Brandon Flashcards

1
Q

____% of owners have no formal life after plan.

A

93%

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2
Q

What are the two paths?

A

Personal & Financial; Business

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3
Q

Owners are much more likely to need ____ than life insurance.

A

Disability Coverage

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4
Q

___ is when a PEG sponsor lacks exiting management team to buy out current majority shareholders.

A

Management buyout

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5
Q

What % HNW individuals would like help on choosing which giving vehicle to use?

A

47%

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6
Q

Only ___% considered their financial advisor as their most trusted advisor, and for insurance and bankers, they ranked at ___%

A

8%; below 2%

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7
Q

In a charitable __ trust , the CHARITY/DAF Gets Income Stream During Term of Years and the assets then Return to DONOR after a term.

A

lead

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8
Q

___________ is predicated on a specific future look at economic benefitsFinancial projectionEBITDA and EBIT the future stream of benefits is discounted by an appropriate rate of return (Cost of capital or discount rate)

A

Discounted Cash Flow

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9
Q

___ is when a PEG sponsor backs new management team to acquire business from existing shareholder.

A

Management Buy-In

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10
Q

____% of a business owner’s wealth is typically tied up in their business.

A

80-90%

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11
Q

___ denotes all industries not in existence today; untapped market space; demand creation; opportunity for high profitable growth. Competition irrelevant because the rules of the game are waiting to be set

A

blue oceans

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12
Q

Distribution Model: 5 Pillars of Growth

A

1) Capital Budgeting Process; 2) Lean Manufacturing; 3) Improve Capacity; 4) Create & Protect Intellectual Property; 5) Open new end markets. **Note: I previously had this answer labelled as the 5 Pillars of Growth for Service Model. That was incorrect. These are the 5 pillars of growth for the DISTRIBUTION model.

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13
Q

Most private companies have the opportunity to DOUBLE their value over a 3-5 yr period by adopting a disciplined, methodical approach to reducing _____ and increasing ____

A

reducing company-specific risk; increasing quality

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14
Q

Owners are leaving $ on the table because they are focused on ___, not ___.

A

income generation, not enterprise value

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15
Q

What multiple would relate large cap stock’s cash flow to a business?

A

8x

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16
Q

___ combines the plan, concept, effort and process into a clear simple strategy to build a business that is transferable through the 4Cs

A

exit planning

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17
Q

ESOPSs are regulated by ___ & ___.

A

IRS & DOL

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18
Q

There is a___ carry-forward for unused deductions.

A

Five-year

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19
Q

What % of owners net worth is the business?

A

70%

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20
Q

What % of entrepreneurs donate money, both personally and through their companies?

A

90%

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21
Q

____ is the sum of everything everybody knows that gives it a competitive advantage.

A

Intellectual Capital

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22
Q

Each Champion uses ____, which are proposed projects along with the opportunity or problem, describing what you are proposing to do… guidelines, not absolutes.

A

Opportunity Assessments

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23
Q

True or false: risk management includes all forms of insurance and legal documents.

A

true

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24
Q

Pros of ____: Good option when Asset Value exceeds Value of Going Concern; Sum of the parts are greater than the whole (asset division produces value); Efficient way to exit; May be less expensive than some of the other options

A

Orderly Liquidation

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25
Q

___trust advantages include that (1) Trust assets receive a step-up in basis at the Grantor’s death; (2) The Grantor can be a beneficiary; (3) Transfers will not use up a Grantor’s applicable exclusion amount or annual gift amount; (4) those established as a separate taxpayer in this state are not subject to income taxes in the Grantor’s home state (as long as certain requirements are met); (5) assets will be protected against creditors of the Grantor and other beneficiaries

A

NING

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26
Q

Cons of ___: Complicated and expensive; Requires securities registration exemption; Company compelled to buy-back shares from departing employees; Generally suitable only for gradual exit over time

A

ESOP

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27
Q

What would usually be completed in the Delivering action plans?

A

Hosting a team accountability workshop; meeting with the priority champion to discuss progress.

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28
Q

Pros of ____: Allows partial exit; Reduces owner risk; diversifies asset concentration; Provides growth capital; Second bite at the apple; Works well with other Exit Options

A

Recapitalization

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29
Q

Protect – Derisking stage – In ___ stage

A

Prepare

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30
Q

NINGs only work for ___ property.

A

intangible (for example, you can’t put a physical real estate property in a NING, but you can put in company stock)

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31
Q

When is an Opportunity Assessment completed?

A

Before the scoreboard/team communication protocols are developed; After the personal vision is established and the 90-day personal actions are selected.

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32
Q

“___ is the power in a life insurance policy to: change beneficiary, assign policy, revoke assignment, borrow,
surrender policy, collateralize a loan, etc.”

A

incidents of ownership

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33
Q

What is this a list of?: market strategy, community relations, corporate reputation, access to capital

A

external qualitative factors

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34
Q

Total Enterprise Value of businesses $25-50m? (range of value)

A

4.5x - 7.7x

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35
Q

Why are ESOP DLOMs often small?

A

Put Rights for employees exceep the rights of typical shareholders in closely-held companies

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36
Q

Cons of _____: Uncertain proceeds; No guarantees; No $ for goodwill; Emotional Stigma?; Hard to predict costs; Damage to employees/jobs; Higher tax (C-corporations)

A

Orderly Liquidation

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37
Q

What % of clients continue on after a triggering event

A

70%

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38
Q

What are the 3 types of asset approach to valuation?

A

Reported Book Value, Adjusted Book Value, & Premise of Value

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39
Q

What % of HNW individuals are interested in receiving help to understand what assets to contribute?

A

70%

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40
Q

What multiple would relate real estate’s cash flow to a business?

A

9-11x

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41
Q

____ is complimentary to DCF; best used when future cash flows are expected to be consistent and based on past performance

A

Capitalization of Earnings Method

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42
Q

3 Questions Asked in a Start-Stop Workshop

A

What 3 things do we already do well?; What 3 things should we start doing?; What 3 things should we stop doing?

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43
Q

“In an IDGT, transfer is “Incomplete” for ___ tax purposes – the Grantor retains enough control over the IDGT to have the IDGT qualify as a Grantor Trust; and “Complete” for ___ tax purposes – anything contributed to an IDGT by the Grantor will be excluded.”

A

“Incomplete” for income; “Complete” for estate

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44
Q

Corporate Responsibility Assets can increase market value by ____%

A

4-6%

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45
Q

In common sense scoring system, what is a premium score?

A

72%+

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46
Q

Buyers typically buy ___ earnings, but will use an average of past periods for ___ businesses.

A

future; cyclical

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47
Q

What % have no plan at all

A

49%

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48
Q

Businesses with ____ are best served by business brokers

A

less than $5m; micro market

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49
Q

5 Items looked at when evaluating Management by PEG firms

A

Cultural fit, what does the bench look like, Where are the gaps, What is the vision, Key non-owner managers?

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50
Q

Businesses with ____ are best served by Wall Street

A

> $1b

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51
Q

In a ____, company is finding new ways to “fund the company’s balance sheet.” Essentially brings in a lender or equity investor to act as a partner in the business.

A

Recapitalization

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52
Q

Creating action plans is associated with which activity of Relentless Execution?

A

Alignment

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53
Q

Elements of Net Proceeds?

A

1) Determine Value of Business; 2) Add or Subtract Balance Sheet Targets, Working Captital True up/True Down, Unrecorded/off-balance liabilities, and Escrows/Holdbacks; 3) Add any earnouts; 4) Subtract fees and expenses; 5) Subtract taxes.

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54
Q

Distribution Model: 4 Pillars of Growth

A

1) Develop new geographic markets; 2) Add service-based revenue streams; 3) Resolve real estate and/or warehouse issues; 4) Improve MIS and inventory MGMT systems.

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55
Q

Three gates of Value Acceleration Process

A

Discover; Prepare; Decide

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56
Q

Rhythm is developed through _____ which are completed in the ___ gate.

A

repetition of 90-day sprints; prepare gate.

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57
Q

For a 1042, how much of the company stock must sold to the ESOP?

A

30%

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58
Q

For a 1042, how long does a seller have to identify a qualifying replacement property?

A

1 year

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59
Q

____ drive the deal, not price.

A

Terms

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60
Q

How does a private equity value a business?

A

EBITDA*multiple, how the company makes money, the company’s growth opportunities, and the type of business.

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61
Q

This is a sample card.

A

This is a sample answer

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62
Q

Ignore this one

A

:)

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63
Q

___ is the difference between your max value in the range of multiples versus where you actually place based on your present scores and benchmarks.

A

Value Gap

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64
Q

What percentage have no plan to cover the 5 Ds

A

40%

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65
Q

____ is a specific set of Behaviors and Techniques that companies need to master in order to have competitive advantage. A Systematic Process of rigorously discussing the hows and whats, questioning, tenaciously following through, and ensuring accountability. A core element of an organization’s culture. A relentless pursuit of Realty, coupled with processes for constant improvement.

A

Relentless Execution

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66
Q

Cons of ____: Family Dynamics; Illiquid Buyers/Lack Funds; Lower Sale Price; Key Employee Flight Risk; Tradition May Outstrip Good Strategy; Path of Least Resistance but not always a path to growth or success

A

Inter-Generational Transfer

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67
Q

EBITDA stands for…

A

Earnings before interest taxes depreciation amortization

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68
Q

In a ___ private equity transaction, the owner ends with the most liquidity but the least control.

A

sale to a third party.

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69
Q

In common sense scoring system, what is a discount score?

A

50% or less

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70
Q

Who owns the company stock in an ESOP?

A

the trust

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71
Q

Every business trades within a range of value, and the stronger the industry, the ___ the range.

A

broader

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72
Q

Converting an investment in a closely held company to cash may involve ___

A

uncertainty and substantial risk

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73
Q

The #1 Goal of the Financial Advisor ….

A

is not to pick the hottest investments, but to help control client behavior.

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74
Q

What does the Value Acceleration Methodology focus on?

A

Value Growth and aligning business, personal and financial goals

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75
Q

What is the primary objective for most Irrevocable Trusts and FLPs?

A

Remove business (or other asset) and future appreciation out of the estate.

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76
Q

What is the second paradigm shift

A

Value is all about transferability

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77
Q

Cons of ___ include lower sales price as it can ONLY pay FMW; owners do not get 100% cash out at closing; sometimes long and complex closing process

A

ESOP

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78
Q

Value Gap = ?

A

((Adjusted EBITDA + profit gap) * Best In Class Multiple) - ((Adjusted EBITDA) * Actual Multple)

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79
Q

Minority Recap - 3 Transaction examples

A

Growth capital, Working Capital, Debt Refinancing

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80
Q

____ is the direct negotiator for the business terms of a deal and should be highly trained & highly experienced in capitalization, sale, or acquisition of business entities.

A

Investment Banker

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81
Q

In common sense scoring system, what is a mid score?

A

51-66%

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82
Q

A ___ is “Prospective financial statements that present, to the best of the responsible party’s knowledge and belief, given one or more hypothetical assumptions, an entity’s expected financial position, results of operations, and cash flows”.

A

Financial Projection

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83
Q

The 5 M&A documents, in order?

A

1) Acquisition Profile/Teaser; 2) NDA; 3) CIM; 4) Indication of Interest/LOI; 5) Definitive Agreement

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84
Q

Majority Recap - 3 Transaction examples

A

Recapitalizations, Family Successions, and MBOs

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85
Q

Next in bucket for retirement accounts?

A

Taxable Bonds; High Yield Bonds; Small Stock Funds

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86
Q

2 formulas for strategic value?

A

Equals recasted EBITDA * market multiple; Equals recasted sales * market muliple

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87
Q

% have done no planning at all

A

49%

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88
Q

Of the three value enhancement strategies (investors, innovators, and efficiency experts), which has the least average annual growth rate? What is their annual rate of return?

A

Efficiency Experts 7.4%

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89
Q

What are the 5 Ds

A

Death; Disability; Divorce; Distress; Disagreement

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90
Q

On average, the transaction multiple of _____ will aplly for most closely held companies.

A

5 times EBITDA, rule of 5

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91
Q

Only ___% indicated their wealth manager was on their transition team

A

26%

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92
Q

What 5 things make a team effective?

A

trust; conflict mgmt; commitment; accountability; results

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93
Q

Range of Multiples: High Risk = ___ x TTM Recasted EBITDA [estimate used for ignition controls problems]

A

3

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94
Q

Corporate Responsibility Assets can increase customer commitment in the core segment by ____%

A

up to 20% (the total segment of 60%)

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95
Q

Between readiness and attractiveness, which is potentially more important of the two because it includes personal & financial?

A

Readiness

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96
Q

Only ______ of family-owned businesses transition to the second generation and only ______ survive to the third.

A

30%, 12%

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97
Q

What deliverables are useful to help sustain action and deliver the master plan?

A

A monthly 1:1 and a monthly team accountability workshop

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98
Q

___ allows you to sell property, businesses, and/or stock and keep up to your basis in cash; you must re-invest “gain” (and any basis) within 180 days into businesses and or real estate location

A

Qualified Opportunity Zones

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99
Q

If the asset contributed to a NING is a business interest in anticipation of a sale, certain time restrictions apply to avoid the transfer and sale of the business being considered a ____.

A

Step Transaction

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100
Q

___ represent all industries in existence today; crowded; profits and growth prospects reduced; commoditized products and services; cutthroat competition

A

red oceans

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101
Q

__% have not done strategic review or value growth project.

A

86

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102
Q

Controlled auctions work best in a ____ climate and with interest from BOTH strategic and financial buyers

A

strong M&A

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103
Q

Build – Risky – In ___ stage

A

Prepare

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104
Q

____% of HNW individuals are interested in receiving help to understand what assets to contribute.

A

70%

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105
Q

Innovators are most likely to be ___ or ___ owned, in contrast to investors, who are most likely to have private equity ownership.

A

private or family

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106
Q

4 benefits of Wealth Management

A

Cash Flow; Risk Management; Investment Planning; Distribution

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107
Q

Pros of ____: Higher price (highest of the options); More cash up front; Walk away faster; Stability of deal terms; Business refresh (growth, new energy); Cost-effective; Breaks deadlock @ management level with family

A

Sale to a Third-Party

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108
Q

A business valuation correlated to a personal, financial and business attractiveness and readiness assessment to determine where the business value lands in the range of value

A

Deliverable #1 - the Triggering event

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109
Q

On occasion to be competitive, a buyer will pay more than 5 times EBITDA to secure a deal. This phenomena is known as ___.

A

the Super Rule of 5

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110
Q

___ is the final outcome of the first two cornerstones of relentless execution (vision and alignment)

A

Action Plan

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111
Q

Alignment is in the ___ gate.

A

Discover

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112
Q

Bringing on a ___ can be a fundamental step towards achieving the highest possible gross proceeds over the long run.

A

Private Equity firm

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113
Q

What is the Super Rule of Five?

A

If the growth rate is fast enough (or synergies compelling enough) that the effective multiple paid 1 or 2 years out is 5x, the deal may be priced right.

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114
Q

Use a ____ when the client has high-basis assets and is looking to transfer those assets outside his or her estate for estate tax purposes.

A

IDGT

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115
Q

Pros of ___: Business stays in the “extended family”; Shares purchased with pretax dollars; Taxable gain on the shares sold by the owner may sometimes be deferred; is an employee benefit; May cause employees to think and act like owners

A

ESOP

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116
Q

__ is an Irrevocable Trust; Goal is to move wealth to the next generation while minimizing estate and gift

A

GRAT

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117
Q

___ is the preliminary due diligence M&A document that acts as a sales document and communicates opportunities and weaknesses; it should not hide problems.

A

Confidential Information Memorandum (CIM)

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118
Q

True or false: creating a business valuation is the same process or formula for every business.

A

false

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119
Q

In the business model of ____, investment merits include (1) established, long-term customers; (2) integration with stakeholders; (3) proprietary/consumable products; (4) exclusive territory rights; (5) proprietary sourcing reltaionships

A

Distribution

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120
Q

____ essentially brings in a lender or equity investor to act as a partner to the business.

A

Recapitalization

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121
Q

Intergenerational Transfers: ___% want this option; only ___% actually do.

A

50%; 30%

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122
Q

______ is the price at which the transaction will occur between a “hypothetical” willing buyer and seller

A

Fair Market Value

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123
Q

Who are the limited partners of a PE group?

A

Investors - pensions, insurance companies, HNW individuals, family offices, endowments.

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124
Q

What is a mid-range business attractiveness score?

A

57%

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125
Q

Six Critical Factors of Succession *

A
  1. Assets; 2. Taxes; 3. Protection; 4. Children; 5. Voting control; 6. Spouse’s income
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126
Q

To buy owner’s shares, do MBOs use before or after tax dollars? What about ESOPs?

A

MBOs - after; ESOPs - before

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127
Q

___% of business owners indicated they have not established a formal transition advisory team

A

74%

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128
Q

Identify –In ____ gate

A

Discover

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129
Q

Organizing principal of cepa teams?

A

3 legs of the stool & the master plan.

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130
Q

_____ can potentially generate greater after-tax proceeds than third-party sales structured as an asset sale.

A

ESOPs Stock Sales

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131
Q

_____ is when owner sells all or part of the business to the management team. Management uses the assets of the business to finance a significant portion of the purchase price.

A

Management buyout (MBO)

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132
Q

Delivering action plans is completed in the ___ gate.

A

Prepare

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133
Q

Ideal for rebalancing: ____ expected returns, ___ volatility, ___ correlations

A

similar expected returns, high volatility, low correlations

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134
Q

The 4 inside ownership transition options?

A
  1. Inter-generational transfer; 2. Management buyout; 3. Sale to existing partners; 4. Sale to employees
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135
Q

Rank the 4 Fundamental M&A Options from Most to Least Control.

A

1) Debt Recap; 2) Minority Recap; 3) Majority Recap; 4) Sell 100%

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136
Q

Two components of ___ are (1) a periodic reassessment of a business enterprise and (2) Development of prioritized initiatives to strengthen the business

A

Business road mapping

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137
Q

A proven process that focuses on value growth and aligning business, personal and financial goals.

A

Value Acceleration

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138
Q

What % have no written transition plan

A

83%

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139
Q

Corporate Responsibility Assets can reduce company’s staff turnover rate by ____%

A

up to 50%

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140
Q

Range of Multiples: Below Average Risk = ___ x TTM Recasted EBITDA [estimate used for ignition controls problems]

A

7

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141
Q

Is recapitalization an inside or outside exit option?

A

outside

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142
Q

Only ____% indicated a corporate attorney was on their transition team

A

52%

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143
Q

Larger companies command ___ multiples.

A

higher

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144
Q

____% of businesses put on the market don’t sell

A

70-80%

145
Q

Of the 250,000 US companies that will try to exit by 2030, how many will transact?

A

30,000

146
Q

DLOM stands for…

A

discount for the lack of marketability (seen in ESOPs)

147
Q

Three schools of business valuation?

A

investment banking, formal FMV, and smallest companies rule of thumb

148
Q

_____ is a learning experience; it is a method to systematically assess accomplishments and disappointments to determine why we were successful or not in accomplishing the 90-day priority.

A

Accountability

149
Q

What are the 2 types of market approach to valuation?

A

Public Company Guideline Method & Guideline Transaction Method

150
Q

____ is a range of values which can be controlled by private capital market. Where the business falls IN THE RANGE is controlled by the business owner.

A

Market Multiple

151
Q

What is this a list of?: marketing/branding, distribution methods, market growth opportunities

A

external qualitative factors

152
Q

__% of business owners do not have a written financial plan.

A

75

153
Q

____ describes a company that is built primarily through an acquisition of smaller companies with commmon businesses.

A

“Roll-up”

154
Q

First in bucket for taxable accounts?

A

Tax-efficient stock Mutual Funds; ETFs; Tax-efficient individual stocks

155
Q

____ is a cooperative arrangement where two or more people, which may or may not have a previous relationship, work together for a common goal.

A

Collaboration

156
Q

Rhythm is in the ___ gate.

A

Prepare

157
Q

____ is the periodic assessment of a business enterprise and development of prioritized initiatives to strenthen the business; prepares for long-term growth and maximizing its sustainable future value in a measurable manner.

A

Business Road Mapping

158
Q

Value Acceleration measures the value of

A

your intangible assets

159
Q

______ is the value to a particular investor based on individual investment requirements and expectations

A

Investment Value

160
Q

6 M&A Core Deal Team Members?

A

1) CEO/President; 2) Senior Management; 3) Accounting Firm; 4) Lawyer; 5) Wealth Advisor; 6) Investment Banker

161
Q

FLP stands for…

A

Family Limited Partnership

162
Q

PEGs are ____ buyers with typically ____% of a business.

A

Strategic; 20-80%

163
Q

Pros of ___: Business Legacy Preservation; Planned; Lower Cost; More Control; Less Disruption; High Buyer/Seller Motivation

A

Inter-Generational Transfer

164
Q

Benefits of The Triggering Event

A
  1. establishes, based on fact, your present value; 2. predicts the probability of succeeding with growth and transition strategies; 3. identifies your PROFIT GAP; 4. identifies your VALUE GAP; 5. identifies ACTIONS you can take to protect, build and harvest value
165
Q

___% indicated their spouse or another family member was on their transition team; ___% indicated spouse.

A

58%; 38;

166
Q

What should be the core organizing principle of an exit planning team?

A

Aligning the Three Legs of the Stool - Business, Personal, Financial

167
Q

Range of Multiples: Average Risk = ___ x TTM Recasted EBITDA [estimate used for ignition controls problems]

A

6

168
Q

What are the three business models of PEG companies consideration?

A

1) service; 2) distribution; 3) manufacturing

169
Q

Rank the 4 Fundamental M&A Options from Most to Least Liquidity.

A

1) Sell 100%, 2) Majority Recap; 3) Minority Recap; 4) Debt Recap

170
Q

____ earn-out bridges the gap; ____ earn-out offers an opportunity for a double dip.

A

Comfort; Incentive

171
Q

6 Items looked at when Evaluating Company Risk by PEG firms

A

Customers, Industry and End Markets, Suppliers, Competition, Management and Financials

172
Q

What are the 5 stages of value maturity

A

Identify; Protect; Build; Harvest; Manage

173
Q

An ‘A’ trust is also known as a ___ trust.

A

Survivor’s

174
Q

What Makes Strong Human Capital?

A

Recruit, motivate, retain

175
Q

Of the three value enhancement strategies (investors, innovators, and efficiency experts), which has the fastest growth? What is the average rate of return?

A

Investors; 11.5%

176
Q

PEG - Three legs to a stool

A

Company, Deal, Management

177
Q

In common sense scoring system, what is a target score?

A

67%

178
Q

Three types of value enhancement strategies

A

Investors, Innovators, Efficiency Experts

179
Q

What are the 4Cs

A

Human, Structural; Customer; Social

180
Q

___ is a continuum that includes balancing equity, asset, and jurisdictional changes.

A

Asset Protection

181
Q

Range of Multiples: Very High Risk = ___ x TTM Recasted EBITDA [estimate used for ignition controls problems]

A

0

182
Q

4 Categories to Increase Enterprise Value Internally?

A

1) Revenue Growth; 2) Operating Margin; 3) Asset Efficiency; 4) Business Architecture

183
Q

What are the 2 types of income approach to valuation?

A

DCF & Capitalized Earnings Method

184
Q

The 4 outside ownership transition options?

A
  1. Sale to third party; 2. Recapitalization; 3. IPO; 4. Orderly liquidation
185
Q

_______ is the main driver of investment performance.

A

Asset Allocation

186
Q

___ is the key to passing through the Discover gate into the Prepare gate.

A

An Action Plan

187
Q

Total Enterprise Value of businesses $10-25m? (range of value)

A

3.9x - 6.9x

188
Q

Pros of ____: Continuity; Highly Motivated Buyers (Pent-up Desire); Preserves Key Human Capital / Knowledge; Planned; Can be combined with Private Equity to access additional capital and resources for growth

A

Management Buy Out (MBO)

189
Q

In a Qualified Opportunity Zone, you must hold new property for at least ___ and basis becomes fair market value at time of sale.

A

10 years

190
Q

The ____ method is focused on the sale of an entire company to another buyer. The theoretical strength of this method is that once we identify comparable company transactions, this method produces valuable data for valuation purposes.

A

Guideline Transaction Method

191
Q

____% of HHs with net worth between $5-20m have or plan to use a giving vehicle

A

44.50%

192
Q

The 4 C’s – ___ – Back-end systems and processes

A

Structural

193
Q

____% of HNW give to 5 or more charities.

A

51.80%

194
Q

The 4 C’s – ___ – Measure of Company Culture

A

Social

195
Q

Core team, at a minimum should include which 6 members?

A

1) CPA; 2) Wealth Manager; 3) Attorney; 4) Board of Advisors; 5) key members of executive management; 6) key members of owner’s family.

196
Q

A ____ is where PEGs tell their LPs what they do

A

Firm’s Charter

197
Q

Key focus for a familiy business - focus on “___” and on “____ vs ___”

A

What’s next; fair versus equal

198
Q

____ is executed to keep the deal moving with the least amount of disruption, must be thorough, and is binding in 2 regards.

A

Indication of Interest/the Letter of Intent

199
Q

____% plan to transition via internal option; ____% through external option.

A

35.6%; 31.4%

200
Q

QPRT stands for…

A

Qualified Personal Residence Trust

201
Q

Creating an action plan is called “____” within the process of Relentless Execution.

A

Alignment

202
Q

3 Schools of Valuation?

A

1) Formal FMV; 2) Smallest Company Rules of thumb; 3) Investment Banking

203
Q

Adjusted EBITDA = ?

A

Net Operaton Profit (A.K.A. Net Income) + Addbacks

204
Q

A ‘B’ trust is also known as a ___ trust.

A

Decedent’s

205
Q

IDGT stands for…

A

Intentionally Defective Grantor Trust

206
Q

____ is often a client’s biggest asset.

A

Present value of Income stream

207
Q

A ____ is a graphic representation of a family tree that displays detailed data on relationships among individuals. It goes beyond a traditional family tree by allowing the user to analyze hereditary patterns and psychological factors that puctuate relationships

A

Genogram

208
Q

Most P/E firms are

A

Passive Generalists, seeking healthy, mature companies with EBITDA of $5-25m

209
Q

Lifetime estate tax exemption is ____ per person

A

$11.58m per person

210
Q

What is in the Prepare Gate

A

Personal & Financial Planning; Business improvements; De-risking; Assemble proof; Prepare master plan

211
Q

Exit Planning is ____ and ____

A

Business Strategy; present tense

212
Q

___ is an Irrevocable Trust with the goal is to move wealth to the next generation while minimizing estate and gift

A

(1) do not; (2) not subject; (3) no step-up; (4) cannot

213
Q

In PE firms, Firm’s Charter + Firm’s Partners equal ____.

A

Investment Criteria

214
Q

ESOP ___ is defined as a material adjustment in terms of note, not actual bankruptcy, and total non-payment

A

default

215
Q

Gifts of ____ or ____ are the most highly valued gifts made to private foundations/trusts/charitable organizations.

A

business or real estate

216
Q

Total Enterprise Value of businesses all industries? (range of value)

A

4.5x - 7.7x

217
Q

a personal, financial and business assessment correlated to a business valuation.

A

triggering event

218
Q

The 4 C’s – ___ – Measure of customer relationships

A

Customer

219
Q

Negotiated sales are great for the ____, possibly less so for the ____.

A

buyer; seller

220
Q

Four Cs

A

Human; Customer; Structure; Social

221
Q

What is in the Discover Gate

A

Triggering event (Business valuation, Assess personal financial business); Prioritized Action plan

222
Q

What is in the Decide Gate

A

Grow or exit?

223
Q

___ asks “How can I increase my business value?”

A

Business Exit Readiness Score

224
Q

What are the 3 main business owner issues in retirement planning?

A

1) How much do I need; 2) What rate of return do I need on my investments?; 3) Builds in stock market volatility

225
Q

What percentage do not know all their exit options

A

2/3 or 66%

226
Q

Cons of ____: Long process (9-12 months); Distraction / Loss of focus; Privacy concerns; Emotional for owner; After sale tie-downs; Highest absolute cost of options (but higher benefit); Complex - involves about 1000 professional hours; Can be difficult to close

A

Sale to a Third-Party

227
Q

What is this a list of?: Policies, procedures, ability to scale, product/service R&D, continuous improvement programs, environmental and safety plan

A

internal qualitative factors

228
Q

For value enhancement, ____ is the most critical element to establish.

A

Organizational Balance

229
Q

Of the 250,000 US companies that will try to exit by 2030, how many will be deemed “market ready?”

A

50,000

230
Q

ESOPs must involve ____ sales.

A

stock

231
Q

Service Model: 4 Pillars of Growth

A

1) Assess, recruit, retain labor; 2) Balance backlog with expenditure needs; 3) build infastructure to manage larger territories; 4) develop new customer markets.

232
Q

Common Readiness Issues (personal)

A

no goals and objectives; no consideration to “what next?”; no advisory board or formal transition team; no contingency plann; dated buy-sell- shareholders and/or family members not on the same page; forced generational transfer

233
Q

What is the common goal of the team?

A

Getting the owner to do the Triggering Event

234
Q

ESOP DLOM are ofen _____ as compared to typical discounts (30%+)

A

small (0-10%)

235
Q

The most common application of an ESOP is to…

A

provide liquidity for private company owners.

236
Q

______ is the value that an investor considers, on the basis of an evaluation of available facts, to be the “true” or the “real” value that will become the market value when other investors reach the same conclusion

A

Intrinsic or fundamental Value

237
Q

4 core concepts of Exit Planning(?)

A
  1. Three legs of the stool; 2. Value and income; 3. The 4Cs; 4. Relentless Execution
238
Q

In a FLP, what value are the assets contributed at?

A

A minority discount

239
Q

What % of exits are not voluntary

A

50%

240
Q

4 Tenets of Relentless execution

A

Vision; Alignment; Accountability; Rhythm

241
Q

Of the three value enhancement strategies (investors, innovators, and efficiency experts), which is: (1) willing to work with inorganic and organic growth strategies; (2) has well developed strategic planning process; (3) open to opportunities in foreign markets?

A

investors

242
Q

____ is the difference between current assets and current liabilities.

A

Working Capital

243
Q

Those HNW who volunteered gave ____% nire

A

55.9

244
Q

___ asks “How much more EBITDA?”

A

Profit Gap

245
Q

Master Plan; Validation; 5 business action items would be deliverables in which gate?

A

Gate 2 (Prepare)

246
Q

First in bucket for retirement accounts?

A

Real Estate (REITs); Commodities; Hedge Funds

247
Q

In a ___, the business is shut down through a simple, quick process. Makes sense if asset values exceed the ability of the business to produce income required to support an investment.

A

Orderly Liquidation

248
Q

A successful exit strategy has three legs…

A
  1. Maximizes transferable business value; 2. Ensures owner is financial prepared; 3. Ensures there is a plan for “what next?”
249
Q

ILIT stands for…

A

Irrevocable Life Insurance Trust

250
Q

Most common application of ESOPs are to ____?

A

Provide liquidity for private company owners

251
Q

Pros of ____: Less disruptive; Planned; Well-informed buyers; Controlled process ; if Buy-Sell Agreement in place and funded; Lower cost

A

Sale to Existing Partners

252
Q

Studies show that family-controlled businesses ___perform non-family controlled businesses.

A

outperform

253
Q

In the business model of ____, investment merits include (1) proprietary products; (2) resistant to overseas production/outsourcing; (3) non-discretionary components; (4) consumable or maintainence and repair related

A

Manufacturing

254
Q

There are many acceptable ways to execute investment plans ___. The key is to manage the
family expectations within a ___ focused on
___.

A

post-exit; framework; goals

255
Q

Of the 250,000 US companies that will try to exit by 2030, how many will sell with concessions?

A

16,000

256
Q

In the business model of ____, investment merits include (1) offerings that drive regular visits; (2) sticky relationships with customers; (3) unique offerings & competition; (4) dependent customers.

A

Service

257
Q

____% have not done strategic review or a value growth project.

A

86%

258
Q

____ buyers are normally highly leveraged with complex financial structures.

A

Financial

259
Q

With respect to dissenter’s shares, ___ means “restore me to equity” with the valuation on an enterprise level (no minority position discount) and with no discount for lack of marketability.

A

Fair Value Litigation definition

260
Q

Cons of ___: Management sand-bagging; Distraction; Threat of Flight (Coercion of Owner); Illiquid buyers; Lower price and unattractive deal terms for seller ; Heavy seller financing introduces risk; Managers are not always good entrepreneurs

A

Management Buy Out (MBO)

261
Q

What is the main difference between Main Street Transactions and M&A Transactions?

A

Types of potential buyers

262
Q

What is considered for valuation in an ESOP transaction?

A

FMV, Enterprise value, and lack of marketability discount.

263
Q

____ is the second major deliverable in the Discover gate.

A

An Action Plan

264
Q

Accountability is in the ___ gate.

A

Prepare

265
Q

Of the three value enhancement strategies (investors, innovators, and efficiency experts), which is: (1) focused on setting annual growth goals; (2) least likely to introduce new offerings; (3) maximize output; (4) develops talent internally; (5) prioritizes financial management

A

efficiency experts

266
Q

____% of HNW intend to increase or maintain their giving.

A

83.00%

267
Q

Smart Goals are…

A

Specific; Measurable; Aspirational; Realistic; Time-based

268
Q

____ are tax-qualified, defined contribution, deferred compensation, employee benefit plans.

A

ESOPs

269
Q

What is this a list of?: strategic plan, management team, corporate culture, age of families/equipment, systems and processes, product / service quality

A

internal qualitative factors

270
Q

Corporate Responsibility Assets can increase sales revenue by ____%

A

up to 20%

271
Q

What multiple would relate a bond’s cash flow to a business?

A

20x

272
Q

When in the M&A process is the first time the business name is disclosed?

A

Confidential Information Memorandum

273
Q

Are employees shareholders in an ESOP?

A

No

274
Q

Capital formation, financing of corporate acquisitions, employee productivity/retention, succession planning, and divorce liquidity are all applications of ____.

A

ESOPs

275
Q

Readiness Score…

A

how ready is the business to transition or scale?

276
Q

What % have no transition team

A

78%

277
Q

____% of HHs with net worth between $1-5m have or plan to use a giving vehicle

A

32.50%

278
Q

___ trust disadvantages include (1) If distributions are made to the Grantor or beneficiaries while they are residents of California, tax benefits may be lost as California will tax those distributions; (2) California may impose substantial penalties if it is funded with assets that are certain or even highly likely to be sold shortly after the creation of the trust (the creation and funding of this trust will be considered a step transaction).

A

NING

279
Q

A common goal of any CEPA, regardless of role, is ___.

A

to get owner to complete a Triggering Event.

280
Q

Vision is tested with what 4 words?

A

Belief, Passion, Opportunity, and Focus.

281
Q

The ____ is the most trusted advisor, followed by ____, then ____, then _____.

A

CPA, peer group, lawyer, spouse

282
Q

What is the first paradigm shift

A

Exit planning is business planning

283
Q

____ sales are most common in the lower middle market

A

Asset

284
Q

In spite of the perceived lower level of risk, middle market grew ___%/year vs public companies @ ___%/year.

A

6.5% vs 3.6%

285
Q

____ are covered in IRC Section 1400Z-1, established in 2017.

A

Qualified Opportunity Zones

286
Q

Two Types of Business Owners

A

Lifestyle – Non-transferrable; Value Creator – Higher income, best in class

287
Q

Common Readiness Issues (financial)

A

Income requirements post transition (i.e. standard of living adjustment needed?); Needs vs. Wants; Financial plan does not consider the value of the business or overstated opinion of value; Net proceeds analysis. What you keep is what matters most.; Did not start tax planning soon enough; Risk sensitivity; Inappropriate portfolio allocation; Financial plan not aligned with personal plan

288
Q

Focusing on ___ factors that drive results can align and strengthen the organization, reduce risk, maximize value, etc

A

Qualitative

289
Q

Two methods of funding an ESOP?

A

1) Prefunding with cash or stock; 2) Leveraged ESOP

290
Q

Harvest – In ___ stage

A

Decide

291
Q

___ is a business that is assumed will meet its financial obligations when they fall due.

A

Going Concern

292
Q

For a happy life you need three things…

A

Someone to love; Something to do; Something to look forward to

293
Q

In a charitable ___ trust, the Donor Gets Income Stream During Lifetime

A

remainder

294
Q

Four Core Concepts That Must Be Adopted for Value Acceleration to Work

A

1) Three Legs of the Stool; 2) The Five Stages of Value Maturity; 3) The Four C’s; 4) Relentless Execution

295
Q

In the “Decide” Gate, what are the 4 key questions?

A

1) Grow or Exit; 2) Am I ready?; 3) Which option is best?; 4) Is this the right time?

296
Q

Next in bucket for taxable accounts?

A

Muni Bonds; International Stocks; Emerging Markets

297
Q

Smallest companies (under ____ in revenue) are not suitable for formal FMV analysis.

A

$2m

298
Q

How do PE groups value businesses?

A

EBITDA!! EBITDA x Multiple = Valuation

299
Q

Most common application of an ESOP

A

to provide liquidity to private company owners

300
Q

Manage – Look at wealth in and outside business – In ___ stage

A

Decide

301
Q

Attractiveness Score asks…

A

how good does the business look from the outside in?

302
Q

1 GOAL OF exit planning

A

Relentless Execution

303
Q

When, on the wow curve, does the client hit bottom?

A

Around 12 months

304
Q

____ is the process of planning for and documenting the transfer of assets with minimized tax and transfer costs.

A

Estate Planning

305
Q

HNW give at ____x the rate of the general population.

A

10x

306
Q

3 Investment banking valuations

A

Rule of 10; Rule of 5; Super rule of 5

307
Q

____ is a benefit available to seller of C-Corp stock only in an ESOP. Deffers capital gains on stock sale (tax free proceeds at closing) and eliminates capital gains (with step-up basis, if assets are held at death).

A

1042 Rollover Tax Advantage

308
Q

A first step in financial planning?

A

gather the personal balance sheet data. a.k.a. Net Worth Statement or Personal Financial

309
Q

Businesses with ____ are best served by investment bankers

A

$5m to $1b; middle market

310
Q

What is a deliverable

A

A report, meeting, workshop, event that represents the conclusion of an assignment, step, stage, task or action.It represents what the client is paying forIt leads the client to the next stage of workTees up the next assignment

311
Q

____ is the standard of value used for ESOPs.

A

FMV

312
Q

What multiple would relate small cap stock’s cash flow to a business?

A

4.8x

313
Q

Cons of ____: Continuing accountability to partners (not a clean break); Loss of control; Culture shift; Slow transaction; Expensive relative to benefit

A

Recapitalization

314
Q

_____ is strategy which makes assets difficult or impossible to reach; it is a form of Insurance; it is a process, not an event.

A

Asset protection

315
Q

It typically takes ____ or more to move a business owner through Value Acceleration Methodology

A

3.5 years

316
Q

_______ is not the decision to sell or grow. It is a state of fact, not a state of mind. Two considerations:- is the owner ready?- is the business ready?- in the eyes of the current owner (“ugly baby”)- in the eyes of the new owner (premium or discount)

A

Readiness

317
Q

CRT stands for…

A

Charitable Remainder Trust

318
Q

What % of entrepreneurs did not wait for “success” to give back, noting they believed in supporting charities while building out the business

A

70%

319
Q

More than ______ of businesses that are put on the market do not sell.

A

70%

320
Q

What are the 4 tenets of relentless execution?

A

Vision; Alignment; Accountability; Rhythm

321
Q

In a ____, company uses borrowed funds to acquire shares from the owner and contributes the shares to a trust on behalf of the employees.

A

Sale to employees (ESOP)

322
Q

GRAT stands for…

A

Grantor Retained Annuity Trust

323
Q

Do LPs dictate what the PEG invest in?

A

No

324
Q

12 months after selling - ____ % of business owners profoundly regret the decision.

A

75%

325
Q

Some pros of ___ include that there are tax advantages to owners and businesses; typically enables faster repayment of debt; preserves legacy; known buyer helps control timing.

A

ESOP

326
Q

The 4 C’s – ___ – Measurement of Value of Talen

A

Human

327
Q

Default rates for leveraged ESOPS is ___.

A

low, at approximately 2%.

328
Q

“In a NING, the transfer is “Incomplete” for ____ tax purposes – anything contributed to this trust by
the Grantor will be included in the Grantor’s estate for estate tax purposes; and “Complete” for ___ tax purposes – the trust is designed to be a
separate taxpayer from the Grantor and a resident of Nevada.”

A

Incomplete for gift; Complete for Income

329
Q

What are the two general categories for private ownership transition?

A

Inside and outside

330
Q

_____% of company value rests with intangible assets versus tangible assets

A

80%

331
Q

What is the third paradigm shift

A

Adopt a common framework” The Value Acceleration Methodology”

332
Q

What is this a list of?: financial reporting quality, financial management, legal structure and protection, succession planning

A

internal qualitative factors

333
Q

Buyers often prefer ___ sales; sellers prefer ___ sales.

A

Buyers: asset; Sellers: stock.

334
Q

What is this a list of?: supply chain, market position, market demand, customer concentration

A

external qualitative factors

335
Q

What % of their company profits entrepreneurs reported they dedicated to charitable causes?

A

3%

336
Q

___ consists of family business and family wealth.

A

Family Enterprise

337
Q

In a ____, success is closely linked to the existence and quality of a buy-sell agreement.

A

Sale to existing partners

338
Q

Vision is in the ___ gate.

A

Discover

339
Q

Cons of ___: Lower sales price; Potential discord; Competency Gaps?; Buy/Sell may restrict selling options; Realization of proceeds from sale is often slower (and less)

A

Sale to Existing Partners

340
Q

Do S-CORP ESOPs pay federal income taxes for the portion of their stock owned by the ESOP? When are they taxed?

A

No; taxed only upon participant distribution due to death, disability, or retirement

341
Q

Profit Gap = ?

A

(Sales (A.K.A. Revenue) * Best in Class EBITDA %)) - Actual Current Recasted EBITDA

342
Q

Name the four types of buyers

A

Individual; Financial; Strategic; Internal

343
Q

Range of Multiples: Low Risk = ___ x TTM Recasted EBITDA [estimate used for ignition controls problems]

A

8

344
Q

____ trusts are Ideal for California “Like” Clients because you can remain where you are and move your investment portfolio and the income it generates to a zero income tax state.

A

NING

345
Q

____ trusts must be carefully structured to allow the Grantor sufficient control to keep contributions to the trust from being treated as completed gifts, but insufficient control to require that the Grantor be treated as the owner of the trust’s income. This result is currently only available in Nevada, due to its asset protection statute (NRS 166) that allows a settlor to retain a lifetime power of appointment that satisfies Treasury Regulations without subjecting the trust assets to claims of creditors.

A

NING *Note: this answer was previously labelled as GRAT. The correct answer is NING

346
Q

Outright sale - 3 Transaction examples

A

Corporate divestitures; Owner retirements; Management buy-ins

347
Q

What are three principal approaches to valuation?

A

income approach; market approach; asset approach

348
Q

What is a Qualified Replacement Property for an ESOP?

A

stocks & bonds of US companies

349
Q

Of the three value enhancement strategies (investors, innovators, and efficiency experts), which is: (1) driven by organic growth; (2) places heavy investment in technology and people; (3) offers improvements to expand customer base and markets

A

innovators

350
Q

What is this a list of?: labor supply, geographic considerations, barriers to entry, competition

A

external qualitative factors

351
Q

2 Fatal mistakes in M&A?

A

1) don’t confuse team members and the roles they play; 2) avoid end runs

352
Q

____ buyers pay a premium for control; have a limited dependence on owner; have a shorter time to exit… BUT they face confidentiality issues, employee layoffs, and culture shock.

A

Strategic

353
Q

IRA Assets (1) Do or Do Not Pass through the Will? (2) Subject or Not Subject to Probate? (3) Step-Up or No Step-Up in Cost Basis Upon Death? (4) Can or Cannot Be Gifted?

A

(1) do not; (2) not subject; (3) no step-up; (4) cannot

354
Q

What one decision does the PEG make?

A

Hire or fire CEO

355
Q

A successful exit strategy has three legs:

A
  1. Maximizes transferable business value; 2. Ensures owner is financially prepared; 3. Ensures there is a plan for “what next?”
356
Q

Adjusted pre-tax income (EBIT or EBITDA) on average for many companies will be in the range of ___%.

A

10% (Rule of 10

357
Q

Analyzing Exit Options is in the ____ Stage of Value Maturity.

A

Harvest.

358
Q

For a 1042, how long must the seller have held the stock?

A

3 years