Haematological Malignancies Flashcards

1
Q

Recall the paediatric and adult thresholds for clinically significant lymphadenopathy

A

Adult >1cm or 1.5cm at level 2
Child > 2cm

Or any node that is persistent and has associated head and neck symptoms

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2
Q

Outline 6 potential bacterial causes of cervical lymphadenopathy

A
  1. Streptococcus Group A
  2. Staph Aureus
  3. Strep Pneumonia
  4. Anaerobes e.g. Fusobacterium (teeth)
  5. Bartonella - cat scratch disease
  6. Note - Toxoplasmosis is a parasitic infection not a bacteria!
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3
Q

Name the 4 main viral causes of cervical lymphadenopathy

A
  1. Adenovirus
  2. Rhinovirus
  3. Coxsackie viruses A and B
  4. EBV
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4
Q

Name the most commonly implicated organism in atypical TB infection

A

Mycobacterium avium

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5
Q

Outline the 4 most common types of metastatic nodes found in the neck

A
  1. Mucosal squamous carcinoma
  2. Thyroid cancer
  3. Salivary gland cancer
  4. Skin cancer (squamous or melanoma)
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6
Q

Recall the 5 main types of cancer which may metastasise to the cervical lymph nodes

A
  1. Breast
  2. Stomach
  3. Lung
  4. Pancreas
  5. Thyroid
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7
Q

Recall the cell types that characterised Hodgkin’s and Non Hodgkin’s lymphoma respectively

A

Hodgkin’s - Reid Sternberg cells

Non Hodgkin’s - Diffuse or nodular abnormal lymphocytes

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8
Q

Give an example of a low grade non hodgkin’s lymphoma

A

Follicular lymphomas

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9
Q

Give 2 examples of high grade non hodgkin lymphomas

A
  1. Diffuse large B cell lymphoma

2. Burkitt’s lymphoma

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10
Q

Outline the 4 clinical stages of lymphoma

A

Stage 1 - One group of lymph nodes is affected
Stage 2 - Two or more groups of nodes are affected, but the lymphoma is restricted to one side of the diaphragm only
Stage 3 - Lymphadenopathy is evident both above and below the diaphragm
Stage 4 - The lymphoma has spread beyond the lymph nodes to other organs e.g. Spleen, bone marrow, liver or lungs

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11
Q

Define Reed-Sternberg cells

A

Large cells that are either multinucleated cells or have bilobed nuclei - characteristically seen in Hodgkin’s lymphoma

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12
Q

Outline the bimodal distribution of Hodgkin’s Lymphoma

A

Seen in patients between 15-30 years of age or those older than 50 yrs

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13
Q

Outline the 4 principle histological stages of Hodgkin’s lymphoma

A
  1. Lymphoctye predominant
  2. Nodular sclerosis
  3. Mixed cellularity
  4. Lymphocyte depleted
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14
Q

What is the most common symptom associated with Hodgkin’s lymphoma?

A

Painless lymphadenopathy

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15
Q

Recall the ‘B symptoms’

A
  1. Fever
  2. Weight loss
  3. Night sweats
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16
Q

Define the term leukaemia

A

Malignant neoplastic process involving one of the white blood cell lines

17
Q

Myeloid leukaemia involved what type of white blood cell?

A

Neutrophils

18
Q

Name the 2 most common forms of leukaemia in children and young adults

A

AML - Acute myeloid leukaemia

ALL - Acute lymphocytic leukaemia

19
Q

Suggest 3 potential risk factors for the development of lymphoma

A
  1. Family history
  2. Reduced immunity
  3. Infection (EBV)
20
Q

Suggest 4 differentials for the development of purpuric/echymotic rashes

A
  1. TTP - Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura
  2. HUS - Haemolytic uraemia syndrome
  3. Infections e.g. meningioccocal sepsis
  4. Haemotalogical malignancy e.g. leukaemia
21
Q

Name the immunotherapy agent used in the treatment of diffuse large B cell lymphoma

A

Rituximab

22
Q

What are the FBC derangements associated with multiple myeloma?

A
  1. Anemia

2. Thrombocytopenia

23
Q

Briefly outline the classical presentation of multiple myeloma

A

Older patient with significant back pain that is associated with anemia and hypercalcaemia

24
Q

What are Bence Jones proteins?

A

Monoclonal globulins that may be detected in the urine and are pathognomonic of multiple myeloma