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COS SEGMENT B > Skin > Flashcards

Skin Flashcards

Segment B

1
Q

skin elasticity is due to the presence of semifluid substances found in the

a. dermis
b. stratum corneum
c. stratum lucidum
d. stratum granulosum

A

a. dermis

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2
Q

what tans the skin to protect it from the burning rays of the sun?

a. sebum
b. melanin
c. the acid mantle
d. the subcutaneous layer

A

b. melanin

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3
Q

cells that have absorbed melanin to distribute pigmentation to other cells are located in what layer of the skin?

a. stratum Lucidum
b. stratum corneum
c. stratum spinosum
d. stratum granulosum

A

c. stratum spinosum

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4
Q

chronic is the term used to identify conditions that are

a. visible
b. brief and severe
c. frequent
d. influenced by weather

A

c. frequent

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5
Q

a salon professional needs to be able to recognize

a. primary lesions only
b. tertiary lesions only
c. secondary lesions only
d. primary and secondary lesions

A

d. primary and secondary lesions

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6
Q

an abnormal change in the structure of an organ or tissue is called a(n):

a. wheal
b. fissure
c. lesion
d. infection

A

c. lesion

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7
Q

accumulations of hardened sebum beneath the skin are called whiteheads or

a. acne
b. Millia
c. roscea
d. comedones

A

b. millia

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8
Q

the deterioration of collagen and elastin fibers during the aging process causes

a. rosacea
b. freckles
c. macules
d. wrinkles

A

d. wrinkles

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9
Q

sweat is excreted by what gland?

a. adrenal
b. endocrine
c. sebaceous
d. sudoriferous gland

A

d. sudoriferous gland

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10
Q

where is the layer of skin called the subcutaneous tissue located?

a. above the cuticle
b. below the dermis
c. above the epidermis
d. below the adipose tissue

A

b. below the dermis

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11
Q

where are the large blood vessels found that transport nourishment to the skin and nerves?

a. epidermis
b. subcutaneous layer
c. stratum lucidum
d. stratum corneum

A

b. subcutaneous layer

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12
Q

a pimple is an example of a(n)

a. tertiary skin lesion
b. secondary skin lesion
c. objective symptom (see)
d. subjective symptom (feel)

A

C. objective symptom

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13
Q

a secondary skin lesion appearing as round, dry patches of skin covered with rough, silvery scales is called

a. acne
b. eczema
c. psoriasis
d. herpes simplex

A

c. psoriasis

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14
Q

which layer of the epidermis protects the skins moisture balance by acting as a barrier to moisture loss?

a. stratum corneum
b. stratum lucidum
c. stratum spinosum
d. stratum granulosum

A

a. stratum corneum

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15
Q

which of the following is a highly contagious bacterial infection that produces a honey yellow, crusted lesion that is usually found on the face?

a. eczema
b. seborrhea
c. impetigo
d. milliaria rubra

A

c. impetigo

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16
Q

what is a condition called that is characterized by dry, scaly skin with reduced sebum production?

a. rosacea
b. steatoma
c. asteatosis
d. seborrhea

A

c. asteatosis

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17
Q

one example of a papule is a

a. macule
b. pimple
c. vesicle
d. tubercle

A

b.pimple

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18
Q

what is composed of adipose tissue and loose, connective tissue?

a. dermis
b. epidermis
c. acid mantle
d. subcutaneous layer

A

d. subcutaneous layer

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19
Q

anhidrosis is caused by

a. lack of sleep
b. fever/disease
c. foul smelling perspiration
d. over production of perspiration

A

b.fever/disease

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20
Q

oily skin is usually characterized by all of the following descriptions except:

a. blackheads
b. enlarged pores
c. peeling/flaking
d. an all over shiny look

A

c.peeling/flaking

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21
Q

person exposed to excessive heat may develop small red vesicles with burning and itching of the skin called pricky heat or:

a. eczema
b. anhidrosis
c. bromidrosis
d. miliria rubra

A

d. miliria rubra

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22
Q

warts are the most common

a. ulcers
b. excoriations
c. skin tumors
d. form of moles

A

c.skin tumors

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23
Q

which condition is caused by excessive secretion of the sebaceous glands?

a. milia
b. steatosis
c. seborrhea
d. bromidrosis

A

c.seborrhea

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24
Q

Which of the following is not one of the six basic functions of the skin?

A. Absorption
B. Protection
C. Regulation
D. Inoculation

A

D. Inoculation

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25
Q

Which of the following is not one of the three main layers of the skin?

A. Dermis
B. Corium
C. Epidermis
D. Subcutaneous

A

B. Corium

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26
Q

An example of a wheal lesion is

A. Pies
B. Tumors
C. Bullas
D. Pimples

A

A. Pies

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27
Q

The papillary canal takes oil(sebum) to the

A. Nerves
B. Keratin
C. Blood vessels
D. surface of the skin

A

D. surface of the skin

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28
Q

Healthy skin require special care to maintain its healthy, elasticity, vibrancy and

A. Color
B. Pallor
C. Dryness
D. Dullness

A

A. Color

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29
Q

The epidermis is composed of how many layers

A. 1
B. 3
C. 5
D. 7

A

C. 5

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30
Q

Scars are formations that result whenever a lesion extends into the

A. Dermis
B. Epidermis
C. Stratum lucidum
D. Stratum granulosum

A

A. Dermis

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31
Q

Keloids are thick

A. Scars
B. Scabs
C. Cracks
D. Ulcers

A

A. Scars

32
Q

Which of the following is not one of the four basic skin types

A. Dry
B. Oily
C. Complex
D. Combination

A

C. Complex

33
Q

Which number and diagram indicates the hair shaft

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

A

A.1

34
Q

Which of the following layers of cells is not part of the epidermis?

A. Stratum corneum
B. Stratum lucidum
C. Subcutaneous
D. Stratum granulosum

A

C. Subcutaneous

35
Q

A chronic inflammatory disorder of the sebaceous glands, most often appeared on the face, back and chest is

A. Acne
B. Rosacea
C. Bromidrosis
D. Asteatosis

A

A. Acne

36
Q

In which order this has become irregularly shaped and have a spiny appearance?

A. Stratum corneum
B. Stratum lucidum
C. Stratum spinosum
D. Stratum granulosum

A

C. Stratum spinosum

37
Q

Where does mitosis(cell division) or replacement of the skin take place

A. Stratum lucidum
B. Stratum corneum
C. Stratum granulosum
D. Stratum germinativum

A

D. Stratum germinativum

38
Q

Light skin and dark skin differ in which of the following ways?

A. Amount of melanin present
B. Number of melanocytes they contain
C. Number of epidermal cells they contain
D. Number of nerve endings they contain

A

A. Amount of melanin present

39
Q

Advising clients to avoid excess heat, spicy foods and caffeine, will be beneficial if they have

A. Acne
B. Roscea
C. Bromidosis
D. Asteatosis

A

B. Roscea

40
Q

Clusters of furuncles are called

A. Milia
B. Steatoma
C. Carbuncles
D. Comedomes

A

C. Carbuncles (clusters of skin)

41
Q

Which of the following skincare products returns normal to dry skin to a normal ph?

A. Toner
B. Exfoliant
C. Astringent
D.antiseptic

A

A. Toner

42
Q

Which of the following areas is a cosmetologist not general license to massage?

A. Feet
B. Face
C. Hands
D. Lower back

A

D.Lower back

43
Q

After service, supplies such as protective hair coverings that cannot be disinfected should be

A. Reused
B. Rinsed
C. Thrown away
D. Sanitized

A

C. Thrown away

44
Q

The skin care equipment that provides a soothing heat and soften skin to allow penetration of products is known as

A. Vacuum
B. Woods lamp
C. Inferred lamp
D. Facial steamer

A

C. Inferred lamp

45
Q

Which of the following massage manipulations is a circular or wringing movement usually carried out with the fingertips or palms of the hands?

A. Friction
B. Vibration
C. Patrias age
D. Tapotement

A

A. Friction

46
Q

Applying pressure to motor points will have which of the following effects?

A. Inflamed and irritate muscles
B. Increase secretion of sebum
C. Decrease production of keratin
D. Soothes, stimulates nerves and muscles

A

D. Soothes, stimulates nerves and muscles

47
Q

Which of the following is not a contraindication for withholding certain skin care treatments?

A. Diabetes
B. Chloasma (sunspots)
C. High blood pressure
D. Pacemaker or metal implants

A

B. Chloasma (sunspots)

48
Q

Which massage movement deeply stimulates the muscles, nerves and skin glands?

A. Friction
B. Vibration
C. Petrissage
D. Effleurage

A

C. Petrissage

49
Q

The massage movement and bought the lights have been a slight movement by increasing blood circulation and stimulating nerves is known as

A. Friction
B. Vibration
C. Petrissage
D. Tapotement

A

D. Tapotement

50
Q

Which number on the diagram indicates the Buccal branch

A. 1 (forehead)
B. 2 (mouth area)
C. 3 (chin area)

A

B. 2 (mouth area)

51
Q

in what direction do you pull removal strips during hot wax treatments?

a. towards the floor
b. towards the ceiling
c. away from the client and yourself
d. opposite direction of the hair growth

A

d.opposite direction of the hair growth

52
Q

inserting a single needle into a hair follicle for hair removal is called high frequency short wave electrolysis or

a. waxing
b. shaving
c. hydrolysis
d. thermolysis

A

d. thermolysis

53
Q

which hair removal treatment uses wavelengths of light to penetrate and diminish or destroy the hair bulb?

a. thermolysis
b. blend method
c. laser
d. photo epilation

A

c. laser

54
Q

apply wax at a 45 degree angle

a. in any direction
b. in a circular direction
c. in the direction of hair growth
d. in the opposite direction of hair growth

A

c. in the direction of hair growth

55
Q

which of the following hair removal methods utilizes a paste that is applied to the skin in a rolling motion?

a. shaving
b. waxing
c. sugaring
d. threading

A

c.sugaring

56
Q

how do chemical depilatories remove unwanted hair?

a. by shrinking the hair shafts
b. by turning the hair to liquid
c. by burning the hair off chemically
d. dissolves the hair, degrading protein structure of hair

A

d. dissolves the hair, degrading protein structure of hair

57
Q

why is it not recommended to wax lanugo hair?

a. skin may lighten
b. skin may darken
c. hair won’t grow back
d. skin may lose softness

A

d. skin may lose softness

58
Q

why will may clients have the opinion that shaved hair feels more coarse or thicker following removal?

a. blunt effect of razor
b. because it does grow back thicker
c. due to the fact that the number of hairs increases
d. due to the fact that it is darker when it grows back

A

a. blunt effect of razor

59
Q

what hair removal method removes the hair by decomposing the papilla?

a. blend
b. waxing
c. shaving
d. galvanic

A

d. galvanic

60
Q

which of the following hair removal methods utilizes 100% cotton thread that is twisted and rolled along the surface of the skin?

a. waxing
b. tweezing
c. sugaring
d. threading

A

d. threading

61
Q

on what area of the face is a foundation tested for color match?

A

c. jawline

62
Q

semi permanent individual lashes last for a period of approximately

a.
b.
c.
d.

A

b. 6-8 weeks

63
Q

which of the following items is used to place products from containers on to the makeup palette?

a.
b.
c.
d.

A

c. spatula

64
Q

semi permanent individual lashes are made of

A

c. synthetic fibers

65
Q

unless correction of required, match the foundation to the

A

a. skin tone

66
Q

during the draping of your client for a makeup application prepare the client by draping, positioning chair and

A

a. headband around client

67
Q

which makeup product is used to define and emphasize the shape and size of your eye?

A

a. eyeliner

68
Q

which of the following represents the ideal facial shape?

A

a. oval

69
Q

what face shape shown represents the ideal?

A

oval

70
Q

applying a darker tone along the sides of the nose and a thin line of highlighter down the center will make the nine appear

A

d. thinner, narrower, smaller

71
Q

the vibrancy of a color is referred to as

A

d. intensity

72
Q

the warmth or coolness of a color is

A

b. tone

73
Q

which of the following would be the best makeup technique for the face shape shown in the illustration?

A

c. square, contour jaw and forehead. contour to soften angularity and reduce width

74
Q

which face shape is characterized by a rounded jawline and chin line and can be slenderized by adding vertical emphasis?

A

round

75
Q

what face shape is characterized by a narrow forehead and jaw area with predominant width in the cheek bone area?

A

diamond

COS SEGMENT B (7 decks)

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