Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Modules > Final Of CPT > Flashcards

Final Of CPT Flashcards

1
Q 
In which of the following structures are water and chemicals exchanged between the blood and tissues?
Select one:
a. Venules
b. Sinoatrial node
c. Atrioventricular node
d. Capillaries
A

d. Capillaries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q 
Horizontal abduction involves the movement of the arm or thigh in the transverse plane from which of the following positions to a lateral position?
Select one:
a. Ipsilateral
b. Anterior
c. Inferior
d. Posterior
A

b. Anterior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Metabolic syndrome is a cluster of symptoms characterized by what conditions?
Select one:
a. Hyperthyroidism, sarcoidosis, sarcopenia, hypotension
b. Obesity, insulin resistance, hypertension, dyslipidemia
c. Plantar fasciitis, Achilles tendonitis, sciatica, biceps tendinopathy
d. Osteoporosis, osteopenia, osteoarthritis, osteomyelitis

A

b. Obesity, insulin resistance, hypertension, dyslipidemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

The rate of force production relates to the ability of muscles to do which of the following?
Select one:
a. Decrease the reaction time of the muscle action spectrum
b. Exert maximal force output in a minimal amount of time
c. Release energy in a controlled manner
d. React to a stimulus without hesitation

A

b. Exert maximal force output in a minimal amount of time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q 
What is the highest average daily nutrient intake level likely to pose no risk of adverse health affects to almost all individuals in a particular life stage and gender group?
Select one:
a. Adequate Intake
b. Recommended Dietary Allowance
c. Estimated Average Requirement
d. Tolerable Upper Intake Level
A

d. Tolerable Upper Intake Level

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q 
What term describes the act of synergists taking over function for a weak or inhibited prime mover?
Select one:
a. Altered reciprocal inhibition
b. Autogenic inhibition
c. Arthrokinetic dysfunction
d. Synergistic dominance
A

d. Synergistic dominance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

In which of the following scenarios would energy be mostly derived from anaerobic metabolism?
Select one:
a. When an athlete begins an activity
b. When an athlete is in a steady state or at rest
c. When an athlete experiences temporary fatigue
d. When an athlete reduces the duration of an activity

A

a. When an athlete begins an activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q 
Which of the following represents the pressure within the arterial system when the heart is resting and filling with blood?
Select one:
a. Systolic
b. Diastolic
c. Medial
d. Distal
A

b. Diastolic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q 
What is produced primarily in the ovaries in the female and in small amounts in the adrenal glands in males?
Select one:
a. Estrogen
b. Epinephrine
c. Cortisol
d. Testosterone
A

a. Estrogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q 
Decreased levels of thyroid hormones tend to cause a decrease in which of the following?
Select one:
a. Systolic blood pressure
b. Resting heart rate
c. Diastolic blood pressure
d. Resting metabolic rate
A

d. Resting metabolic rate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q 
What is the functional unit of the nervous system?
Select one:
a. Neuron
b. Cartilage
c. Tendon
d. Vein
A

a. Neuron

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q 
Which muscle is responsible for concentrically accelerating plantar flexion?
Select one:
a. Gastrocnemius
b. Bicep femoris
c. Semitendinosis
d. Anterior tibialis
A

a. Gastrocnemius

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

The force-velocity curve describes the relationship between which of the following?
Select one:
a. Muscle force and the velocity of contraction
b. Work and energy production
c. Torque production and inertia
d. Mass and volume

A

a. Muscle force and the velocity of contraction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q 
What is a high-protein diet commonly associated with?
Select one:
a. A decrease in urea production
b. A decreased risk of dehydration
c. An increase in fiber intake
d. A decrease in glycogen stores
A

d. A decrease in glycogen stores

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q 
Which term refers to an imaginary bisector that divides the body into front and back halves?
Select one:
a. Frontal plane
b. Sagittal plane
c. Axial plane
d. Transverse plane
A

a. Frontal plane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is a basic nutritional recommendation for clients who want to gain lean body mass?
Select one:
a. Eat 4 to 6 meals per day.
b. Ingest protein and fat within 120 min of a workout.
c. Consume sports drinks when exercising for less than 60 min.
d. Eat mostly protein.

A

a. Eat 4 to 6 meals per day.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q 
What refers to a position away from the center of the body or the point of reference?
Select one:
a. Contralateral
b. Ipsilateral
c. Distal
d. Inferior
A

c. Distal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q 
With which of the following terms is eccentric motion synonymous?
Select one:
a. Acceleration
b. Deceleration 
c. Constant force
d. Constant length
A

b. Deceleration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q 
In the endocrine system, which of the following secretes hormones such as corticosteroids and catecholamines in response to stress?
Select one:
a. Pineal gland
b. Hypothalamus
c. Thyroid gland
d. Adrenal gland
A

d. Adrenal gland

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q 
Where is the right foot in relation to the left hand?
Select one:
a. Contralateral
b. Proximal
c. Posterior
d. Medial
A

a. Contralateral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q 
What time is most effective to have your clients take their resting heart rate?
Select one:
a. Before a workout
b. After waking-up
c. Before bedtime
d. After a workout
A

b. After waking-up

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q 
When assessing a client's overhead squat, which of the following is an indication of overactivity in the lateral gastrocnemius?
Select one:
a. Low back arches
b. Arms fall forward
c. External rotation of the feet
d. Knees move inward
A

c. External rotation of the feet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q 
Which of the following assessments will best allow the personal trainer to view potential postural imbalances surrounding the feet, ankles, knees, lumbo-pelvic-hip complex (LPHC), shoulder, and cervical complex?
Select one:
a. Davies test
b. Pulling assessment
c. Overhead squat assessment
d. Shark skill test
A

c. Overhead squat assessment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q 
Which of the following is a formula that determines a client's target heart rate during exercise?
Select one:
a. Heart rate reserve (HRR) method
b. VO2 Reserve Method
c. Peak Maximal Heart Rate Method
d. Peak Metabolic Equivalent Method
A

a. Heart rate reserve (HRR) method

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Which of the following is the appropriate protocol with a client who has coronary heart disease, is obese, and is beginning an exercise program after receiving clearance from her physician?
Select one:
a. Implement a 4-2-1 repetition tempo
b. Use prediction formulas to estimate the client’s max heart rate
c. Use the talk test to measure an exercise’s intensity
d. Employ plyometric-stabilization training

A

c. Use the talk test to measure an exercise’s intensity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

The Durnin-Womersley formula’s four sites of skinfold measurement include which of the following anatomic locations?
Select one:
a. Supraspinale, anterior deltoid, thoracolumbar fascia, and hamstring
b. Calf, gluteal, adductor, and oblique
c. Biceps, triceps, subscapular, and iliac crest
d. Chest, midaxillary, abdominal, and thigh

A

c. Biceps, triceps, subscapular, and iliac crest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q 
Which of the following is the correct number to subtract age from when calculating a person's estimated maximal heart rate?
Select one:
a. 200
b. 220
c. 210
d. 230
A

b. 220

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Which of the following is considered a subjective assessment?
Select one:
a. Blood pressure test
b. Heart rate test
c. Static posture assessment
d. Lifestyle and medical history questionnaire

A

d. Lifestyle and medical history questionnaire

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q 
During a standing pulling assessment, a client compensates by moving his head forward. Which of the following static stretches would be appropriate for this client?
Select one:
a. Levator scapulae
b. Latissimus dorsi
c. Piriformis
d. Erector spinae
A

a. Levator scapulae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q 
A client is taking prescription beta blockers for hypertension. Which of the following exercises is safe for him to perform?
Select one:
a. Reverse crunch
b. Floor bridge
c. Knee-up
d. Standing cobra
A

d. Standing cobra

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q 
Which assessment should a personal trainer use to determine the heart rate zone a client should begin training at?
Select one:
a. L.E.F.T. test
b. YMCA step test 
c. Davies test
d. Shark skill test
A

b. YMCA step test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q 
Which assessment tests for speed, explosion, body control, and agility?
Select one:
a. L.E.F.T. test
b. Pro shuttle test 
c. 40-yard dash
d. Gait assessment
A

b. Pro shuttle test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q 
A personal trainer is working with a 40-year-old client who is beginning a new exercise program. Using the straight percentage method, what is the client's estimated maximal heart rate?
Select one:
a. 180 beats/min
b. 150 beats/min
c. 170 beats/min
d. 160 beats/min
A

a. 180 beats/min

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q 
Which of the following requires a client to perform cardiorespiratory exericse at maximal effort while monitoring ventilation response?
Select one:
a. VO2rest method
b. Peak VO2 method
c. Karvonen method
d. Straight percentage method
A

b. Peak VO2 method

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Which of the following was designed to determine the safety or possible risk of exercise for a client based on the answers to specific health history questions?
Select one:
a. Physical Activity Readiness Questionnaire (PAR-Q)
b. McGill Pain Questionnaire
c. Remote Associates Test (RAT)
d. Inhibitory control test

A

a. Physical Activity Readiness Questionnaire (PAR-Q)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

During a static postural assessment, a personal trainer observes that a client has protracted shoulders and a forward head. Which of the following muscles is most likely to be shortened?
Select one:
a. Sternocleidomastoid and pectoralis major
b. Lower trapezius and rhomboids
c. Serratus anterior and infraspinatus
d. Teres minor and posterior deltoid

A

a. Sternocleidomastoid and pectoralis major

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q 
What is the effect of beta-blockers on the heart?
Select one:
a. They have no effect on the heartbeat.
b. They stop the heartbeat.
c. They increase the heart rate.
d. They decrease the heart rate.
A

d. They decrease the heart rate.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q 
Which method of cardio should be avoided for a client who demonstrates low-back arching as a movement compensation?
Select one:
a. Bicycles
b. Group exercise classes
c. Elliptical trainers
d. Treadmills
A

a. Bicycles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q 
During a static postural assessment, a personal trainer observes that a client has pronated feet, as well as adducted and internally rotated knees. Which muscles would he or she expect to be shortened?
Select one:
a. Gluteus medius
b. Gluteus maximus
c. Adductors
d. Hip external rotators
A

c. Adductors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q 
Which of the following is considered subjective information?
Select one:
a. Taking radial pulse
b. Overhead squat assessment
c. Circumference measurements
d. Lifestyle questions
A

d. Lifestyle questions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q 
n a client with lower crossed syndrome, which of the following muscles is most likely lengthened?
Select one:
a. Soleus
b. Internal oblique 
c. Erector spinae
d. Gastrocnemius
A

b. Internal oblique

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q 
A client who has been training at high intensities in preparation for a triathlon reports joint pain, excess fatigue, and the inability to sustain normal workouts. In which stage of the general adaptation syndrome is this client?
Select one:
a. Exhaustion
b. Resistance development
c. Overtraining
d. Alarm reaction
A

a. Exhaustion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q 
Which of the following is appropriate at the Stabilization Level (Phase 1) of the OPT model?
Select one:
a. Functional flexibility
b. Passive flexibility
c. Corrective flexibility
d. Active flexibility
A

c. Corrective flexibility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q 
According to the Optimum Performance Training (OPT) model, which of the following corresponds to the first phase of training?
Select one:
a. Hypertrophy training
b. Power training
c. Maximal strength training
d. Stabilization endurance training
A

d. Stabilization endurance training

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Which of the following best describes when a person is ready to move to stage II cardiorespiratory training from stage I?
Select one:
a. Client can maintain a zone 1 heart rate for 10 minutes.
b. Client can maintain a zone 1 heart rate for 20 minutes.
c. Client can maintain a zone 1 heart rate for 30 minutes.
d. Client can maintain a zone 1 heart rate for 15 minutes.

A

c. Client can maintain a zone 1 heart rate for 30 minutes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q 
Which of the following are the most fundamental components of designing a training program, determining the amount of stress placed on the body as well as which adaptations the body will incur?
Select one:
a. Power adaptations
b. Formed elements
c. Motor units
d. Acute variables
A

d. Acute variables

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Which of the following statements is correct about the position of the foot and ankle complex during running movements?
Select one:
a. The foot and ankle should be pointing straight ahead in a plantarflexed position when it hits the ground.
b. The foot and ankle should be pointing straight ahead in a dorsiflexed position in the air.
c. The foot and ankle should be pointing straight ahead in a plantarflexed position in the air.
d. The foot and ankle should be pointing straight ahead in a dorsiflexed position when it hits the ground.

A

d. The foot and ankle should be pointing straight ahead in a dorsiflexed position when it hits the ground.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q 
A client finishes four weeks of a Phase 4 OPT program. Which of the following adaptations is most likely to occur?
Select one:
a. Increased muscular endurance
b. Increased V02 max
c. Increased maximal strength
d. Increased aerobic capacity
A

c. Increased maximal strength

49
Q 
Power training is done in which phase of the Optimum Performance Training (OPT) model?
Select one:
a. Phase 5
b. Phase 2
c. Phase 1
d. Phase 4
A

a. Phase 5

50
Q 
A fitness professional is training a beginner client who has never tried resistance training. How many exercises per body part is most appropriate?
Select one:
a. 1-2
b. 5-6
c. 4
d. 3
A

a. 1-2

51
Q 
When working with loads exceeding 90 percent of maximum, a client would not exceed a workout volume of?
Select one:
a. 20 reps
b. 10 reps
c. 30 reps
d. 60 reps
A

c. 30 reps

52
Q

A client has been training three times per week in the Hypertrophy Phase of the OPT model for the last two weeks. He has worked with a repetition range of 8 to 12 repetitions, at an intensity of 80% to 85%, and rested for 20 to 30 seconds in between each exercise. He is no longer improving his strength and has expressed feeling fatigued. Which of the following modifications should be made to minimize the effects of overtraining?
Select one:
a. 5 repetitions, 90% intensity, and rest for 20 seconds in between each exercise
b. 3 repetitions, 95% intensity, and rest for 30 seconds in between each exercise
c. 8 repetitions, 75% intensity, and rest for 60 seconds in between each exercise
d. 15 repetitions, 100% intensity, and rest for 3 minutes in between each exercise

A

c. 8 repetitions, 75% intensity, and rest for 60 seconds in between each exercise

53
Q 
Which of the following is a stage of the OPT model specific for the adaptation of maximal muscle growth, focusing on high levels of volume with minimal rest periods to force cellular changes that result in an overall increase in muscle size?
Select one:
a. Stabilization endurance training
b. Hypertrophy training
c. Power training
d. Maximal strength training
A

b. Hypertrophy training

54
Q 
An advanced client who is interested in gaining high levels of muscle mass would benefit most from which of the following resistance-training systems?
Select one:
a. Superset system
b. Peripheral heart action
c. Single-set training
d. Circuit training
A

a. Superset system

55
Q 
Which of the following exercises is also a dynamic stretch?
Select one:
a. Active latissimus dorsi ball stretch
b. Single-leg squat touchdown 
c. Step-up to balance
d. Static 90/90 hamstring stretch
A

b. Single-leg squat touchdown

56
Q

How can a personal trainer provide uncompromising customer service?
Select one:
a. Express ideas well through verbal communication.
b. Take complaints and pass them onto the front desk.
c. Give the impression that a question is inconvenient.
d. Avoid opportunities to create moments that strengthen professional relationships.

A

a. Express ideas well through verbal communication.

57
Q

What is the focus in stage II of cardiorespiratory training?
Select one:
a. Increasing capacity needed for Strength-Level exercise
b. Reducing heart rate through interval training
c. Increasing capacity needed for Power-Level exercise
d. Reducing the speed, incline, or level

A

a. Increasing capacity needed for Strength-Level exercise

58
Q 
Which of the following is the appropriate tempo for a core exercise when training for hypertrophy?
Select one:
a. Slow
b. Medium
c. Explosive
d. Fast
A

b. Medium

59
Q 
Which of the following refers to a weekly training program?
Select one:
a. Macrocycle
b. Metacycle
c. Microcycle
d. Mesocycle
A

c. Microcycle

60
Q

The adaptation of stabilization endurance is achieved by which of the following?
Select one:
a. 1-10 repetitions at 30% to 45% of the 1RM
b. 12-20 repetitions at 50-70% of 1RM
c. 8-10 repetitions at 75-85% of 1RM
d. 1-5 repetitions at 85-100% of 1RM

A

b. 12-20 repetitions at 50-70% of 1RM

61
Q 
Which of the following is an example of a core-power exercise?
Select one:
a. Marching
b. Reverse crunch
c. Ball medicine ball pullover throw
d. Back extension
A

c. Ball medicine ball pullover throw

62
Q 
During a client's static postural assessment, he exhibits pronation distortion syndrome. Which of the following muscles requires static stretching?
Select one:
a. Erector spinae
b. Scalene
c. Gastrocnemius
d. Pectoral
A

c. Gastrocnemius

63
Q 
Which of the following exercises is the most effective at improving dynamic stabilization, concentric strength, eccentric strength, and neuromuscular efficiency of the entire kinetic chain?
Select one:
a. Supported dumbbell row
b. Reverse crunch
c. Prone iso-abs
d. Dumbbell snatch
A

b. Reverse crunch

64
Q 
The adaptation of muscular hypertrophy is best achieved using which of the following repetition tempos?
Select one:
a. 4/2/1
b. 2/0/2
c. X/X/X
d. 1/1/1
A

b. 2/0/2

65
Q 
High-volume training with low intensity increases which of the following?
Select one:
a. Motor unit synchronization
b. Rate of force production
c. Metabolic rate
d. Motor unit recruitment
A

c. Metabolic rate

66
Q 
A client receives a training plan that spans an entire year. Which of the following is the correct term for this type of plan?
Select one:
a. Metacycle
b. Macrocycle
c. Mesocycle
d. Microcycle
A

b. Macrocycle

67
Q

Which of the following is a balance-strength exercise that requires an individual to step forward with toes pointing straight ahead and then pushing off of the front foot through heel onto the back leg and maintain balance on the back leg?
Select one:
a. Lunge to balance
b. Single-leg box hop-up with stabilization
c. Step-up to balance
d. Single-leg box hop-down with stabilization

A

a. Lunge to balance

68
Q 
When performing a peripheral heart action workout, which exercise MOST appropriately follows a barbell squat?
Select one:
a. Single-leg cable row
b. Seated row
c. Squat jump
d. Romanian deadlift
A

b. Seated row

69
Q 
When performed as fast and as explosively as possible, ice skaters are categorized in which of the following phases?
Select one:
a. Power
b. Maximal Strength
c. Strength Endurance
d. Stabilization Endurance
A

a. Power

70
Q

Which is the best approach for avoiding activation of the adductors during a floor bridge?
Select one:
a. The feet should be wider than hip-width apart and straight ahead
b. The feet should be hip-width apart and turned out
c. The feet should be hip-width apart and straight ahead
d. The feet should be together and pointed straight ahead

A

c. The feet should be hip-width apart and straight ahead

71
Q 
Which of the following involves the entire muscle action spectrum and contraction-velocity spectrum used during integrated, functional movements?
Select one:
a. Plyometric-power training 
b. Reactive-speed training
c. Reactive-modification training
d. Reactive-stabilization training
A

a. Plyometric-power training

72
Q 
When performing the single-leg dumbbell scaption, what is the immediate regression?
Select one:
a. Two legs
b. Single-leg, single-arm
c. Alternating arm
d. Seated
A

a. Two legs

73
Q 
Which balance-stabilization exercise is when an individual lifts one leg while maintaining the optimal alignment including level hips and shoulders, and then lifts a medicine ball in a diagonal pattern until the medicine ball is overhead?
Select one:
a. Single-leg lunge reach
b. Single-leg throw and catch
c. Single-leg lift and chop
d. Single-leg hip rotation
A

c. Single-leg lift and chop

74
Q 
Which of the following differs from a barbell or a medicine ball in that the center of mass is away from the handle?
Select one:
a. Dumbbell
b. Wall bar
c. Pull-up bar
d. Kettlebell
A

d. Kettlebell

75
Q 
What technique uses a co-contraction of global muscles to enhance global trunk stability?
Select one:
a. Bracing Correct
b. Horizontal adduction
c. Extension
d. Flexion
A

a. Bracing

76
Q 
Which of the following should be retracted and depressed during the mid phase of a standing cable row?
Select one:
a. Patellae
b. Clavicles
c. Scapulae
d. Femurs
A

c. Scapulae

77
Q

Which of the following is a true statement about circuit training?
Select one:
a. It is ideal for achieving hypertrophy.
b. It typically involves a high number of sets.
c. It is usually done with a 3-minute rest period in between exercises.
d. It involves a series of exercises that can be performed one after another.

A

d. It involves a series of exercises that can be performed one after another.

78
Q 
In order to most effectively target the tensor fascia latae (TFL) while standing, a client's back leg should be in which of the following positions?
Select one:
a. Adducted 90°
b. Internally rotated
c. Abducted 90°
d. Externally rotated
A

d. Externally rotated

79
Q

What is the immediate progression of an alternating-arm ball dumbbell chest press?
Select one:
a. Alternating-arm dumbbell chest press on bench
b. Two-arm ball dumbbell chest press
c. Single-arm ball dumbbell chest press
d. Barbell bench press

A

c. Single-arm ball dumbbell chest press

80
Q 
Layla is in the third trimester of her pregnancy. What should be avoided when performing SMR with Layla?
Select one:
a. Trigger points
b. Seated positions
c. Prone or supine positions
d. Standing positions
A

c. Prone or supine positions

81
Q 
What should a client foam roll to effectively target the piriformis when performing self-myofascial release?
Select one:
a. Posterior hip
b. Axillary region
c. Inner thigh
d. Lateral thigh
A

a. Posterior hip

82
Q 
A multiplanar single-leg box hop-up with stabilization is categorized as an exercise in which of the following?
Select one:
a. Balance-stabilization
b. Leg-stabilization
c. Leg-power
d. Balance-power
A

d. Balance-power

83
Q 
In order to properly stretch the hamstring during the active supine biceps femoris stretch, a client will need to contract which of the following during knee extension?
Select one:
a. Adductors
b. Gluteus maximus
c. Quadriceps
d. Gastrocnemius
A

c. Quadriceps

84
Q 
A client reports acute soreness and tightness in her calf muscle after a long run. She describes feeling knots in the muscle. Which of the following flexibility techniques should the client use first?
Select one:
a. Active-isolated stretching
b. Static stretching
c. Self-myofascial release
d. Dynamic stretching
A

c. Self-myofascial release

85
Q 
A personal trainer is working with a client who is having trouble performing a single-leg balance on a foam pad. Which of the following balance training modalities is appropriate for this client?
Select one:
a. A wobble board
b. A half foam roll
c. BOSU ball
d. Balance disk
A

b. A half foam roll

86
Q

During sprinting, backside mechanics includes which of the following motions?
Select one:
a. Ankle inversion, knee abduction, and hip external rotation
b. Ankle plantarflexion, knee extension, and hip extension
c. Ankle dorsiflexion, knee flexion, and hip flexion
d. Ankle eversion, knee adduction, and hip internal rotation

A

b. Ankle plantarflexion, knee extension, and hip extension

87
Q

When training for speed, agility, and quickness, the foot and ankle complex should be in which of the following positions when it hits the ground?
Select one:
a. Pointing straight ahead and plantar flexed
b. Externally rotated and dorsiflexed
c. Internally rotated and plantar flexed
d. Pointing straight ahead and dorsiflexed

A

d. Pointing straight ahead and dorsiflexed

88
Q 
n which phase of the OPT model would ice skaters be an appropriate exercise?
Select one:
a. Phase 5: Power
b. Phase 4: Maximal Strength
c. Phase 2: Strength Endurance
d. Phase 1: Stabilization Endurance
A

a. Phase 5: Power

89
Q 
What is the process of passively taking a muscle to the point of tension and holding the stretch for a minimum of 30 seconds?
Select one:
a. Neuromuscular stretching
b. Static stretching
c. Dynamic stretching
d. Active-isolated stretching
A

b. Static stretching

90
Q 
What is a multiplanar single-leg box hop-up with stabilization an example of?
Select one:
a. Balance-modification exercise
b. Balance-power exercise
c. Balance-strength exercise
d. Balance-stabilization exercise
A

b. Balance-power exercise

91
Q

Which of the following is the most appropriate spotting technique for a dumbbell chest press?
Select one:
a. Place the hands just under the client’s dumbbells.
b. Place the hands just under the client’s elbows.
c. Place the hands close to the client’s wrists.
d. Place hands just under the client’s triceps.

A

c. Place the hands close to the client’s wrists.

92
Q 
When performing the static latissimus dorsi ball stretch, which of the following is a correct body position?
Select one:
a. 90° internally rotated humerus
b. Posteriorly rotated pelvis
c. 90° horizontally abducted humerus
d. Anteriorly rotated pelvis
A

b. Posteriorly rotated pelvis

93
Q 
Which of the following is about having an attitude of genuine interest in seeking a clients perspective?
Select one:
a. Asking questions
b. Reflecting
c. Summarizing
d. Active listening
A

d. Active listening

94
Q

Sam has joined a gym and has set himself a goal of losing 60 pounds in one year. After three months he has only lost three pounds. Which of the following actions should Sam take?
Select one:
a. Change his long-term goal from 60 pounds to 70 pounds.
b. Enroll in an additional program with a different trainer.
c. Take a break for six months and then resume the program.
d. Adjust his goal to be more realistic.

A

d. Adjust his goal to be more realistic.

95
Q 
What is a client's strongest source of self-confidence?
Select one:
a. Modeling
b. Imagery
c. Verbal persuasion
d. Performance accomplishments
A

d. Performance accomplishments

96
Q 
What type of support is expressed through encouragement, caring, empathy, and concern?
Select one:
a. Informational support
b. Companionship support
c. Emotional support
d. Instrumental support
A

c. Emotional support

97
Q

A client is considering starting an exercise program in the next 6 months. Which of the following is the best strategy a personal trainer can use to help her progress into the preparation section of the stages of change model?
Select one:
a. Describe personal fitness-related triumphs to encourage the client to exercise.
b. Provide the client with easy-to-read education materials about the benefits of exercise.
c. Compare the client’s body to a fitness model to help provide motivation to begin.
d. Insist the client begin an exercise program for her own good.

A

b. Provide the client with easy-to-read education materials about the benefits of exercise.

98
Q

According to the stages of change model of behavior change, which of the following is true of individuals in the action stage?
Select one:
a. They are usually stuck in the same stage for a period of two years.
b. It is important to anticipate upcoming disruptions.
c. They exhibit complete self-control.
d. They are highly unlikely to reach the termination stage.

A

b. It is important to anticipate upcoming disruptions.

99
Q 
What is the fourth step in the stages of change model?
Select one:
a. Precontemplation
b. Preparation
c. Action
d. Contemplation
A

c. Action

100
Q

In which of the following scenarios is a trainer encouraging a client to practice self-monitoring?
Select one:
a. Help a client come up with a list of songs that will help motivate him to exercise.
b. Teach a client to imagine himself performing a barbell squat with greater confidence.
c. Have a client keep an exercise log on a calendar to help keep him motivated.
d. Train a client to notice negative thoughts and replace those thoughts with positive ones.

A

c. Have a client keep an exercise log on a calendar to help keep him motivated.

101
Q 
In the stages of change model, which of the following corresponds to a stage where people do occasionally exercise but are planning to begin exercising regularly in the next month?
Select one:
a. Action
b. Preparation
c. Contemplation
d. Precontemplation
A

b. Preparation

102
Q 
What cognitive-behavior approach involves thoughts influencing behavior?
Select one:
a. Extrinsic
b. Social support
c. Association and dissociation
d. Intrinsic
A

c. Association and dissociation

103
Q

Which of the following scenarios best demonstrates a trainer’s skills at encouraging a client to practice self-monitoring?
Select one:
a. Teach a client to imagine himself performing a barbell squat with greater confidence.
b. Have a client keep an exercise log on a calendar to help build self-confidence.
c. Train a client to notice negative thoughts and replace those thoughts with positive ones.
d. Help a client come up with a list of songs that will help motivate him to exercise.

A

b. Have a client keep an exercise log on a calendar to help build self-confidence.

104
Q 
What are influences that involves cohesion in an exercise setting?
Select one:
a. Parental
b. Family
c. Exercise leader
d. Exercise group
A

d. Exercise group

105
Q 
A client is losing motivation to exercise, so his trainer recommends spending time before his next session reflecting on the feelings of accomplishment, sounds, and smells experienced during his last session. This is an example of which of the following?
Select one:
a. Imagery
b. Self-monitoring
c. Remodeling
d. Diffusion
A

a. Imagery

106
Q

Which of the following is involved in active listening?
Select one:
a. Using terminology specific to a certain industry
b. Multitasking while listening to the client
c. Communicating understanding
d. Encouraging the involvement of the client’s ego

A

c. Communicating understanding

107
Q 
Which of the following is a technique that expresses the purported meaning of what was just heard?
Select one:
a. Reflecting 
b. Remodeling
c. Asking questions
d. Active listening
A

a. Reflecting

108
Q

Which of the following is within scope of practice for a personal trainer?
Select one:
a. Providing diagnostic testing for clients
b. Prescribing nutrition plans
c. Referring to more qualified healthcare professionals
d. Diagnosing injuries

A

c. Referring to more qualified healthcare professionals

109
Q

Which of the following is outside of the personal trainer’s scope of practice, according the Code of Professional Conduct?
Select one:
a. Provide nutritional counseling for a client who exhibits signs of an eating disorder. Correct
b. Independently design training programs to correct muscle imbalances.
c. Provide flexibility training techniques to assist clients who display limited joint range of motion.
d. Inquire about current and past medications the client has been administered by a healthcare professional.

A

a. Provide nutritional counseling for a client who exhibits signs of an eating disorder.

110
Q 
A client is looking for a simple way to make bodyweight exercises more proprioceptively challenging. Which of the following modalities would be most appropriate for this?
Select one:
a. Barbells
b. Smith machine
c. Suspension trainer 
d. Resistance machine
A

c. Suspension trainer

111
Q 
Which of the following is a cognitive strategy to help change a client's thoughts and attitudes toward exercise?
Select one:
a. Imagery
b. Contemplation
c. Active listening
d. Goal setting
A

a. Imagery

112
Q 
What is the concept that integrates practice and experience for a relatively permanent change in motor control processes?
Select one:
a. Motor remodeling
b. Feedback learning
c. Motor learning
d. Sensorimotor integration
A

c. Motor learning

113
Q 
Charlotte is planning to start a new fitness club. Which of the following ideas should Charlotte focus on in her marketing mix to get the word out about her club?
Select one:
a. Place
b. Price
c. Promotion
d. Product
A

c. Promotion

114
Q

Which of the following actions falls within a personal trainer’s scope of practice regarding a client’s nutrition?
Select one:
a. Provide individual nutrition assessment.
b. Write individualized meal plans.
c. Recommend nutritional therapy.
d. Discuss food preparation methods.

A

d. Discuss food preparation methods.

115
Q 
How many CEUs are needed to recertify every two years?
Select one:
a. 2.0
b. 4.0
c. 3.0
d. 1.0
A

a. 2.0

116
Q 
A personal trainer provides his client with step-by-step instructions on how to perform a ball squat to shoulder press. Which type of support is this an example of?
Select one:
a. Companionship
b. Informational
c. Emotional
d. Instrumental
A

b. Informational

117
Q

Which of the following is true of personal trainers?
Select one:
a. They do not refer clients to other health care professionals or practitioners.
b. Certified personal trainers are qualified to apply or wrap ice or heat packs for clients.
c. Certified personal trainers hold a current emergency cardiac care certification.
d. Certified personal trainers ideally diagnose areas of pain or disease.

A

c. Certified personal trainers hold a current emergency cardiac care certification

118
Q 
Which of the four P's of the marketing mix involves communication strategies such as advertising, sales, and social media?
Select one:
a. Placement
b. Promotion
c. Price
d. Planning
A

b. Promotion

119
Q 
What is a way that a fitness professional can utilize social media to build their business?
Select one:
a. Product
b. Price
c. Place
d. Promotion
A

d. Promotion

Modules (10 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions