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O & P Mock Exams COPY > *Not Finished* Second Orthotics Mock Exam > Flashcards

*Not Finished* Second Orthotics Mock Exam Flashcards

1
Q

Maximum Dorsiflexion occurs during which phase of gait? a. Heel off b. toe off c. accleration d. mid-swing e. push-off

A

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2
Q

A single cycle of gait is defined as the time… a. from heel off of one foot to heel off of the other. b. from heel off of one foot to push off of the same foot. c. from heel off of one foot to heel strike of the other. d. from heel off of one foot to heel strike of the same foot. e. from contralateral reciprocation of the forefoot weight time.

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3
Q

During which phase of gait are the hip extensors most active? a. mid-stance b. heel-strike to foot flat c. push to mid-swing d. deceleration e. foot flat to mid-stance

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4
Q

At what phase of gait is medial lateral stability of the knee most important? a. mid-swing b. acceleration c. mid-stance d. foot flat e. free fall

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5
Q

In measuring for a quadrilateral brim, what is the most important measurement? a. inguinal ligament to posterior b. medial lateral and base scarpa triangle c. anteroposterior and horizontal projection of scarpa triangle d. thigh circumference divided by 2 plus 1 1/2 in e. anteroprosterior and medial lateral

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6
Q

What comprises the scarpa triangle? a. sartorius, rectus femoris, inguinal ligament b. sartorius, adductor magnus, inguinal ligament c. sartorius, femoral artery, rectus abdominus d. sartorius, inguinal ligament, adductor longus e. anterior, lateral, proximal thigh

A

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7
Q

What is the best position for managing the chronically dislocating gleno-humeral joint? a. internally rotated and flexed slightly b. abducted and internally rotated c. abducted and externally rotated d. abducted to at least 70 degrees e. abducted to 50 degrees and compressed

A

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8
Q

The oblique diameter of a patients malleoli is 3 5/8 in (90mm). What should the inside dimension of the ankle joint be? a. 3 7/8 in (96mm) b. 4 1/16 in (101mm) c. 3 15/16 in (99mm) d. 4 1/4 in (106mm) e. 4 3/16 in (105mm)

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9
Q

A hemiplegic patient presents with zero hip extensors, fair quadriceps, zero calf. Which of the following would you recommend? a. HKAFO b. KAFO c. AFO with dorsiflexion assist d. AFO with plantarflexion restraint e. No recommendation

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10
Q

The 20 year old female patient presents with flaccid anterior compartment and medial lateral instability in her right lower limb. Which of the following would you recommend? a. conventional AFO with dorsiflexion restraint b. polypropylene AFO with trim anterior to the malleoli c. McAushland brace d. conventional AFO with gerdmore mechanism e. Spiral AFO

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11
Q

Which muscle most clostely duplicates the function of the anterior tibialis? a. posterior tibialis b. peroneus longus c. extensor digitorium d. peroneus tertius e. extensor hallicus longus

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12
Q

Which of the following is a contra-indication for a spiral AFO? a. periphera nerve type of injury b. weak hip flexors c. edema with frequent volume changes d. mild spasticity e. Guillain-barre

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13
Q

Why is a Milwaukee brace carefully molded superior to the iliac crests? a. assist in reducing lordosis b. assist in pelvic derotation c. to avoid bony landmarks d. prevent distal migration e. cosmesis

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14
Q

What level of paraplegia seldom gets braced? a. C5 b. T6 c. T12 d. L1 e. L5

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15
Q

Bunnell (cock-up) splints are frequently used for… a. quadriplegia b. burns c. hemiplegia d. trauma e. arthritis

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16
Q

What structure assists the deltoid in gleno humeral abductions? a. latissimus dorsi b. rhomboid c. rotator cuff d. pectoralis minor e. coraco brachialis

A

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17
Q

An orthotic patient’s wrist is positionioned in ulnar deviation and flexion. you should try to reposition the patient’s wrist… a. in slight radial deviation b. in 30 degrees extension c. in slight flexion d. in slight flexion and slight radial deviation e. in slight flexion, maintain ulnar deviation

A

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18
Q

Which of the following is often the result of an irregular birth? a. gower’s sign b. down syndrome c. schmorl’s nodes d. Erb’s palsy e. heterotopic ossification

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19
Q

Which of the following is an inflammation of the outer covering of the spinal cord and/or brain? a. cerebral palsy b. tuberculosis c. melanoma d. meningitis e. pleuritis

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20
Q

What is the primary target organ in rheumatoid arthritis? a. bone b. cartilage c. synovium d. ligaments e. collagen

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21
Q

Which of the following best describes a small lubricant filled sac which if removed results in an increase in friction? a. schmorl’s nodes b. nucleus pulposis c. ganglia d. bursa e. synacone

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22
Q

In an LSO what is the superior margin of the paraspinal bars? a. the inferior angle of the scapula b. one inch inferior angle of the scapula c. the spine of the scapula d. T7 e. halfway between the inferior angle and spine of the scapula

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23
Q

What is the superior margin of the paraspinal bars in a Taylor TLSO? a. L1 b. spine of the scapula c. inferior angle of the scapula d. halfway between spine and inferior angle of the scapula e. superior angle of the scapula

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24
Q

The superior portion of the Milwaukee CTLSO should be carefully fabricated so as to… a. avoid excessive pressure on the chin b. avoid excessive pressure on the mandibular angle c. avoid excessive pressure on the xyphoid process d. avoid excessive pressure on the ulnar styloid e. maintain distraction of the cervical spine.

A

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25
Q

In an attempt to restore upper limb function to a C5 complete quadriplegic, which orthosis should you recommend? a. WHO b. WHO C-bar c. HO d. WDWHO (flexor hinge) e. WHO with externally powered wrist and/or prehension

A

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26
Q

In an attempt to restore upper limb funtion to a C6 complete quadriplegic, which orthosis should you recommend? a. WHO b. WHO with C-bar c. HO d. WDWHO (flexor hinge) e. WHO with externally powered wrist and/or prehension

A

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27
Q

For a median nerve injury at the wrist which is the most appropriate orthosis? a. WHO b. HO c. WHO with C-bar d. WHO with thumb post e. HO with thumb post

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28
Q

What structure is at the distal end of the humerus? a. olecrenon b. capitate c. coronoid d. epiphysis e. epicondyle

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29
Q

Primary function of brachioradialis is… a. gleno-humeral flexion b. elbow flexion c. elbow flexion and forearm supination d. glenohumeral flexion and elbow flexion

A

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30
Q

The secondary function of the biceps brachii is… a. pronation b. supination c. gleno-humeral extension d. elbow protraction e. glenohumeral adduction

A

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31
Q

The primary function of the brachialis is… a. supination b. pronation c. elbow flexion d. elbow flexion and supination e. elbow flexion and pronation

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32
Q

In addition to the deltoid, the axillary nerve innervates the… a. pronator teres b. teres major c. supriaspinatus d. teres minor e. rhomboids

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33
Q

Which of the following compliments the deltoid in performing glenohumeral abduction? a. rotator cuff b. triangular ligament c. subclavius d. pectoralis major-calvicular head e. levator scapulae

A

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34
Q

Which of the following is a contra-indication for a plastic AFO? a. weak dorsiflexors b. subtalor instability c. flaccid peroneus tertius d. weak calf e. deep peroneal nerve injury

A

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35
Q

Which orthosis would you recommend to a mid-humerus Fx which included injury to the radial nerve? a. WHO with wrist flexion assist b. WHO with thumb extension assist c. WHO with thumb extension and finger extension assist d. WHO with wrist, thumb, and finger extension assist e. HO with thumb and finger extension assist

A

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36
Q

Which best describes the purpose of the thumb post? a. positioning for lateral prehension b. positioning circumduction c. adduction stop d. abduction stop e. positioning for palmar prehension

A

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37
Q

In picking up an object from a table what is the best position of the wrist? a. 5 degrees flexion b. 10 degrees extension c. 35 degrees flexion d. 30 degrees extension e. 10 degrees flexion with 15 degrees ulnar deviation

A

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38
Q

Which of the following does not contribute to spinal extension? a. erector spinae b. quadrutus lumborum c. levator scapulae d. lateral abdominus obliques e. latissimus dorsi

A

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39
Q

Which of the following best describes the orthotic objective of the UCBL FO? a. compress talo-navicular joint b. align mid-tarsal articulation c. redirect metatarsal forces over larger area d. diminish calcaneus ML instability e limit sagittal motion of calcaneus

A

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40
Q

A patient wearing a Dennis Brown orthosis exhibits undesirable eversion, you should… a. contour the crossmember concave to the patient to pronate the feet. b. contour the crossmember convex to the patient to pronate the feet. c. contour the crossmember concave to the patient to supinate the feet. d. contour the crossmember convex to the patient to supinate the feet. e. contour the sidebar to promote inversion.

A

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41
Q

Which of the following is the best means to accommodate valgus in a patient’s lower limb? a. extend the medial stirrup extension b. extend the lateral stirrup extension c. medial wedge d. scaphoid pad e. slight internal rotation in orthosis

A

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42
Q

Which muscle flexes the middle phalanx? a. flexor communis b. flexor digitii brevis c. flexor digitorum profundus d. flexor digitorum sublimis e. flexor palmaris

A

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43
Q

Abduction and adduction occurs in the… a. sagittal plane b. coronal plane c. transverse plane d. horizontal plane e. oblique plane

A

b. Coronal plane

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44
Q

Abduction and adduction occurs in the hand at the… a. carpal-metacarpal joint b. carpal phalangeal joint c. metacarpal-phalangeal joint d. proximal interphalngeal joint e. distal interphalangeal joint

A

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45
Q

Loss of the opponens pollicis is the result of an injury to the… a. median nerve b. axillary nerve c. radial nerve d. ulnar nerve e. carpus nerve

A

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46
Q

The primary purpose of a C-bar is… a. opponens assist b. opponens stop c. adduction stop d. abduction stop e. abduction assist

A

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47
Q

The distal edge of the C-bar should… a. fall 3mm (1/8 in) proximal to the nail bed b. fall 3mm (1/8 in) distal to the nail bed c. cover the planus articularis d. extend just distal to the pollicis IP e. extend just proximal to the pollicis IP

A

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48
Q

The superior surface of the atlas articulates with the… a. odontoid process b. axis c. CI d. Biceptal articularis e. mandibular angle

A

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49
Q

Spondylolisthesis is a condition best described as… a. anterior displacement of SI with respect to L5 b. par articulares Fx c. Superior facet subluxation d. anterior displacement of L5 with respect to SI e. Lateral-anterior migration of L5-S1 disc

A

d. anterior displacement of L5 with respect to SI

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50
Q

In order to treat kyphosis with a Milwaukee TLSO the pads should be placed… a. anteriorly b. posteriorly c. 2 ribs below the lateral curvature d. 2 ribs above the lateral curvature e. laterally 2cm below scoliotic apex

A

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51
Q

The optimum hip angle of the patient during casting for a Milwakee TLSO is… a. hyperextension b. full flexion c. slight flexion d. flexion commensurate with minimum lordosis e. not pertinent

A

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52
Q

The pelvic band for an LSO or TLSO should… a. overlap the greater trochanters b. fall just distal to the greater trochanter c. be fitted superior (3mm) to the iliac crest d. lie halfway between the inferior costal margin and the iliac crest e. lie halfway between the iliac crest and the greater trochanter

A

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53
Q

The axis of rotation of the hip joint can be located… a. anterior/posterior to the greater trochanter b. anterior/superior to the greater trochanter c. posterior/superior to the greater trochanter d. anterior/inferior to the greater trochanter e. posterior/inferior to the greater trochanter

A

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54
Q

What is the most frequently fit lumbosacral orthosis in the United States? a. taylor b. knight c. chairback d. corset e. milwaukee

A

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55
Q

In fabricating a PTB type of orthosis, it is necessary to carefully form the material in the popliteal area to a. produce adequate anteriorly directed force b. promote quadriceps c. avoid pressure against the posterior tibial artery d. allow for frequent volume changes e. maintain destimulation of the gogi tendon appartus

A

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56
Q

Which of the following is not an upper motor neuron injury? a. multiple sclerosis b. cerebral palsy c. spinal injury d. diabetes neuropathy e. cerebro-vascular accident

A

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57
Q

As an orthotist your primary concern with a spinal injury patient is… a. distribution of impaired/loss sensation b. skin sensitivity to pressure c. heterotopic ossification d. autonomic dysreflexia e. spasticity

A

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58
Q

What nerve is most likely affected on a patient with a foot drop? a. femoral nerve b. obturator nerve c. tibial nerve e. medial plantar nerve

A

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59
Q

Aponeurosis is a a. flat tendon b. thin tendinous sheath c. ligamentous expanse d. membrane dividing muscle masses e. lining between joint capsule and synovium

A

a. flat tendon

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60
Q

The sensory distribution of the spinal nerves is a. dorsal b. anterior c. ventral d. autonomic e. regangliated

A

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61
Q

What is the affect of fitting a KAFO on a patient with insufficient external rotation? a. inversion b. pronation c. eversion d. supination e. pes planus forces

A

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62
Q

The main reason for using a WHO instead of a HO is… a. positioning the wrist b. intrinsic paralysis c. more support for the palmar arch d. palcing the lumbrical bar

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63
Q

The serratus anterior performs what action? a. adduction and upward rotation b. abduction and upward rotation c. adduction and elevation d. shoulder extension

A

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64
Q

The HO controls… a. palmer arch and thumb position b. radial deviation c. first dorsal interosseous d. longitudinal arch and carpal tunnel

A

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65
Q

Adduction and Abduction occurs in… a. coronal plane b. transverse plane c. sagittal plane d. both a and c

A

a. coronal plane

66
Q

MP flexion and IP extension are performed primarily by the… a. flexordigitorum profundus and subliminus b. interossei and lumbricales c. opponens pollicis

A

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67
Q

When taking plaster bandage impressions for upper limb orthoses… a. align the first MP join to the fifth b. align the second MP joint posterior to the first c. align the second MP joint anterior to the third d. cast the hand in the presented position

A

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68
Q

A mobile base of support for the arm is… a. scapula b. navicular c. sternum d. latissimus dorsi

A

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69
Q

The muscle that can flex, abduct, extend, and support the shoulder joint is… a. latissimus dorsi b. subscapularis c. biceps brachii d. deltoid

A

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70
Q

Flaccid paralysis is most often seen in a. upper motor neuron injuries b. central nervous system injuries c. oppose the opponens bar d. adduct the second MP joint

A

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71
Q

A second MP abduction spring assist is used to a. abduct the second MP joint b. flex the third phalanx c. oppose the opponens bar d. adduct the second MP joint.

A

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72
Q

The MP extension stop should be placed… a. halfway between the PIP and DIP joints b. over the PIP joints c. just proximal to the PIP joints d. Behind the first MP joint

A

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73
Q

Match the letter with the correct number… a. gleno-humeral joint b. ortho c. wrist extensors d. wrist flexors e. MP joint f. dorsal interossei g. volar interossei h. os i. coronal j. sagittal 1. to straighten 2. dorsal forearm surface 3. abduct MP joint 4. front and back halves 5. shoulder 6. adduct MP joint 7. volar forearm surface 8. knuckles 9. right and left halves 10. bone

A

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74
Q

A dynamic IP extension assist with an MP stop should be used… a. if patient has weakness of the lumbricals b. if patient is unable to extend fingers at MP joint c. if patient hyperextends at MP joint d. if patient is unable to extend fingers at MP and IP joints.

A

c. if patient hyperextends at MP joint

75
Q

Ideally, how soon after injury should a quadriplegic patient be fitted with an upper limb orthosis? a. while the patient is on a Stryker frame b. six weeks c. six months d. one year

A

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76
Q

Extension of the proximal phalanx at the MP joint is produced by… a. the long extensor b. the long extensor and interossei c. long extensor and lumbricales d. b and C combined

A

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77
Q

The mobile segment of the transverse arch of the hand is formed by the metacrapals… a. 3-4 b. 1-2-3 c. 1-4-5 d. 1-5

A

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78
Q

The middle of the long finger has… a. 2 volar and dorsal interossei b. 2 dorsal interossei and a volar inerossei c. 2 volar interossei and a lumbrical d. 2 dorsal and one ulnar lumbrical e. 2 dorsal interossei and one radial lumbrical

A

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79
Q

Upward rotation of the scapula is produced by… a. the upper and middle segments of the trapeziud and serratus b. anterior c. the upper trapexius and latissimus dorsi d. the levator scapulae and the serratus anterior

A

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80
Q

Plaster of paris is the anhydrous form of a naturally occuring mineral called? a. gneiss b. gypsum c. golgi d. garnet

A

b. gypsum

81
Q

The second MP joint is abducted by the… a. 1st palmar interosseus b. 1st dorsal interosseus c. 2nd palmar interosseus d. 2nd dorsal interosseus

A

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82
Q

Regarding the plaster bandage… a. it should be wetted with warm water b. it should be wetted with cool water c. water temperature depends on how fast or slowly you want it to set d. water temperature depends on the brand of elastic plaster you are using.

A

c. water temperature depends on how fast or slowly you want it to set

83
Q

what is the etiology of a disease? a. the functional change that occurs b. the study of the cause of the disease c. that which distinguishes one disease from another d. the ultimate result of the disease

A

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84
Q

Which movements occur at both the elbow and should er joints? a. abduction and flexion b. circumduction and flexion c. abduction circumduction and flexion d. extension and flexion

A

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85
Q

The space between an axon and a dendrite is called a… a. syncope b. synonum c. syllogism d. synapse

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86
Q

A patient with a leison located in the ________ would probably be aphasic. a. central nervous system b. peripheral nervous system c. right brain lobe d. left brain lobe

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87
Q

The technique for donning and doffing a particular orthosis should be discussed with… a. the physician b. the patient c. the patient’s family d. the nursing staff e. all of the above

A

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88
Q

Which of the following is not part of a typical nerve cell? a. flagella b. dendrite c. axon d. nucleus

A

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89
Q

Spastic paralysis may result from… a. spinal cord injury b. brain injury c. injury to the cauda equina d. peripheral nerve injury e. a and b f. b and d g. c only

A

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90
Q

The gelatenous center of a spinal disc is called the… a. annulus fibrosus b. body c. ephiphysis d. nucleus pulposus

A

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91
Q

The lumbar spine consists of how many vertebrae? a. 3 b. 5 c. 2 d. 4

A

b. 5

92
Q

With a distrupction in th elower motor neuron, what kind of response would you expect? a. kinetic response b. flaccid or hypotonic response c. spastic or hypertonic response d. all of the above e. none of the above

A

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93
Q

Which of the following is considered an upper motor neuron disorder? a. cerebral palsy b. multiple sclerosis c. polimyelitis d. b and c e. a and b f all of the above.

A

Answer coming soon

94
Q

When someone has a spinal cord injury at the level of T2-T3 the result is… a. quadriplegia with spasticity b. paraplegia with flaccidity c. paraplegia with neither spasticity nor flaccidity d. quadriplegia with flaccidity e. paraplegia with spasticity

A

Answer coming soon

95
Q

C1-C2 joint allows… a. extension and flexion b. flexion and rotation c. rotation, flexion, and extension d. none of the above

A

Answer coming soon

96
Q

The erector spinae muscles are active as… a. flexors of the spine b. lateral flexors of the spine c. extensors of the spine d. both a and b e. both b and c

A

Answer coming soon

97
Q

The position of the thoracic articular facets are most disadvantagously positioned to allow for… a. rotation b. flexion c. hyperextension d. lateral flexion

A

Answer coming soon

98
Q

Spondylolisthesis is a condition of the spine that… a. is caused by rotational forces applied to the vertebrae b. shows signs of a forward slipping of the vertebrae over another c. shows, by x-ray, a defect in the spine without forward slipping d. none of the above

A

Answer coming soon

99
Q

If you have two forces, F1 and F2, acting on a point, what is the resultant force?

a. F3
b. F4
c. F5
d. F6

A

Answer coming soon

100
Q

A patient has a compression Fx at T12 level. What type of orthosis is best suited for the stabilzation of the Fx?

a. lumbosacral corset
b. dorsalumbar corset
c. anterior control hyperextension orthosis
d. posterior control flexion orthosis

A

Answer coming soon

101
Q

Scheuerman’s Disease typically produces

a. a double major scoliotic curve
b. a thoracic kyphosis
c. extreme lumbar lordosis
d. no adverse effect on the spinal column

A

Answer coming soon

102
Q

The taylor spinal orthosis would be classified as a

a. AP, ML TLSO

b. AP TLSO
c. P, ML TLSO
d. A, ML TLSO

A

Answer coming soon

103
Q

The proper length measurement for a Taylor spinal orthosis is…

a. interior scapular angle to inferior edge of sacrum
b. L5-S1 level to scapular spine
c. inferior edge of sacrum to scapular spine
d. none of the above.

A

Answer coming soon

104
Q

The greatest amount of rotation occurs in…

a. the sacral spine
b. the lumbar spine
c. the thoracic spine
d. July

A

Answer coming soon

105
Q

A _______________ Orthosis is often used to treat kyphosis

a. Norton Brown
b. Milwaukee
c. McAusland

A

Answer coming soon

106
Q

What is a Goldthwait’s orthosis primary function?

a. a flexion brace
b. an extension brace
c. a sacral stabilizer and anterior compression

A

Answer coming soon

107
Q

A TLSO (Boston type) is effective in controlling a curve as high as…

a. T5
b. T8
c. L1

A

Answer coming soon

108
Q

Which muscle or muscle group does not act upon the elbow?

a. biceps brachii
b. triceps brachii
c. brachialis
d. deltoid

A

Answer coming soon

109
Q

Orthotically speaking, a C6 lesion would best be managed with…

a. a wrist driven flexion hinge orthosis (WDWHO)
b. a short opponens orthosis
c. a long opponens orthosis (WHO) with extended wrist and lumbrical bar
d. a long opponens with outrigger and IP extension assist

A

Answer coming soon

110
Q

The lumbricals function to…

a. flex the MP joint and extend the IP joints
b. abduct the phalanges
c. extend the IP joints and extend the MP joints
d. Flex the MP joint and Flex the IP joints

A

a. flex the Mp joint and extend the IP joints

111
Q

The pronator quadratus…

a. flexes elbow and pronates the forearm
b. pronates the forearm
c. flexes wrist and pronates forearm
d. extends wrist and pronates forearm

A

b. pronates the forearm

112
Q

The motion occuring between the carpal joints provides for what type of joint?

a. hinge
b. glidding
c. saddle
d. rotation

A

Answer coming soon

113
Q

The proper placement of the distal end of a thumb adduction stop (c-bar) is…

a. at the thumb tip
b. just proximal to the IP joint
c. at the center of the web space
d. none of the above

A

Answer coming soon

114
Q

The adductors of the scapula include all except…

a. middle trapezius
b. rhomboids
c. atissimus dorsi
d. serratus anterior

A

Answer coming soon

115
Q

The strength of a muscle is determined by and is directly proportional to…

a. the individual muscle fiber length
b. the specific location of it’s insertion and origin
c. the position of the involved joint is in before initiation of muscle activity
d. the cross section of the muscle

A

Answer coming soon

116
Q

When positioning the wrist for the fitting of a WHO the most functional position would be…

a. slightly flexed
b. fully extended
c. neither flexed nor extended
d. slightly extended

A

d. slightly extended

117
Q

The thenar musculature is located…

a. on the ulnar side of the hand.
b. at the base of the thumb
c. in the center of the palm
d. on the volar surface of the fingers

A

Answer coming soon

118
Q

Which of the following would not be classified as a type of hand prehension?

a. spherical
b. cylindical
c. lateral
d. oblique

A

Answer coming soon

119
Q

The ape hand is characterized by a lesion of what nerve?

a. musculocutaneous
b. radial
c. median
d. ulnar

A

c. median

120
Q

A “swan neck” deformity refers to…

a. hyperextension of middle joint and flexion of the distal finger joint
b. flexion of both IP joints with hyperextension of the MP joint
c. flexion of the middle joint and hyperextension of the distal finger joint.
d. hyperextension of MP and both finger joints.

A

a. hyperextension of middle joint and flexion of the distal finger joint

121
Q

A peripheral nerve injury at the wrist of the ulnar nerve would best be braced with

a. a long opponens (WHO) with outrigger
b. wrist driven flexor hinge orthosis (WDWHO)
c. short opponens (HO) with C-bar and opponens bar
d. Short opponens (HO) with MP extension stop (lumbrical bar)

A

Answer coming soon

122
Q

The proper length of the thumb post is…

a. Just beyond the thumb bed
b. At the center of the IP joint
c. At the MP joint
d. None of the above

A

Answer coming soon

123
Q

A Volkmann’s ischemic contracture is caused by…

a. atrophy caused by disuse
b. nerve damage
c. compromised vascular flow
d. all of the above

A

Answer coming soon

124
Q

______________ pertains to the palm of the hand or the foot.

a. ulnar
b. varus
c. volar
d. dorsum

A

Answer coming soon

125
Q

The inominate bones are joined by another structure known as _____________ thus forming the pelvic girdle.

a. the sacrum
b. ischium
c. the symphysis pubis
d. the iliac crest

A

Answer coming soon

126
Q

The socket that articulates with the head of the femur is called the…

a. the cubital fossa
b. popliteal fossa
c. coracoid
d. acetabulum

A

d. acetabulum

127
Q

Which of the following is not a biarticular muscle?

a. semitendinosis
b. biceps femoris
c. soleus
d. gastrocnemius

A

Answer coming soon

128
Q

A peripheral nerve injury of the peroneal nerve would cause…

a. foot drop and inverted foot
b. an extremely dorsiflexed foot
c. a plantarflexed foot with eversion
d. an everted foot

A

Answer coming soon

129
Q

Genu varum is a position of the knee joint commonly called….

a. bow-leggedness
b. knock knee
c. normal knee
d. recurvatum

A

a. bow-leggedness

130
Q

Extensors of the hip include all of the following except…

a. gluteus maximus
b. semitendinosis
c. gluteus medius
d. biceps femoris

A

c. gluteus medius

131
Q

Which of the following would not be classified as an upper motor neuron disorder?

a. peripheral nerve injury
b. cerebral palsy
c. cerebral vascular accident
d. multiple sclerosis

A

Answer coming soon

132
Q

A rapid alternating involuntary movement elicited by stretch is known as…

a. spasticity
b. istonic contracture
c. clonus
d. contracture

A

c. clonus

133
Q

Flat foot is otherwise known as…

a. pes calcaneous
b. pes planus
c. pes equinus
d. pes cavus

A

b. pes planus

134
Q

A positive trendelenburg sign is given when…

a. there is weakness of the gluteus maximus
b. the non-involved side drops upon weight bearing on the involved side.
c. the involved side drops upon weight bearing on the non-involved side
d. none of the above.

A

b. the non-involved side drops upon weight bearing on the involved side.

135
Q

When a patient is bed ridden, some of the points to be concerned about are…

a. contractures occurring
b. decubitous ulcers
c. osteoporosis
d. a and b
e. a and c
f. all of the above

A

Answer coming soon

136
Q

Which means is not a way to correct equinovalgus?

a. scaphoid pad
b. medial heel wedge
c. lateral heel and sole wedge
d. medial t-strap with single or double bar AFO

A

Answer coming soon

137
Q

The proper location of a knee joint on a KAFO is…

a. at the level of the tibial plateau
b. at the level of the adductor tubercle
c. half the distance between the tibial plateau and the adductor tubercle
d. half the distance between the ankle joint and the superior edge of the proximal thigh band.

A

c. half the distance between the tibial plateau and the adductor tubercle

138
Q

The ankle joint axis should be located…

a. at the distal border of the medial malleolus
b. at the distal border of the lateral malleolus
c. at the proximal border of the medial malleolus
d. none of the above

A

Answer coming soon

139
Q

The proper height of the calf band in an AFO is…

a. one inch below the popliteal fossa
b. at the apex of the fibular head
c. 2 inches below the neck of the fibula
d. 20mm distal to the neck of the fibula

A

d. 20mm distal to the neck of the fibula

140
Q

When putting a heal wedge on the shoe for an AFO or KAFO, the proper place to put the wedge is…

a. between the sole of the shoe and the stirrup
b. between the stirrup and the heel of the shoe
c. on the bottom of the heel

A

Answer coming soon

141
Q

A KAFO with a 90 degree dorsiflexion ankle stop will…

a. assist in knee stability
b. allow the patient to run
c. provide medial lateral stability

A

a. assist in knee stability

142
Q

Heel lever arm tends to force knee into flexion…

a. at midstance
b. at heel contact
c. at push off

A

Answer coming soon

143
Q

The superior tarsal bone articulating with the tibia, the fibula, the calcaneous and navicular is…

a. talus
b. tarsal
c. patella

A

a. Talus

144
Q

The UCBL foot orthosis will tend to correct…

a. valgus of the knee and ankle
b. varus of the knee and ankle
c. dorsiflexion of the ankle

A

Answer coming soon

145
Q

At heel strike the ankle will be at _____ degrees, knee at _____degrees, hip at _____degrees.

a. 90 neutral, 180 full extension, 25 flexion
b. 15 plantarflexion, 20 flexion, 23 flexion
c. 90 neutral, 93 flexion, 12 flexion

A

Answer coming soon

146
Q

You can control knee flexion in an AFO with…

a. a long tongue stirrup
b. a long tongue stirrup and double action ankle joints with springs
c. a long tongue stirrup and double action ankle joints with pins.

A

Answer coming soon

147
Q

A rocker sole on a shoe will…

a. make up for leg shortage
b. provide for simulated ankle and toe motion
c. prevent plantarflexion

A

Answer coming soon

148
Q

Minimum dorsiflexion occurs during which phase of gait?

a. heel off
b. toe off
c. acceleration
d. mid-swing
e. push-off

A

Answer coming soon

149
Q
A

O & P Mock Exams COPY (17 decks)

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