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Step 2 question review > Smartdeck > Flashcards

Smartdeck Flashcards

1
Q

would a disease of bone marrow suppression also show reticulocytes in the CBC?

A

no

reticulocytosis is uncommon because the bone marrow cannot efficiently generate cells

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2
Q

ESRD, hypercalcemia, hyperphosphatemia, hyperparathyroidism, obesity, diabetes, oral anticoagulants are all risk factors for

A

calciphylaxis (calcific uremic arteriolopathy)

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3
Q

systemic arteriolar calcification and soft-tissue calcium deposition with local ischemia and necrosis

A

Calcific uremic arteriolopathy

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4
Q

what electrolyte inhibits extraosseous calcification?

A

magnesium

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5
Q

HTN, epistaxis, and HA in younger patient

A

coarctation of the aorta

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6
Q

pt with hx of HA and htn then gets anesthesia and HTN escalates immediately

A

catecholamine surge from pheo

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7
Q

type of therapy with schizophrenic pt?

A

family therapy

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8
Q

What does the initial evaluation of HTN include?

A

serum chem panel, UA, Hgb/Hct, lipids and glucose

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9
Q

defective mineralization of the bone matrix

A

osteomalacia

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10
Q

osteomalacia is MC due to

A

severe Vit D deficiency

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11
Q

will calcium be increased or decreased in multiple myeloma?

A

increased

hypercalcemia

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12
Q

codfish vertebral bodies and pseudofractures

A

osteomalacia

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13
Q

<2 yo with palpable abdominal mass, systemic symptoms, raccoon eyes, and opsoclonus-myoclonus syndrome

A

neuroblastoma

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14
Q

workup of possible nonbloody infectious diarrhea etiology

A

ova and parasites

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15
Q

nonprogressive motor dysfunction, characterized by abnormal tone, movement, and development in infant

A

cerebral palsy

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16
Q

possibly the biggest risk factor for CP

A

prematurity

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17
Q

first sign of CP?

A

delayed gross motor milestones

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18
Q

distal and facial muscle weakness with delayed muscle relaxation, (delayed release of handgrip)

A

myotonic dystrophy

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19
Q

autosomal recessive disorder associated with delayed gross motor milestones, proximal muscle weakness and hypotonia

A

spinal muscular atrophy

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20
Q

tethering of the spinal cord leads to

A

LE muscle atrophy and weakness with poor or absent reflexes

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21
Q

neonate with temperature instability and poor feeding

A

neonatal sepsis

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22
Q

2 cancers that go with elevated AFP

A

yolk sac tumor

hepatocellular carcinoma

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23
Q

lesions of multiple myeloma

A

osteolytic lesions only

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24
Q

bladder distention and hydronephrosis with oligohydraminos in utero is likely due to

A

posterior urethral valves

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25
Q

with tracheoesophogeal fistula in a fetus, would you have oligohydraminos or polyhydraminos?

A

polyhydraminos

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26
Q

most significant sequelea of posterior urethral valves?

A

pulmonary hypoplasia

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27
Q

three clinical uses of misoprostol

A

maintain PDA

induce labor for abortion

ppx against NSAID induced ulcers

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28
Q

toxicity of PPIs

A

C diff

osteoporosis

increased risk of aspiration PNA

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29
Q

triple therapy of H. pylori

A

clarithromycin

amoxicillin/metronidazole

PPI

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30
Q

octreotide indication

A

tx bleeding varices

VIPoma

acromegaly

carcinoid

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31
Q

4 drugs that could tx gastroparesis

A

erythromycin

metoclompramide

donparidone?

sissopride?

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32
Q

pills that cause esophagitis

A

NSAIDs

KCl

bisphosphonates

tetracyclines

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33
Q

3 drugs that tx hepatic encephalopathy

A

lactulose

rifaximin

neomycin

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34
Q

2 drugs that could tx chemo induced N/V

A

odansetron

apprepitant

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35
Q

first line alternative from stimulants for ADHD tx

A

atomoxetine (SNRI)

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36
Q

AMS walking into ED with unsteady gait, might as well ppx with

A

thiamine

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37
Q

sound of an AV fistula

A

continuous bruit with palpable thrill

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38
Q

sound of arterial pseudoaneurysm formation

A

systolic bruit

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39
Q

disorder that has impaired conversion of glycogen to glucose

A

glucose-6-phosphatase deficiency

(Type I glycogen storage disease/Von Gierke)

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40
Q

How do pts present with Glucose 6 phosphatase deficiency present?

A

3-4 mo old

hypoglycemia/seizures

Lactic acidosis

hyperuricemia

hyperlipidemia

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41
Q

doll like face with rounded cheeks, thin extremities, short stature, and protuberant abdomen due to hepatosplenomegaly

dx?

A

glucose-6 phosphatase deficiency

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42
Q

hypertensive end organ findings, but no HTN

A

masked HTN

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43
Q

initial step in eval of masked HTN

A

ambulatory BP monitoring

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44
Q

abdominal pain, peripheral neuropathy, positive urobilinogen

A

acute intermittent porphyria

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45
Q

Acute intermittent porphyria is autosomal dominant disorder of heme synthesis pathway that results in

A

reduced activity of porphobilinogen deaminase, building up neurotoxins of heme pathway intermediates

(porphobilinogen and aminolevulinic acid)

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46
Q

confirm dx of acute intermittent porphyria with

A

urinary porphyrin level

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47
Q

JAK2 mutations are common in myeloproliferative disorders like

A

polycythemia vera

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48
Q

4 causes of hyperandrogenism in pregnancy

A

placental aromatase deficiency

luteoma

theca lutein cyst

sertoli-leydig tumor

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49
Q

differentiate luteomas of pregnancy and theca lutein cysts in prego

A
  • luteomas of prego
    • solid, unilateral or bilateral ovarian masses
    • moderate virilization risk (high fetal risk)
    • spontaneous regression of masses s/p delivery
  • theca lutein cyst
    • cystic, bilateral ovarian masses
    • moderate virilization risk (low fetal risk)
    • spontaneous regression of masses s/p delivery
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50
Q

rubella non-immune prego lady - next step

A

MMR immediately pp

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51
Q

when do you give Rhogam?

A

at 28 weeks and immediately after delivery if infant is Rh(D) +

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52
Q

differentiate SBO and ileus on XR

A

SBO has a discrete transition point (ie obstruction)

ileus has uniformly dilated bowel loops due to generalized bowel paralysis throughout

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53
Q

post op ileus tx

A

conservative tx - antiemetics, bowel rest, serial examinations

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54
Q

what kind of iron levels is thalassemia associated with?

A

normal or elevated iron and ferritin levels

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55
Q

histopath of intestinal lymphoma

A

diffuse infiltrate by atypical lymphocytes

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56
Q

chronic malabsorptive diarrhea, wt loss, migratory non-deforming arthritis, lymphadenopathy, and a low grade fever

A

whipple disease

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57
Q

what happens to the proximal clavicle when you have an abduction somatic dysfunction?

A

stays up, should move down when you shrug

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58
Q

what happens to the proximal clavicle in an adduction somatic dysfunction

A

stays down

(should move upward)

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59
Q

rapidly expanding breast mass

dx? tx?

A

phyllodes tumor

wide local excision

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60
Q

voiding cystourethrogram can be used to dx

A

diverticula, obstruction, reflux, stress incontinence, and in trauma to asess for bladder and urethral injury

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61
Q

5 drugs you can use as mood stabilizers for severe affective dysregulation in Personality disorders

A

carbamazepine

lithium

lamotrigine

topiramate

valproate

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62
Q

pure motor stroke is likely due to occlusion where?

A

lenticulostriate arteries

lacunar stroke

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63
Q

flushing, diarrhea, R sided heart issue

A

carcinoid syndrome

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64
Q

water hammer pulse

A

aortic regurg

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65
Q

murmur with inspiration

A

right side of heart issue

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66
Q

cirrhosis and pleural effusion

A

hepatic hydrothorax

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67
Q

how does hepatic hydrothorax occur?

A

small defects in the diaphragm

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68
Q

tx of hepatic hydrothorax

A

salt restriction and diuretics

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69
Q

recommendation when you have Hep C

A

vaccinate against Hep A and B

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70
Q

Lamivudine MOA and indication

A

reverse transcriptase inhibitor

tx HIV and chronic Hep B co infection

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71
Q

tx of akathisia

A

reduce antipsych drug and add beta blocker

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72
Q

4 AIDs defining malignancies

A

Kaposi sarcoma

Invasive cervical carcinoma

Non Hodgkin Lymphoma

Primary CNS lymphoma

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73
Q

methylmalonic acid in B12 and folate deficiencies

A

B12 deficiency has increased MMA

folate deficiency has normal MMA

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74
Q

gamma tetramers aka

A

Hgb Barts

alpha thalassemia

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75
Q

lab studies in alpha thalassemia

A

microcytic anemia

elevated RBC ct

target cells on peripheral smear

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76
Q

3 gene loss in alpha thalassemia?

A

hemoglobin H

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77
Q

cervical cancer presentations

A

intermenstrual or postcoital bleeding

exophytic friable growth, or painless, ulcerative lesion

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78
Q

reverse warfarin with

A

IV Vit K and prothrombin complex concentrate

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79
Q

antifibrinolytic agent that may be used to treat heavy menstrual bleeding and prevent excessive blood loss during certain types of surgery

A

tranexaminc acid

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80
Q

hormone levels in Turner syndrome

A

decreased estrogen

leading to elevated FSH and LH

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81
Q

vision loss and HA due to retinal and CNS hemangioblastomas along with family hx

A

Von Hippel Lindau

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82
Q

manifestations of von hippel lindau

A

hemangioblastomas

clear cell renal cell carcinoma

pancreatic neuroendocrine tumors

endolymphatic sac tumors of the middle ear

pheochromocytomas

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83
Q

surge of catecholamines

A

pheochromocytoma

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84
Q

associations with anterior uveitis

A

infections causing systemic inflammation

spondyloarthritis

IBD

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85
Q

younger person with painful, red eye, tearing, and decreased visual acuity

A

anterior uveitis

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86
Q

fever, AMS, petechial rash in younger person

starts to go shocky, hyponatremia and hyperkalemia

dx?

A

waterhouse friedrichsen

hemorrhagic necrosis of adrenal glands (T10)

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87
Q

posterior margin of TFL for counterstrain tenderpoint PL4 tx

A

hip extension, abduction, external rotation

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88
Q

innominate rotation occurs around what sacral axis?

A

inferior transverse axis

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89
Q

shifting weight side to side engages what sacral axes?

A

oblique axes

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90
Q

whichever way L5 is sidebent will be the side of?

A

the oblique axis?

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91
Q

inferior or inferolateral tip of spinous process C2 is what posterior tenderpoint and what is counterstrain tx?

A

PC3

Flex, sidebend away, rotate away

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92
Q

how much time do you need between stopping an MAO-I and an SSRI

A

2 weeks

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93
Q

pt with hemochromatosis is susceptible to what bugs?

A

vibrio vulnificus

listeria

yersinia

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94
Q

hyporeflexia, hypotension, respiratory depression, drowsiness, muscle weakness is all toxicity of

A

magnesium sulfate OD

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95
Q

magnesium sulfate antidote

A

calcium gluconate

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96
Q

prior to starting infliximab, check for

A

TB with PPD

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97
Q

toxicity of calcium carbonate

A

hypercalcemia, hypophosphatemia, milk alkali syndrome

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98
Q

AE of sulfasalazine

A

reversible oligospermia

hepatotoxic

stomatitis

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99
Q

H2 blockers that decrease renal excretion of creatinine

A

ranitidine

cimetidine

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100
Q

toxicity of cimetidine

A

anti andronergic

impotence, decreased libido

confusion, HA, dizziness

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101
Q

toxicity of bismuth

A

black tongue, teeth, and stool

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102
Q

quad therapy for H. pylori

A

bismuth, metronidazole, tetracycline, PPI

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103
Q

macrolides given in early infancy can increase risk of

A

pyloric stenosis

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104
Q

first line tx for allergic rhinitis

A

glucocorticoid nasal spray

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105
Q

infants become cyanotic during feeding or crying, or older children getting cyanosis on exertion or exercise

A

tet spell - tetrology of falot

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106
Q

labs in klinefelter syndrome

A

elevated gonadotroping hormone (LH and FSH)

decreased Testosterone

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107
Q

low testosterone with elevated LH and FSH indicates… and prompts…

A

primary hypogonadism

karyotype analysis

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108
Q

pharm tx for binge eating disorder?

A

SSRIs, stimulants (phentermine, lisdexamfetamine), and antiepileptics (topiramate, zonisamide)

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109
Q

increased body temp, elevated BP, increased RR, tachycardia, tremulousness, increased reflexes, sz, disorientation, AMS or frank delirium, and psychosis are all symptoms of

A

benzo withdrawal

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110
Q

extrahepatic manifestations of Hep C

A

heme: mixed cryoglobulinemia syndrome

Renal: membranoproliferative GNephritis

Derm: PCT, lichen planus

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111
Q

MCHC and MCV in spherocytosis

A

MCHC will be elevated

MCV will be low or normal

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112
Q

restlessness, fatigue, poor concentration, irritability, muscle tension and impaired sleep

along with concern over life issues for more than 6 months

A

generalized anxiety disorder

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113
Q

scaly papules or plaques on the scalp, face, lateral neck, and dorsum of hands

A

actinic keratosis

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114
Q

mono like syndrome, generalized macular rash, GI symptoms

A

acute HIV infxn

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115
Q

focal increase in bone turnover, in which osteoclast dysfunction leads to bone breakdown and compensatory increase bone formation

A

Paget disease

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116
Q

micro findings of increased number of abnormal appearing osteoclasts with disorganized, “mosaic” pattern of bone

A

Paget disease of bone

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117
Q

what happens to osteoblast activity in Pagets disease

A

increase activity

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118
Q

3 risk factors for osteonecrosis

A

glucocorticoid use

sickle cell disease

heavy alcohol use

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119
Q

dx thromboangiitis obliterans

A

with arteriogram after ruling out everything else including ANA and other abs titers

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120
Q

giant painful chalky nodules

A

tophi, gout

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121
Q

AE of venlafaxine

A

dose dependent HTN

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122
Q

2 least likely Second Gen Antipsychotics to cause weight gain

A

aripiprazole and ziprasidone

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123
Q

pharm vasodilator stress testing causes

A

marked increase in blood flow in nondamaged vessels and to a lesser extent, increased blood flow in stenosed vessels

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124
Q

definitive tx of chronic ITP

A

splenctomy

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125
Q

spiking fevers in the evening in a kid with joint pain

A

systemic juvenile idiopathic arthritis

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126
Q

lacy white network of lines in the mouth

A

lichen planus

(Wickham striae)

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127
Q

nerve that might be injured with brachial artery cannualization

A

median nerve

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128
Q

contraindications to IUD placement

A

pregnancy

endometrial or cervical cancer

unexplained vaginal bleeding

gestational trophoblastic disease

distorted endometrial cavity

acute pelvic infection

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129
Q

Contraindications to progestin IUD specifically

A

active liver disease

active breast cancer

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130
Q

MCC of congenital hypothyroidism

A

thyroid dysgenesis

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131
Q

core feature of atypical depression

A

mood reactivity - positive response to pleasant events

also, wt gain, hypersomnia, leaden paralysis, and hypersensitivity to objection

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132
Q

persistent depressive disorder/dysthymia time frame

A

chronically depressed mood for >2 years

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133
Q

definitive test for dx of carpal tunnel

A

nerve conduction studies

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134
Q

Pleural effusion tap shows milky white fluid with high triglycerides

A

chylothorax

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135
Q

young female, generalized weakness and lightheadedness, difficulty ambulating.

fatigue, nausea, abdominal pain, weight loss

A

primary adrenal insufficiency

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136
Q

hyperpigmented mucosa in young female

A

primary adrenal insufficiency

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137
Q

peripheral eosinophilia, no parasites

A

primary adrenal insufficiency

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138
Q

finger like projections on vocal cords

A

HPV

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139
Q

anterior mediastinal masses

A

thymoma, teratoma, thyroid neoplasm, terrible lymphoma

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140
Q

untreated hyperthyroidism can lead to

A

rapid bone loss

tachyarrhythmias

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141
Q

What does the left ventricle do in hypovolemic shock?

A

has decreased filling so increase HR and increase EF

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142
Q

exaggerated fall in systemic blood pressure, greater than 10 mmHg during inspiration

A

pulsus paradoxus

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143
Q

three conditions you might see pulsus paradoxus

A

cardiac tamponade

severe asthma

severe COPD

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144
Q

decompensated heart failure is a common cause of

A

secondary mitral regurg

lateral papillary muscle displacement because of dilation of mitral valve annulus

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145
Q

is stroke 2/2 endocarditis a contraindication to thrombolytic therapy?

A

yes

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146
Q

severe HTN with onset after age 55

A

renovascular disease

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147
Q

high plasma aldosterone to renin ratio >20:1

A

primary aldosteronism

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148
Q

dx of primary adrenal insufficiency is made by

A

cosyntropin stimulation test

result will have low production of cortisol

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149
Q

tx of sternal dehisence

A

emergent surgery and fixation

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150
Q

low levels of 5 -HIAA in CSF are associated with

A

suicidal behavior

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151
Q

direct factor Xa inhibitors like rivaroxaban and apixaban are contraindicated in

A

severely impaired renal dysfunction or in DVT/PE secondary to malignancy

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152
Q

first step in work up of elevated alk phos of unknown origin

A

check GGT

normal = likely bone origin

elevated = likely biliary origin

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153
Q

d-xylose test in a celiac + pt

A

positive test, increased d-xylose excreted in the urine

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154
Q

d-xylose test in chronic pancreatitis pt

A

negative test, increased excretion of d-xylose in urine

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155
Q

ultrasound findings in congenital toxoplasmosis

A

bilateral ventriculomegaly

diffuse intracranial calcifications

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156
Q

paraplegia with severe hypertension, HA, diaphoresis, flushing, and bradycardia in the setting of urinary retention

A

autonomic dysreflexia

potentially fatal complication of spinal cord injury

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157
Q

carotid sinus hypersensitivity typically causes

A

bradycardia, hypotension

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158
Q

severe hypospadias can be indicative of

A

disorder of sex development

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159
Q

microcephaly, wide anterior fontanelle, cleft lip and palate, and distral phalange hypoplasia

A

fetal hydantoin syndrome

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160
Q

what electrolyte imbalance can precipitate ogilvie syndrome?

A

hypokalemia, hypomagnesemia

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161
Q

spiral fx of the distal tibia in ambulatory children <3 are known as

A

toddlers fx

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162
Q

tx of toddlers fx

A

immobilization and pain control

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163
Q

MC congenital heart disease, Tetralogy of Fallot has what four features

A

VSD

overriding aorta (over R and L ventricles)

RVOT obstruction

RVH

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164
Q

Clinical features of Paget disease

A
  • most asx
  • Bone pain and deformity
    • skull - HA, hearing loss
    • spine - spinal stenosis, radiculopathy
    • long bones - bowing, fx, arthritis of adjacent joints
  • Giant cell tumor, osteosarcoma
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165
Q

isolated, asx, elevation of alk phos in elderly pt

A

paget disease of bone

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166
Q

large mediastinal mass, elevated LDH, and eosinophilia raise strong suspiscion for

A

hodgkin lymphoma

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167
Q

recurrent forceful contraction of the eyelid muscles

A

blepharospasm, a form of focal dystonia

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168
Q

why should you avoid antidepressant monotherapy in a bipolar pt

A

induce mania

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169
Q

first line tx of bipolar depression

A

second gen anti psychs - quetiapine and lurasidone

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170
Q

what sound can be heard in most patients during the acute phase of MI

A

abnormal S4, atrial gallop

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171
Q

MEN IIb

A

Medullary thyroid cancer

Pheo

Mucosal neuroma/marfanoid habitus

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172
Q

initial mgmt of ascites

A

sodium restriction, spironolactone and furosemide

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173
Q

most cases of ludwig angina are from

A

dental infections

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174
Q

tx of unstable angina or NSTEMI initially

A

antiplatelets and anticoagulant therapy

beta blockers

nitrates

statins

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175
Q

cardiac complication in a Turner pt

A

aortic dissection

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176
Q

genotypically male, phenotypically female

breast development, absent or minimal axillary and pubic hair, female external genitalia, absent uterus, cervix, and upper one third of vagina, cryptorchid testes

A

androgen insensitivity syndrome

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177
Q

refeeding syndrome is the result of

A

increased insulin activity

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178
Q

time frame of adujstment disorder

A

develops within 3 months of an identifiable stressor

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179
Q

the anemia of lymphoproliferative disorders, such as leukemia and lymphoma, is due to

A

the replacement of RBC progenitor cells with cancer cells in the bone marrow

(bone marrow infiltration)

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180
Q

first line treatment of alcohol use disorder

A

naltrexone (mu opioid receptor antagonist)

acamprosate (glutamate modulator)

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181
Q

first line antibiotics for asx bacturia in pregnancy

A

cephalexin, amoxicillin-clavulanate, or nitrofurantoin

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182
Q

an enlarged, uclerated tonsil with ipsilateral cervical adenopathy is likely..

A

oropharyngeal/head and neck squamous cell carcinoma

HPV

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183
Q

aquagenic pruritis, facial plethora, and dramatically elevated hematocrit

A

polycythemia vera

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184
Q

classic thrombotic complication from polycythemia vera

A

budd chiari syndrome

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185
Q

how do you diagnose budd chiari

A

abdominal doppler US

186
Q

large volume of blood is rapidly transfused into a small child or older adult with chronic anemia

A

transfusion associated circulatory overload

187
Q

symptoms of TACO develop within …. hours of transfusion initiation and include

A

6 hours

respiratory distress, HTN, tachycardia, pulmonary edema

188
Q

tx for TACO

A

respiratory support, diuresis with furosemide

189
Q

Lab findings in hereditary spherocytosis

A

increased MCHC

negative coombs

increased osmotic fragility on acidified glycerol lysis test

abnormal eosin-5-maleimide binding test

190
Q

assess RBC fragility with what tests?

A

eosin 5 maleimide (EMA) binding test (flow cytometry)

or acidified glycerol lysis test

191
Q

on average, pt with PNH has symptoms by their fourth decade of life with what manifestations?

A

hemolysis

cytopenias

hypercoaguability

192
Q

four things of nephrotic syndrome

A
  1. proteinuria
  2. hypoalbuminemia
  3. edema
  4. hyperlipidemia and lipiduria
193
Q

nephrotic syndrome is frequently complicated by

A

hypercoagulation with a consequent risk of thromboembolic complications

194
Q

pt with acute asthma exacerbation - what would be an alarming thing to see on ABG?

A

normal or elevated PaCO2

195
Q

myalgias, proximal muscle weakness with elevated CK in young healthy woman with fatigue and delayed DTRs

A

hypothyroid myopathy

196
Q

glucocorticoid deficiency, hypogonadism, and hypothyroidism

A

hypopituitarism

central adrenal insufficiency

197
Q

what has decreased aldosterone, primary or 2/3 adrenal insufficiency?

A

aldosterone is decreased only in primary adrenal insufficiency

198
Q

lab findings of milk alkali syndrome

A

hypercalcemia, metabolic alkalosis, AKI, suppressed PTH

199
Q

low T3 levels with normal TSH and T4 in pt with acute illness

A

euthyroid sick syndrome

200
Q

euthyroid sick syndrome is due primarily to

A

decreased peripheral conversion of T4 to T3

201
Q

best case to improve mortality in ESRD pt

A

living donor related kidney transplant

202
Q

HA, binocular palsies, periorbital edema, hypoesthesia, or hyperesthesia

A

cavernous sinus thrombosis

203
Q

a limp worse in the morning in a toddler girl

A

oligoarticular Juvenile idiopathic arthritis

204
Q

what other disorder is associated with oligoarticular JIA

A

uveitis, do ophthalmologic screening because it can be unsymptomatic

205
Q

all infants should receive what as ppx for gonoccocal disease

A

topical erythromycin ppx

206
Q

prematurity, very low birth weight, and enteral feeding are all risk factors for

A

necrotizing enterocolitis

207
Q

newborn with tempurature instability, feeding intolerance, abdominal distention, and bloody stools

A

necrotizing enterocolitis

208
Q

acute limb ischemia presents in your ED, what is first step?

A

heprinize

209
Q

conductive hearing loos and pearly white mass behind an intact tympanic membrane

A

cholesteatoma

210
Q

tx for MAC diarrhea

A

macrolide based combination therapy

211
Q

systemic venodilation lowers what two things

A

preload and LVEDV

212
Q

fever, hypotension, tachycardia, and a diffuse red, macular rash involving palms and soles

A

staphy toxic shock syndrome

213
Q

episodes of depression, fatigue, hypersomnia, increased dreaming, hyperphagia, impaired concentration

A

cocaine withdrawal

214
Q

plasma aldosterone to renin ratio >20

A

primary hyperaldosteronism

215
Q

tx of primary hyperaldosteronism

A

surgery if unilateral is preferred, if bilateral or CI to surgery, aldosterone antagonists like spironolactone or epelrenone

216
Q

chronic DIC is common in pts with

A

mucin producting tumors

217
Q

these pts generally have palpable purpura, weakness, renal insufficiency, arthritis/arthralgias

A

cryoglobulinemia

218
Q

continued bleeding despite contracted uterus s/p delivery

A

inherited coagulopathy

219
Q

intrusive, reimagining traumatic event for less than 1 month

A

acute stress disorder

220
Q

progressive ataxia in an adolescent with loss of position and vibratory senses

A

Friedreich ataxia

221
Q

periventricular calcifications on fetal US

A

CMV infxn

222
Q

blunt chest trauma causing hypovolemic shock is likely due to

A

intercostal vessel injury with rib fx

223
Q

ppx for surgical site incision

A

clean: cefazolin, vanc, or clinda

clean-contaminated - broader coverage

224
Q

fever, RUQ pain, leukocytosis, increased LFTs, with rounded hypoattenuating lesion in the liver

A

pyogenic liver abscess

225
Q

carcinoid tumor might cause a deficiency in

A

niacin

226
Q

sphingomyelinase deficiency and areflexia

A

Niemann Pick disease

227
Q

beta-hexosaminidase deficiency and hyperreflexia

A

Tay-sachs

228
Q

ppx for pt with hx of acute rheumatic fever

A

penicillin ppx prevents strep infxns and limits progression to the heart

229
Q

invovles one or more delusions and the absence of other psych symptoms

A

delusional disorder

persecutory, erotomanic, grandiose, jealous, somatic

230
Q

pervasive distrust and suspisciousness of others

A

paranoid personality disorder

231
Q

pt with symptomatic sinus bradycardia should be treated initially with …

if not responding, then..

A

IV atropine

then consider IV epi, DA, or transcutaneous pacing

232
Q

dx of granulomatosis with polyangiitis is made by

A

+ ANCA and tissue bx

proteinase 3 ANCA

233
Q

What are the three MCC of digital clubbing?

A

lung malignancies, cystic fibrosis, and R to L cardiac shunts

234
Q

all children less than 2 with first febrile UTI should

A

undergo renal and bladder US

looking for anatomic abnls

235
Q

letrozole MOA

A

aromatase inhibitor

236
Q

indication for leuprolide

A

endometriosis or adenomyosis

237
Q

hypercalcemia, renal insufficiency, and metabolic alkalosis

A

milk alkali syndrome

238
Q

constipation, polyuria, and possibly abdominal pain in hypercalcemic pt

A

primary hyperparathyroidism

239
Q

diabetes drug that improves CV mortality and weight loss

A

SGLT2 inhibitors

240
Q

increased estrogen will do what to thyroid-binding globulin?

A

increase

241
Q

acute thyrotoxicosis with mild thyroid enlargement and suppressed TSH

scintigraphy shows decreased uptake throughout

A

painless thyroiditis

242
Q

what does thyroid look like if pt has struma ovarii?

A

fibrous thyroid

243
Q

EKG with broad flat T waves

A

hypokalemia

244
Q

decrescendo, early diastolic murmur

A

aortic regurg

245
Q

three causes of aortic regurgitation

A

congenital bicuspid aortic valve

postinflammatory (rheumatic, endo)

aortic root dilation (marfan, syphilis)

246
Q

contraindication for OCP

A

migraine with aura

247
Q

pt with hematoma after mild trauma and relative with hx of bleeding disorder

A

hemophilia

248
Q

factor deficiencies of hemophilia

A

VIII A

IX B

249
Q

recurrent hemarthrosis

A

hemophilia

250
Q

CMV esophagitis

what does it look like and what is the tx?

A

linear ulcers

ganciclovir

251
Q

HSV esophagitis

what does it look like and tx?

A

punctate, round/ovid ulcers

acyclovir

252
Q

MOA of second gen antipsychotics

A

serotonin 2A and dopamine D2 antagonists

253
Q

melanoma, shave bx or excisional bx?

A

excisional bx

254
Q

obsese young woman, HA, vision loss, diplopia, papilledema, normal head CT

what do you do to dx?

A

lumbar puncture

pseudotumor cerebri

255
Q

tx of pseudotumor cerebri?

A

weight loss

acetazolamide

256
Q

more than 5 days of fever and conjunctivitis, mucositis, rash, extremity changes, cervical LAD

in a kid.

dx?

A

Kawasaki disease

257
Q

pt with Kawasaki disease is at risk of developing…

what should you do to screen?

A

coronary artery aneurysms

get an echo, and repeat in 6-8 weeks

258
Q

atypical glandular cells on pap…

what are the next steps?

A

colposcopy, endocervical curettage, and endometrial bx

259
Q

systemic, descending neuro deficits, respiratory compromise, and autonomic dysfunction in the setting of contaminated puncture injury

A

wound botulism

260
Q

tx for wound botulism

A

equine botulinum antitoxin

261
Q

lithium toxicity

A

renal insufficiency

262
Q

variable decels on fetal heart rate monitor is caused by

A

umbilical cord compression

263
Q

how to tx recurrent variable decel

A

maternal repositioning

264
Q

infants at 2-8 weeks have jaundice, acholic stools, dark urine, hepatomegaly

A

biliary atresia

265
Q

progressive fibrosis and obliteration of extrahepatic bile ducts

A

biliary atresia

266
Q

sudden onset, severe, HA that may be accompanied by vomiting, neck stiffness, fever, and LOC

A

subarachnoid hemorrhage

get a CT scan

267
Q

what are reversible risk factors for PACs?

A

tobacco and alcohol

268
Q

symptomatic PACs, what is tx?

A

beta blockers

269
Q

renal vein thrombosis is most commonly associated with

A

membranous glomerulonephropathy

270
Q

bullous pemphigoid tx

A

topical clobetasol

271
Q

linear IgG and C3 deposits at the dermal-epidermal junction

A

bullous pemphigoid

272
Q

prolonged PTT that fails to correct with a mixing study

A

antiphospholipid antibodies (lupus anticoagulant)

273
Q

benign tumors in sellar

A

pituitary adenoma

craniopharyngioma

meningioma

pituicytoma (low grade glioma)

274
Q

what are first line tx for Alzheimer disease?

A

donepezil, rivastigmine, and galantamine

(cholinesterase inhibitors)

275
Q

what is the first line medical tx for idiopathic intracranial hypertension?

A

acetazolamide +/- furosemide

276
Q

parkinsonism plus autonomic features

A

multiple system atrophy (Shy-Drager syndrome)

277
Q

person meditating

A

sitting cross legged, nerve compression

278
Q

sensation of the eye is controlled by what nerve?

A

trigeminal, ophthalmic branch (V1)

279
Q

exposure to botulinum toxin, impairs the

A

presynaptic release of Ach at the NMJ

280
Q

how will botulism present in an adult?

A

symmetric descending motor paresis, starting with CN

hypoventilation and resp acidosis, to diaphragmatic paralysis

autonomic dysfunction

281
Q

fever, HA, and periorbital swelling

palsy of CN III, IV, and VI

A

cavernous sinus thrombosis

282
Q

what age will you see familial dysautonomia?

A

infants

283
Q

tx for postherpetic neuralgia

A

TCA, gabapentin, pregabalin

284
Q

dementia pt, need to rule out what causes?

A

B12, TSH, folate, syphilis, vit D

285
Q

Complication of idiopathic intracranial hypertension

A

blindness

286
Q

swinging of leg like a pendulum after hit for reflex

A

cerebellar error

287
Q

MC places for intracranial bleed

A

putamen, pons, thalamus, cerebellum

288
Q

pt with normocytic anemia and Crohns disease with bowel resection, next step

A

check B12 levels

289
Q

hereditary neuropathy and high arched foot

A

Charcot mare tooth disease

290
Q

cherry red spot on macula, top 3 reasons

A

tay sachs, niemann pick, central retinal artery occlusion

291
Q

blood and thunder appearance on fundoscopic exam

A

venous thrombotic occlusion

292
Q

flashing lights or floaters

A

retinal detachment

293
Q

first time seizure, CBC and labs are normal, next step

A

noncontrast CT brain

294
Q

ER, fever, and joint pain

A

septic arthritis

295
Q

ER, fever, and murmur

A

endocarditis

296
Q

what is occluded in subclavian steal syndrome

A

subclavian artery… comon lauren

297
Q

first line tx uterine atony

A

bimanual uterine massage, oxytocin

298
Q

second line agents to tx uterine atony with noticable contraindications

A

carbaprost - asthma

methylergonovine - HTN

299
Q

woman with hx of miscarriage believes she is pregnant and is having symptoms, but now has negative pregnancy tests

A

pseudocyesis

300
Q

tx of pseudocyesis

A

psych eval and tx

301
Q

lithium tox

A

nephrogenic DI

302
Q

post op pt, significant pain, hyponatremia, normal volume status

A

SIADH

303
Q

MCC bloody diarrhea in US

A

campylobacter

304
Q

potato salad food posioning

A

s. aureus

305
Q

tx for guillian barre

A

IVIG and plasmapheresis

306
Q

Those with lupus anticoagulant will have what test that shows prolonged time?

A

PTT, does not improve with mixing study

307
Q

Period pain that goes away after a couple of days in a young pt

A

primary dysmenorrhea

308
Q

decreased AFP will be seen in

A

Edwards and Down syndrome

309
Q

increased AFP in pregnancy is associated with

A

open neural tube defects, ventral wall defects, multiple gestation

310
Q

widening of wrsits in a baby could indicate

A

deficiency of vitamin D

311
Q

what type of kidney stone presents with urine pH <5.5

A

uric acid stone

312
Q

serious complication after rhinoplasty that presents with whistling on respirations

A

nasal septal perforation

313
Q

middle aged pt with progressive ambulation difficulties and extremity weakness is suggestive of

A

cervical myelopathy

314
Q

MCC of cervical myelopathy in older adults is

A

spondylosis

315
Q

closed fist with overlapping fingers in newborn

A

trisomy 18

316
Q

edwards syndrome findings

A

FGR, microcephaly, VSD, closed fists with overlapping fingers, micrognathia, prominent occiput, rocker-bottem feet, and severe intellectual disability

317
Q

medical tx of neuroleptic malignant syndrome

A

dantrolene, bromocriptine, amantadine

318
Q

medical tx of serotonin syndrome

A

cyprohepatadine

319
Q

hematuria, renovascular congestion, and flank pain

A

renal vein throm bosis

320
Q

cyclic fevers and nonspecific symptoms after traveling to Africa

A

malaria

321
Q

what can protect you from malaria?

A

hemoglobinopathies

322
Q

how do you dx CLL

A

Flow cytometry - showing clonality of mature B cells

323
Q

unfavorable metabolic and electrolyte side effects of thiazide diuretics

A

hyperglycemia, increased LDL cholesterol and plasma triglycerides, and hyperuricemia

hyponatremia, hypokalemia, hypomagnesemia, hypercalcemia

324
Q

proximal muscle weakness and atrophy without pain or tenderness; LE muscles more involved.

ESR and CK are normal

A

Glucocorticoid induced myopathy

325
Q

muscle pain and stiffness in shoulder and pelvic girdles

increased ESR, normal CK

A

polymyalgia rheumatica

326
Q

withdrawals from what in a day 3 post op pt?

A

alcohol

327
Q

trauma causing rib fx of RUQ might also cause

A

liver lac

328
Q

acute or within 3-5 days of acute MI, complications include:

A

papillary muscle rupture, interventricular septum rupture

329
Q

3 days s/p MI, get severe pulmonary edema and new holosystolic murmur

A

papillary muscle rupture

330
Q

recurrent UTI, pain with ejaculation, and pyuria/bacteriuria

A

chronic bacterial prostatitis

331
Q

infant with obstructive hydrocephalus and no vaccines or medications yet

A

vit K deficiency

332
Q

painful, red eye and opacification and ulceration of the cornea while being a contact lens wearer

bug and tx

A

pseudomonas keratitis

topical broad spec abx

333
Q

echinoccous on imaging shows a ….

while entameboa on imaging shows …

A

echinoccoccus cyst

entameboa abscess

334
Q

medical mgmt of ventricular arrhythmia

A

amiodarone

335
Q

some side affects of amiodarone

A

chronic interstitial pneumonitis, organizing pna, ARDS, alveolar hemorrhage, pulmonary nodules, and solitary masses

336
Q

macrocytic anemia with postprandial abdominal pain

A

autoimmune gastritis

v parietal cells

337
Q

rx that increases natriuresis, decreases angiotensin II concentration, and decreases aldosterone

A

direct renin inhibitor (aliskiren)

338
Q

inspiratory stridor worsens when feeding, crying, or supine; improves when prone

A

laryngomalacia

339
Q

biphasic stridor that improves with neck extension

A

vascular ring

340
Q

3 causes of nocturnal cough

A

postnasal drip, GERD, asthma

341
Q

what is the best imaging for suspected mastoiditis that is not improving

A

MRI, look for intracranial abscess

342
Q

what is the greatest risk of completing homicide?

A

access to firearms

343
Q

persistent difficulties in comprehension (receptive) and production (expression) of spoken and written languages

A

language disorder

344
Q

specific learning disability dx requires what

A

use of standardized achievement testing

345
Q

during vasovagal syncope, what happens to the heart

A

bradycardia and sinus arrest

346
Q

abnl lipid panel in person gaining weight, next test?

A

TSH

347
Q

what is destroyed in Huntington Disease

A

neostriatum’s GABA producing neurons

348
Q

first line for mild to moderate HTN

A

DASH diet

349
Q

loss to follow up is what kind of bias?

A

attrition bias, subtype of selection bias

350
Q

when the exposed group undergoes increased monitoring relative to general population

A

surveillance bias

351
Q

subject reluctant to report exposure due to stigma about exposure (sexual behavior, drug use)

A

reporting bias

352
Q

cirrhosis relating to hormone changes

A

hypogonadism d/t primary gonadal injury or HT-pit dysfx

elevated levels of estradiol d/t increased conversion from androgens

decreased serum binding proteins for thyroid hormones. decrease total T3 and T4 in circulation (euthyroid stays)

353
Q

preeclampsia with severe features may cause what due to endothelial cell damage?

A

acute ischemic stroke

354
Q

reasons for primary polycythemia

A

(decreased EPO)

polycythemia vera (JAK2)

EPO receptor mutations

355
Q

Reasons for secondary polycythemia

A

normal or elevated EPO

  • hypoxemia
    • CP disease, OSA, high altitude
  • EPO producing tumors (renal/hepatic)
  • Congenital (high affinity hgb)
  • s/p renal transplant
  • androgen supplementation
356
Q

normal or elevated EPO, with secondary polycythemia and no signs hypoxia, next step?

A

get CT imaging to find tumor

357
Q

low EPO, primary polycythemia suspected, how to dx?

A

bone marrow biopsy or JAK2 mutation testing

358
Q

flat annular rash, with or without central clearing

A

early lyme’s disease

359
Q

recurrent sinopulmonary and GI infections beginning after age 6 mo along with small tonsils

A

X linked agammaglobulinemia

360
Q

hypocalcemia, cardiac defects, failure to thrive along with recurrent infections

A

DiGeorge syndrome and thymic hypoplasia

361
Q

low MCV, normal RDW, normal/elevated RBC

Mentzer index (MCV/RBC) <13

A

thalassemia minor

362
Q

RDW in Fe deficiency

A

elevated

363
Q

jaundice, hepatomegaly, vomiting, failure to thrive, cataracts

dx?

A

galactosemia

GALT deficiency

inability to metabolize galactose to glucose

364
Q

MCC of spinal epidural abscess

A

s. aureus

365
Q

PTU and methimazole both cause

A

agranulocytosis

366
Q

food stuck in throat and cough/choke as swallowing

what dx tool?

A

videofluoroscopic modified barium swallow

367
Q

AE of benzo in elderly

A

paradoxical agitation

should taper and d/c

368
Q

severe hypotension and shock once anesthesia comes on board, no cardio/pulm issues

A

primary adrenal insufficiency/crisis

369
Q

what happens to A-a gradient in PE?

A

increase A-a gradient

370
Q

obstetric complications of sickle cell disease in mom

A

spontaneous abortion

pre/eclampsia

placental abruption

antepartum bleeding

371
Q

Fetal complications of mom with sickle cell disease

A

fetal growth restriction

oligohydraminos

preterm birth

372
Q

baby should respond to name and babble by when…

what do you do if this has not happened yet?

A

6 mo

audiology testing

373
Q

most common secondary factors of ITP

A

HIV and Hep C

374
Q

how would you dx ITP?

A

exclusion

normal coags, platelet morphology

HIV and Hep C testing

375
Q

quadripelegic with hypercalcemia - cause?

A

immobilization

376
Q

what will be elevated in 21 hydroxylase deficiency?

A

17-hydroxyprogesterone

377
Q

EKC finding in older adult with exacerbation of underlying pulmonary disease?

tx?

A

multifocal atrial tachycardia (SVT)

tx underlying lung issue

378
Q

kidney compensates for respiratory alkalosis by

A

secreting bicarb in urine, high urine pH

379
Q

tx lyme disease in pregnant woman

A

amoxicillin

380
Q

rectus sheath hematoma usually occurs due to

A

rupture of inferior epigastric artery from blunt trauma or forceful abdominal contractions in those on anticoags

381
Q

about 25% of pts on lithium will develop

A

hypothyroidism

continue to monitor TSH q6-12 mo if on chronic lithium therapy

382
Q

raised nodule with rubbery texture and oily surface on skin

A

seborrheic keratosis

383
Q

is AFP in HCC?

A

50%, so cant be used to rule out

384
Q

Turner syndrome with decreased estrogen are at risk for

A

osteoporosis/fx

385
Q

pleural effusion and chest tube with turbid green drainage

A

esophageal perforation

386
Q

one of the first cranial nerves to be compressed with uncal herniation

A

oculomotor

387
Q

how long do you do mammogram screening for?

A

every 2 years from 50-74 yo

388
Q

pt leaving AMA, what do you do?

A

continue whatever tx you can as outpt

389
Q

when do you give heparin in acute PE?

A

if likely PE and no contraindications to anticoag, start heparin prior to imaging

390
Q

tx for pts who are minimally symptomatic or asx for SIADH

A

fluid restriction

391
Q

when do you use hypertonic saline?

A

should be reserved for severe symptomatic hyponatremia (seizures, coma, profound confusion)

392
Q

What do you need to give HIV pt for ppx?

A

TMP-SMX for both PCP <200, and toxo <100

itraconazole only in endemic areas of histoplasmosis

393
Q

mild elevation of LFTs, chronic dyspnea, fhx of cirrhosis

A

alpha 1 antitrypsin deficiency

394
Q

what is the breakdown product of ketones?

A

beta hydroxybutyrate

395
Q

what will beta hydroxybutyrate level be in HHS?

A

normal, because negative ketones

396
Q

where are craniophayngiomas?

A

arise within stalk of pituitary and can extend into hypothalamus

397
Q

tx proliferative diabetic retinopathy with

A

laser photocoagulation

398
Q

lab elevated with mesenteric ischemia

A

lactic acid

399
Q

tx of TTP

A

plasma exchange

400
Q

most affective rx to improve HDL

A

niacin

401
Q

best med for decreasing triglycerides

A

fibrates

402
Q

what testicular tumor is associated with Peutz-Jeghers syndrome

A

sertoli cell tumor

403
Q

infant with convulsive seizures, developmental delay, and abnormal skin findings

A

tuberous sclerosis

404
Q

what are the most common renal lesions found in pts with tuberous sclerosis?

A

angiomyolipomas

405
Q

Reinke crystals are seen on histo of testicular tumor

A

Leydig cell tumor

406
Q

ill-appearingl, febrile newborn should get

A

full w/u for sepsis including LP and immediate broad spec abx and acyclovir

407
Q

wide complex tachycardia rx

A

amiodarone

408
Q

MCC of pyogenic liver abscess

A

polymicrobial

409
Q

MC benign salivary gland tumor

A

pleomorphic adenoma, then Warthin tumors (papillary cystadenomas)

410
Q

normal plt ct, normal PT, increased PTT, increased BT, low ristocetin cofactor

A

von willebrand disease

411
Q

most appropriate initial therapy for von willebrand disease?

A

desmopressin

412
Q

vessel that supplies occipital lobe and medial temporal lobe

A

posterior cerebral artery

413
Q

what happens if you combine statins and fibrates?

A

even higher risk for myositis, try to avoid

414
Q

acute gout tx, but dude has CKD

A

contraindicated to NSAIDs, so use steroids

415
Q

abx most likely to cause c diff

A

cephalosporins, fluoroquinolones, ampicillin/amoxicillin, and clindamycin

416
Q

tx of lichen sclerosis et atrophicus

A

topical steroids first

then topical calcinuerin inhibitors (tacrolimus)

417
Q

avoidant restrictive food intake disorder is associated with what else?

A

anxiety disorders, learning disabilities, and pervasive developmental disorders

418
Q

first line drug of choice for ischemic priaprism is

A

intercavernosal phenylephrine

419
Q

ppx for close contacts of meningococcemia pt

drug and AE?

A

rifampin

discoloration of body fluids

420
Q

dyspnea, dysphagia, distorted vision , and orthopnea

morning HA and facial edema, JVD

A

superior vena cava syndrome

421
Q

dequervain’s disease affects what tendon?

A

abductor pollicus longus (APL)

422
Q

what happens to rening if HTN is occuring?

A

renin is decreased

423
Q

systolic BP drop >10 with inspiration

A

pulsus paradoxus, cardiac tamponade

424
Q

weak and slow rising carotid pulse

A

pulsus parvus et tardus

might be passing out with exertion

425
Q

does bipolar disorder have to have depressive episodes?

A

no, can just show manic side and then later will get depressed

426
Q

tx of catatonia

A

lorazepam

427
Q

tx severe serotonin syndrome

A

cyprohepatdine

428
Q

what will coombs test be inhereditary spherocytosis?

A

negative coombs test

429
Q

brittle hair, skin depigmentation, neuro dysfx, anemia, osteoporosis

what mineral deficiency?

A

copper

430
Q

thyroid dysfunction, cardiomyopathy, and immune dysfunction

what trace mineral deficiency?

A

selenium

431
Q

alopecia, pustular skin rash (perioral region and extremities), hypogonadism, impaired wound healing, impaired taste, immune dysfunction

what trace mineral deficiency?

A

zinc

432
Q

cat bite, next step

A

cats are dirty, always ppx with amox-clauv

433
Q

common coinfections with gonnorrhea and chlamydia

A

HIV, syphilis, and Hep B

434
Q

fatigue, fever, wt loss, with IVDA and incarceration hx

CXR shows diffuse reticulonodular pattern

A

miliary TB

435
Q

when should speech be 100% intelligible?

A

age 4

436
Q

common cause of secondary gout?

A

myeloproliferative disorders (like PCV)

437
Q

acute febrile illness with malaise and AMS

labs show leukopenia and/or thrombocytopenia with elevated LFTs

A

ehrlichiosis

tick borne

438
Q

tx of ehrlichiosis

A

doxycycline

439
Q

pts with IBD have increased risk of developing what that cause diffuse colon dilation

A

toxic megacolon

440
Q

tx toxic megacolon

A

IV steroids, NG tube decompression, antibiotics, and fluid mgmt

441
Q

thoracic trauma and extensive extrapulmonary air (eg chest tube with peristent large air leak)

dx and confirmation?

A

tracheobronchial injury confirmed with bronchoscopy

442
Q

what does talc pleurodesis do?

A

obliterates the pleural space to prevent recurrence of frequent pleural effusion or pneumothorax

443
Q

what causes pseudothrombocytopenia?

A

laboratory error caused by platelet aggregation in vitro

444
Q

exposure to oxidizing substances (eg dapsone, nitrites, local/topical anesthetics)

A

methemoglobinemia

445
Q

diffuse telangiectasias (ruby papules), recurrent epistaxis, and widespread AV malformations

A

hereditary hemorrhagic telangiectasias aka

Osler Weber Rendu syndrome

446
Q

Osler weber rendu pt can develop

A

pulmonary AV malformations a/w hemoptysis and R to L shunt physiology

447
Q

asymmetric inguinal skin folds in infant

A

leg length discrepancy - hip dysplasia

448
Q

urinary symptoms of menopause

A

urinary incontinence, recurrent UTIs

449
Q

PBC complications

A

malabsorption of ADEK

metabolic bone disease (osteoporosis, osteomalacia)

HCC

450
Q

tx of cocaine associated chest pain

A

benzos first

asa, nitro, and CCB next

451
Q

dx Sjogrens with

A

Schirmer test showing decreased lacrimation

histo evidence of lymphocytic infiltration of salivary glands, or serum autoabs v Ro/La

452
Q

tx of uric acid kidney stones

A

PCl, alkalinize urine

453
Q

tx of actinomyces infection

A

penicillin

454
Q

younger pt, unilateral weakness, exertional dyspnea, nocturnal cough, occasional hemoptysis.

what heart issue?

A

mitral stenosis

455
Q

accentuated sound directly after S2

A

S3

456
Q

ring of calcification around the heart

A

constrictive pericarditis

457
Q

2 MC risk factors for constrictive pericarditis

A

TB and hx of radiation

458
Q

point of maximal impulse displaced to left

A

fluid overload

459
Q

dissection suspected, bumped creatinine, what imaging do you use?

A

TEE

460
Q

pericarditis + kidney failure

dx? tx?

A

uremic pericarditis

hemodialysis

Step 2 question review (9 decks)

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