Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

MSK - 3rd year > Microbiology Review Q's > Flashcards

Microbiology Review Q's Flashcards

1. Viral Infections of Muscles, Joints, & Bones (1-10) -- 2. Infective Osteomyelitis (11-33) 3. Immunopathogenesis of Rheumatoid Arthriris (34-47) 2. Immunopathogenesis of Systemic Lupus Erythematosis (48-59)

1
Q

Which of the following causes oral sores?

a. Coxsackievirus A
b. Coxsackievirus B
c. Hepatitis B
d. Ross river virus

A

a. Coxsackievirus A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Which of the following may cause muscle and joint weakness?

a. Ross river virus
b. HIV
c. Parvovirus
d. Rubella

A

b. HIV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Which of the following is treated with oseltamivir?

a. Hepatitis B
b. Ross river virus
c. Influenza virus
d. Rubella

A

g. Influenza virus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which of the following causes sharp chest and upper abdomen pain?

a. influenza virus
b. HIV
c. Coxsackievirus B
d. Hepatitis B

A

c. Coxsackievirus B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Which of the following causes elevated liver enzymes, arthritis, & a rash?

a. influenza virus
b. HIV
c. Parvovirus
d. Ross river virus

A

d. Ross river virus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which of the following causes jaundice, muscle, and joint pain?

a. Coxsackievirus A
b. Coxsackievirus B
c. Hepatitis B
d. Ross river virus

A

c. Hepatitis B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which of the following causes generalized maculopapular rash and arthritis?

a. Parvovirus
b. Ross river virus
c. Influenza virus
d. Rubella

A

d. Rubella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Which of the following causes a lacy rash, arthritis, and pure red cell aplasia?

a. influenza virus
b. Rubella
c. Parvovirus
d. Ross river virus

A

c. Parvovirus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which of the following causes myalgia?

a. Hepatitis B
b. Ross river virus
c. Influenza virus
d. Rubella

A

c. Influenza virus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

A pregnant women has joint pain. After delivey, doctors noticed malformations in the baby. Which of the following can cause this?

a. Hepatitis B
b. Ross river virus
c. Influenza virus
d. Rubella

A

d. Rubella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which of the following is more at risk of damage caused by pressure?

a. epiphysis
b. metaphysis
c. diaphysis

A

a. epiphysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Patient has osteomyelitis for 4 weeks, what’s a better description?

a. acute osteomyelitis
b. chronic osteomyelitis

A

b. chronic osteomyelitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

How does a foreign material cause more osteomyelitis?

a. it inhibits the immune system
b. its a site for multiplication
c. the body attacks it

A

b. its a site for multiplication

nidus for infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Which of the following most commonly causes osteomyelitis?

a. oblique fracture
b. transverse fracture
c. hairline fracture
d. open fracture

A

d. open fracture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

In which of the following is osteomyelitis more recognizable?

a. children
b. teens
c. adults
d. elderly

A

a. children

systemic upset

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Which of the following species cause osteomyelitis in intravenous drug users?

a. S. aureus
b. Pseudomonas
c. H. influenzae
d. B. melitensis

A

b. pseudomonas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Which of the following is least likely to get spinal osteomyelitis?

a. children
b. teens
c. adults
d. elderly

A

a. children

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Which of the following patients are we most likely has radiological evidence?

a. children
b. teens
c. elderly

A

c. elderly

they’re more likely to have chronic, and we’d see the sequestrum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Which of the following is known to cause chronic osteomyelitis?

a. S. pyogenes
b. Bacteroides spp.
c. H. influenzae
d. C. perfringens

A

b. Bacteroides spp.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Which of the following is most often isolated in all types of osteomyelitis?

a. S. aureus
b. C. perfringens
c. H. influenzae
d. M. tuberculosis

A

a. S. aureus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Which of the following is known to cause chronic osteomyelitis?

a. S. pneumoniae
b. C. perfringens
c. Salmonella enterica
d. M. tuberculosis

A

d. M. tuberculosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Which of the following is known to cause osteomyelitis in patients with sickle cell?

a. S. pneumoniae
b. C. perfringens
c. Salmonella enterica
d. M. tuberculosis

A

c. Salmonella enterica

Salmonella spp.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Which of the following is known to cause osteomyelitis in patients with diabetic foot lesions?

a. Anaerobic bacteria
b. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
c. S. pneumoniae
d. M. tuberculosis

A

a. Anaerobic bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Which of the following is known to cause osteomyelitis in nosocomial infections?

a. Anaerobic bacteria
b. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
c. S. pneumoniae
d. M. tuberculosis

A

b. Pseudomonas aeruginosa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Which one means newly formed bone?

a. involucrum
b. sequestrum

A

a. involucrum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Which of the following is useless in the first week?

a. MRI
b. Ultrasound
c. X-ray

A

c. X-ray

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Which can be used for gram-negative?

a. fusidic acid
b. ciprofloxacin
c. clindamycin
d. teicoplanin
e. vancomycin

A

b. ciprofloxacin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Which cannot be used alone?

a. fusidic acid
b. ciprofloxacin
c. clindamycin
d. teicoplanin
e. rifampicin

A

e. rifampicin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Which is used for gram-positive?

a. fusidic acid
b. ciprofloxacin
c. clindamycin
d. teicoplanin
e. rifampicin

A

d. teicoplanin

30
Q

Which is able to penetrate the bone very well?

a. fusidic acid
b. ciprofloxacin
c. clindamycin
d. teicoplanin
e. rifampicin

A

c. clindamycin

31
Q

back pain is indicative of which?

a. acute osteomyelitis
b. chronic osteomyelitis

A

b. chronic osteomyelitis

32
Q

Which usually affects a single long bone?

a. acute osteomyelitis
b. chronic osteomyelitis

A

a. acute osteomyelitis

33
Q

Which causes osteomyelitis in a foreign body associated infection?

a. Anaerobic bacteria
b. Pseudomonas app.
c. Propionibacterium app.

A

c. Propionibacterium app.

34
Q

Which of the following causes spine inflammation and has the main symptom of low back pain?

a. Spondyloarthritis
b. Rheumatoid arthritis
c. Ankylosing spondylitis

A

a. Spondyloarthritis

C= ankylosing means stiffness and that’s the main symptom

35
Q

Which HLA allele causes Ankylosing spondylitis?

a. C33
b. B27
c. DR4
d. HC9

A

b. B27

36
Q

Which TWO HLA alleles causes Rheumatoid arthritis?

a. HLA-DR1
b. HLA-DR2
c. HLA-DR3
d. HLA-DR4

A

a. HLA-DR1
&
d. HLA-DR4

37
Q

Which TWO HLA alleles causes SLE?

a. HLA-DR1
b. HLA-DR2
c. HLA-DR3
d. HLA-DR4

A

b. HLA-DR2
&
c. HLA-DR3

38
Q

Which HLA allele causes a more severe RA?

a. HLA-DR1
b. HLA-DR4

A

a. HLA-DR1

39
Q

Which hypersensitivity type is utilized in RA and SLE?

a. Type I hypersensitivity
b. Type II hypersensitivity
c. Type III hypersensitivity
d. Type IV hypersensitivity

A

c. Type III hypersensitivity

40
Q

Which of the following so anti-CCP antibodies indicate?

a. SLE
b. RA
c. malignancies

A

b. RA

41
Q

Which is more common in RA?

a. anti-IgA
b. anti-IgD
c. anti-IgM
d. anti-IgG
e. anti-IgE

A

d. anti-IgG

42
Q

Anti-CCP antibodies are against which amino acid?

A

Citrulline

43
Q

What’s true about synovial lining?

a. made of 4-5 layers of tissue
b. intercellular fluid can’t cross it
c. made of fibroblasts and macrophages

A

c. made of fibroblasts and macrophages

44
Q

What cytokine plays a major role in RA?

A

TNF-alpha (made by macrophages!)

45
Q

Which of the following does the initial attraction of cells (macrophages & neutrophils) in RA?

a. IL-1
b. TNFa
c. IL-6
d. IL-7

A

a. IL-1

46
Q

Which of the following activates T cells in RA?

a. IL-1
b. TNFa
c. IL-6
d. IL-7

A

c. IL-6

47
Q

How does Methotrexate help RA patients?

A

Blocks lymphocyte cycling

48
Q

Which leads to death in SLE patients?

a. respiratory manifestations
b. renal manifestations
c. CNS manifestations
d. skin manifestations

A

b. renal manifestations

49
Q

Which is the least common manifestation in SLE patients?

a. respiratory manifestations
b. renal manifestations
c. CNS manifestations
d. skin manifestations

A

c. CNS manifestations

50
Q

T/F: UV light only induces skin manifestations of SLE

A

F, it’s a trigger for systemic and dermal manifestations

51
Q

Which complement protein is used for SLE screening

a. C1u
b. C1q
c. C1n
d. C1p

A

b. C1q

52
Q

Which of the following cytokines have a higher serum titer in people with active SLE?

a. IL-7
b. IFN-a
c. IFN-γ
d. IL-9

A

c. IFN-γ

53
Q

Non-specific polyclonal activation of B-cell occurs in

a. SLE
b. RA
c. malignancies

A

a. SLE

54
Q

Which TWO of the following cytokines are lower in people with SLE?

a. IL-1
b. IL-2
c. IL-4
d. INF-g
e. TGF- b

A

b. IL-2
&
e. TGF- b

55
Q

What mediates the clearance of immune complexes by phagocytic cells in the liver?

A

C receptors

56
Q

What two complement proteins attract neutrophils?

A

C3a

C5b

57
Q

Which hypersensitivity type is utilized to make auto-antibodies against RBC’s in SLE?

a. Type I hypersensitivity
b. Type II hypersensitivity
c. Type III hypersensitivity
d. Type IV hypersensitivity

A

b. Type II hypersensitivity

Type II hypersensitivity leads to leukopenia, thrombocytopenia & hemolytic anemia

58
Q

UV light induces apoptosis of which skin cells?

A

keratinocytes

Patient with SLE have an inappropriate expression of class II MHC molecules+ (Ro) Ag on them

59
Q

What do drugs targeting BLyS proteins do?

A

stop the B-lymphocyte stimulator protein (BLyS) from activating B cells, thus reducing antibody production

60
Q

Patient has fever and monoarticular joint pain. You suspect septic arthritis, what’s your next course of action?

a. aspirate joint
b. give antimicrobial therapy

A

a. aspirate joint

mandatory to aspirate first

61
Q

How do you treat arthritis in a prosthesis joint?

A

surgically remove the prosthesis (antimicrobial therapy won’t work alone)

62
Q

Patient with diabetic foot acquired septic arthritis, what’s a likely causative organism?

a. Coliforms
b. Haemophilus influenzae (type b)
c. Streptococcus agalactiae
d. Salmonella

A

c. Streptococcus agalactiae

63
Q

Which of the following needs both factor X&Y to grow?

a. Coliforms
b. Haemophilus influenzae (type b)
c. Streptococcus agalactiae
d. Salmonella

A

b. Haemophilus influenzae (type b)

64
Q

Whats FLASE about disseminated gonococcal infections?

a. Usually polyarticular
b. Affects men and women equally
c. Only 1-5% get articular manifestations

A

b. Affects men and women equally

women are asymptomatic, so the infection disseminates to the joints more often

65
Q

10 year old has fever, diarrhea, jaundice, and joint swlling and pain. Whats more likely?

a. Coliforms
b. Haemophilus influenzae (type b)
c. Streptococcus agalactiae
d. Salmonella

A

d. Salmonella

66
Q

An AIDS patient acquired septic arthritis, what’s a likely causative organism?

a. Coliforms
b. Haemophilus influenzae (type b)
c. Streptococcus agalactiae
d. Salmonella

A

a. Coliforms

affect immunosupressed

67
Q

Patient complains of sacroiliac joint pain. He visited his farm 3 days ago but didn’t drink milk. Whats more likely?

a. Brucella
b. Salmonella
c. Mycobacteria
d. Streptococcus agalactiae

A

a. Brucella

don’t have to drink raw milk to get it, its respiratory too

68
Q

A one year old acquired septic arthritis, what’s a likely causative organism?

a. Coliforms
b. Haemophilus influenzae (type b)
c. Streptococcus agalactiae
d. Salmonella

A

b. Haemophilus influenzae (type b)

69
Q

Which organism stains black in SS agar?

a. Coliforms
b. Haemophilus influenzae (type b)
c. Streptococcus agalactiae
d. Salmonella

A

d. Salmonella

70
Q

Patient had discharging sinus, which was drained, and knee pain. what’s a likely causative organism?

a. Brucella
b. Salmonella
c. Mycobacteria
d. Streptococcus agalactiae

A

c. Mycobacteria (tuberculosis)

71
Q

Which organism must be treated with triple therapy, debridement, and arthrodesis?

a. Brucella
b. Salmonella
c. Mycobacteria
d. Streptococcus agalactiae

A

c. Mycobacteria (tuberculosis)

(debridement= the removal of damaged tissue or foreign objects from a wound
arthrodesis= artificial induction of joint ossification between two bones by surgery)

MSK - 3rd year (19 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions