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Part 3 Law > Definitions > Flashcards

Definitions Flashcards

1
Q

Accelerate stop distance

A

Length of take off run available plus any available stopway

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2
Q

Adequate aerodrome

A

Aerodrome that is suitable for the aircraft to divert to, it has category 4 or higher firefighting abilities with 30 minutes prior notice and meets the requirements prescribed in part 121

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3
Q

Approach control

A

ATS for the arriving and departing aircraft

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4
Q

Area navigation

A

Method of navigation that permits aircraft operation on any desired flight path within the coverage of ground or spaced based navigation methods, or within the limits of self contained navigation systems, or a combination

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5
Q

Augmented crew

A

Crew on an aeroplane that is compromised of more than the minimum crew required by the certification

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6
Q

CAT II precision approach

A

Precision instrument approach with decision height between 100-200 feet and a runway visual range of not less than 300 meters

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7
Q

CAT III A vs. CAT III B vs. CAT IIIC precision approaches

A

A: Minimum decision height = 0ft - 100ft, Minimum RVR= 175m

B: minimum decision height = 0ft - 50ft, minimum RVR= 50m- 175m

C: no minimum decision height or RVR

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8
Q

Contaminated runway

A

25% of runway surface area in the required landing distance is covered by surface water, slush or loses snow more than 3mm in depth, or there is any ice on the runway

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9
Q

Decision altitude

A

Height AMSL on an instrument approach that a missed approach must be conducted if visual reference has not been established

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10
Q

Decision height

A

The height AGL that a missed approach must be commenced on an instrument approach if visual reference has not been established

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11
Q

Escorted passenger

A

Passengers requiring the personal attendance of an escort during an ATO

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12
Q

Instrument approach procedure

A

A series of predetermined manoeuvres by reference to the flight instruments with specified protection from obstacles from the initial approach fix, start of the arrival route to a point where landing can be completed; or if landing cannot be completed continue to a holding position.

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13
Q

Instrument flight

A

Aircraft is piloted with sole reference to the instruments, without external reference points

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14
Q

Instrument time

A

Instrument flight time plus any time that a pilot is practicing simulated instrument flight on an approved mechanical device

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15
Q

Mach number

A

Ratio of airspeed to the speed of sound

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16
Q

MDA

A

Minimum descent altitude: the minimum height AMSL that you can descend to on a non precision approach or circling approach without visual reference

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17
Q

MDH

A

Minimum descent height: the minimum height AGL that you can descend to on a non precision approach or circling approach without visual reference

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18
Q

Minimum safe altitude

A

The minimum safe altitude you can descent to that gives terrain clearance within the total area of navigation tolerance

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19
Q

Precision approach procedure

A

Instrument approach procedure that uses guidance in the azimuth and the glide path

20
Q

Pressure altitude

A

Atmospheric pressure, expressed in terms of altitude, which corresponds to the pressure in the standard atmosphere

21
Q

Reporting point

A

Specific geographic location in relation to which aircraft position can be reported.

Solid triangle means it is required, hollow triangle means it is is not required

22
Q

Required navigation performance

A

Statement of the navigation performance accuracy necessary for the operation within a defined area of airspace

A containment value in nm from the intended position that the aircraft can remain within 95% of the time

23
Q

RVR

A

Runway visual range: range that a pilot can see the runway surface markings, or lights determining the runway and centreline

24
Q

ZFT simulator

A

Zero flight time simulator: simulator that has full motion and has its own registration. You do not need to fly the actual aircraft before gaining approval to operate it.

25
Q

ACAS

A

Airborne collision avoidance system: independent of atc and SSR radar to detect collision threats

26
Q

IFSD

A

In flight shutdown

27
Q

RVSM

A

Reduced vertical separation minima: allows 1000ft vertical foot separation of 2 RVSM approved aircraft in the same RVSM

28
Q

TAWS. What does it require to work?

A

Terrain awareness and warning system.

Requires interaction with SSR to determine if aircraft are in a position to be at threat. Also requires ADS-B

29
Q

What is satisfactory visual reference?

A 
Approach lighting
Threshold markings
Threshold lights
Runway end identification lights
PAPI
Touchdown zone markings
Runway or runway markings
Runway lights
30
Q

Adequate Rest Facilities

A

rest facilities considered by the director to be sufficiently segregated and comfortable so as to provide suitable rest for resting flight crew members, having regard to the service concerned

31
Q

Air Operations

A

Any air operation in accordance with Part 121 or 125 or an air transport operation in accordance with Part 135

32
Q

Disrupted schedule

A

A schedule that be reason of circumstance outside the control of the operator is prevented from being completed within its scheduled time

33
Q

Duty Period

A

Any continuous period throughout which a flight crew member is required by an operator to be on duty or available for duty, whether on the ground or in the air.

34
Q

External Operation

A

An operation, excluding an operation to the Chatham Islands, the greater part of which is carried outside the territorial water of NZ

35
Q

Internal Operation

A

An operation that is carried out between places in New Zealand, and includes an operation between the islands of NZ

36
Q

Rest Period

A

Any period of time on the ground during which a flight crew member is relieved of all duties by the operator

37
Q

Standby Period

A

The period of time during which a flight crew member is required to hold themselves available for active duty

38
Q

Stay in area

A

A stopover in an area for a period that includes facility for 2 normal nights rest. eg. 2 consecutive periods between midnight and 6am local time

39
Q

Tour of duty

A

The period of time commencing at the start of duties at the home base, prior to a series of flights, ending at the home base on completion of the duties associated with series of flights.

40
Q

Total hours of duty

A

The sum of the duty periods within any particular period that a flight crew member is at the disposal of an operator

41
Q

Movement area

A

Manoeuvring area plus any aprons and maintenance areas

42
Q

Manouvering area

A

part of an AD to be used for T/O and LDG of aircraft and for the surface movement of aircraft associated with T/O and LDG

43
Q

Air Transport Operation

A

an operation for the carriage of passengers or goods by air for hire or reward except;

  • A CTO
  • An adventure operation
  • A trial flight
  • Heli external load
  • Ag aircraft operation
44
Q

Ceiling

A

Height AGL of the base of the lowest layer of cloud covering more than half the sky

45
Q

Command Practice

A

Performance of a co-pilot of the duties and functions of a PIC during flight under the supervision of PIC as designated by the operator

46
Q

CTO

A

Comercial Transport Operation
-An operation of the carriage of goods or cargo by air for hire or reward where:
=Every person is performing a task or duty on the operation
=Pax or goods are carried to of from a remote aerodrome

Part 3 Law (9 decks)

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