8-Tuberculosis Flashcards

1
Q

how TB is transmitted?

A
  • Spread by droplet nuclei
  • Expelled when person with infectious TB coughs, sneezes, speaks, or sings
  • Close contacts at highest risk of becoming infected
  • Transmission occurs from person with infectious TB disease (not latent TB infection)
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2
Q

Patients with latent TB can transmit the disease. True/False

A

False

Only active TB is transmitted

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3
Q

what is the epidemiology of TB?

A

1) Sex: ♂ > ♀ (2:1)
2) United States
- -The incidence of TB infection in the US has been slowly declining.
- -Foreign-born individuals (especially Asians and Hispanics) account for two-thirds of new TB cases.
3) Globally
- -A leading infectious cause of death worldwide
- -Despite ∼ 1 in 3 individuals being infected with TB worldwide, the overall incidence and prevalence have been declining.
- -Countries with the highest incidence of TB: India, Indonesia, China, Nigeria, Pakistan, and South Africa
4) The incidence of multidrug-resistant tuberculosis is steadily rising.

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4
Q

what are the general microbiological features of mycobacteria?

A
  • -Nonmotile, aerobic, gram-positive, acid-fast bacilli with a rich lipid cell wall
  • -Resistance: survives in aerosols, even over long distances
  • -Acid-fast: able to survive in gastric secretions
  • -Complex waxy, resistant cell walls increase the resistance to antimicrobial medication → Antibiotics only have an effect if used in combination over a long period of time.
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5
Q

MTB is G+ or G-?

A

The mycobacterial cell wall, despite having gram-positive characteristics, does not stain on culture due to unique features in the cell wall structure. Nevertheless, it is classified as a gram-positive bacilli.

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6
Q

what are the risk factors of TB?

A
  • Originating/living in a country where TB is endemic
  • Previous history of TB or exposure to TB
  • HIV/AIDS
  • Socioeconomic issues
  • Overcrowding, institutions, prisons
  • Lifestyle/drug abuse/alcoholism
  • Other medical conditions e.g. Diabetes, lung amage (COPD)
  • Immunosuppressive medications
  • TNF inhibitors
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7
Q

what are the TB symptoms?

A
  • Cough
  • Fever
  • Night sweats
  • Weight loss
  • Haemoptysis
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8
Q

what is the classification of TB?

A

1) TB infection; no active disease:
- -Positive tuberculin skin test
- -No clinical, bacteriological, or radiographic evidence of TB
- -Consider chemoprophylaxis in certain patients in this group
2) TB infection; active disease, clinical evidence:
- -Positive tuberculin skin test OR positive M. tuberculosis culture (if done)
- -Clinical and radiographic evidence of TB
3) TB not clinically active
- -History of episodes of TB OR
- -Abnormal but stable radiological changes; positive tuberculin skin test; negative M. tuberculosis culture
- -May have completed chemoprophylaxis therapy; may never have received therapy before or may be completing chemoprophylaxis currently.

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9
Q

what is the latent TB?

A
  • -Definition: primary infection without any pathological findings on radiological imaging; however, screening tests indicating previous infection with M. tuberculosis are positive.
  • -The lifetime risk of reactivation TB for a person with LTBI is about 5–10%.
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10
Q

clinical history taking of patients with suspected TB should include?

A
1)Cough
•	Dry or productive – not specific 
•	Sputum color – not specific
•	Duration – weeks to months - ­ suspicion
•	Unresponsive/ partially responsive to standard antibiotics
2)Haemoptysis
•	Mild to moderate
•	Intermittent
•	Painless
**Similar to lung ca
3)Fever
•	Spiking temperature
•	PUO – raises the suspicion of TB
4)Night sweats
•	Drenching sweats
5)Shortness of breath
•	Generally only if underlying respiratory disease e.g. COPD
•	Occurs if there is a pleural effusion
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11
Q

what are the possible physical examination signs of the patient with TB?

A
  • None
  • Weight loss
  • Pleural effusion
  • Lymphadenopathy
  • Clubbing
  • Monoarthropathy
  • Erythema nodosum
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12
Q

what is digital clubbing?

A

A physical finding characterized by painless swelling of the distal phalanges. Often defined by an angle ≥ 180° between the base of the nail and its surrounding skin (Lovibond angle). The nailbed often feels spongy when pressed and springs back when released. Typically associated with chronic hypoxemia (e.g., cardiac shunts, interstitial lung disease, lung cancer, cystic fibrosis), though patients with COPD alone typically do not develop this finding. Thought to be due to fibrovascular proliferation in the region of the nail bed due to accumulation of megakaryocytes in digital vessels that are normally filtered in the lung.

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13
Q

what is the erythema nodosum?

A

An inflammation of subcutaneous fat caused by a delayed hypersensitivity reaction. Women in early adulthood are commonly affected. Most cases are idiopathic, but may be associated with infections and autoimmune disorders (e.g., ulcerative colitis).

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14
Q

what are the differential diagnoses of TB?

A
  • Lung cancer – similar symptoms – persistent cough, haemoptysis, weight loss, cavitating lung lesion (on CXR)
  • Sarcoidosis – radiological similarities – upper lobe infiltrates, lympadenopathy. Relatively asymptomatic.
  • Lymphoma – spiking fever, night sweats. Lymphadenopathy on imaging
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15
Q

what is the spectrum of disease of TB?

A
  • Pulmonary TB
  • Pleural TB
  • Extra-pulmonary TB – Bone, renal, skin, adenitis
  • Meningeal TB
  • Miliary TB
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16
Q

what is the pathophysiology of TB?

A

1) Alveolar macrophages (CD14+) phagocytose the TB bacteria but cannot eliminate them.
- -Cord factor (trehalose-6,6’-dimycolate): a glycolipid in the cell wall of M. tuberculosis that inhibits fusion of phagosome and lysosome, thereby preventing lysis of phagocytosed mycobacteria
- -By hiding inside the macrophages, TB bacteria do not provoke a humoral immune response (antibody production by B lymphocytes) in the host → therefore, antibody detection tests play no role in the diagnosis of TB.The mycobacteria replicate safely within the macrophages
- -Phagocytosed M. tuberculosis can only be destroyed by activated T lymphocytes.
2) The infection is usually contained in the lung by formation of caseating granulomas that limit damage to the lungs and bacterial dissemination.
- -Granuloma formation is caused by a delayed T cell-mediated reaction (i.e., type IV hypersensitivity reaction) that leads to the activation of alveolar macrophages (i.e., epithelioid cells) and their fusion into multinucleated giant cells.
- -The bacteria may remain dormant in the granulomas for many years without any active clinical disease manifesting (latent TB).
- -Immunosuppression (compromised T cell function) → dormant bacteria become active, replicate in the macrophages and spread into the lungs and other organs (active TB).
3) IFN-γ deficiency: impaired phagocytosis and impaired granuloma formation → disseminated TB

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17
Q

why phagocytes cannot digest MTB?

A

M. tuberculosis manipulates the host’s macrophages and arrests the normal progression of the phagosome, a compartment of the macrophage. Usually, phagosomal contents (e.g., intracellular bacteria) are destroyed when they are exposed to lysosomal hydrolases, reactive oxygen, and nitrogen.

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18
Q

what is the miliary TB?

A

Massive hematogenous dissemination of Mycobacterium tuberculosis bacilli from a pulmonary or extrapulmonary focus with multiple organ involvement. It commonly manifests with fevers and night sweats, weight loss, cough, and dyspnea. The term “miliary” refers to the characteristic chest x-ray findings of small, nodular densities of equal size that are scattered throughout the lungs (“millet seed” appearance) because the immune system has failed to properly isolate the pathogen.

19
Q

what is the probable cause of miliary TB?

A

– poor anti-mycobacterial immune response

• Likely due to Cytokine gene polymorphisms – low IL-10 , high IFN-g

20
Q

what are the TB investigations?

A
  • Sputum – ZN stain + TB culture
  • CXR
  • Mantoux test ( 2TU)
  • ESR
21
Q

what molecular techniques are used to diagnose TB?

A

• Nucleic acid amplification techniques are increasingly important in the diagnosis of TB e.g. PCR
• Rapid (90mins) diagnosis at point of care
• Can detect some drug resistant strains also
• Very important in the developing world
PCR can deliver results within 24–48 hours and is good at differentiating tuberculous from nontuberculous bacteria. It is increasingly common and should be performed for all patients with suspected TB.

22
Q

what are the CXR abnormalities in TB?

A

Abnormalities often seen in apical or posterior segments of upper lobe or superior segments of lower lobe
Classically – cavitating infiltrates
May have unusual appearance in HIV-positive persons
1)If reactivated disease: upper lobe cavitary lung lesions
2)If primary TB infection
–Cavitation is uncommon in primary TB
–Hilar lymphadenopathy
–Pleural effusions
–Ghon complex: sequelae of primary TB infection

23
Q

what is the Ghon complex?

A

Particularly common in children. Calcified granuloma usually in the middle to lower lobes with an associated lymph node; retains TB bacteria and therefore is a source of reinfection

24
Q

describe PPD test (Mantoux, or Tuberculin skin testing)

A

1) 5 units (= 0.1 mL) of purified protein derivative tuberculin is injected intradermally into the ventral surface of the lower arm. The diameter of the induration at the injection site is measured after 48–72 hours.
2) The test only becomes positive 6–8 weeks after infection
3) Limited specificity and sensitivity (∼ 70%)
- -False-negative results due to an inadequate T-cell response in immunocompromised, malnourished, or elderly patients
- -False-positive results in patients who have received the BCG vaccination or have an infection with nontuberculous mycobacteria

25
Q

what is the interpretation of PPD?

A

1) ≥ 5 mm, positive in:
- -HIV-positive patients
- -Recent contact with a TB-infected person
- -Signs of TB on chest x-ray
2) 10 mm positive in:
- -Patients with high risk of reactivation
- -IV drug use
- -Homelessness
- -Immigration from endemic country
- -Chronic illness (e.g., diabetes, kidney or lung disease, malignancy)
- -Occupation (health care or prison workers)
3) ≥ 15 mm, highly positive, may have partial blistering
- -Always considered positive, even without risk factors

26
Q

what are the causes of false-negative PPD test?

A
  • -anergy (e.g sarcoidosis)
  • -recent TB
  • -very young (< 6 month)
  • -BCG
  • -overwhelming TB disease
27
Q

how pulmonary TB is treated?

A
  1. Isoniazid, rifampicin, pyrazinamide, ethambutol × 2 months(RIPE)
  2. Isoniazid, rifampicin × 4 months
    * Total of 6 months treatment
    - -Initiation phase: 2 months of isoniazid + rifampin + pyrazinamide + ethambutol
    - -Continuation phase: 4 months of isoniazid + rifampin
28
Q

how extra-pulmonary TB is treated?

A

–Duration of Tx
9-12 months
–Corticosteroids
Neuro, miliary TB

29
Q

when steroids are used in TB?

A

Neuro, miliary TB

30
Q

what are the side effects of INH?

A
  • -Hepatotoxicity (acute hepatitis, chronic liver failure)
  • -Peripheral polyneuropathy and other symptoms of pyridoxine deficiency (e.g., stomatitis, glossitis, convulsions, and anemia)
  • -Optic neuritis
  • -Reduce side effects through simultaneous pyridoxine (vitamin B6) administration
31
Q

how do INH side effects need to be reduced?

A

Reduce side effects through simultaneous pyridoxine (vitamin B6) administration

32
Q

what are the rifampicin side effects?

A
  • -Hepatotoxic
  • -CYP-inducer (especially CYP3A4, CYP2C9)
  • -Red or orange body fluids (e.g., urine, tears)
33
Q

what are the pyrazinamide side effects?

A
  • -Hepatotoxicity
  • -Hyperuricemia (Reduced excretion of uric acid due to competitively antagonistic renal transit.)
  • -Arthralgia
  • -Myopathy
34
Q

what is the most important side effect of ethambutol?

A

Optic neuritis

35
Q

what are the side effects of streptomycin?

A

Adverse effects include nephrotoxicity, ototoxicity, vestibulotoxicity, and neuromuscular blockade.

36
Q

in case of hepatotoxicity during TB treatment, what are the management options?

A
  • Monitoring: Pretreatment LFT’s & 2 weeks after starting treatment
  • Discontinue all drugs when transaminases > 5´ normal
  • Reintroduce anti TB drugs individually and sequentially (every 2 weeks)
37
Q

what is the drug-resistant TB?

A

• MDR-TB : multi-drug resistant TB
– Resistance to at least Isoniazid & Rifampicin
• XDR-TB : extremely drug resistant TB
– Additionally resistant to three or more classes of 2nd line agents

38
Q

how latent TB is diagnosed?

A

Mantoux test
• Low specificity in BCG vaccinated patients
• Low sensitivity in immuno-compromised patients

Interferon g release assays
• T-SPOT.TB&QuantiFERON-TB Gold
– May reduce false positive & negatives inherent in the Mantoux skin test

39
Q

what is the IGRA (quantiferon)

A

ELISA test that measures the level of interferon-γ expressed by T cells after coming into contact with synthetic TB-specific peptides
Results available within 24 hours

40
Q

ha laent TB is treated?

A

9-month regimen considered optimal
• Pyridoxine (Vitamin B6)
Children should receive 9 months of therapy
Can be given twice-weekly if directly observed (DOT)
Alternative regimes:
• Rifampicin x 4/12
• Rifapentine& Isoniazid x 3/12 (DOT)
–Isoniazid monotherapy for 9 months in patients with positive interferon-γ and/or PPD test but without clinical signs of active TB
–Alternative regimens: 6 months of isoniazid, 4 months of rifampin, or 3 months of isoniazid and rifapentine

41
Q

what is the significance of TB in a patient with HIV?

A
B and AIDS each work to exacerbate the disease progression of the other!
•	A major cause of TB resurgence
•	HAART and Anti-TB drugs
–	Interactions
–	­ toxicity
–	Medication burden and compliance
–	Cost issues (in the developing world)
42
Q

how should be vaccinated by BCG?

A

Children with a negative TST and continued high-risk exposure (e.g., drug-resistant TB)
Health-care workers on an individual basis

43
Q

BCG is very effective in adult TB prevention. True/False

A

False
• Variable efficacy against adult pulmonary TB
• High efficacy against childhood TB meningitis and miliary TB
• Highly cost effective intervention in high incidence countries

44
Q

what are the contraindications to the BCG vaccine?

A
Contraindicated in immunosuppressed individuals e.g. 
•	 HIV infection
•	 Congenital immunodeficiency
•	 Leukemia
•	 Receiving chemotherapy etc.