Reproduction and Developement Flashcards

1
Q

Interphase is a phase in which DNA is uncoiled in the form of chromatin. What are its three stages called?

A

G1, S, and G2

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2
Q

In this cell stage, cells create organelles for energy and protein production, while also increasing their size. To move on, a restriction point is held. This is also the longest phase in interphase.

A

G1 Stage

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3
Q

A point during which DNA is checked for quality must be passed for the cell to move into S stage.

A

Restriction Point

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4
Q

In this cell stage, DNA is replicated (23 to 46). The strands of DNA (chromatids) are held together at the centromere.

A

S Stage

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5
Q

In this cell stage, there is further cell growth and replication of organelles in preparation for mitosis. Another quality checkpoint must be passed for the cell to enter mitosis.

A

G2 Stage

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6
Q

In this stage, mitosis and cytokinesis occur.

A

M Stage

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7
Q

What happens in prophase of mitosis.

A
  • Chromasomes condense
  • Nuclear membrane dissolves
  • Nucleoli disappear
  • Centrioles migrate to opposite sides of the cell
  • Spindle apparatus forms
  • Kineticore of each chromosome is contacted by a spindle fiber
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8
Q

What happens in metaphase of mitosis.

A

Chromosomes line up along the metaphase plate (equitorial plate).

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9
Q

What happens in anaphase of mitosis.

A

Sister chromatids are separated and pulled to opposite poles.

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10
Q

What happens in telophase of mitosis.

A
  • Nuclear membrane reforms
  • Spindle apparatus disappears
  • Cytokinesis
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11
Q

What happens in prophase I of meiosis?

A

The same as mitosis, except with the addition of:

  • Synapsis
  • Crossing over of tetrads (Mendel’s Second Law of Independent Assortment)
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12
Q

What happens in metaphase I of meiosis?

A

Homologous chromosomes line up on opposite sides of the metaphase plate.

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13
Q

What happens in anaphase I of meiosis?

A

Homologous chromosomes are segregated to opposite poles of the cell (Mendel’s First Law of Segregation).

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14
Q

What happens in telophase I of meiosis?

A

Chromosomes may or may not fully decondense and the cell may enter interkinesis after cytokinesis.

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15
Q

Sperm is developed where?

A

In the seminiferous tubules of the testes.

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16
Q

What nourshes the developement of sperm?

A

Sertoli Cells

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17
Q

What cells secrete testosterone and other male sex hormones?

A

Interstitial Cells of Leydig

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18
Q

When sperm gain motilityy, where are they stored until ejaculation?

A

Epididymis

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19
Q

How does sperm travel during ejaculation?

A

Vas deferens > Ejaculatory Duct > Urethra > Out of Penis

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20
Q

This contributes fructose to nourish sperm and produce alkaline fluid.

A

Seminal Vesicles

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21
Q

Produces alkaline fluid.

A

Prostate Gland

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22
Q

Produce a clear viscous fluid that cleans out any remnants of urine and libricates the urethra during sexual arousal.

A

Bulbourethral Glands

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23
Q

What part of the sperm contains genetic material and is covered with an acrosome?

A

Head of Sperm

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24
Q

A modified golgi apparatus that contains enzymes that help the sperm to fuse to and penetrate the ovum.

A

Acrosome

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25
Q

What part of the sperm generates ATP from fructose and contains many mitochondria?

A

Midpiece of Sperm

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26
Q

Primary oocytes are arrested at what phase?

A

Prophase I

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27
Q

Secondary oocytes are arrested at what phase?

A

Metaphase II

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28
Q

Cytokinesis of the oogenesis is uneven and results in one cell receiving very little cytoplasm and organelles. What is this called?

A

Polar Body

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29
Q

An acellular mixture of glycoproteins that protect the oocyte and contain the compounds necessary for sperm binding (surround the oocyte).

A

Zona Pellucida

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30
Q

A layer of cells that adhere to the oocyte during ovulation.

A

Corona Radiata

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31
Q

Where does fertilization usually occur?

A

Ampulla of the Fallopian Tube

32
Q

How does sperm penetrate the outer layer of the female egg? What is the outer layers?

A

Acrosomal enzymes penetrate the:

  • Corona Radiata
  • Zona Pellucida
33
Q

When the first sperm penetrates the egg, it causes a release of calcium ions which prevents additional sperm from fertilizing the egg and increases the metabolic rate of the resulting diploid zygote.

A

Cortical Reaction

34
Q

Early divisions of cells in the embryo.

A

Cleavage

35
Q

Results in cells that are capable of becoming any cell in the organisim.

A

Indeterminate Cleavage

36
Q

Results in cells that are committed to differentiating into a specific cell type.

A

Determinate Cleavage

37
Q

A solid mass of cells seen in early development.

A

Morula

38
Q

Has a fluid filled center and has two different cells types (trophoblasts and inner cell mass).

A

Blastula (Blastocyst)

39
Q

This penetrates the endometrium and creates the interface between maternal and fetal blood.

A

Chorion (Chorionic Villi)

40
Q

Before the placenta is established, the embyro is supported by?

A

Yolk Sac

41
Q

Involved in early fluid exchange between the embryo and the yolk sac.

A

Allantois

42
Q

Lies just inside the chorion and produces amniotic fluid.

A

Amnion

43
Q

Fluid filled center of the blastula is called?

A

Blastocoel

44
Q

Part of the blastula that will become the placental structures.

A

Trophoblasts

45
Q

Part of the blastula that will become the developing organism.

A

Inner Cell Mass

46
Q

Becomes the epidermis, hair, nails, and the epithelia of the nose, mouth, and anal canal, as well as the nervous system (including adrenal medulla) and lens of the eye.

A

Ectoderm

47
Q

Becomes much of the musculoskeletal, circulatory, and excretory systems. Also gives rise to the gonads and the muscular and connective tissue layers of the digestive or respiratory systems (including adrenal cortex).

A

Mesoderm

48
Q

Becomes much of the epithelial linings of the respiratory and digestive tracts and parts of the pancreas, thyroid, bladder, and distal urinary tracts.

A

Endoderm

49
Q

What becomes the CNS?

A

Neural Tube

50
Q

This lies on the tip of each neural fold that fused to form the neural tube; will become the PNS (Sensory Ganglia, Autonomic Ganglia, Adrenal Medulla, and Schwann Cells) as well as specific cell types in other tissues (calcitonin-producing cells of the thyroid, melanocytes in the skin, and others).

A

Neural Crest Cells

51
Q

Substances that interfere with development, causing defects or even death of the developing embryo.

A

Teratogens

52
Q

What forms after the formation of the three germ layers?

A

The Nervous System (Neurulation)

53
Q

The commitment to a specific cell lineage, which may be accomplished by uneven segregation of cellular material during mitosis or by morphogens.

A

Determination

54
Q

Promote development down a specific cell line.

A

Morphogens

55
Q

Refers to changes a cell undergoes due to selective transcription to take on characteristic appropriate to its cell line.

A

Differentiation

56
Q

These cells are able to differentiate into all cell types, including the three germ layers and placental structures.

A

Totipotent Cells

57
Q

These cells are able to differentiate into all three of the germ layers and their derivatives.

A

Pluripotent Cells

58
Q

These cells are able to differentiate only into a specific subset of cell types.

A

Multipotent Cells

59
Q

What are the three potencies of stem cells?

A
  1. Totipotent
  2. Pluripotent
  3. Multipotent
60
Q

These signals act on the same cell that released the signal.

A

Autocrine

61
Q

These signals act on cells in the local area.

A

Paracrine

62
Q

These signals act through direct stimulation of the adjacent cells.

A

Juxtacrine

63
Q

These signals act on distant tissues after traveling through the bloodstream.

A

Endocrine

64
Q

Peptides that promote differentiation and mitosis in certain tissues.

A

Growth Factors

65
Q

If two tissues both induce further differentiation in each other, this is termed?

A

Reciprocal Induction

66
Q

The result of multiple molecular and metabolic processes; most notably, the shortening of telomeres during cell division.

A

Senescence

67
Q

One of the shunts in the fetal circulatory system, connects the right atrium to the left atrium, bypassing the lungs.

A

Foramen Ovale

68
Q

One of the shunts in the fetal circulatory system, conects the pulmonary artery to the aorta, bypassing the lungs.

A

Ductus Arteriosus

69
Q

One of the shunts in the fetal circulatory system, connects the umbilical vein to the inferior vena cava, bypassing the liver.

A

Ductus Venosus

70
Q

The process by which a gastrula forms from a blastula.

A

Gastrulation

71
Q

The rudimentary alimentary cavity of an embryo at the gastrula stage.

A

Archenteron

72
Q

The opening of the central cavity of an embryo in the early stage of development.

A

Blastopore

73
Q

Organogenesis (development of heart, eyes, gonads, limbs, liver and brain).

A

First Trimester

74
Q

Tremendous growth: movement begins, the face becomes distinct, and the digits elongate.

A

Second Trimester

75
Q

Rapid growth and brain development continue, and there is transfer of antibodies to the fetus.

A

Third Trimester