic

anemia

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22
Q

23-Nucleus ambigus supplies

A

= Larynx
(Nucleus ambigus is for IX,X,XI ie cranial nerves 9, 10, 11 also remember that
the parasympathic nucleus for vagus nerve is DORSAL NECLEUS, ASKED
REPEATEDLY IN PAST PAPERS)

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23
Q

24-Olfactory area is present in

A

= temporal gyrus

this the only sensation that doesn’t pass through thalamus

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24
Q

25-Patient with injury to left 8th cervical segment of spinal cord will not show following sign

A

= Dec sense of pain and temperature below the lesion on same side
(pain and temp loss are contralateral ie opposite to the lesion , while position and
vibrations senses are ipsilateral)

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25
Q

26-Feature of Rickets and Osteomalacia is

A

= Decreased bone density

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26
Q

27-Most common site of malignancy in pts suffering from nuclear outbreak

A

= Hematopoietic (don’t confuse it with head and neck radiations that causes Pupillary Thyroid CA)

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27
Q

28-Virus acts on cells by

A

= Involving protein synthesis

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28
Q

29-Most sensitive cells to hypoxia are

A

= Neurons

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29
Q

30-Myelin in CNS is formed by

A

= Oligodendrocytes

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30
Q

31-Feature not associated with irreversible cell injury is

A

= Myelin figures

For cpsp always remember Myelin figure = Reversible injury

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31
Q

32-Ureter is not constricted at

A

= Psoas muscle

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32
Q

33-Common relation of ureter is

A

= post.to gonadal vessels and Ant.to iliac Artery

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33
Q

34-Patient feels pain after she underwent surgery for fibroids, structure injured
would be

A

= Ureters

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34
Q

35-Least common site for ectopic pregnancy would be at

A

= Ovaries

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35
Q

36-Gall bladder is supplied by

A

= Only Cystic Artery

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36
Q

37-Venous drainage of urinary bladder is into

A

= Internal Iliac Vein

those who appear in Gyne exam, should cram the whole anatomy of urinary bladder

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37
Q
  1. Patient with fluid loss now show metabolic acidosis e hypokalemia. most fluid
    loss will be through
A

= Colon ( colon is reservoir of HCO3 & POTASSIUM, and

in diarrhea both are lost resulting in acidosis and hypokalemia

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38
Q

39-Patient having hyperplastic bone marrow, anaemia, Increase Platelets is
probably suffering from

A

= Leaukemia

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39
Q

40-Stimulus for Erythropoietin secretion is

A

= Hypoxia

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40
Q

41-Erytropoiten is always raised in

A

= Sec.polycythemia

Polycythemia vera is only type of polycythemia in which there is Dec. EPO

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41
Q

43-Patient after gastrectomy is on VitB12,the cells lost in the gastrectomy

A

= parietal

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42
Q

44-Fat tags attached to the walls of large intestine are known as

A

= Appendeces

epiplocea

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43
Q

45-Bile salts are reabsorbed from the

A

= Ileum

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44
Q

46-Following is an autosomal dominant disease is

A

= Hereditary spherocytosis

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45
Q

47-Type of defect in Hereditary spherocytosis

A

= Structural defect

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46
Q

48-Patient with jaundice, anaemia,high reticulocyte count is having

A

= Hemolytic

anaemia

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47
Q

49-Ejaculatory duct opens into

A

= Prostatic urethra

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48
Q

50-Terminal part of CBD in relation to pancreas is

A

= Embedded into pancreas

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49
Q

51-Following would cause massive infarction and destruction leading to patient
death

A

= Thromboembolism

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50
Q

52- A 22yrs female pt.with 13th week of pregnancy after having crush fractures in RSA dies after 3 days, most likely cause of death is

A

= Fat embolism
(Note that if fracture and 3 days duration are not mentioned then better option
will be amniotic fluid embolism ie it causes immediate deaths)

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51
Q

53-Patient with old history of adenoCA of colon is operated for polypectomy,on
histologic evaluation pathologist labelled it as benign growth with no chances
into malignant transformation,it would be

A

= Tubular adenoma

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52
Q

54-Tyrosine derivative doesn’t include

A

= Prolactin

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53
Q

55-Precursor of steriod hormone is

A

= Cholesterol

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54
Q

58-Wasting of thenar eminence,loss of sensation over thumb and index finger,nerve involved is

A

= Median

Regarding wasting of the thenar eminence always click median nerve

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55
Q

59-The base of urinary bladder is made by

A

= Post surface

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56
Q

60-Shock without having vasodilation is likely associated with

A

= Burns

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57
Q

61-Following doesn’t form the layer of inguinal canal

A

= rectus abdominus

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58
Q

62-Femoral sheath is formed by

A

= Fasica transersalis and Fasica iliaca

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59
Q

63- The muscle involved in unlocking of knee joint is

A

= Poplitus,

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60
Q

64-External spermatic fascia is formed by:

A

= External oblique

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61
Q

65-In Turner syndrome, the genotype would be

A

= XO

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62
Q

66-Organ having least chances of infarction

A

= Liver

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63
Q

67-Type of necrosis in brain infarction

A

= Liquefactive

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64
Q

68-Pt.with cervical lymphadenopaty,+ve AFB sputum,sign to look for TB on
microscopy is

A

= caseous necrosis

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65
Q

69-Thyroid gland moves with swallowing because it is enclosed in

A

= Pretracheal

fasica

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66
Q

70-Neurovascular bundle in chest wall lies between

A

= Internal and Innermost

layers

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67
Q

71-Fibrous pericardium and mediastinal pleura is supplied by

A

= Phrenic Nerve
( Remember the Mnemonic i-e
●Fibrous pericardium = Phrenic (frenic) nerve
● Visceral pericardium = Vagus nerve)

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68
Q

72-Man is suffering from testicular ca,the lympahtic drainage of testis is into

A

=

Para aortic Lymph nodes

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69
Q

73-In exercise,the venous blood returns to the heart by

A

= Muscle pump in calves

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70
Q

74-Circulation in heart is maintained by

A

= Local metabolites

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71
Q

75-Fisherman is presented with gingival bleeding and ecchymosis,he is suffering
from

A

= Vit C deficiency

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72
Q

76-Factor affecting collagen synthesis during healing is

A

= Vit C

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73
Q

77-Mesothelioma is associated with

A

= Asbestos

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74
Q

78-Child having meckels diverticulum is having bleeding per rectum,it is due to

A

= Ectopic gastric tissue

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75
Q

79-During lactation,Amenorrhea is due to

A

= Inhibition of LH and FSH

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76
Q

80-Presence of pancratic tissue in gastric mucosa is termed as

A

= Choristoma

The other site for choristoma is Brain tissue in Nasal cavity

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77
Q

81-Main difference between primary and secondary intention wound healing is

A

= Wound contraction

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78
Q

82-Child with sore throat after 3 weeks developed oedema,haemturia,cause would be

A

= post streptococcal GN

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79
Q

83-Microscopic feature of polyarterites nodusa is

A

= Fibrinoid necrosis
(for any vasculitis remember fibrnoid nerosis, for brains liqufactive and for solid
organs remember coagulative necrosis , TB also has a type of coagluative
necrosis)

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80
Q

84-Angiotension II exerts its effects by activating

A

= Aldosterone

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81
Q

85-Tumor compressing optic chiasma would cause

A

= Bitemporal haemianopia

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82
Q

86-Growth hormone is maximally rasies in

A

= Exercise
( ●For max growth hormone sec NREM sleep > Exercise > REM
● if only sleep is mentioned then prefer Exercise and if NREM sleep is
mentioned then click it)

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83
Q

87.Lymph drainage of perianal skin is from one of the following

A

= medial group

of horizontal superficail nodes

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84
Q

88.Lesser omentum

A

= .connects with deudenum

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85
Q

89.Which of the following is not a feature of shock

A

= increased urine output

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86
Q

90.Which is most imp indicator of muscle protein loss

A

= urinary nitrogen

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87
Q
  1. what is true about DNA
A

= .Double stranded in which two strands are

antiparallel to each other

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88
Q
  1. Least chances of renal stones is associated with
A

= Hyperlipidemia

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89
Q

93.A pt came to you with primary amenorrhea, webbed neck, short stature
diagnosed as Turner syndrome, what is her karyotype

A

= A.45XO

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90
Q

94.supply of sphincter urethra comes from

A

= .Pudendal nerves

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91
Q

95.Thymus develops from

A

= endoderm of 3rd brachial pouch

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92
Q

96.A pt presented with an opening in the ant wall of sternocledomastoid muscle
with pussy discharge coming out of it.this problem occurred due to abnormality in one of the following

A

= 2nd pharyngeal cleft

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93
Q

97.Diaphragmatic hernia occurs due to

A

= absence of pleuro-peritoneal

membrane

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94
Q
  1. Adult derivative of notochord is:
A

= Nucleus pulposis

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95
Q

99.Superior parathyroid gland develops from

A

= 4th brachial pouch

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96
Q

100.In cervical carcinoma,what is the lymph drainage

A

= both internal & external

iliac

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97
Q
  1. Cervical rib attached to transverse process will compress
A

= T1

though it can Compresses both C8 and T1

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98
Q
  1. Aortic aneurysm which structure not compressed
A

= Phrenic nerve

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99
Q
  1. Resting membrane potential achieved by
A

=Diffusion of potassium outside the cell (Achieved by K efflux, maintained by N-K ATPase Pump while
depolarization is maintained by Na influx)

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100
Q
  1. Liver weight
A

= 1.5 kg (1.44-1.66 kg is Range)

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101
Q
  1. What is median if values are 20 20 25 30 35 40 25 30
A

= 27.5
(Arrange in Ascending order 20 20 25 25 30 30 35 40 than take middle two values
25+30/2=27.5)

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102
Q

106.. Dead organisms in vaccine

A

= Pertussis
(Pertusis, Cholera, Influenza ,Inj Polio & Rabies all Killed vaccines while
Tetanus is Toxoid and MMR is Live attenuated)

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103
Q

107.Esophagectomy done , stomach is mobilized to upper portion of thorax, To
anastomosis with pharynx Which artery is responsible for stomach supply

A

=

Right gastroepiploic

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104
Q
  1. Patient is pregnant and suddenly faints. She’ll be positioned in left lateral
    and not right lateral to avoid compression to which abdominal structure
A

= IVC

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105
Q
  1. Post op wound having greenish pus discharge organism involved
A

=

Pseudomonas

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106
Q
  1. Prevalence is
A

= All cases

Prevalence: All current cases (old & new) while incidence is just new cases

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107
Q
  1. Common carcinogen of CA Cervix
A

= HPV

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108
Q

112.Apex of the heart

A

= 8 cm from median plane

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109
Q

113.After normal delivery in primigravida the alive n healthy new born is given
feed

A

= After half hour ( Nelsons states 1 hour, but prefer half hour if in options )

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110
Q
  1. Diagnostic tumor marker for ovarian CA
A

= CA 125

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111
Q
  1. Which of the following prolong use of drug will cause persistent increase in
    Gastrin secretion
A

= PPI

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112
Q
  1. A pt presented to his dentist due to inability to put his dentures, dentist
    referred back to physician saying there is no dental problem, where is the lesion
A

= Substantia nigra

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113
Q
  1. Chronic Myeloid Leukemia
A

= Chromosome 9 & 22

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114
Q
  1. Steroids drug action on cells
A

= Act on Genes

all steroids & thyroxin act on genes

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115
Q
  1. ADH is inhibited by
A

= Alcohol

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116
Q
  1. Following has high clearance value
A

= PAH

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117
Q
  1. Scanty bar bodies
A

= Turner
(REMEBER IF ASKED
● Bar body diagnostic of then = klienfilter
● scanty bar body or no bar body then = turner
● bar body TEST is diagnostic for = turner)

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118
Q
  1. Which parasite is not transmitted thru orofecal route
A

= Trichenella Spiralis

Humans get it when they eat infected meat/pork

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119
Q
  1. Organelle having microtubules in its structure
A

= Centriole

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120
Q
  1. S1 nerve root lesion
A

= Loss of Ankle jerk

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121
Q
  1. Mucus not secreted by
A

= Terminal bronchioles

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122
Q
  1. Which of the following increases lower esophageal tone n speeds up gastric
    emptying time
A

= Metoclopramide

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123
Q
  1. Diphtheria vaccine reaction
A

= type 3

remember any serum will cause serum sickness ie type 3 hypersensitivity

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124
Q
  1. Femoral nerve derived from which section of spinal cord
A

= L2 L3 L4

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125
Q
  1. Deep coma is caused by lesion of which nucleus
A 
= Nucleus cerelous
(REMEMBER IF ASKED
● Deep coma then nucleus cerelous
● Prolonged coma then Periq aquiductal gray matter ( p for prolonged & p for
periquiductal &
●permanent coma = thalamus )
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126
Q
  1. A man of 70 has recurrent UTI cause
A

= Outflow Obstruction
(old age →chances of BPH → lead to outflow obstruction→ leading to recurrent
UTI)

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127
Q
  1. Normal FEV/FVC1 Ratio
A

= 0.8

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128
Q
  1. Compression effects on esophagus by which organ enlargement
A

= Left

Atrium

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129
Q
  1. Plasma Protein Binds With All Except
A

= Oxygen

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130
Q
  1. Patient presented in emergency, deeply comatosed,not responding to
    nalaxone:
A

= Phenobarbital

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131
Q
  1. Cause of Mental retardation
A

= Fragile X Syndrome
( if down syndrome is mentioned then click it, because Fragile X syndrome is the
2nd most common cause)

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132
Q
  1. In IV drugs abusers
A

= Bacterial Endocarditis ( STAPH ARUEUS)

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133
Q
  1. Highest bioavailability of anti-emetics
A

= Metacloprmide

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134
Q
  1. X.ray of elbow of 12 yr girl, which Secondary ossification center will appear
    last on x-ray
A

= Lateral Epicondyle
(capitellum > radial head > medial epicondyle > trochlea > olecranon > lateral
epicondyle → 1 , 3 , 5 , 7 , 9 , 11 (ODD Numbers so 11 is lateral epicondyle)

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135
Q
  1. Baby born on 4th day most common cause of Meningitis
A

= E.Coli
(REMEBER : in newborns, GROUP B STREP GROUP ie strep agalactea IS ON
THE TOP)

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136
Q
  1. A tall man with normal external genitalia married but had no kids he had
    normal ejaculation period but semen analysis showed azoospermia cause may be
A

= Sertoli cell

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137
Q
  1. Pregnant lady anemic, Best lab investigation
A

= CBC
(IF ASKED IRON DEF ANEMIA THEN SERUM FERRITIN, TIBC may give
false value, cz its affected by pregnancy)

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138
Q
  1. Highest percentage of protein in
A 
= HDL
(NOTE THE POINT; IF ASKED HIGHEST THEN
●PROTEIN = HDL
●TGs = CHYLOMICRON > VLDL
●CHOLESTEROL = LDL)
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139
Q
  1. Soft Keratin with no nucleus found in
A

= Stratum corneum

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140
Q
  1. A newly married female came with pain in rt illiac fossa her TlC 12000 she
    has fever n vomiting her lmp was 3 weeks back what is diagnosis
A

= Acute

Appendicitis

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141
Q

147.Open wound healing includes

A

= Contraction of myofibroblast

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142
Q
  1. Patient aged 65 years, is diagnosed to have severe aplastic anemia. HLA
    compatible sibling is available. The best option of treatment is:
A

= Anti
thymocyte globulin followed by cyclosporine
●ATG & CYCLOSPORIN
donor= 1st line for non-severe aplastic anemia, or severe
aplastic > 40 years of age or sever aplastic who have no HLA identical sibling
●HSCT (transplant) = 1st line for the patients who have sever aplastic and have
HLA MATCHED sibling donor

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143
Q
  1. Most common S/E of use of histamine 1 blocker
A

= Sedation

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144
Q
  1. Decrease Insulin will
A

= Ketogenesis in Liver

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145
Q
  1. An obese man with h/o atherosclerosis underwent laparotomy due bleeding
    in abdomen and during surgery his small gut was purple n sup mesenteric vein
    was ok so what is dx
A

= Wet gangrene

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146
Q
  1. First heard sound is produced during
A

= Isovlumic contraction

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147
Q
  1. A patient came with c/o bitmep hemianopia so a blockage was seen at
A

= Upper part of optic chiasma ( best ans is optic chiasma, but if both upper and
lower part are in options, prefer the upper part of optic chiasma )

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148
Q
  1. 30 yr male newly diagnosed with HTN, on ECG lt ventricular hypertrophy,
    serum cholesterol 200, FBS 88 mg%, urinary sugar ++ RFTs were normal, K 2.5
    , Na 140, what is cause of his HTN
A

= Primary hyperaldosteronism

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149
Q
  1. Man With Weakness And Dysphagia, Blood Profile With Target Cells
A

= Iron Deficiency Anemia

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150
Q
  1. Which of the following in maternal serum for rubella should b an indication
    for termination of pregnancy
A

= Ig M

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151
Q
  1. Epithelium of Conjunctiva
A

= Stratified Columnar Epithelium ( nonkeratinized

)

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152
Q
  1. Antioxidant Vitamin
A

= vit E
(REMEMBER IF ASKED
●Potent one then = Glutathion > vit E
●among vitamins then = vit E > vit C)

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153
Q
  1. Which of the following does not increase in stress for surgery
A

= Insulin

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154
Q
  1. Monitoring of HEP B virus can be done via
A

= SGPT (or ALT)

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155
Q
  1. Diseased ovary pain radiating to medial thigh of body due to nearby presence of
A

= Obturator Nerve

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156
Q
  1. Biguanides side affects
A

= Diarrhea and flatulence

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157
Q
  1. Patient with Gastrectomy presents with Anemia after One and half year,
    what will you give
A

= Vit B12

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158
Q
  1. Data is collected for some clinical trial based on presence or absence of Vomiting. What type of data it is
A

= Nominal
(whenever asked about nominal remember = it’s the data type where u have to
ans between the two variables like YES OR NO, RIGHT OR WRONG ,
PRESENCE OR ABSCENCE etc while ordinal gives u order like PRIMARY > SECONDARY > TIRTIARY)

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159
Q
  1. Aphasia (Non-fluent) after stroke or Trauma which area of Brain is
    involved
A

= Brocas (fluent aphasia is due to wernickes area involvement)

160
Q
  1. What cytoskeletal structure connects Extracellular matrix to Intracellular
A

= intermediate filaments (Also remember that C for Cadherin and C for cell; so it
mediates cell to cell attachments and is important in case of metastasis)

161
Q
  1. Cardiac defects in fetus of mother suffering from rubella infection will
    occur if
A

= 5 th to 10th week

162
Q
  1. Dorsal Column Medial Leminsical carries
A

= Proprioception

163
Q
  1. Contralateral loss of pain and temp at T9 and ipsilateral loss of
    proprioception below T8, bilateral normal reflexes
A

= Lesion of spinothalamic
tract at T8
( In these scenarios always decide the level of lesion by the level at which there is
loss of peropioception like in this case T8 is given so lesion should be at T8 )

164
Q
  1. Downs Syndrome
A

= Increase incidence with increasing mother age

165
Q
  1. Pulmonary vasoconstriction occurs due to
A

= Reduced systemic PO2
( this concept is repeatedly asked in many ways but the basic concept remains the same ie HYPOXIA CAUSES VASOCONSTRICTION IN PULMONARY VESSELS)

166
Q
  1. Most imp buffer in blood
A

= HCO3

167
Q
  1. Gastrin secretion is inhibited by
A

= Somatostatin

168
Q
  1. Which vitamin act as cofactor in oxidation of fatty acids
A

= Biotin

169
Q
  1. Oxytocin and vasopressin originated from
A

= Hypothalamus

170
Q
  1. If FACTOR IX not available
A

= FFP
(cryoprecipitate is for factor 8, so to memorize pronounce it as
CRYOPRECIPITATE-8)

171
Q
  1. All of the following will cause lesion at genital tract except
A

= Gonorrhoea

172
Q
  1. Vagus decreases HR by which mechanism

SA NODE )

A

= Na (permeability)
(The mechanism is , parasymp system decreases Na CHANNELS INWARD
CURRENT THAT IS RESPONSIBLE FOR PHASE 4 DEPOLARIZATION IN

173
Q
  1. Maximum absorption of water
A

= Jejunum

174
Q
  1. Patient with beta blocker ECG show increase PR
A

= Drug induced block

175
Q
  1. Drug causing peripheral neuro and pancreatitis
A

= Diadenosine

176
Q
  1. Left Kidney is not related to
A

= Diaphragm

177
Q
  1. What age the head of fetus become exactly half the length at CRL
A

= 3rd

month

178
Q
  1. Prostatic carcinoma spread to skull bones through
A

= Vertebral plexus

179
Q
  1. First heart sound
A

= Isovolumic contraction

180
Q
  1. Pregnant women 1st trimester develops Atrial fibrillation what would u give
A

= IV Heparin

181
Q
  1. The tumor which is the ovarian counter part of seminoma of the testis is
A

= Dysgerminoma

182
Q
  1. Patient came in with sore throat, fever and lymphadenopathy. His monspot
    test was positive. His blood shows atypical leukocytosis. What is the type of cell
    that is affected
A

= B-cell
(REGARDING INFECTIOUS MONONUCLEOSIS IF ASKED
●Type of cell affected then = B CELLS
●Atypical cells that proliferate in response then = T CELLS)

183
Q
  1. Pt was brought into the Emergency Department and his family wanted to
    accompany him. What is the most appropriate response
A

= Only pt should be

allowed in the ER

184
Q
  1. A pregnant full term patient came into the ER with pre-eclampsia. Her
    Blood pressure was 190/110. She was admitted for emergency ceserean section.
    What is the best medicine to bring down the blood pressure
A

= Hydralazine

185
Q
  1. Patient was admitted in the ICU. HE had a central venous catheter for 10
    days. HE started having fevers. Blood cultures were sent. It came back positive
    for Gram positive cocci in clusters. What medication will you start
A

= Vancomycin
(Always mark Vancomycin if CVP line,Indwelling catheter or double lumen site
Infection especially in hospitalized patient and that too in ICU or dialysis units.
High prevalence of MRSA.)

186
Q
  1. Pt comes in to the emergency department with seizures. His BP is 90/60. His
    serum calcium level is 6, serum cortical level is 6 microg/dl , blood sugar level is
    80 mg/dl. What is the diagnosis
A

= Tetany

187
Q
  1. About Lignocaine what is true
A

= Prevents influx of Na ions across

membrane

188
Q
  1. INR is for
A

= Oral anticoagulation therapy:

For warfarin monitering INR&raquo_space;> PT

189
Q
  1. A Person wid malignant melanoma. Risk factor
A

= Xeroderma pigmentosum

190
Q
  1. Diabetic patient with DKA died due to
A

= Mucormycosis

191
Q
  1. Urethra is narrowest at
A

= External meatus

192
Q
  1. Married man had no children for few years and was diagnosd as sterile with
    azoospermia wat is investigatn of choice
A

= Serum FSH and LH

193
Q
  1. A man goes to a high altitude 02 delivery to tissues is maintained by
A

= Hb

conc is increased

194
Q
  1. Regarding indication of furosemide
A

= Acute pulmonary edema

195
Q
  1. A patient was brought to the hospital after a roadside accident. On
    examination he was pale with low blood pressure and fracture of left 10th rib.
    Which organ is most likely to be injured
A

= Spleen

196
Q
  1. Most common cause of premalignant change in mouth in adult
A

= Lichen
planus
( some colleagues saying chronic ulcer, none of the authentic books support that ,
and one more question often asked, that’s , what will beetle nut chewing cause
and ans is submucosal fibrosis,)

197
Q
  1. Tumor in children with blue cells and high levels of catecholamines
A

= Neuroblastoma

198
Q
  1. Ligament that prevents anterior dislocation of femur on tibia
A

= Posterior
cruciate
(NOTE; if anterior dislocation of tibia on femure is mentioned then anterior cruciate ligament)

199
Q
  1. Cholangiocarcinoma caused by
A

= Cholonorchis Sinensis

200
Q
  1. Trauma to left 10 rib causes damage to
A

= Spleen

201
Q
  1. Farmer wid migratory lesion on foot
A

= Cutaneous Larva migrans

202
Q
  1. Washed RBCs are used for prevention of
A

= Hypersensitive Reaction

203
Q
  1. Eating raw or undercooked meat can cause infection by
A

= Tapeworm

204
Q
  1. Man comes 1st time to Pakistan develops fever than coma, on investigation
    retics10%..Platelets wbcs ↓
A

= Falciparum

205
Q
  1. Correct about Aorta
A

=. Gives renal arteries at L2

206
Q
  1. Scrotum drains to
A

= Superficial Inguinal Nodes

207
Q

215.Small muscles of hand are supplied by

A

= T1

208
Q
  1. Pancreatitis(acute) will cause fluid accumulation in
A

= Lesser sac

209
Q
  1. Deep ring present in
A

= Fascia transversalis

210
Q
  1. Eversion is done by
A

= Peroneus longus

211
Q
  1. True about Thoracic duct, drains into
A

= At Confluence of left Subclavian

and left Jugular

212
Q
  1. Gustatory sweating is caused by panic plexus in middle ear- Ref BRS Anatomy)
A

= Superficial Parotidectomy
(Freys Syndrome produces flushing and sweating instead of salivation in
response to taste of food after injury of AURICULOTEMPORAL which carries
Parasympathetic secretomotor fibers to PAROTID gland and Sympathetic fibers
to SWEAT gland. When the nerve is severed the fibers can regenerate along each pathway and innervate the wrong gland. It can occur after Parotid surgery and
may be treated by cutting the tym

213
Q
  1. Analgesic causing tachycardia in therapeutic dose
A

= Pethidine

214
Q
  1. Following is a good analgesic but weak anaesthetic
A

= NO

215
Q
  1. About Posterior Triangle of Neck what is true:
A

= Contains subclavian , three trunks of brachial plexus

216
Q
  1. Herpes simplex virus transmitted by
A

= .droplet

217
Q
  1. Pt came in with abdominal pain, his amylase was high, he was diagnosed
    with Pancreatitis. What is his omentum going to show
A

= Fatty necrosis

218
Q
  1. Which carcinoma doesn’t show distant metastasis
A

= Basal cell Carcinoma

219
Q
  1. Orofecal transmission
A

= HEV

220
Q
  1. When tension in muscle increases near to rupture which does the relaxation
A

= Golgi tendon organs

221
Q
  1. Golgi tendon organs respond to
A

= Tension
( FOR BOTH 129 AND 130 QUES REMMEBER = TENSION AND TENDON
i.e when tension on a muscle increases golgi tendon organs starts firing and
relaxes it )

222
Q
  1. Pacemaker of Heart
A

= SA Node

223
Q
  1. Parasympathetic stimulation
A

= Decreases HR

224
Q
  1. Sacral hiatus is formed due to
A

= Failure of fusion of laminae of 4th and 5th
sacral vertebrae
(Sacral Hiatus is used to administer Caudal (Epidural) anesthesia)

225
Q
  1. Effect of drug on a body
A

= Pharmacodynamics
( MNEMONIC = D FOR DRUG & D FOR DYNAMICS i.e. drug on the body is
dynamic )

226
Q
  1. Which is not blood supply of scalp
A

= Maxillary artery

227
Q
  1. Hydroxyindol-acetic acid in urine
A

= Carcinoid syndrome

228
Q
  1. Pt came with testicular mass. It was diagnosed as a yolk sac tumor. What is
    the follow up marker for this patient
A

= Alpha-Fetoprotein

229
Q
  1. In the hospitals most common cause of wound infection
A

= Staph aureus

E.coli 2nd most common

230
Q
  1. Nerve loss in urogenital triangle which nerve involved
A

= Pudendal Nerve

231
Q
  1. Neck of femur supplied by
A

= Medial and lateral circumflex arteries

232
Q
  1. A man having recurrent bacterial infections with streptococci also having
    diarrhea which on examination showed giardiasis, further exam revealed normal
    T cells but ↓B cells levels of igM,igG and igA were given
A

= Bruton’s

agammaglobulinemia

233
Q
  1. True about Pituitary
A

= Drains to Dural sinuses

234
Q
  1. About Quadrate lobe, true is
A

= Drains by left hepatic duct

235
Q
  1. Barr body is found in the following phase of the cell cycle
A

= Interphase
( both DNA and chromosomes replicate (Karyotyping is done in metaphase
stage to study for chromosomes )

236
Q
  1. Old woman with swelling on external ear she also had gout wd -ve
    bifringent type crystals scenario was given
A

= Monosodium urate

237
Q
  1. After Cholecystectomy surgeon places drains into
A

= . Right Subhepatic

Region

238
Q
  1. Pt having H/o cough cloudy yellow colour effusion fluid containing 98 % neutrophil and 2% lymphocyte the fluid was dull to percussion
A

= Purulent

exudate

239
Q
  1. Isoniazid causes side effects which can be prevented by taking which
    vitamin
A

= Pyridoxine

240
Q
  1. Gas gangrene. Cause of death
A

= Toxemia

241
Q
  1. Not a feature of malnutrition in adults
A

= Thrombocytopenia

242
Q
  1. A tumor with all germ layers
A

= Teratoma

243
Q

254.Down’s syndrome

A

= Trisomy 21

244
Q
  1. Ankylosing spondylitis is associated with
A

= HLA B27
( PAIR i.e. PSORIASIS , ANKYLOSING SPONDELYTIS , INFLAMATORY
BOWL DISEASE RELATED ARTHIRTIS AND RIETER SYNDROME)

245
Q
  1. Female with fever for 10 days and chest pain that aggravates on lying down.
    Pain is originated at
A

= Pericardium

246
Q
  1. 6 years old patient presents with rhinitis, edema and urticaria on external
    surfaces
A

= Type I hypersensitivity

247
Q
  1. Immediate effects of severe hypotension
A

= Oliguria

248
Q
  1. Transfusion reaction will occur if we transfuse a person with A+ve blood
    group, the following group
A

= AB-ve

249
Q
  1. Epidural space is widest at
A

=. L2 (5mm)

250
Q
  1. Commonest cause of hepatocellular carcinoma in developing countries
A

= Both Hepatitis B & C
(IF B plus C COLLECTIVELY not MENTIONED THEN CLICK ONLY Hep
B)

251
Q
  1. Connections that connect cells; with movement of ions across
A

= Gap

junctions

252
Q
  1. HLA B27 associated disease
A

= Reiter’s Syndrome

if ankylosing spond present in options prefer that

253
Q
  1. Pregnant lady with bile duct obstruction. Diagnostic investigation
A

= GGT

FOR NON PREG = CLICK ALP

254
Q
  1. About Trichomonas vaginalis what is correct
A

= Is sexually transmitted

255
Q
  1. Anion gap
A

= Diff between measured cation and measured anion

256
Q
  1. Occulomotor nerve supplies
A

= ciliary ganglion

257
Q
  1. Infective endocarditis diagnostic investigation
A

= Blood culture (blood

culture for diagnosis & ASO titre FOR THE EVIDENCE OF INFECTION )

258
Q
  1. Essential fatty acid
A

= Linoleic acid (Also Linolenic Acid is among essentials)

259
Q
  1. Patient was brought to the ER unconscious. The doctor gave Naloxone but it
    was not working. What is the likely cause of toxicity
A

= Phenobarbital

260
Q
  1. Patient lacerated the dorsal part of his wrist accidentally. He came in with
    difficulty to adduct the fingers and difficulty abducting the thumb. Which nerve
    was paralyzed
A

= Ulnar Nerve

261
Q
  1. Pain from lower inferior segment of Diaphragm =
A 
Subcostal Nerves
( Phrenic supplies central tendon of diaphragm)
262
Q
  1. Cingulate gyrus blood supply
A

= Anterior cerebral Artery

263
Q
  1. Dorsal Vein of penis drains into
A

= Greater Saphenous Vein

264
Q
  1. Internal carotid bleeding stopped by compressing
A

= C6

265
Q
  1. A patient has nodule on vocal cord. The most unlikely mechanism
A

= Atrophy ( Hyperplasia = click it if asked the most likely )

266
Q
  1. Edema of acute infection. Feature
A

= Proteins >3gm (EXUDATE)

267
Q
  1. Vein not draining to great cerebral vein
A

= Occipital

268
Q
  1. Extent to which a tissue gets disturbed by occlusion of its blood supply depends on
A

= Rate of development of thrombosis

269
Q
  1. A 15 years old girl with fixed dilated pupils. Lesion is at
A

= Oculomotor nerve

270
Q
  1. Axon arise from conical shape part of neuron cell body called
A

= Axon

hillocks

271
Q
  1. Peptic ulcer profusely bleeding from posterior wall of duodenum which
    artery involved
A

= Gastroduodenal Artery

272
Q
  1. Proteins that escape into tissues from blood vessels
A

= Reabsorbed by lymphatic system

273
Q
  1. Epithelium of kidney
A

= endoderm + mesoderm

274
Q
  1. 8 month Baby boy with repeated rhinitis 2episodes of pneumonia in less
    then 2 month, low plasma B cells n decreased immunoglobulins
A

= IgA deficiency

275
Q
  1. Which is not a ‘basic tissue of body
A

= Blood

276
Q
  1. A 30 years old man had a road traffic accident and sustained fracture of
    femur. Two days later he developed sudden breathlessness. The most probable
    cause can be
A

= Fat Embolism

277
Q
  1. Carpal Tunnel Syndrome
A

= Wasting of thenar muscles

278
Q
  1. Which of the following statements about carcinogenesis is false
A

= Papilloma

viruses produce tumors in animals but not in humans

279
Q
  1. Max potassium absorption occurs in
A

= PCT

280
Q
  1. Lung capacity increased in inspiration by 2/3 by
A

= Diaphragm

281
Q

Pituitary Gland Causing Bitemporal Hemianopia.Where is the lesion?

A

= Optic Chiasma

282
Q

An epidemiological study is performed to determine potential risk factors for Penile Squamous Intraepithelial neoplasia. It is observed that persons who develop this disease are elderly men. Which of the following diseases is most likely to be found to precede development of Penile Neoplasia in these men?

A

Phimosis

- Circumcision is the well established & effective prophylactic measure against Penile CA.

283
Q

Drugs induced SLE features are seen in which drugs?

A 
Phenytoin
Procainamide 
Hydralazine 
Quindine 
Isoniazid
284
Q

The life Threatening clinical condition caused by C.Perfringens is?

A

Diffuse Clostridial Myonecrosis

285
Q

Person came to a dentist with toothache for extraction, He is known case of RHD. He is allergic to penicillin which Antibiotic should be given for prophylaxis against Endocarditis?

A

Clindamycin

286
Q

Origin of Diaphragm?

Avulsion of Phrenic Nerve at its origin can lead to?

A

Septum Transversum

Loss of Respiratory Reflex.

287
Q

Many WBCs lining the Endothelium is called?

A

Pave-mentation

288
Q

Auer Rods are only present in?

Sudan Black Positive?

A

AML

289
Q

Cardiac Plexus composed of?

A

Both Sympathetic + Parasympathetic Fibers

290
Q

Pre-eclampsia triggering factor is?

A

Endothelial Alteration

291
Q

Spleen size likely to remain normal in?

Name 2 Hematological Conditions?

A

G6PD Deficiency

ITP

292
Q

DIC is not related to which?

A

Bacteremia

293
Q

Scalene Tubercle is the feature of which rib?

A

1st rib.

A tubercle on the cranial surface of the 1st rub for the insertion of Anterior Scalene Muscle.

294
Q

What the fuck is calvaria?

A

Calvaria is large in proportion to other Skeletal Parts.

Composed of Frontal & Parietal Bones & Squamous parts of Occipital & Temporal Bones.

295
Q

In soluble excess iron stored in parenchyma of organ in form of?

A

Hemosiderin.

296
Q

Success rate of Kidney Transplant?

A

90 percent

297
Q

Best screening test For HIV?

Most Accurate Test for HIV?

A

ELISA

Western Bolt Test

298
Q

Most important component in the Act of Defecation is?

Infants defecate immediately after they eat due to?

A

Rectoanal Reflex

Gastrocolic Reflex

299
Q

Defecation occurs due to?

A

Mass Movement

300
Q

Morgagni hernia commonly seen in which location?

A

Right Anterior.

Also known as Diaphragmatic Hernia.

301
Q

Pudendal Nerve supplying motor part to External Sphincter is derived from which Nerve Roots?

A

S2 S3 S4

302
Q

Upper most structure seen at the hilum of left lung is?

A

Pulmonary Artery

303
Q

True about kidney and relations of different structures passing through it is?

A

Left renal vein is anterior to aorta and left renal artery

304
Q

Watershed area of colon between SMA & IMA is?

A

Splenic Flexure

305
Q

Urothelium doesn’t line which part of the Urinary System?

A

Collecting ducts

306
Q

Most likely location where perforaters are not present?

A

Below Inguinal Ligament

307
Q

Female come with complain of Chest pain. On P/E, she is found to have Pericarditis with Pericardial Effusion. This Particular Pain is mediated by?

A

Phrenic Nerve

Phrenic Nerve innervates Fibrous Pericaridum + Parietal Nerve of Serous Pericardium… They carry sensation of Pain.

308
Q

Meiosis occur at which of the following transformation?

A

Primary Spermatocytes to Secondary Spermatocytes

309
Q

Collagen type on Hyaline Cartilage?

A 
Type 2
(Car-two-lage = Cartilage has type 2 collagen)
310
Q

Name the Lymph node which does not cause Lymphatic drainage of Cervix?

A

Deep Inguinal LNs.

311
Q

Failure of Fusion between which process result in Midline Cleft Lip?

A

Medial Nasal Process

312
Q

Abscess in Middle of Right Posterior Triangle of the Neck. Doctor incised & drained the Abscess. 5 days later, patient could not extend he right hand above her head to brush her hair. Which nerve is injured?

A

Spinal Part of Accessory Nerve

313
Q

Deep Inguinal Ring is result of Deficiency of?

A

Transversalis Fascia

314
Q

Most acceptable evidence that supports a genetic predisposition of SLE?

A

There is high rate of Incidence in Monozygotic Twins.

315
Q

Infrahyoid Muscle function? Depression of which structure?

A

Larynx.

316
Q

Type of Joint between Coccyx & Sacrum?

A

Symphysis

317
Q

Recall one wrong statement about Vas Deferens from Session one?

A

Separated from Base of the bladder by Peritoneum.

318
Q

Anterior Ethmoidal Artery is the branch of?

A

Ophthalmic Artery

319
Q

Recall one wrong statement about Chorda Tympani from Session one?

A

It contains Post-ganglionic Parasympathetic Fibers.

320
Q

How can you test for Long Thoracic Nerve after Radial Mastectomy?

A

Asking the patient to Raise her arm above the head on affected side.

321
Q

Name one structure which doesn’t pass through the Superior Aperture of Thorax?

A

Right Recurrent Laryngeal Nerve

322
Q

Sensory Fibers from taste buds in Hard & Soft Palate travel along which Nerve?

A

Facial Nerve

323
Q

On posterior exposing of Kidney, which of the following nerve is not Liable to Injury?

A

Lateral Cutaneous Nerve of Thigh

324
Q

Right or Left Movement of the head, which Joint is involved?

A

Atlanto-Axial Joint

325
Q

1st Costo-Chondral Joint?

A

Synchondrosis

326
Q

In Long bones, the Joint between Epiphysis & Diaphysis is known as?

A

Synchondrosis

327
Q

Site of Abscess formation due to Posterior Perforating Ulcer in Pyloric Antrum of the Stomach is?

A

Omental Bursa

328
Q

In a RTA, a patient suffered injury to C5 & C6. Which muscle will not undergo paralysis?

A

Coracobrachialis Muscle

329
Q

Pain Pathway from Heart in case of Angina with pain in Left Shoulder radiating to Sternum & Pit of Stomach?

A

Middle & Inferior Cervical Cardiac Nerves

330
Q

Stability of the Ankle Joint is not caused by?

A

Calcaneo-Navicular Joint

331
Q

Which of the following Thyroid Disease has highest Incidence of Malignancy?

A

Non-functioning Thyroid Nodule

332
Q

Slow Writhing Movement. Location of Lesion?

Can be a case of Athetosis?

A

Globus Pallidus

333
Q

Terminal Bronchiole Epithelium?

A

Simple Columnar Ciliated Epithelium without Goblet Cells.

334
Q

Which muscle is attached to Hyoid Bone?

A

Middle Constrictor of Pharynx.

335
Q

Which nerve is closely related to Last Molar tooth of Lower Jaw?

A

Lingual Nerve

336
Q

Function of Masseter Muscle?

A

Elevation of Mandible - Closes the Mouth.

337
Q

1st Carpometacarpal Joint?

A

Saddle Joint

338
Q

Function of Supraspinatus Muscle?

A

Abduction of the Arm.

339
Q

Which structure cannot be palpated by DRE in females?

A

Urinary Bladder

340
Q

Second Thoracic Vertebrae corresponds to?

A

T4 Spinal Segment

341
Q

Lumbar Vertebrae doesn’t give attachment to which one particular muscle?

A

Transversus Abdominis

342
Q

Nucleus Pulposis develops from?

A

Notochord

343
Q

Which one particular thing is not a content of Vertebral Canal?

A

Vertebral Arteries.

344
Q

Carotid Tubercle of 6th Cervical Vertebrae is so called because it is related to?

A

Common Carotid Artery

345
Q

How can you Identify Atlas Vertebrae?

A

Absence of Body & Spinous Process

346
Q

Deposition of bone in fractured area is due to activity of?

A

Periosteal Cells

347
Q

Metaphysis of long bone is a part of?

A

Diaphysis

348
Q

Strength of bone is provided by?

A

Collagen fibers

349
Q

Floor of the Nasal Cavity is formed by?

A

Maxilla + Palatine Bone

350
Q

Sternal angle is the angle between?

A

Body of the sternum + Manubrium

351
Q

Nodding movement of the head?

A

Atlanto-Occipital Joint

352
Q

Tegmen Tympani is the thin plate of bone that separate?

A

Cranial cavity from Middle ear

353
Q

Weight of Upper limb transmitted to Axial skeleton through?

A

Coraco-clavicular ligament

354
Q

Head of talus articulate with?

A

Navicular

355
Q

Lesser trochanter of femur gives insertion to?

A

Iliopsoas

356
Q

Largest joint of human body?

A

Knee Joint

357
Q

Vessel of Base of Bladder in which ligament?

A

Dorsolateral ligament

358
Q

Not a tributary of cavernous sinus?

A

Deep middle Cerebral vein

359
Q

Superior vesical artery supply blood to?

A

Ductus deferens

360
Q

Which bone doesn’t contribute to the development of Nasal Septum?

A

Lacrimal

The postero-superior part of this cartilage is ossified to form the perpendicular plate of the ethmoid; its antero-inferior portion persists as the septal cartilage, while the vomer is ossified in the membrane covering its postero-inferior part.

361
Q

Lateral Spinothalamic tract?

A

Pain & temperature

362
Q

Function of Posterior column tract?

A

Fine touch + Proprioception

363
Q

Most important factor in pathogenesis of thrombus?

A

Endothelial injury

364
Q

Metastatic calcification Primary effect?

A

Kidneys

365
Q

Thoracic duct doesn’t receive lymph from?

A

Right side of the body!

Right thorax + Arm + head + neck = drains into Right lymphatic duct

366
Q

Which one artery is not the Cavernous part of Internal Carotid Artery?

A

Ophthalmic artery!

This is the first branch of the Internal carotid artery distal to the cavernous sinus

367
Q

Regarding contents of Deep perineal pouch, which one is not the content of this mentioned in Session 1?

A

Root of penis

368
Q

Feature of Hypoglossal nerve injury?

A

Deviation of tongue towards the side of injury on protrusion.

369
Q

Head Injury — 7th CN palsy — Fracture of which structure?

A

Transverse fracture of Pretrous Bone.

370
Q

Not seen in low Radial Nerve Palsy?

A

Weakness if Brachioradialis muscle

371
Q

Location of Facial Colliculus?

A

Pons

372
Q

12 year old boy with Hemophilia A has had episodes of Pain about his Knee for the past 6 years. Over time, there has been an increase in size of his knee joints, with deformity. Laboratory studies show decreased levels of Coagulation factor 8 Activity. Which of the following materials is most likely to be seen within the joint space following episodes of Pain?

A

Cholesterol Crystals

373
Q

Protrusion of Arachnoid Villi which cause CSF Absorption take place in?

A

Superior Sagittal Sinus

374
Q

Nerve Approach for Inferior Alveolar Nerve block is lateral to Pterygomandibular Raphe Between?

A

Superior Constrictor & Buccinator

PCB

375
Q

Branches of External Carotid Artery according to group?

A

Anterior group: Superior Thyroid, Lingual, Facial Arteries.
Medial group: Ascending Pharyngeal (Smallest branch)
Posterior group: Occipital & Posterior Auricular Arteries.
Terminal group: Maxillary and; Superficial Temporal Arteries

376
Q

Following transplant surgery, the highest risk of Malignancy:

a) Within 1 year
b) After 20 years

A

a) Lymphoproliferative Cancer - B Cell Lymphoma

b) Skin Malignancy

377
Q

Cauda equine is not derivative of?

A

Neural Crest Cells

378
Q

Gastrulation Definition?

A

Formation of all 3 germ layers.

379
Q

Elastic Cartilage is found in?

A

Auditory tube.

380
Q

Axial Skeleton bear the weight of Upper limb by?

A

Coracoclavicular Ligament

381
Q

Superficial External Pudental Artery is the Branch of?

A

Femoral Artery

382
Q

Diaphragmatic Hernia can occur through all except?

A

IVC opening.

383
Q

Important point about blood supply of kidneys from session 1?

A

Not A type of Portal Circulation.

384
Q

Hypoglossal nerve is Motor or Sensory?

A

Pure Motor Nerve

385
Q

Pronator Quadratus has same innervation as?

A

Flexor Pollicis Longus

386
Q

Parietal Bone is not a?

A

Pneumatic Bone

387
Q

Cause of Extension of Elbow on picking up stone from ground?

A

Active Lengthening of Flexors.

388
Q

Rotation is restricted in which part of Vertebral Column?

A

Lumbar Region

389
Q

Not a part of Mastication Muscles?

A

Buccinator

390
Q

Most common variation in arteries arising from arch of aorta?

A

Left Common Carotid Artery arising from Brachiocephalic Trunk.

391
Q

Location of Mental Foramen?

A

Below 2nd Premolar of mandible

392
Q

Amniocentesis done in a pregnant lady at term pregnancy & the baby’s head at -2 station. The needle will pierce?

A

Posterior Fontanelle.
Normally in Vertex Presentation, there is Occipito-Anterior position. So posterior Fontanelle will be pierced by Amniocentesis.

393
Q

Least Teratogenic Agent?

A

Lysergic Acid.

394
Q

Nerve which doesn’t have posterior cutaneous supply?

A

C1 (Only motor)

395
Q

Indirect cause of Maternal Mortality?

A

Heart Disease

396
Q

Appendicitis pain radiate to Umbilicus through?

A

Sympathetic T10

397
Q

Muscle cut in Mediolateral Episiotomy?

A

Bulbospongiosus & Sup. transverse Perineal.

FCPS (5 decks)

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