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Airbus Stuff > System Questions 3 > Flashcards

System Questions 3 Flashcards

1
Q

One ILS receiver is combined with one GPS receiver to form a(n):

A

Multi-Mode Receiver (MMR).

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2
Q

According to the ND, what are VOR 1 and VOR 2 tuned to?

A

ODI

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3
Q

What information is VOR 2 telling the pilot?

A

Ground based transmitter failure

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4
Q

What is a red VOR 2 on the ND mean?

A

VOR 2 Receiver has failed

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5
Q

Which of the following is false?

A

ADR information is available even though the IR unit’’s rotary knob is switched to OFF.

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6
Q

The SRS (Speed Reference System) is a managed speed relating to what phase of flight?

A

Takeoff

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7
Q

What is the slowest airspeed that should be flown in the clean configuration?

A

Green Dot

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8
Q

If you are flying an ILS approach, what must you press on this EFIS panel?

A

LS pushbutton

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9
Q

You are flying an ILS approach and an amber “ILS” indication is flashing on your PFD. The flashing “ILS” indicates:

A

An ILS approach has been initiated, but the “LS” button is not pressed.

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10
Q

According to the FMA, the APPR button has been pressed and:

A

Glideslope and Localizer is armed

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11
Q

What do the arrows on the PFD indicate?

A

Associated receiver has failed in flight

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12
Q

Based on the FMA, how many Flight Directors are on?

A

2

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13
Q

Based on the RADIO NAV page:

A

VOR 1 is manually tuned

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14
Q

The yellow arrow is pointing to the M. This symbol on the ND indicates:

A

The VOR has been manually tuned

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15
Q

Based on the RADIO NAV, in the CRS field:

A

A course of 165 has been manually inserted in the Radio Nav page.

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16
Q

Pressing the guarded NAV button:

A

Inhibits all autotuning capability by the FMGCs.

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17
Q

Based on the ND displaying “R”:

A

VOR frequency is tuned with the RMP

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18
Q

How do you deselect standby tuning of the RMP?

A

Deselect the guarded NAV button.

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19
Q

The RADIO NAV page displays navaids tuned by the FMGS or flight crew.

A

True

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20
Q

On aircraft with operational automatic alignment to GPS position, latitude and longitude entry is not required during FMGS preflight.

A

True

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21
Q

The FMGS remains in the Go-Around phase until the Activate APPR prompt is selected or:

A

A new destination is entered.

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22
Q

Normally, the VOR, DME, and ILS receivers are tuned:

A

Automatically by the FMGC.

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23
Q

Which of the following is true regarding the MCDU during takeoff?

A

The PM should display the F-PLAN page, while the PF should display the PERF page.

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24
Q

Which of the following regarding the SRS system on takeoff is correct?

A

During takeoff, SRS is the active vertical mode and commands a pitch attitude to maintain V2+10 knots.
SRS is maintained until acceleration altitude.
At acceleration altitude the Climb phase becomes active and the aircraft accelerates to the climb speed designated on the PERF CLB page.

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25
Q

Shortly after takeoff, LVR CLB flashes in column 1 of the FMA, indicating that:

A

The thrust reduction altitude entered on the PERF page has been reached.

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26
Q

During taxi for takeoff, ATC revises the departure runway. After correctly updating the departure runway in the FMGS, the scratchpad message CHECK TAKE OFF DATA appears. What does this message indicate?

A

The V1, VR and V2 speeds should be confirmed against the takeoff data.

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27
Q

In order to clear a hold from the flight plan, you could use the clear prompt, hit the IMM EXIT Prompt or:

A

Go direct to a waypoint.

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28
Q

The ACARS takeoff data function is available for the:

A

Active flight plan only.

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29
Q

What power setting does Alpha Floor command?

A

TOGA

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30
Q

In Direct Law, how is pitch trim controlled?

A

Manually using the Pitch Trim Wheels.

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31
Q

Which controls are available in Mechanical Back up?

A

Rudder and THS

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32
Q

Your aircraft is currently in a climb with a nose-up pitch attitude. You are hand-flying the aircraft and both sidesticks are currently in the neutral position. You are asking the flight control computers for:

A

No change in load factor.

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33
Q

Pitch protections provided in normal law include:

A

Maneuver protection
Pitch attitude protection
High speed and alpha protection

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34
Q

The A320 cannot be stalled in normal law.

A

True

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35
Q

Which statement below is true concerning the FACs?

A

Two FACs control rudder movement for automatic turn coordination, yaw damping, rudder limiting, and rudder trim.

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36
Q

If both sidesticks are moved in the same direction at the same time:

A

The total demand is never more than what can be realized with full deflection on only one sidestick.

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37
Q

You are hand-flying the aircraft. According to the indications shown:

A

The CA has pressed and held the left sidestick takeover pb and the right sidestick is making unwanted inputs to the flight control computers.

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38
Q

Hydraulic power for the elevator servos comes from which system?

A

All 3 Systems

39
Q

There is a manual elevator control in the event of multiple computer or hydraulic system failures.

A

False

40
Q

While flying with the autopilot engaged, if you move the THS the autopilot will disengage.

A

True

41
Q

The spoiler panels on the A319/A321 function as:

A

Speed Brakes
Roll Spoilers
Ground Spoilers

42
Q

Control of the rudder is provided by the:

A

FACs

43
Q

Mechanical control of the THS is available from the __________ at any time, if either the Green or Yellow system is functioning.

A

Pitch Trim Wheel

44
Q

In Normal Law what does a lateral side stick input command?

A

A roll rate

45
Q

The failure of a single flight control computer:

A

Does not cause normal law to downgrade to another law.

46
Q

You are in level flight in a 20° bank to the left. You are hand-flying the aircraft and both sidesticks are in the neutral position. You are asking the flight control computers for:

A

0° per second roll rate

47
Q

Which of these flight control computers will function during emergency electrical configuration?

A

ELAC 1, SEC 1, FAC 1

48
Q

If either ELAC fails, the other ELAC can provide full control with no loss of system functionality.

A

True

49
Q

Control of the rudder is provided by the:

A

FACs

50
Q

Which statement below is true concerning the SECs?

A

Three SECs provide direct control of the spoilers. SECs 1 and 2 provide backup control of the elevators and THS.

51
Q

The elevators are:

A

Independently moved by one of two electronically-controlled servos that serve each elevator.

52
Q

In normal flight operations, pitch trim is:

A

Automatic and can be monitored on the F/CTL page and on the trim position scales next to the trim wheels.

53
Q

Rudder trim is:

A

Accomplished by displacing the entire rudder surface and is automatic when the autopilot is engaged.

54
Q

There is no mechanical connection between the sidesticks.

A

True

55
Q

If both the captain and first officer displace their respective sidesticks in the same direction:

A

The total demand will never be more than what can be achieved with full deflection of any one sidestick.

56
Q

Engaging the autopilot causes both sidesticks to be centered.

A

True

57
Q

The pitch trim wheels do not move when automatic trimming is in progress.

A

False

58
Q

This failure message represents an:

A

ECAM warning which provides crew awareness and requires immediate crew action.

59
Q

A Warning is the highest level ECAM alert. It is associated with a Red ECAM failure message, flashing Master Warning lights and:

A

A continuous repetitive chime.

60
Q

Which computers are responsible for generating the images that are ultimately displayed on the display units?

A

The DMCs

61
Q

What does the magenta dagger represent?

A

An ILS or localizer inbound course has been selected, and this represents the inbound course.

62
Q

An ECAM system advisory:

A

Causes the appropriate systems page to appear automatically on the SD when a system parameter exceeds the normal operational range, but has not exceeded a preset limit.

63
Q

What information does the IR portion of the ADIRU provide?

A

Present position and attitude

64
Q

Each ADIRU is made up of two components. The two components are the following:

A

ADR, which provides pitot/static related information, and the IRU, which provides gyroscopic and accelerometer related information.

65
Q

Which of the following is NOT calculated by the ADR portion of the ADIRUs?

A

Ground speed

66
Q

The Digital Flight Data Recorder (DFDR) is automatically energized:

A

On the ground for a 5-minute period following the application of aircraft power.
On the ground with an engine running.
Continuously when airborne.

67
Q

Whenever AC power is established, the upper and lower ECAMs are powered.

A

True

68
Q

The ECAM control panel is located on the center pedestal immediately below the SD. Which statement below is correct?

A

When a page is manually selected, the corresponding light illuminates on the pushbutton.
Selection of another system page deselects the current page.
Two rows of pushbuttons are used to select eleven different systems pages.

69
Q

The ECAM is designed to provide fault monitoring as well as corrective procedural checklists when a malfunction is detected.

A

True

70
Q

The STATUS page provides a summary of inoperative aircraft systems. Which of the following is also true regarding the STATUS Page?

A

The STATUS Page is always the last page displayed during an ECAM non-normal procedure.
The STATUS Page may display significant operational considerations for approach and landing.
If a message is present on the STATUS page, STS appears on the E/WD as a reminder.

71
Q

You no longer wish to view the HYD Page. To remove it from the SD you:

A

Can press the pb for another systems page and that page will replace the HYD Page.
Can press the HYD pb and the default systems page will replace the HYD Page.
Press and hold the ALL pb until the page you wish to view next appears on the SD.

72
Q

To display the CRUISE page on the SD:

A

No action is required. It appears automatically shortly after takeoff, as long as no system malfunctions are present.

73
Q

The PFD should be displayed on which display unit?

A

Outboard display unit.

74
Q

Where is ILS information displayed when the LS pb is used?

A

PFD

75
Q

The Radar Control Panel is NOT set up correctly for takeoff.

A

True

76
Q

Radar returns displayed at ranges greater than 80 miles should be used for strategic evaluation only.

A

True

77
Q

On the weather radar display, Red indicates what type of return?

A

Strong to very strong.

78
Q

With the MULTISCAN switch set to AUTO, ground clutter is minimized from the screen.

A

True

79
Q

The intensity of the radar display is controlled by:

A

The outer ring of the ND brightness control knob.

80
Q

With the TILT knob set to 0, the radar beam is pointed:

A

At the horizon as defined by the ADIRS.

81
Q

In order for areas of turbulence to be displayed, the ND range must be set to ______ miles or less.

A

40

82
Q

The CA and FO can control their radar range displays independently.

A

True

83
Q

Weather radar images can be displayed on all ND modes except:

A

PLAN

84
Q

During takeoff below 100 kts, the radar system provides automatic predictive windshear alerts.

A

True

85
Q

The Airbus Multiscan Radar:

A

Uses advanced technology to control and analyze radar returns.

86
Q

When the MULTSCAN is in AUTO mode, gain and tilt control is automatic.

A

True

87
Q

When the MULTSCAN is in AUTO mode:

A

Only weather returns that are a threat to the aircraft are displayed.

88
Q

The black area on weather radar indicates:

A

Minimal or no precipitation.

89
Q

What precipitation level does the color yellow stand for?

A

Moderate

90
Q

What precipitation level does the color red stand for?

A

Strong to Very Strong

91
Q

Primary engine indications are displayed on the:

A

E/WD

92
Q

During a manual start, how many igniters are in use?

A

2

93
Q

The FADEC provides protection against exceeding N1, N2 overspeed, and monitors EGT during start on the ground.

A

True

94
Q

Maximum thrust is referred as:

A

TOGA

Airbus Stuff (5 decks)

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