Midterm mcq´s Flashcards

1
Q

Atelactasis of the lungs

a. Is always an acquired lesion
b. Results in the floating of the organ in water
c. Can cause corpulmonale
d. Is mostly congenital

A

c. Can cause corpulmonale

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2
Q

What is “lobar pneumonia”

a. Necrotic pneumonia
b. Purulent catarrhal bronchopneumonia
c. Croupous pneumonia
d. Proliferative type of pneumonia

A

c. Croupous pneumonia

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3
Q

What are the properties of the pneumonia caused by PCV-2?

a. Presence of multinucleated giant cells
b. Intra-nuclear inclusion bodies in the macrophages
c. Cytoplasmic inclusion bodies in the leukocytes
d. A & c are correct

A

a. Presence of multinucleated giant cells

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4
Q

What kind of lesions is caused in the lungs due to Rhodococcus equi infection?

a. Purulent pneumonia with abscess formation
b. Pyogranulomatosus pneumonia formed by heterolysis
c. Interstitial pneumonia
d. Gangrenous bronchopneumonia

A

b. Pyogranulomatosus pneumonia formed by heterolysis

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5
Q

What kind of lesion is the lung adenomatosis in sheep?

a. Adenoma
b. Bronchoalveolar adenocarcinoma
c. Lymphoma
d. Lymphoid hyperplasia

A

b. Bronchoalveolar adenocarcinoma

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6
Q

What is causing the equine multinodular pulmonary fibrosis

a. BHV-5
b. EHV-1
c. EAV
d. EHV-5

A

b. EHV-1

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7
Q

Which pathogen is causing typically peribronchiolar follicular lymphoid hyperplasia in swine

a. Mycoplasma sp.
b. Actinobacillus pleuropneumoniae
c. Bordetella bronchiseptica
d. Streptococcus suis

A

a. Mycoplasma sp.

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8
Q

What lesions are characteristic for the pasteurella pneumonia in rabbits?

a. Croupous pneumonia, otitis media, sero-fibrinous pleuritic
b. Catarrhal pneumonia, enteritis, otitis media
c. Purulent pneumonia, otitis media, purulent pleuritis
d. Pneumonia with abscess formation

A

a. Croupous pneumonia, otitis media, sero-fibrinous pleuritic

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9
Q

What is the consistency of the affected lung areas during special phases of croupous pneumonia like?

a. Liver like
b. Flaccid as the spleen
c. Like the flaccid muscle
d. Glandular like

A

a. Liver like

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10
Q

What lesions are characteristic for the feline rhinotracheitis

a. Catarrhal rhinitis and serous purulent (fibrinous) tracheitis
b. Necrotic rhinitis and bronchopneumonia
c. Rhinitis and lung fibrosis in chronic cases
d. Epistasis and abortion

A

a. Catarrhal rhinitis and serous purulent (fibrinous) tracheitis

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11
Q

Fumonizin toxicosis in swine causes

a. Lung edema in fattening pigs
b. Reproductive disorders
c. Normoplastic anaemia
d. Nephropathy

A

a. Lung edema in fattening pigs

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12
Q

What is the typical location for the pneumonia caused by Mycoplasma hyopneumoniae

a. Diffusely in all the lobes of the lung
b. In the caudal part of the diaphragmatic lobes
c. In the cranial and middle lobes
d. In the dorsal part of the diaphragmatic lobes

A

c. In the cranial and middle lobes (notes says it’s primary cause of catarrhal bronchopneumonia, which is found carnioventrally)

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13
Q

Why is it called “swollen head” disease

a. Because of the pathogen
b. Because of the edema of the head
c. Because of the sinusitis
d. Because of the enlargement of the crests

A

b. Because of the edema of the head

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14
Q

The malleotic nodule is

a. Proliferative inflammatory nodule
b. abscess with dried content
c. Pyogranuloma with narrow demarcation zone
d. Circumscribed lymphagngiectasia

A

c. Pyogranuloma with narrow demarcation zone

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15
Q

Which organs are affected in the later generalisation of malleus?

a. Mucous membrane of the nasal cavity, skin
b. Lungs, heart
c. Gastro-intestinal tract
d. Spleen liver adrenal gland

A

a. Mucous membrane of the nasal cavity, skin

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16
Q

What is the role of type 2 pneumocytes

a. Surfactant production
b. Proliferation
c. Replacement of the degenerated alveolar epithelium
d. All of the above

A

c. Replacement of the degenerated alveolar epithelium

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17
Q

Distemper virus infection may cause

a. Croupous pneumonia
b. Interstitial pneumonia
c. Bronchoalveolar pneumonia
d. Catarrhal purulent pneumonia

A

b. Interstitial pneumonia

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18
Q

Which one is the main form of pneumonias?

a. The diphtheroid
b. The kongophil
c. The croupous
d. None of the above

A

d. None of the above

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19
Q

The pneumoanthracosis is…

a. The discolouration of the lung interstitium
b. The consequence of carbon inhalation
c. Suggests lung haemorrhage
d. Is hyperplasia of the melanocytes

A

b. The consequence of carbon inhalation

20
Q

What other symptoms develop during distemper besides the respiratory tract infection?

a. Enteral
b. Nervous system
c. Skin
d. All three

A

d. All three

21
Q

What kind of tumours can be present in the lungs?

a. Primer tumours
b. Metastases of extra pulmonary tumours
c. Systemic tumours
d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above

22
Q

Emphysema of the lungs

a. Can be diffuse and focal
b. Can develop due to circulatory disorders
c. Is a non typical lesion in case of pneumonia
d. Causes tissue proliferation

A

a. Can be diffuse and focal

23
Q

Lung haemorrhages can be macroscopically proved by…

a. Haemoglobin imbibition of the tissues
b. Red blood cell infiltration of the mediastinal lymph nodes
c. Coagulated blood in the interstitium
d. Foamy content in the airways

A

c. Coagulated blood in the interstitium

24
Q

What is the pathognomic lesion in case of RS virus infection?

a. Syncytium formation
b. Intranuclear inclusion bodies
c. Appearance of “smudge” cells
d. Cytoplasmic inclusion bodies

A

a. Syncytium formation

25
Q

The Mycoplasma bovis infection …

a. Causes interstitial pneumonia
b. Can cause croupous pneumonia in calves younger than 10 days
c. Can only be present as a secondary infection in calves
d. Causes pneumonia without serious consequences

A

b. Can cause croupous pneumonia in calves younger than 10 days

26
Q

What are the properties of the pathogenicity of Mannheimia haemolytica and Pasteurella multocida?

a. Obligate pathogens
b. Pyogen bacteria
c. Can cause zoonosis
d. Facultative pathogens

A

d. Facultative pathogens

27
Q

Which of the following can cause toxic encephalomalacia of feed origin in horse?

a. Fumonisin
b. Cholesterol
c. Vitamin E deficiency
d. Any of the above

A

a. Fumonisin

28
Q

In which of the following species is circumscribed necrosis of the femoral head most frequent?

a. Chicken, turkey, pheasant
b. Large breed dogs
c. Small breed dogs
d. Dogs & cats

A

c. Small breed dogs

29
Q

The hyperfunction of which of the following organs leads to osteodystrophia fibrosa?

a. Thyroid gland
b. Adrenal gland
c. Parathyroid gland
d. Hypophysis

A

c. Parathyroid gland

30
Q

Which component of the CNS is most sensitive to pathological stimuli?

a. Mesenchymal cells
b. Glial Cells
c. Endothelial cells
d. Neurons

A

d. Neurons

31
Q

In which of the following cases does optic nerve compression frequently occur?

a. Vitamin A toxicosis
b. Vitamin A deficiency
c. Vitamin C toxicosis
d. Vitamin C deficiency

A

b. Vitamin A deficiency

32
Q

Which of the following viral disease can result in the embryonal stage?

a. BVD
b. Swine fever
c. Feline panleucopenia
d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above

33
Q

What is the essence of acropachia?

a. The cambium of the periosteum proliferates intensively
b. Degeneration of the periosteum
c. Inflammation of the periosteum
d. Inflammation of all structures of the bone

A

a. The cambium of the periosteum proliferates intensively

34
Q

What does leucoencephalitis stand for?

a. Inflammation of the white matter of the brain
b. Inflammation of grey matter of the brain
c. Inflammation of white matter of the sp.cord
d. Inflammation of grey matter of the sp.cord

A

a. Inflammation of the white matter of the brain

35
Q

Osteodystrophia fibrosa is…..

a. The normal reconstructing of the bone
b. The formation of cell-rich bone marrow
c. The formation of spongey bone tissue with a lower calcium content
d. The pathological ossification of osteoid tissue

A

c. The formation of spongey bone tissue with a lower calcium content

36
Q

Which of the following conditions can lead to epiphysiolysis?

a. Purulent osteomyelitis
b. Fluorosis
c. Manganese toxicosis
d. Rickets

A

a. Purulent osteomyelitis

37
Q

Osteomalacia….

a. Can be observed only in young animals
b. Can be observed only in old animals
c. Is the consequence of a protein intake deficiency
d. Is usually a reversible process

A

c. Is the consequence of a protein intake deficiency

38
Q

During osteopetrosis…..

a. There is no deformation of tubular bones
b. The bone substance becomes more compact
c. Exostoses develop on bone surfaces
d. There is tumoral tissue proliferation in the bone marrow

A

b. The bone substance becomes more compact

39
Q

What does osteoporosis stand for?

a. Inflammatory change of bone
b. Congenital rickets
c. Bone rarefaction
d. Pathological change of bone due to Zn deficiency

A

c. Bone rarefaction

40
Q

In which of the following species does the tendon of Achilles tear off the calcaneus?

a. Young sheep
b. Young bulls
c. Weaned pigs
d. Racehorses

A

b. Young bulls

41
Q

When does partial osteoporosis develop?

a. In case of inactivity caused by innervation disorder
b. At old age
c. In case of atrophying disease
d. In case of the administration of qualitatively deficient feed

A

a. In case of inactivity caused by innervation disorder

42
Q

What kind of inflammation do most viruses cause in the brain?

a. Lymphohistiocytic inflammation
b. Purulent inflammation
c. Haemorrhagic inflammation
d. Granulomatous inflammation

A

a. Lymphohistiocytic inflammation

43
Q

What does osteomalacia stand for?

a. Inflammatory pathological change of the bone
b. Congenital rickets
c. Bone softening
d. Bone pathology due to Zn deficieny

A

c. Bone softening

44
Q

What is spondylolisthesis?

a. Dislocation of sacral bone
b. Dislocation of vertebra
c. Dislocation and displacement of the vertebra
d. Dislocation of the pelvis

A

c. Dislocation and displacement of the vertebra

45
Q

In which of the following species is spondylosis chronic deformans a characteristic pathological change?

a. Fast growing birds
b. Horses & older dogs
c. Pigs & young bulls
d. Exotic felids

A

b. Horses & older dogs

46
Q

Which of the following changes proceeds the degeneration & displacement of the intervertebral disc of
older dogs?
a. Inflammation in the annulus fibrosis
b. Degenerative changes in the annulus fibrosis
c. Proliferative changes in the annulus fibrosis
d. Necrosis in the annulus fibrosis

A

b. Degenerative changes in the annulus fibrosis