Wall Quiz #10 Flashcards

1
Q
Which of the following tumors is most commonly associated with amenorrhea?
A. Glioma
B. Germinoma
C. Endodermal sinus
D. Craniopharyngiomas 
E. Eosinophilic
A

D. Craniopharyngiomas

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2
Q
What are the total iron requirements of pregnancy?
A. 300 mg
B. 500 mg
C. 750 mg
D. 800 mg
E. 1000 mg
A

E. 1000 mg

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3
Q
A 48-year-old presents with history of hypoactive sexual desire disorder. She admits to no improvement in her libido after four sessions of couples counseling. Which of the following medications have been shown to improve libido?
A. Testosterone
B. Phosphodiesterase inhibitor 
C. Psychotropic agent
D. Estrogen
E. SSRI
A

A. Testosterone

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4
Q
The urogenital sinus gives rise to all of the following structures EXCEPT?
A. Urinary bladder
B. Gartner's duct
C. Hymen
D. Lower vagina
E. Paraurethral glands
A

B. Gartner’s duct

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5
Q
Which of the following is the most likely cause of pregnancy related death in the USA?
A. Cardiovascular disease
B. Pulmonary embolism
C. Hemorrhage
D. Sepsis
E. Amniotic fluid embolism
A

A. Cardiovascular disease

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6
Q

Which of the following sites of laparoscopic trocar entries is associated with a majority of fatalities?
A. Suprapubic entry with 5mm trocar
B. Umbilical entry with veress needle
C. Lateral quadrant entry with 10mm trocar
D. Palmers point entry 10 mm trocar
E. Upper lateral quadrant entry with 5mm

A

B. Umbilical entry with veress needle

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7
Q
What is the best way to examine a patient for a suspected enterocele?
A. Knee chest
B. Left lateral
C. Lateral sims
D. Standing
E. Dorsal lithotomy
A

D. Standing

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8
Q
A 55-year-old postmenopausal woman reports involuntary urine loss that is preceded by a sudden, strong sensation of the need to void. Which of the following is the likely cause of her incontinence?
A. Functional incontinence 
B. Chronic retention of urine 
C. Urgency incontinence
D. Urethral hypermobility
E. Mixed incontinence
A

C. Urgency incontinence

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9
Q

A 40-year-old with BRCA 1 mutation undergoes a laparoscopic bilateral BSO for risk reduction. Because of this surgery, her breast cancer risk is reduced by what percentage?
A. Reduces breast cancer risk by 10%
B. Reduces breast cancer risk by 25%
C. Does not reduce risk of breast cancer
D. Reduces breast cancer risk by 50%
E. Reduces breast cancer risk by 75%

A

C. Does not reduce risk of breast cancer

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10
Q
Which of the following is the most likely reason for an abnormal AFP 3.5 MOM and a normal anatomy scan?
A. Gastroschisis
B. Dating error
C. Omphalocele
D. Closed neural tube defect 
E. Anencephaly
A

B. Dating error

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11
Q
Consanguinity increases the risk for which of the following genetic syndromes?
A. X- linked dominant 
B. Autosomal dominant 
C. X-linked recessive
D. Autosomal recessive 
E. Multifactorial
A

D. Autosomal recessive

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12
Q

Pregnancy physiology results in which of the following changes to factor VIII and Von Willebrand factor (vWF) levels?
A. Increased factor VIII and vWF levels
B. Decreased factor VIII and vWF levels
C. Increased factor VIII and decreased vWF levels
D. Decreased factor VIII and increased vWF

A

A. Increased factor VIII and vWF levels

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13
Q
Which of the following progestins is NOT derived from 19-nortestosterone?
A. Levonorgestrel 
B. Norethindrone 
C. Norgestimate 
D. Drospirenone 
E. Desogesterol
A

D. Drospirenone

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14
Q
Which of the following clinical outcomes of tubal pregnancy has the lowest potential for maternal morbidity?
A. Tubal rupture
B. Tubal torsion
C. Chronic persistence 
D. Pregnancy resorption
A

D. Pregnancy resorption

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15
Q
Which of the following clinical findings in the setting of massive pulmonary embolism increases mortality rate?
A. Hypoxia
B. Hemoptysis
C. Marked elevation on D-dimers
D. Right ventricular dysfunction
E. Acidosis
A

D. Right ventricular dysfunction

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16
Q
All of the following diagnostic tests are utilized in the evaluation of a patient with pre-eclampsia EXCEPT?
A. CBC
B. Uric Acid
C. Liver transaminases
D. Serum creatinine
E. Protein/creatinine ratio
A

B. Uric Acid

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17
Q
In a uterine artery embolization, which vessel does the catheter have to traverse?
A. Superior vesicle
B. Common iliac
C. Inferior gluteal
D. Superficial epigastric
E. Inferior epigastric
A

B. Common iliac

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18
Q
Which of the following is least likely a risk factor for the development of heparin induced thrombocytopenia?
A. Heparin therapy greater than 4 days
B. Use of unfractionated heparin
C. Female gender
D. Age
E. Surgery
A

D. Age

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19
Q
In twin-twin transfusion syndrome, the recipient cotwin may experience all of the following complications EXCEPT:
A. Anemia
B. Kernicterus
C. Heart failure
D. Thrombosis
E. Polycythemia
A

A. Anemia

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20
Q
Which of the following is one of the most frequently encountered problems associated with the use of TPN (total parenteral nutrition)?
A. Hypoglycemia
B. Fluid overload
C. Catheter tip infection
D. Pneumothorax
E. Anemia
A

C. Catheter tip infection

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21
Q
Paget’s disease of the breast is which of the following types of carcinoma?
A. Ductal carcinoma
B. Cystosarcoma phyllodes
C. Inflammatory Cancer
D. Adenocarcinoma of the breast 
E. Intraductal papilloma
A

A. Ductal carcinoma

22
Q

Lesbians and bisexual women may experience barriers to health care due to all the following EXCEPT:
A. Confidentially and disclosure concerns
B. Lack of health insurance
C. Lack of need to be screened for STI’s
D. Caregiver attitudes
E.Limited understanding as to health risks

A

C. Lack of need to be screened for STI’s

23
Q
Carriers of the BRCA 1 mutation gene are at increased risk for all the following cancers EXCEPT:
A. Pancreatic 
B. Melanoma 
C. Brain
D. Breast
E. Ovarian
A

C. Brain

24
Q
Which of the following conditions can be managed conservatively?
A. Volvulus
B. Cholelithiasis
C. Obstruction bowel
D. Torsion
E. Cholecystitis
A

B. Cholelithiasis

25
Q
In patients with perianal extramammary Paget's disease, up to 90% of cases may also have what other type of cancer?
A. Uterine
B. Pancreatic 
C. Bladder 
D. Colorectal 
E. Breast
A

D. Colorectal

26
Q
Which of the following surgeries can cause pudendal nerve entrapment?
A. Sacrospinous ligament fixation 
B. Abdominal sacralcolpopexy
C. Anterior repair
D. Uterosacral ligament suspension 
E. McCall’sculdoplasty
A

A. Sacrospinous ligament fixation

27
Q
It is estimated how many percent of women will develop diabetes within 25 years after pregnancy with GDM?
A. 20% 
B. 40% 
C. 50% 
D. 70% 
E. 90%
A

D. 70%

28
Q
Sacral agenesis occurs in what period of gestation?
A. 3-7 weeks
B. 8-12 weeks
C. 12-16 weeks 
D. 16-20 weeks
E. Third trimester
A

A. 3-7 weeks

29
Q
All of the following are associated with VACTERL EXCEPT:
A. Müllerian agenesis
B. Uterine anomalies
C. Cardiovascular anomalies 
D. TE Fistula
E. Facial clefting
A

E. Facial clefting

30
Q

In patients with Turner syndrome who wish to conceive, which of the following would be most appropriate?
A. Human menopausal gonadotropins
B. Clomiphene citrate
C. Intrauterine insemination with donor sperm
D. Donor oocyte
E. Letrozole ovulation induction

A

D. Donor oocyte

31
Q
Which of the following medications are given to reduce afterload in a patient with peripartum cardiomyopathy?
A. Digoxin
B. Beta-Blockers
C. Hydralazine
D. Diuretics
E. Calcium channel blockers
A

C. Hydralazine

32
Q
A 35-year-old POD#6 from cesarean delivery with history of obesity and diabetes presents with a wound infection consistent with necrotizing fasciitis. What is the most likely organism?
A. Pseudomonas
B. Group A B-hemolytic Streptococcus 
C. Group B streptococcus
D. Ureaplasma
E. E.Coli
A

B. Group A B-hemolytic Streptococcus

33
Q
Which of the following chromosomal anomalies is least likely found in association with stillbirth?
A. Trisomy 18
B. Turner syndrome 
C. Trisomy 13
D. Trisomy 21
E. 47 XXY
A

E. 47 XXY

34
Q
The vestibule of the vagina is formed from the:
A. Urogenital sinus
B. Müllerian ducts
C. Gonadal Ridge
D. Ureter vaginal canal 
E. Wolffian duct
A

A. Urogenital sinus

35
Q
All of the following vessels arise from the anterior branch of the internal iliac EXCEPT:
A. Middle sacral 
B. Uterine
C. Superior vesical 
D. Vaginal
E. Internal pudendal
A

A. Middle sacral

36
Q
What parameter would change on the semen analysis of a patient found to have a 47XXY karyotype?
A. Sperm concentration 
B. Forward progression 
C. Sperm Morphology 
D. Semen Volume
E. Semen pH
A

A. Sperm concentration

37
Q
Which of the following is a likely long term teratogenic effect of perinatal exposure of marijuana during pregnancy?
A. Childhood asthma
B. Cognitive impairment
C. Gastrochisis
D. Childhood leukemia
E. Congenital heart defects
A

B. Cognitive impairment

38
Q

The least likely cause of secondary amenorrhea is:
A. Non-classical congenital adrenal hyperplasia
B. Polycystic ovarian syndrome
C. Hypothyroidism
D. Hyperprolactinemia
E. Gonadal failure

A

A. Non-classical congenital adrenal hyperplasia

39
Q

On electrophoresis Beta thalassemia would show which of the following results?
A. HbS – 85%, HbA – absent, HbA2 –2-3%, HbF - <10-15%
B. HbA – 96%, HbA2 - 3.5%
C. Hb A –97%, HbA2 – 3%, HbF-<1%
D. HbA- absent, HbH- 10-20%, HbBart’s-10-20%
E. HbF-50%, HbA–50%

A

B. HbA – 96%, HbA2 - 3.5%

40
Q
Which of the following is the third leading cause of cancer cases among women?
A. Lung
B. Colon 
C. Breast 
D. Ovarian 
E. Uterine
A

B. Colon

41
Q
Which of the following is not one of the “5 R’s” of smoking cessation counseling?
A. Risks
B. Rewards
C. Relevance 
D. Renewal
E. Roadblocks
A

D. Renewal

42
Q
Which of the following endometrial biopsy findings is most likely in a 37-year-old with confirmed PCOS, obesity and irregular menses?
A. Secretory endometrium
B. Disordered proliferative endometrium 
C. Chronic endometritis
D. Plasma cells
E. Endometrial hyperplasia with atypia
A

B. Disordered proliferative endometrium

43
Q

Which of the following patients is least likely to need intrapartum GBS prophylaxis?
A. 36 weeks, 4cm dilated, SROM, GBS unknown
B. 40 weeks, ROM > 18 hours, GBS unknown
C. 41 weeks, labor 13 hours, temp 100.4 – GBS culture incomplete
D. 37 weeks with known history of GBS bacteriuria treated, negative GBS culture
E. 38 weeks, no prenatal care, GBS unknown

A

E. 38 weeks, no prenatal care, GBS unknown

44
Q

A 25-year-old G1P0 at 31 weeks presents with suspicion of appendicitis. Graded compression ultrasound is equivocal. Which of the following is the best next diagnostic test?
A. Trans vaginal ultrasound
B. Flat plate and upright
C. Abdominal CT scan
D. MRI
E. GI series with small bowel follow through

A

D. MRI

45
Q

Of the cardinal movements of labor, internal rotation achieves what goal?
A. Flexes the fetal neck
B. Brings the anterior fontanel through the pelvic inlet
C. Turns the occiput to an anterior position
D. Extends the fetal neck
E. Is the first requisite for birth of the newborn

A

C. Turns the occiput to an anterior position

46
Q
During a cornual wedge resection for an interstitial ectopic pregnancy, which of the following is typically transected or excised?
A. Ipsilateral ovary
B. Ipsilateral mesoteres
C. Ipsilateral fallopian tube
D. Ipsilateral utero-ovarian ligament 
E. Ipsilateral Sampson's artery
A

C. Ipsilateral fallopian tube

47
Q
What percent of fibromas in Meig’s syndrome undergo malignant transformation?
A. 0.01% 
B. 0.05% 
C. 0.1% 
D. 0.5% 
E. 1%
A

E. 1%

48
Q
A 44-year-old female undergoes a prophylactic BSO. What is the likely long-term effect of her surgery?
A. Lung cancer
B. Ectopic pregnancy 
C. Breast Cancer
D. Increased mortality 
E. Fracture
A

D. Increased mortality

49
Q

Which of the following is least associated with monozygotic twinning?
A. Conjoined twins
B. Fused placentas
C. It is the most common type of twinning
D. Cord entanglement
E. Twin-twin transfusion

A

C. It is the most common type of twinning

50
Q

A 26-year-old G1P0 at 16 weeks presents with cervical length of 2.0 cm. What is your next step?
A. Cerclage
B. 17 alpha-hydroxyprogesterone-caproate
C. Bedrest
D. Vaginal progesterone
E. Repeat ultrasound in 2weeks

A

D. Vaginal progesterone