VALLEY: AIRWAY MANAGEMENT Flashcards

1
Q

**Describe the method and rationale for denitrogenation (pre-oxygenation) of the airway.

A

With a tight mask seal, provide 100% oxygen at a flow rate high enough to prevent rebreathing ( l0-12 L/min). Slight head up position has been recommended. Denitrogenation allows the patient’s functional residual
capacity (FRC) to be filled with approximately 90% oxygen, thus lengthening the apnea time without desaturation and improving safety.

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2
Q

What is the pressure limit for positive- pressure facemask ventilation? why?

A

Positive-pressure ventilation via a facemask should normally be limited to 20 cm H10 to avoid stomach inflation.

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3
Q

***How is an oropharyngeal airway sized?What problems may be seen with their usage?

A

Measure from the corner of a patient’s mouth to the angle of the jaw or earlobe. Poorly sized oral airway devices can actually worsen the obstruction.
Other complications include lingual nerve palsy and damage to teeth.

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4
Q

***Name 4 types of supraglottic airways.

A
  1. Laryngeal mask airways (i.e. LMA classic, LMS ProSeal, LMA Supreme),
  2. Perilaryngeal sealers (air-Q SP)
  3. Cuffless preshaped sealers (i-gel)
  4. Cuffed pharyngeal sealers {Combitube and King LTS)
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5
Q

***Describe the advantages and

of supraglottic airways.

A

Ease and speed of placement, reduced anesthetic requirements
and the resulting hemodynamic stability, less airway manipulation,
less dental trauma, LESS COUGHING ON EMERGENCE, and less risk of bronchospasm

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6
Q

***Describe disadvantages supraglottic airways

A

Disadvantages include ineffective ventilation when higher airway pressures are required, no protection from laryngospasm, and no protection from gastric aspiration, though newer models ofSGA devices have been designed to reduce this risk.

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7
Q

List five functions of the laryngeal mask

airway (LMA).

A
  1. an airway rescue device;
    {2) partial protection of the larynx from pharyngeal (but not laryngeal) secretions
    (Morgan and Mikhail);
    (3) handfree ventilation {it is not necessary to use one hand constantly to support the face mask on the mandible);
    (4)an alternative to ventilation through a facemask
    {5) a conduit for tracheal intubation.
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8
Q

List four situations for which the laryngeal mask airway (LMA) is appropriately used.

A

l) as a substitute for the classic mask airway to
eliminate the presence of a relatively large mask and practitioner’s hand
that may interfere with surgical access; (2) to establish an emergency airway in awkward settings for intubation such as the lateral or prone positions;
(3) to establish an airway in the patient in whom either mask ventilation or tracheal intubation is difficult; (4) to provide a conduit to facilitate fiber-optic or blind oral tracheal intubation

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9
Q

Can a supraglottic airway be used in
place of an endotracheal tube during the
administration of anesthesia?

A

No. The supraglottic airway (SGA) is clearly not a replacement for the endotracheal tube. The SGA provides an alternative to ventilation through a facemask or endotracheal tube

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10
Q

The laryngeal mask airway (LMA) can
be used with up to how many cm H20
pressure?

A

Peak airway pressures ofless than 20 cm H20 are indicated to avoid stomach inflation.

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11
Q

The cuff pressure of the laryngeal mask
airway (LMA) should not exceed what
value?

A

The initial cuff pressure will vary with the patient, LMA size, head position, and anesthetic depth, but should not exceed approximately 60 cm H10 particularly in prolonged surgery. The use of N 20 can be attributed to an increase cuff pressure and potential sore throat

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12
Q

**Describe the benefits of alternative LMs,

including the i-gel and air-Q.

A

The i-gel is a cuffless LM. Its advantages include a simplified insertion and easy positioning. The air-Q device has a self-pressurized cuff that eliminates overinflation. Both alternative supraglottic devices reduce the
incidence of sore throat.

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13
Q

***List four (4) features that distinguish the

Fastrach LMA from a classic LMA.

A

The Fastrach LMA, or intubating LMA (ILMA), was specifically designed for use in difficult airway situations. The primary distinguishing features of the Fastrach LMA are: (I} an anatomically curved rigid airway tube; (2} an
integrated guiding handle; (3} an epiglottic elevating bar; and, (4} a guiding ramp built into the floor of the mask aperture

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14
Q

What advantage does the epiglottic elevating bar afford the ILMA (Fastrach LMA)?

A

The 2 bars at the aperture of the LMA classic are replaced in the ILMA by a single, moveable epiglottic elevating bar that pushes the epiglottis out of the way allowing smooth and unobstructed passage of the endotracheal tube as it emerges from the distal end of the ILMA’s metal shaft

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15
Q

What are the advantages of the integrated guiding handle on the Fastrach LMA {ILMA)?

A

The integrated handle at the proximal end of the barrel of a Fastrach LMA is used for insertion, repositioning, and removal. The position of the device can be optimized by lateral and anterior-posterior manipulation by using the integrated handle, an action called the Chandy maneuver.

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16
Q

What is the maximum endotracheal tube diameter that can be passed through an intubating laryngeal mask
airway {ILMA/Fastrach)?

A

The intubating laryngeal mask airway (ILMA/Fastrach) can accept an endotracheal tube as large as 8.0 mm in diameter.

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17
Q

The laryngeal mask airway is (LMA) contraindicated in four (4) conditions. Identify these four conditions.

A

(1) who are at risk for aspiration including gross or morbid obesity, pregnancy, multiple or massive injury, acute abdominal or thoracic injury, any abdominal condition
associated with delayed gastric emptying, or use of opioid medication prior to fasting, or patients who have not fasted;
(2) with fixed decreased pulmonary compliance, such as pulmonary fibrosis, because it forms a low
pressure seal around the larynx;
(3) With long-term mechanical ventilatory support;
( 4) with intact upper airway reflexes, as the reflexes may
cause laryngospasm.

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18
Q

***What is the “RODS” mnemonic?

A
"RODS" is used to identify difficult extraglottic device situation.
Restricted mouth opening
Obstruction
Distorted airway or disrupted airway
Stiff lung or stiff cervical spine.
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19
Q
***What is the most common adverse effect reported with the use of the laryngeal
mask airway (LMA)?
A

Sore throat with an incidence of 10% is the most common adverse effect of using an LMA. The sore throat is most often related to over inflation of the cuff

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20
Q

***You decide a laryngeal mask airway (LMA) is appropriate for the airway management of the 9-kg patient, but a 1.5 LMA is not available; will you use a
size l or a size 2 LMA?

A

LMA size selection is critical to its successful use, and to the avoidance of minor as well as more significant complications. The manufacturer recommends
that the clinician choose the LARGEST size that will fit comfortably in the oral cavity, and then inflate to the minimum pressure that allows ventilation to 20 cm H10 without an air leak

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21
Q

Accordingly, a size___LMA classic is appropriate for

the 9-kg patient

A

2 LMA

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22
Q

***Pediatric: Weight (kg) LMA size

<5 kg

A

1.

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23
Q

***Pediatric: Weight (kg) LMA size 5- 10kg

A

1.5.

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24
Q

***Pediatric: Weight (kg) LMA size

10-20kg

A

2.

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25
Q

***Pediatric: Weight (kg) LMA size

20-30kg

A

2.5.

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26
Q

***Pediatric: Weight (kg) LMA size

30-50kg

A

3.

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27
Q

What is the purpose of the second lumen

on an LMA ProSeal?

A

The LMA ProSeal was the first double-lumen supraglottic airway. The second lumen is used for: (1) diagnosis of malposition, (2) passive emptying • of the stomach, and (3) active emptying of the stomach (OGT insertion).
The LMA Supreme is a single-use version of the ProSeal.

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28
Q

When choosing an LMA ProSeal, should you use the same size, size up, or size down from the appropriate LMA classic size?

A

When selecting an LMA ProSeal, you should size down from the appropriate LMA classic size

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29
Q

***List indications for using an Esophageal- Tracheal Combitube {ETC).

A

Indications for an ETC include supraglottic obstruction, morbid obesity, vomiting, regurgitation, massive airway or upper gastrointestinal bleeding, and acute bronchospasm. Airway reflexes should NOT be intact during ETC use.
The ETC requires minimal training for proper placement

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30
Q

***Describe the functions of the Air-Q perilaryngeal tube?

A

The Air-Q is an SGA device. It acts as a conduit for blind, or more likely, fiberoptic placement of an ETT

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31
Q

***How is the King LT positioned for proper

ventilation?

A

The King laryngeal tube has a small esophageal cuff and a larger hypopharyngeal cuff, with an opening between the 2 cuffs. When properly placed, the esophageal cuff is seated in the esophagus, with the opening positioned over the larynx. Both cuffs are then inflated simultaneously by injecting air in just one inflation port. This will provide a sealed method for ventilation. If ventilation is inadequate, the device is likely inserted too deep.

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32
Q

Describe removal of a supraglottic device.

A

Properly timing the removal of an SGA is critical. The patient should either be deeply anesthetized, or awake enough to open mouth on command. Removing the device during the excitation phase of emergence can result in Iaryngospasm. The cuff remains inflated to lessen the amount of secretions left behind and dropping into the airway.

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33
Q

***Describe the passing of the ETT and the depth of its insertion in the adult.

A

The tracheal tube should be observed while passing through the vocal cords and then advanced 2 cm past the glottic opening. This should result
in placement halfway between the vocal cords and the carina, with an approximate depth of 21-23 cm at the teeth

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34
Q

***Describe the Cormack- Lehane laryngeal view scoring system –> Grade I

A

Grade l- view of entire glottic opening;

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35
Q

**Describe the Cormack- Lehane laryngeal view scoring system Grade 2-

A

view of only posterior glottis opening

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36
Q

***Describe the Cormack- Lehane laryngeal view scoring system Grade 3

A

view of only the tip of the epiglottis;

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37
Q

***Describe the Cormack- Lehane laryngeal view scoring system Grade 4

A

view of only the soft palate.

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38
Q

***What is BURP?

A

A “BURP” is a maneuver to place backward-upward-rightward pressure on the thyroid cartridge to improve laryngeal view during direct laryngoscopy

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39
Q

**Describe the Mallampati Grading Syste: Class I

A

Faucial pillars, uvula and soft palate are visible

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40
Q

**Describe the Mallampati Grading System: Class II

A

Base of uvula and soft palate visible

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41
Q

***Describe the Mallampati Grading System : Class III

A

Soft palate and hard palate visible

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42
Q

***Describe the Mallampati Grading System: Class IV

A

Only hard palate visiable

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43
Q

**What is the “LEMON” mnemonic used for ?

A

To identify a difficult airway

44
Q

***Name all components of LEMON Mnemonic

A

-Look externally;
-Evaluate 3-3-2 rule: mouth opening at least 3 finger-breadths (4 cm}, distance
from hyoid bone to chin 3 cm (2 finger-breadths). and distance from
the thyroid notch and floor of the mandible (top of the neck) should be at
least 2 finger-breadths;
-Mallampati;
-Obstruction;
-Neck mobility

45
Q

**9 anatomical characteristics of potentially difficult intubation ?

A

l) Short, muscular neck
(2) short thyromental distance
(3) Mallampati characteristics that can indicate a potentially Ill or IV
(4) receding mandible
(5) protruding maxillary incisors
(6) difficult intubation. prominent overbite
(7) limited temporomandibu-lar joint mobility, and
(8) limited cervical spine mobility, and a
(9) high arched palate

46
Q

Name 7 risk factors for difficult mask ventilation

A

Seven risk factors for difficult mask ventilation are:
( l) presence of a beard, mask ventilation
(2) Body mass index >30 kg/m2,
(3) lack of teeth (edentulous)
(4) age > 55 years, and
(5) Obstructive Sleep Apnea or a history of snoring,
(6) male gender,
(7) Mallampati III or IV.

47
Q

***The MOANS mnemonic is used to

A
Identify difficult mask ventilation: 
Mask seal
Obstruction or Obesity
Age> 55 years
No teeth
Stiff lungs.
48
Q

What are the advantages and disadvan-

tages of cricoid pressure?

A

Cricoid pressure (the Sellick maneuver), when properly applied, has been used to prevent aspiration in emergency airway management and rapid sequence induction (RSI). Occlusion of the esophagus is created with gentle pressure placed on the cricoid cartridge. In recent years, studies have shown this technique may potentially worsen the laryngoscopic view without preventing aspiration. There is little risk to the use of cricoid pressure and it can be easily discontinued, therefore it is still used by many providers.

49
Q

What is the most reliable evidence that the endotracheal tube is placed in trachea and not the esophagus?

A

The gold standard of verification is sustained detection of expired carbon in the dioxide. Direct visualization of the laryngeal inlet with the endotracheal tube positively identified in it, auscultation of the chest and abdomen, full
chest excursion, humidity in the ETT, and detection of expired carbon dioxide with a capnograph or disposable colorimeter (Easy Cap) also provide reliable evidence of tracheal rather than esophageal intubation

50
Q

3 Advantages of the MAC blade over the MILLER blade

A

Smaller likelihoood of dental trauma
More room for passing of ETT
less bruising of the epiglottis

51
Q

What is the distance an endotracheal tube migrates when moving the patients’
head from flexion to extension

A

Endotracheal tubes may move up to 3.8 cm ( 1.9 cm each direction) during flexion and extension of the neck. Flexion of the head may advance the tube up to 1.9 cm, converting a tracheal placement into an endobronchial intubation. Extension of the head can withdraw the tube up to 1.9 cm and result in pharyngeal placement. Lateral rotation of the head also moves the tube approximately 0.7 cm.

52
Q

***What are the advantages of indirect(video) laryngoscopy over direct laryngoscopy?

A

Advantages of indirect (video) laryugnoscopy include: vastly improved visualization, fast learning curve, magnification of the airway, external video monitor allowing others to see airway, recording capabilities for education and research

53
Q

***What disadvantages have been encountered when using a video laryngoscope

A

Indirect (video) laryngoscopes have improved visualization of the glottic structures, but this does not always lead to successful intubation. Directing the tube into the trachea can still be difficult. Blood and secretions can also obscure the camera. Video laryngoscopes cost far more than conventional laryngoscopes.

54
Q

**How can we prevent water and heat loss from an intubated patient? Why is this important?

A

The upper respiratory tract is the primary moisture and heat exchanger for the airway. Patients with an airway device {ETT or SGA} that bypasses this area, lose this function, resulting in inhalation of a dry, cool gas that decreases mucociliary function. Secretions can become dry and in prolonged cases can lead to partial or complete obstruction of the ETT. Therefore, intraoperative heat and moisture loss from the airway can be prevented by
the use of a disposable heat-moisture exchange (HME) device.

55
Q

***After induction, you are unable to intubate and unable to ventilate with 2 hand mask ventilation. What is your next immediate step?

A

Place an LMA and regain ventilation.

56
Q

***Describe positioning the obese patient for airway management.

A

Using a wedge-shaped lift is recommended when positioning the obese patient for intubation. The wedge pillow moves the patient’s chest away from the laryngoscope handle. helps to align the external auditory meatus with the sternal notch (EAM-SN position), and allows gravity to pull the excess weight away from the airway

57
Q

***What is considered the primary anesthetic for awake airway management?

A

Topicalization of the airway is considered the primary anesthetic for awake airway management. The focus should be on anesthetizing the base of the tongue, the oropharynx, hypopharynx, and laryngeal structures. (TOHL) Anesthesiaof the oral cavity is unnecessary. If topicalization of the airway mucosa is insufficient, then the supplemental use of nerve blocks may be indicated.

58
Q

***After anesthetizing the nasal cavity, using nasal pledgets soaked in 4% cocaine, a 34-F nasal airway coated in 4% viscous lidocaine is inserted into the nasal cavity. Besides topicalization of the airway, what is accomplished by using this technique?

A

Dilation of the nasal cavity, prediction of the angle of insertion of ETT, and prediction of the easy passage of a 7.0 endotracheal tube (due to the 34-F nasal airway}.

59
Q

**Block of which nerve abolishes the gag reflex and decreases the hemodynamic response to laryngoscopy?

A
The glossopharyngeal (GPN) block is highly effective in abolishing the gag reflex and decreasing the hemodynamic response to laryngoscopy, including
awake laryngoscopy.
60
Q

**Explain the anterior approach to the glossopharyngeal nerve block.

A

After topicalization of the posterior pharynx, the patient opens his or her mouth and protrudes the tongue forward. Tue anesthetist then displaces the tongue to the opposite side with a tongue blade, resulting in the formation of a
gutter. Using a 23- or 25-gauge spinal needle, insert the needle approximately 0.25 to 0.5 cm, into the space where the gutter meets the base of the palatoglossal
arch and aspirate for air. If air is obtained on aspiration, the needle has been placed too deeply and should be withdrawn until no air is aspirated. If blood is
obtained, the needle must be withdrawn and repositioned more medially. After correct positioning, I to 2 mL of2% lidocaine is injected, and the block is thenrepeated on the opposite side. The anterior approach to the glossopharyngeal block isolates the lingual branch of the glossopharyngeal nerve. It is better tolerated by the patient and involves injecting local anesthetic at the base of the anterior tonsillar pillar (palatoglossal arch)

61
Q

***Describe the approach to the superior laryngeal nerve block.

A

Palpate the superior notch of the thyroid cartilage and locate (mark) the position 2 cm laterally on each side. At this mark on each side, insert a 25g needle, in a posterior and cephalad direction, 1- l.5 cm deep. Inject 2 mL of2% lidocaine. Always monitor for signs of local anesthetic toxicity.

62
Q

**Describe the approach to the transtracheal nerve block.

A

Identify the CTM (cricothyroid membrane). Using a Sec syringe with a 20g-22g needle, insert posteriorly and slightly caudally, until air is aspirated.
Inject 4 mL of2% or 4% lidocaine. Always monitor for signs of local anesthetic toxicity

63
Q

What are the disadvantages to the superior laryngeal nerve block?

A

Disadvantages to the superior laryngeal nerve block are: (1) Laryngeal edema and airway obstruction from accidental injection into the thyroid cartilage

(2) Increased risk of aspiration.
(3) Rupture of ETT cuff in a patient already intubated.
(4) Hypotension and bradycardia.
(5) Hematoma formation

64
Q

How is a retrograde intubation performed?

A

A large-bore IV catheter is placed through the cricothyroid membrane. A flexible steel guidewire (J-tip) is then directed cephalad through the needle
and out the mouth or nares. The guidewire should be at least twice as long as the ETT. The endotracheal tube is placed over the wire and directed through the glottic opening. A transtracheal block may be used to provide
comfort

65
Q

When should retrograde intubation be performed?

A

Retrograde intubation is an alternative approach to the non-emergent difficult airway. It is used only when other methods of intubation are unsuccessful. It is not indicated in a CICV (cannot intubate, cannot ventilate) scenario, as it can be a time-consuming process

66
Q

List ( 4) indications for fiberoptic intubation in awake or sedated patients.

A

(l) Small mouth opening; (2) upper airway obstruction (tumor, abscess, prior surgery); (2) immobile cervical vertebrae (arthritis, traction, cervical
spine injury); (3) congenital upper airway abnormalities (mandibular hypoplasia, Klippel-Feil syndrome); and, (4) facial traum

67
Q

**List (6) supportive criteria for awake tracheal extubation

A

Follows commands, intact gag reflex, oropharynx clear of secretions, minimal end-tidal percent of inhaled agent, and adequate pain control and •
respiratory rate, adequate neuromuscular reversal indicated by TV >6cc/
kg. sustained tetanic contraction and T1-T. ratio >0.7, and sustained head lift and hand grasp

68
Q

***What three (3) criteria should be met before proceeding with a deep extubation?

A

l) Easy mask ventilation after
induction
(2) non-airway surgery; and
(3) an empty stomach.

69
Q

***List ten (10) respiratory complications oftracheal extubation

A

Complications of tracheal extubation are respiratory drive failure, hypoxia, upper airway obstruction, laryngospasm. reduced airway tone, vocal cord paralysis, vocal cord edema, tracheal obstruction, bronchospasm, and
aspiration.

70
Q

***List (5) systemic complications of tracheal extubation.

A

Five systemic complications assocdiated with trachel extubation are: Hypertension, increased ICP, increased intraocular pressure, wound dehiscence, and increased pulmonary artery pressure.

71
Q

***What is the mechanism of action of sugammadex?

A

other molecules within its core. It causes reversal by encapsulation and has no effect on acetylcholinesterases or on any receptor system in the body. When used in appropriated doses, sugammadex can reverse any depth of neuromuscular blockade. It binds tightly with rocuronium, and vecuronium, and to a lesser extent
pancuronium.

72
Q

***How does the use of sugammadex impact

airway management?

A

Sugammadex is useful as an alternative reversal agent, when profound relaxation with rocuronium, or vecuronium, is still in effect at the end of the case. Cases of re-paralysis have been noted when insufficient doses of sugammadex are given.

73
Q

***What is routinely found in a pre-packaged cricothyrotomy kit?

A

Most universal cricothyrotomy kits contain the tools to perform either an open surgical or percutaneous cricothyrotomy via Seldinger technique. Both techniques are utilized in a CICV (can’t intubate, can’t ventilate) scenario. Both are invasive emergency airways. The set usually includes a tracheostomy tube, dilator, scalpel, syringe, introducer needle, firm guide wire, tracheal hook, forceps and ties tosecure the device

74
Q

***What size scalpel is preferred when performing an open surgical cricothyrotomy?

A

A #20 scalpel will produce an opening wide enough to insert a narrow tube into the trachea without the need for extending the surgical incision. Its length is long enough to enter the trachea, but unlikely to damage posterior wall. This technique is often the fastest, and is employed when speed is needed, or other techniques are unavailable.

75
Q

***Why is surgical cricothyrotomy contraindicated

in the younger pediatric population? What is used instead?

A

Surgical cricothyrotomy contraindicated in the younger pediatric population because the cricoid cartilage is the narrowest portion of the airway in children under
6, and the thyroid gland also typically extends over the cricothyroid membrane (CTM). Needle cricothyrotomy with transtracheal jet ventilation is indicated. Several companies make preformed pediatric ventilation catheters similar to anintravenous catheter. These preformed catheters have the advantage of a built in 15-mm adapter that works with standard bag ventilation devices, and a Luer-lok connecter for jet ventilation.

76
Q

What are the airway considerations in a

patient with ankylosing spondylitis?

A

Ankylosing spondylitis is a chronic, progressive, inflammatory disease of the spine and surrounding soft tissues. It can cause limited mobility of the cervical spine resulting in a difficult airway, therefore a thorough airway
assessment and difficult airway set up is recommended. Video laryngoscope and fiberoptic techniques have been successfully used for trachealintubation.

77
Q

**What is lingual tonsillar hyperplasia?

A

In lingual tonsil hyperplasia, the vallecula is filled with an overgrowth of hyperplastic lymphoid tissue, potentially resulting in an unanticipated difficult airway.

78
Q

Describe the airway involvement that may arise in rheumatoid arthritis.

A

Airway involvement in the patient with RA may include cervical spine deformity, limited temporomandibular joint mobility, and arthritic changes in the cricoarytenoid joints causing a narrow glottic opening. Atlantoaxial subluxation may also be present

79
Q

***In a patient with atlantoaxial subluxation, displacement of what anatomical structure can cause compression of the spinal cord and/or vertebral arteries?

A

Movement of the head and neck displaces the odontoid process causing damage to the spinal cord and compression of the vertebral arteries. Careful preoperative assessment of neck mobility is recommended. Minimizing movement of the head and neck during laryngoscopy is indicated.

80
Q

During tracheotomy surgery, a fire develops

at the surgical site. What is your course of action?

A

In the event of an airway fire, immediately remove the tracheal tube and stop the flow of all airway gasses. Remove sponges and other flammable materials from the airway. Pour saline to extinguish the fire. Re-establish
ventilation and assess for airway injury. Consider bronchoscopy to assess for airway damage and TT fragments possibly left behind. In cases of severely difficult airway where removal of TT will result in permanent and deadly loss of the airway, clinical judgment for best possible outcome should be used in deciding to remove the TT.

81
Q

List three considerations for intubating a patient with a large thyroid goiter and partially obstructed airway. The patient is dyspneic when supine.

A

{I) Establish an airway with the patient awake and upright; (2) Use a firm, armored endotracheal tube
(3) Pass the ET beyond the point of external compression.

82
Q

What are the postoperative airway concerns after the removal of a large symptomatic thyroid goiter?

A

Removal of a large goiter can result in tracheomalacia and a collapsible airway. Hematoma formation can impinge on the airway even further, especially in the presence of an already weakened trachea. Opening of the neck wound and evacuation of the hematoma is the initial treatment. Anesthesia staff should be trained to open the wound and relive the compression. if the surgical staff is not immediately available. After the hematoma
is removed, re-assessment for intubation is indicated. Postoperatively, the airway anatomy may be distorted, increasing the difficulty of re-intubation.

83
Q

**Damage of what nerve can also cause airway issues in the post-thyroidectomy patient?

A

Acute bilateral recurrent laryngeal nerve injury causes coughing, stridor, airway obstruction, and respiratory distress.

84
Q

List five (S} reasons for failed tracheal intubation with a fiberoptic bronchoscope.

A

(l) Inadequate anesthesia; (2) lack of skill of the anesthetist; (3) laryngospasm • and bronchospasm (due to inadequate anesthesia); (4) Obscured visualization
from blood, secretions and edema; (4) pathologic processes like tumors or infection making passage of the fiberoptic scope difficult; and, (5) failure to
thread the endotracheal tube over the bronchoscope.

85
Q

**What is the action of dexmedetomidine? Describe its use regarding airway management.

A

Dexmedetomidine is a potent, short acting, alpha-2 adrenergic agonist. A predominance of alpha-2 receptors are located in the pontine locus ceruleus of the brainstem, an area that mediates vigilance, memory. analgesia, and arousal. Dexmedetomidine inhibits this nucleus, providing analgesia and sedation without depression of ventilation and therefore has been useful in difficult airway manage·
ment. Concomitant use with drugs that work on GABA (versed, propofol) can cause a paradoxical agitation.

86
Q

Why might fiberoptic intubation fail after several unsuccessful attempts with conventional laryngoscopy?

A

Fiberoptic intubation may fail because the upper airway is traumatized and hypersecretory. Blood, secretions, or edema may obscure the airway.

87
Q

Why is drying of the airways an important goal of premedication for awake intubation (AI)?

A

Secretions may prevent the local anesthetic from reaching target areas and can obscure the view of the glottis.

88
Q

What is the drug of choice for drying airways prior to awake intubation (AI)?

A

The antisialagogue of choice for awake intubation is glycopyrrolate, 0.2- 0.3 mg IV or IM. unless contraindicated. Anticholinergics only prevent formation
of new secretions; therefore administer at least 30 minutes before topicalization.

89
Q

***In what clinical situations are fiberoptic

intubation useful?

A
Fiberoptic intubations (FOI) are useful in the following situations: (1) An· atomic abnormalities of the upper airway (restricted mouth opening, small mandible, morbidly obese); (2) Cervical spine immobilization (trauma,
severely decreased ROM, cervical fusion ); (3) Failed intubation attempts where ventilation is possible (FOi through LMA or mask as a conduit); (4 Anticipated difficult airway (tumors, abscess, hematoma); (5) Placement
of double lumen ETT; and, (6} Visualizing the airway below the cords.
90
Q

List 5 relative contraindications to fiberoptic

bronchoscopy

A
  1. hypoxia;
    (2) heavy airway secretions not relieved with suction or antisialagogues;
    (3) bleeding from the upper or lower airway not relieved with suction;
    (4) local anesthetic allergy (for awake attempts);
    (5) inability to cooperate (for awake attempts}.
91
Q

What problems are associated with prolonged nasal intubations?

A

Prolonged nasal intubation can make ventilation, suctioning, and subsequent fiberoptic bronchoscopy difficult, due to the smaller endotracheal tube that nasal
intubation usually requires. Nasal intubation for longer than 24 hours places a patient at risk for sinusitis, infection, and trauma to the nasal turbinates.
In this case, the nasal endotracheal tube should be changed to an oral tube with a larger diameter if prolonged intubation is indicted. Nasal intubation is gentt·
ally used when oral intubation is not possible or if nasal intubation is required for surgical access. Nasal intubation is contraindicated in maxillary and skull based fractures.

92
Q

List six congenital syndromes associated with difficult endotracheal intubation.

A

(1) Down’s Syndrome; (2) Goldenhar; (3) Klippel-Feil; (4) Pierre Robin; (5) Treacher Collins; and, (6) Turner.

93
Q

What is Klippel-Feil syndrome? What other problems are associated with Klippel-Feil syndrome?

A

Klippel-Feil syndrome is a musculoskeletal disorder characterized by a short neck owing to a reduced number of cervical vertebrae, or fusion of several vertebrae. Movement of the neck is severely limited. Spinal
stenosis and kyphoscoliosis are associated with Klippel-Feil and mandibular malformations and/or micrognathia may be present. Taken together, the patient with Klippel-Feil presents as a difficult airway.

94
Q

**After the induction of a patient scheduled
for laparoscopic cholecystectomy, direct laryngoscopy has failed times 3 Mask ventilation with 100% 02 is
adequately achieved. What is your next
course of action?

A

Due to adequate facemask ventilation, the non-emergent difficult ajrway pathway should be used. This includes maintaining ventilation while using alternative techniques at intubation. ILMA, Fiberoptic through LMA,
Video laryngoscope, Gum elastic bougie, retrograde wire intubation, lighted stylet. If unable to secure the airway consider cancelling the case or awakening the patient. Consider invasive airway access if needed.

95
Q

List absolute and relative contraindications

for cricothyrotomy.

A

Pediatric patients, intra-thoracic obstruction, inability to locate the crico thyroid membrane, laryngeal pathology, and decreased respiratory compliance (d/t the high pressures needed to ventilate) are often considered
absolute contraindications to cricothyrotomy. Patients intubated for more than 3-7 days should not undergo cricothyrotomy, as they are high risk for subglottic stenosis. Relative contraindications to cricothyrotomy include: Surgery, Hematoma, Obesity, Radiation, and Tumors. [

96
Q

What is the “SHORT” mnemonic?

A
"SHORT" is a mnemonic used to identify difficult cricothryotomy.
Surgical obstruction
Hematoma/abscess
Obesity
Radiation distortion
Tumors.
97
Q

List (9) complications of cricothyrotomy

A

(1) subcutaneous or mediastinal emphysema from improperly placed airway;
(2) injury to posterior tracheal wall
(3) vocal cord injury
(4) thyroid injury
(5) esophageal puncture;
(6} bleeding;
(7) swallowing dysfunction;
(8} tracheal stenosis; and,
(9) infection.

98
Q

The patient has scleroderma. What four anesthetic problems related to the airway and pulmonary system should be anticipated?

A

Airway and pulmonary system concerns in the patient with scleroderma are: ( 1) Severe jaw limitation (limited temporomandibular joint mobility) may require nasal approach or a fiberoptic technique; (2} ventilation may
be difficult because of decreased compliance; (3} arterial hypoxemia may be present because of decreased diffusion of 02 across the alveolar capillary membrane; and, (4) rapid sequence induction may not be appropriate;
awake intubation with head up position is safer

99
Q

How does sarcoidosis affect the airway?

A

A difficult intubation may be expected in the patient with sarcoidosis. Laryngeal sarcoid occurs in up to 5% of patients and may interfere with the passage of an adult-size endotracheal tube.

100
Q

Chronic hyperglycemia can lead to glycosylation
of tissue protein, which leads to a limited-mobility joint syndrome. Because of this syndrome, diabetic
patients should be routinely evaluated preoperatively for what characteristics?

A

Diabetic patients should be routinely evaluated for temporomandibular joint mobility and cervical spine mobility to help predict difficult intubations, which occur in approximately 30% of type I (insulin dependent)
diabetics.

101
Q

Describe the airway concerns in Ludwig angina and retropharyngeal abscess.

A

Ludwig angina is an infection of the floor of the mouth. It frequently starts with infected submandibular molars and spreads to surrounding spaces. The tongue can become swollen and displaced posteriorly, obstructing the
airway. Jn the case of abscess formation, rupture of the abscess can occur during laryngoscopy and for this reason is usually avoided. Anticipate a difficult airway. Awake fiberoptic intubation, or even tracheostomy, may be needed.

102
Q

**Define sleep apnea. What are the symptoms and physiologic changes associated with it?

A

Sleep apnea is the cessation of breathing for more than 10 seconds during sleep. Obese patients with sleep apnea may have partial or complete obstruction of the upper airway during sleep. Symptoms include frequent
arousals during sleep, snoring, impaired concentration, memory issues, headaches. Physiologic changes include hypoxemia, hypercapnia, pulmonary HTN, and systemic vasoconstriction

103
Q

***What is the “gold standard” diagnostic test for obstructive sleep apnea {OSA)?

A

Overnight Polysomnography is the gold standard for diagnosis of obstructive sleep apnea {OSA). However, due to time, inconvenience, and expense, many patients do not have a formal OSA diagnosis. Clinical diagnostic
indicators include witnessed apnea during sleep, neck circumference Greater than or equal 16in, BMI 2: 35, hyperinsulinemia, and elevated glycolsylated hemoglobin

104
Q

***What is Pickwickian syndrome?

A

Pickwickian syndrome results from long term OSA. Physiologic changes from airway obstruction and chronic hypoventilation include hypoxemia, hypercapnia, systemic vasoconstriction. and pulmonary H

105
Q

***What are the post-operative airway considerations

in a patient with Pickwickia syndrome?

A

These patients are highly sensitive to the respiratory depressant effects of anesthesia. Continuous regional anesthesia is preferred over opioids. Benzodiazepines have a greater effect on pharyngeal muscle tone and can
contribute significantly to post-extubation airway obstruction, and therefore are generally avoided. Continuous positive airway pressure {CPAP) placed in the immediate after extubation {before transfer to PACU) have shown greater lung function 24 hours postoperatively. [

106
Q

**List otolaryngologic airway disorders
that can present difficult airway management
for the anesthetis

A

Otolaryngologic airway disorders that can present airway management challenges are: (l) airway infections; (2) airway tumors; (3) angioedema; and, (4) other pathologic conditions, such as congenital malformations,
recurrent laryngeal nerve injury, facial trauma, and. OSA