Quiz Questions Flashcards

1
Q

A 45 year old woman from Jamaica presents with a 6 month history of weight loss and a two week history of fever. On examination she had cervical lymphadenopathy. Her calcium was raised at 3.0 and CXR showed bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy.

A. Post immunisation  
B. Glandular fever  
C. Pneumonia  
D. HIV infection  
E. Malaria  
F. Drug reaction  
G. SLE  
H. Sarcoidosis  
I. Appendicitis  
J. Influenza  
K. Tuberculosis  
L. Hodgkin's lympoma  
M. Gastric carcinoma 
N. Pyelonephritis
A

H. Sarcoidosis - Sarcoidosis is a chronic multisystem disease with an unknown aetiology. Lymphadenopathy is a common presentation and nodes are enlarged but non-tender, typically involving the cervical and submandibular nodes. Although uncommon, the patient may present with unexplained modest weight loss (which is often mistaken for TB or lymphoma along with the abnormal CXR) and a low-grade fever. CXR will typically show bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy and CXR findings are used in the staging of disease. Additionally, serum calcium and ACE levels may be raised. A transbronchial biopsy is essential for diagnosis in most cases and shows the presence of non-caseating granulomas. Black people have a higher lifetime risk of sarcoidosis, as do those of Scandinavian origin. The mainstay of treatment for severe disease involves systemic corticosteroids. Skin manifestations include erythema nodosum which are tender erythematous nodules and lupus pernio presenting with indurated plaques with discoloration on the face.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

A 25 year old man with a 3 day history of high temperatures, aching limbs and neck discomfort. Apart from temperatures of 39 degrees C and some mild conjunctivitis, examination was normal. Antibiotics were prescribed but had no effect.

A. Post immunisation  
B. Glandular fever  
C. Pneumonia  
D. HIV infection  
E. Malaria  
F. Drug reaction  
G. SLE  
H. Sarcoidosis  
I. Appendicitis  
J. Influenza  
K. Tuberculosis  
L. Hodgkin's lympoma  
M. Gastric carcinoma 
N. Pyelonephritis
A

J. Influenza - This is an acute respiratory tract infection caused by seasonal viral influenza A or B, hence antibiotics would have no effect. It is characterised by respiratory symptoms including rhinorrhoea, cough, fever, chills, headache and myalgia. Recent upper respiratory tract infection has led to associated viral conjuncitivitis. The examination in this case is of course otherwise unremarkable. Antigenic change presents a challenge in creating new vaccines as there is no incremental protection from previous vaccinations. There have been 4 pandemics since 1918, the recent one being ‘swine flu’ in April 2009, caused by new gene rearrangement of human, avian and swine influenza.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

A 50 year woman normally resident in the UK returned from visiting relatives in Pakistan. She described intermittent fevers with rigors, diarrhoea and severe headaches. She is mildly jaundiced.

A. Post immunisation  
B. Glandular fever  
C. Pneumonia  
D. HIV infection  
E. Malaria  
F. Drug reaction  
G. SLE  
H. Sarcoidosis  
I. Appendicitis  
J. Influenza  
K. Tuberculosis  
L. Hodgkin's lympoma  
M. Gastric carcinoma 
N. Pyelonephritis
A

E. Malaria - In the Western world, almost all cases of malaria occurs in travellers so an adequate travel history is crucial or the diagnosis may be missed. Patients typically present with non-specific symptoms such as a fever, sweats, chills and myalgia. This can also include the diarrhoea which this patient is experiencing and headaches. The jaundice here suggests falciparum infection, which is always the cause in severe disease. This woman has just returned from an endemic area. Sometimes EMQs will describe patterns of fevers occuring at regular intervals of 48-72 hours associated with P. vivax, P. ovale and P. malariae infections but in most patients there is no specific pattern. Hepatosplenomegaly is a common presenting sign although not common at presentation in a first world setting. Thrombocytopenia is common with falciparum infection and a mild degree of anaemia ais commonly seen. WCC can be high, low or normal.
The severity of malaria depends partly on the species and also on host immunity. Therefore those who live in endemic areas may develop minimal symptoms due to IgG antibody and cell-mediated immunity and physiological tolerance of parasitaemia. Pregnant women affected by P. falciparum are also susceptible to the complications of pregnancy due to placental parasite sequestration. Treatment of malaria in pregnancy must be managed with an ID specialist and should be treated with IV antimalarial therapy.
The test of choice is Giesma-stained thick and thin blood smears. Thick films sensitively detect parasites whereas thin films allow species identification and calculation of parasitaemia to guide treatment. Studies have shown that for P falciparum, the most effective treatment is artesunate which is more effective than quinine without the risk of cinchonism. Numerous studies such as the AQUAMAT study in The Lancet showing that quinine should no longer be the established treatment of choice.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

A 22 year old man presented with a two week history of fever and drenching night sweats. He had experienced severe itching during this time. Examination was normal except for swollen supraclavicular lymph nodes. CXR showed a mediastinal mass.

A. Post immunisation  
B. Glandular fever  
C. Pneumonia  
D. HIV infection  
E. Malaria  
F. Drug reaction  
G. SLE  
H. Sarcoidosis  
I. Appendicitis  
J. Influenza  
K. Tuberculosis  
L. Hodgkin's lympoma  
M. Gastric carcinoma 
N. Pyelonephritis
A

L. Hodgkins Lymphoma - This is a case of lymphoma. Reed-Sternberg cells are binucleate cells characteristically seen in Hodgkin’s lymphoma. Hodgkin’s is localised to a single group of nodes (normally the cervical and/or supraclavicular) and extranodal involvement is rare. Mediastinal involvement is common. Spread is contiguous and B symptoms may be present such as a low grade fever, weight loss and night sweats. Pruritis may be found in approximately 10% of cases but has no prognostic significance. 50% of cases is associated with EBV infection and distribution is bimodal with peaks in young and old. There is classically pain in lymph nodes on alcohol consumption.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

A 35 year old pregnant woman developed a temperature with chills and increased urinary frequency. She is tender in the right loin and has vomited. Dipstick urinalysis is positive for leukocytes, nitrites and blood.

A. Post immunisation  
B. Glandular fever  
C. Pneumonia  
D. HIV infection  
E. Malaria  
F. Drug reaction  
G. SLE  
H. Sarcoidosis  
I. Appendicitis  
J. Influenza  
K. Tuberculosis  
L. Hodgkin's lympoma  
M. Gastric carcinoma 
N. Pyelonephritis
A

N. Pyelonephritis - Acute onset fever with chills, flank pain, vomiting and positive urine dipstick all point to the diagnosis of acute pyelonephritis. Urinalysis is highly sensitive but not very specific. Pregnancy is a risk factor for complicated disease as the enlarging uterus compresses the ureters and hormonal changes increase the likelihood of obstructive uropathy. In uncomplicated pyelonephritis, the most common cause is E. coli and gram stain will typically reveal gram negative rods, either E. coli, Proteus or Klebsiella. Gram positive cocci that could be implicated include enterococci and staphylococci. Older patients can often also present non-specifically. Treatment should start before culture results are received to prevent the patient from deteriorating, with empirical antibiotics.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

A 50 year old woman presented with a temperature and aching joints 2 days prior to departure on holiday to Egypt. On examination she had a tender swelling on her left upper arm.

A. Post immunisation  
B. Glandular fever  
C. Pneumonia  
D. HIV infection  
E. Malaria  
F. Drug reaction  
G. SLE  
H. Sarcoidosis  
I. Appendicitis  
J. Influenza  
K. Tuberculosis  
L. Hodgkin's lympoma  
M. Gastric carcinoma 
N. Pyelonephritis
A

A. Post immunisation - Travel to Egypt may necessitate vaccinations for diseases such as typhoid and HAV. This is a side-effect of the vaccine and the history here points towards this. Vaccine side effects tend to be uncommon although this depends on the specific vaccine given. For example, some 10-30% of people will experience mild side effects such as muscle pain and headache after being given the yellow fever vaccine.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

A 40 year old man returned from India 4 days ago & came down with fever. He went to his GP & got some paracetamol. His fever persisted, & he had a few bouts of diarrhoea & cough. He started getting drowsy & was admitted from casualty where his blood culture was taken. The next day the lab reported Gram negative bacilli seen on blood culture.

A. Mycobacterium tuberculosis  
B. Legionella pneumophila  
C. Dengue virus  
D. Falciparum malaria  
E. Lassa fever  
F. Entomoeba histolytica  
G. Streptococcus pneumoniae  
H. Salmonella typhi  
I. Neisseria meningitidis type B  
J. Influenza
A

H. Salmonella typhi - Typhoid (or enteric fever) is a faecal-oral illness caused by Salmonella enterica, serotype S typhi, Salmonella enterica and S paratyphi. There are over 2500 serovars for S enterica. In this country, it is mainly from people who have returned from a country where it is endemic – India, for example, which has the highest incidence of this disease. Mexico should also ring alarm bells. The water supplies are not treated and sanitary conditions are dire which prompts transmission of this infection. Humans are the only known reservoir. The vaccine only offers moderate protection and does not protect against paratyphoid infection. This person has a high fever which is a hallmark of infection (sometimes in a step-wise manner) which is not responding to paracetamol (it persists) and blood culture (you need a big sample of blood for testing as count is usually low) shows a gram negative bacilli, and he has returned from an endemic region. The fever of typhoid classically increases incrementally until a persistent fever with temperature 39-41 is established. There are also typically flu like symptoms after onset of fever and cough. Remember that characteristic findings such as bradycardia and rose spots may not be present and indeed rose spots may not be easy to spot in those with dark skin. Rose spots are blanching red lesions reported in 5-30% of cases usually occuring on the chest or abdomen.
This patient needs antibiotics though the temperature will fall over about week. A third generation cephalosporin is indicated due to resistance to fluoroquinolones in the Indian sub-continent. If the sensitivity panel returns and shows that this organism is sensitive to all antibiotics then ciprofloxacin should be given.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

50 year old man went for Hajj. He was vaccinated against hepatitis & Group C meningococci. He came back with a high fever & was admitted with neck stiffness & drowsiness. He had a lumbar puncture & blood cultures. Gram stain of cerebrospinal fluid showed Gram negative diplococci.

A. Mycobacterium tuberculosis  
B. Legionella pneumophila  
C. Dengue virus  
D. Falciparum malaria  
E. Lassa fever  
F. Entomoeba histolytica  
G. Streptococcus pneumoniae  
H. Salmonella typhi  
I. Neisseria meningitidis type B  
J. Influenza
A

I. Neisseria meningitidis type B - This patient has meningitis. A big risk factor is crowding which occurs during Hajj. Commonly there will be a headache, fever and nuchal rigidity. There may also be an altered mental status, confusion, photophobia and vomiting. Kernig’s sign is uncommon but is positive when attempts to extend the leg are met with resistance when the patient is supine with the thigh flexed to 90 degrees. Another uncommon sign is Brudzinski’s sign and a petechial/purpuric rash, typically associated with meningococcal meningitis.
CT head should be considered before LP if there is any evidence of raised ICP. A LP will confirm the diagnosis with bacterial meningitis showing a low CSF glucose, elevated CSF protein and positive CSF culture/gram stain or meningococcal antigen. The CSF gram stain showing a gram negative diplococci here gives the organism away. If you know your gram stains etc you can get this one from just reading the last line.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

40 year old social worker, lived in India & the Far East for the last 2 years. He came back with an intermittent fever of 2 months duration. On examination the GP noted tenderness & swelling of the right hypochondrium. He was sent to the hospital where on ultrasound a liver abscess was found.

A. Mycobacterium tuberculosis  
B. Legionella pneumophila  
C. Dengue virus  
D. Falciparum malaria  
E. Lassa fever  
F. Entomoeba histolytica  
G. Streptococcus pneumoniae  
H. Salmonella typhi  
I. Neisseria meningitidis type B  
J. Influenza
A

F. Entomoeba histolytica - This is amoebiasis caused by E. Histolytica. Again, there is history of travel to an endemic area. Additional risk factors include being male and male-male sex, both oral and anal. Diagnosis would be confirmed by the detection of antigen in stool samples, serology or PCR. As neither of these methods are 100% sensitive, it is normally good to use more than 1 test in diagnosis. The presentation is normally with diarrhoea, without blood or mucus, present for several days or longer, indicating intestinal infection. Half also report weight loss. This patient, has however got the fever more associated with hepatic infection. There may also be jaundice here and hepatomegaly on examination. The RUQ tenderness found here is indicative of hepatic infection and the mass here is likely a hepatic abscess, which itself may extend into the pleural or pericardial cavities in rare cases, causing effusions. Splenic abscesses and even brain abscesses with neurological abnormalities can also rarely occur. Treatment is with nitroimidazoles followed by agents like paromomycin.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

30 year old stone mason came from India to work on a temple being constructed. He presented to the GP with history of fever, night sweats & cough of 3 months duration. Chest x-ray showed a cavitating shadow.

A. Mycobacterium tuberculosis  
B. Legionella pneumophila  
C. Dengue virus  
D. Falciparum malaria  
E. Lassa fever  
F. Entomoeba histolytica  
G. Streptococcus pneumoniae  
H. Salmonella typhi  
I. Neisseria meningitidis type B  
J. Influenza
A

A. Mycobacterium tuberculosis - It is important to have a high level of suspicion when evaluating patients with risk factors who present with suggestive symptoms. Night sweats, fever, malaise, cough, haemoptysis and erythema nodosum are all suggestive. In the first half of the 20th century, tuberculosis accounted for over 90% of cases of erythema nodosum. Other key risk factors for pulmonary TB include exposure to infection and returning from or being born in a high-risk region such as Asia, Africa and Latin America. If TB is suspected, the patient should be placed in isolation and a CXR obtained with 3 sputum samples cultured for AFB being the gold standard of diagnosis. Cavitating lesions like the one this patient has can be seen on CXR but is non-specific for TB. Culture takes several weeks so sputum smears will be done before culture results are known. Interferon-gamma release assays (IGRAs) are now used by some hospitals to rapidly determine a patient’s TB status. All patients who have TB should be tested for HIV within 2 months of diagnosis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

A 22-year-old student went to Thailand on holiday. A week following his return, he presented to his GP with a flu like illness and high fever. His GP presumed it was flu and told him to go home. Two days later, he re-presented to A&E, this time vomiting.

A. Mycobacterium tuberculosis  
B. Legionella pneumophila  
C. Dengue virus  
D. Falciparum malaria  
E. Lassa fever  
F. Entomoeba histolytica  
G. Streptococcus pneumoniae  
H. Salmonella typhi  
I. Neisseria meningitidis type B  
J. Influenza
A

D. Falciparum malaria - In the Western world, almost all cases of malaria occurs in travellers so an adequate travel history is crucial or the diagnosis may be missed. Patients typically present with non-specific symptoms such as a fever, sweats, chills and myalgia. This student has just returned from an endemic area. Sometimes EMQs will describe patterns of fevers occuring at regular intervals of 48-72 hours associated with P. vivax, P. ovale and P. malariae infections but in most patients there is no specific pattern. Hepatosplenomegaly is a common presenting sign although not common at presentation in a first world setting. Thrombocytopenia is common with falciparum infection and a mild degree of anaemia are commonly seen. WCC can be high, low or normal.
Pregnant women affected by P. falciparum are susceptible to the complications of pregnancy due to placental parasite sequestration. Treatment of malaria in pregnancy must be managed with an ID specialist and should be treated with IV antimalarial therapy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

A 22 year old female medical student returned from elective in Nigeria 3 months ago, she has had a fever & night sweats for 3 weeks.
choose the SINGLE investigation, most likely to confirm the diagnosis, from the above list of options:

A. Abdominal ultrasound  
B. Echocardiogram  
C. Urine microscopy & culture  
D. Thick blood film  
E. Liver function tests  
F. Lumbar puncture  
G. IVP  
H. Blood cultures  
I. Full blood count  
J. Clinical exam only  
K. CT brain scan  
L. Chest x-ray & sputum cultures  
M. Throat swabs
A

D. Thick blood film - In the Western world, almost all cases of malaria occurs in travellers so an adequate travel history is crucial or the diagnosis may be missed. Patients typically present with non-specific symptoms such as a fever, sweats, chills and myalgia. This medical student has just returned from an endemic area. Sometimes EMQs will describe patterns of fevers occuring at regular intervals of 48-72 hours associated with P. vivax, P. ovale and P. malariae infections but in most patients there is no specific pattern.
The test of choice is Giesma-stained thick and thin blood smears. Thick films sensitively detect parasites whereas thin films allow species identification and calculation of parasitaemia to guide treatment. Studies have shown that for P falciparum, the most effective treatment is artesunate which is more effective than quinine without the risk of cinchonism. However, not all hospitals are currently licensed to use it in the UK (in London, only the Hospital for Tropical Diseases and Northwick Park). Artesunate is manufactured by a pharmaceutical company in China and there are doubts over the quality of the product. However, there have now been numerous studies such as the AQUAMAT study in The Lancet showing that quinine should no longer be the established treatment of choice.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

A 23 year old man has been living rough in London since being made homeless 6 months ago. He presents in A&E, unwell with 1 month history of cough, weight loss, fever & night sweats. Choose the SINGLE investigation, most likely to confirm the diagnosis, from the above list of options:

A. Abdominal ultrasound  
B. Echocardiogram  
C. Urine microscopy & culture  
D. Thick blood film  
E. Liver function tests  
F. Lumbar puncture  
G. IVP  
H. Blood cultures  
I. Full blood count  
J. Clinical exam only  
K. CT brain scan  
L. Chest x-ray & sputum cultures  
M. Throat swabs
A

L. Chest x-ray & sputum cultures - The patient’s symptoms point towards pulmonary TB. CXR is the first line test to order. Classically, in primary disease there are middle and lower zone infiltrates. Post-primary TB usually involves apical changes with or without cavitation. However, recent students have indicated that both presentations are seen in both primary and post-primary TB. HIV positive patients tend to have a more atypical CXR including effusion, lower zone involvement and a miliary pattern. Sputum cultures on LJ medium are the most sensitive and specific test but growth on solid media can take 4-8 weeks. A smear will be done in the meantime to look for AFB but the sensitivity is lower than that of a culture.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

An 18 year old student started university 3 months ago. She has felt flu-like for 2 days. In the last 2 hours she has developed a severe headache, vomiting, temp of 390C & photophobia. On examination she has neck stiffness & a positive Kernig’s sign. Choose the SINGLE investigation, most likely to confirm the diagnosis, from the above list of options:

A. Abdominal ultrasound  
B. Echocardiogram  
C. Urine microscopy & culture  
D. Thick blood film  
E. Liver function tests  
F. Lumbar puncture  
G. IVP  
H. Blood cultures  
I. Full blood count  
J. Clinical exam only  
K. CT brain scan  
L. Chest x-ray & sputum cultures  
M. Throat swabs
A

F. Lumbar puncture - This patient has meningitis. Universities are common sites of outbreaks due to crowding. Commonly there will be a headache, fever and nuchal rigidity. There may also be an altered mental status, confusion, photophobia and vomiting. Kernig’s sign is uncommon but is positive when attempts to extend the leg are met with resistance when the patient is supine with the thigh flexed to 90 degrees. Another uncommon sign is Brudzinski’s sign and a petechial/purpuric rash, typically associated with meningococcal meningitis.
CT head should be considered before LP if there is any evidence of raised ICP. A LP will confirm the diagnosis with bacterial meningitis showing a low CSF glucose, elevated CSF protein and positive CSF culture/gram stain or meningococcal antigen.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

5 days after a bowel resection for cancer, a 70 year old man gets a swinging fever & becomes confused. Choose the SINGLE investigation, most likely to confirm the diagnosis, from the above list of options:

A. Abdominal ultrasound  
B. Echocardiogram  
C. Urine microscopy & culture  
D. Thick blood film  
E. Liver function tests  
F. Lumbar puncture  
G. IVP  
H. Blood cultures  
I. Full blood count  
J. Clinical exam only  
K. CT brain scan  
L. Chest x-ray & sputum cultures  
M. Throat swabs
A

H. Blood cultures - Post-surgical patients are at risk of developing an abscess. An abscess is a collection of pus or infected material. A swinging fever is strongly indicative of an abscess and a blood culture is required to identify the pathogenic organism. Percutaneous or surgical drainage will usually be required with appropriate antimicrobial therapy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

A 3 year old girl is febrile and has been unwell for 12 hours. She complains of a headache and is drowsy but otherwise neurologically intact. Choose the single most discriminating investigation in the acute management from the list of options:

A. ESR  
B. Blood cultures  
C. Chest X-ray  
D. Urine culture  
E. Stool electron microscopy  
F. EEG  
G. Stool culture  
H. Culture of joint aspirate  
I. C-reactive protein  
J. Lumbar puncture  
K. Throat swab  
L. Full blood count  
M. CT brain
A

J. Lumbar puncture - Meningitis commonly affects the extremes of age (60 years) due to impaired immunity in the former, and waning immunity in the latter. A lumbar puncture to obtain CSF is the most important investigation when this diagnosis is considered. This should not however delay the starting of empirical antimicrobial therapy. When the specific organism is identified, treatment can be modified accordingly. Fever, headache and drowsiness should make you suspicious here of this diagnosis. Atypical presentations can also occur, and these tend to happen in the very young, older or immunocompromised patients. In older patients, frequently, the only presenting sign of meningitis is confusion or an altered mental status. In infants, the signs and symptoms can be very non-specific and may include lethargy, poor feeding, irritability and fever. A rash is noted in 80-90% of patients, commonly 4-18 hours after initial symptoms and is associated with meningococcal aetiology (although may be present with any bacterial meningitis).
In bacterial meningitis, the CSF pressure is usually raised and WBC count is elevated. The glucose level is decreased compared to the serum value and the protein level is increased. In those who are untreated, Gram stain and culture of CSF are usually positive for the causative organism. However, in those who get antibiotics before cultures are obtained, the diagnostic yield is much lower (as low as 20%). If a lumbar puncture is delayed or regarded as clinically unsafe (for instance, raised intracranial pressure), then blood samples should be obtained for culture. Of course, a head CT should be considered before LP if there is focal neurology, new onset seizures, papilloedema, altered consciousness or any sign which may indicate raised ICP.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

A 2 month old child has had a fever and cough for three days. He is tachypnoeic with grunting and has nasal flaring. Choose the single most discriminating investigation in the acute management from the list of options:

A. ESR  
B. Blood cultures  
C. Chest X-ray  
D. Urine culture  
E. Stool electron microscopy  
F. EEG  
G. Stool culture  
H. Culture of joint aspirate  
I. C-reactive protein  
J. Lumbar puncture  
K. Throat swab  
L. Full blood count  
M. CT brain
A

C. Chest X-ray - This 2 month old child has pneumonia and is displaying signs of respiratory distress (tachypnoea, nasal flaring, grunting). The most sensitive and specific test to perform is a CXR (PA and lateral). What may be seen is an infiltrate, consolidation, effusions and cavitation. Initial treatment is empirical with antibiotics (amoxicillin is the first choice in children).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

A 3 year old has had a high fever and sore throat for 2 days. This evening he had a generalised convulsion lasting 2 minutes. He is now drowsy but rousable with no localising signs. Choose the single most discriminating investigation in the acute management from the list of options:

A. ESR  
B. Blood cultures  
C. Chest X-ray  
D. Urine culture  
E. Stool electron microscopy  
F. EEG  
G. Stool culture  
H. Culture of joint aspirate  
I. C-reactive protein  
J. Lumbar puncture  
K. Throat swab  
L. Full blood count  
M. CT brain
A

K. Throat swab - This child has septicaemia secondary to a throat infection caused by group A beta-haemolytic streptococcus (Streptococcus pyogenes). This is no additional reason to believe that this is toxic shock syndrome or rheumatic fever, but the sore throat and fever for 2 weeks requires a culture of a throat swab to look for the causative organism. This is the most specific and sensitive test for GAS. However, a rapid antigen test can also be done for GAS which is about 80% sensitive and 95% specific compared to a throat culture but obviously much quicker. Blood cultures can also be done as the infection is now systemic but the throat culture is the best choice here as this is the obvious initial source of the infection. Treatment is with antibiotics and may be with penicillin or amoxicillin. GAS resistance to macrolides has been reported. Supportive care in this patient is also essential.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

An 8 year old has developed a painful, swollen knee over the last day. O/E there is a tender, warm effusion of the left knee. She also has a pyrexia of 38 degrees. Choose the single most discriminating investigation in the acute management from the list of options:

A. ESR  
B. Blood cultures  
C. Chest X-ray  
D. Urine culture  
E. Stool electron microscopy  
F. EEG  
G. Stool culture  
H. Culture of joint aspirate  
I. C-reactive protein  
J. Lumbar puncture  
K. Throat swab  
L. Full blood count  
M. CT brain
A

H. Culture of joint aspirate - This 8 year old has septic arthritis. The septic knee joint here will be painful, hot, swollen and restricted movement of the affected joint. In all cases of suspected joint sepsis, the joint needs to be aspirated and empirical antibiotics need to be commenced once appropriate cultures have been taken. If the cause is a low virulence organism, TB or if in an older patient, the joint is prosthetic, then the presentation may be more insidious in onset. If there is already underlying joint disease then a septic joint should be suspected if the symptoms are out of proportion to normal disease activity. Some 20% of cases of septic arthritis is polyarticular. In sexually active patients, gonococcal arthritis is an important differential to consider. Presence or absence of fever is not a reliable indicator of joint sepsis and the diagnosis is largely one of clinical suspicion – treatment should therefore be commenced on this basis regardless of blood test results or microbiology. Synovial fluid Gram stain and culture is however positive in 70% of cases.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

A 12 month old boy has a 24 hour history of profuse diarrhoea and irritability. He has a low grade fever. Choose the single most discriminating investigation in the acute management from the list of options:

A. ESR  
B. Blood cultures  
C. Chest X-ray  
D. Urine culture  
E. Stool electron microscopy  
F. EEG  
G. Stool culture  
H. Culture of joint aspirate  
I. C-reactive protein  
J. Lumbar puncture  
K. Throat swab  
L. Full blood count  
M. CT brain
A

G. Stool culture - The best investigation for presumed infectious diarrhoea here is to do a stool culture. It is not an absolutely necessary investigation in most cases as the mainstay of treatment is supportive with rehydration and the correction of electrolyte imbalance. However, stool cultures should be sent from patients with symptoms which are persistent or severe enough to prompt the patient to seek medical attention. Cultures are also mandatory in cases of bloody diarrhoea and signs of systemic involvement. The cultures should be sent within 3 days of admission as the yield is significantly reduced beyond this time period – and results take 2-4 days to become available.
This condition is more common in the extremes of age and complications are also more common in these groups. The commonly examined complication is haemolytic uraemic syndrome, which develops in 10% of patients with E coli O157 infection. Another complication is death, which is uncommonly examined but needless to say most patients who die from infectious diarrhoea are at the extremes of age. Diarrhoeal illness in young infants under 2 years of age is characteristically caused by EPEC (enteropathogenic E coli). Use of antibiotics is controversial and in most cases is not necessary (except possible in traveller’s diarrhoea).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

A 30 year old, man became unwell 4 weeks after a holiday in Africa. He developed headaches, muscle pains, feeling cold, severe rigors, high fever, flushing, vomiting and profuse sweating.

A. Toxoplasmosis  
B. Syphilis  
C. Enteric fever  
D. CMV (cytomegalovirus)  
E. Tetanus  
F. Tuberculosis  
G. Giardiasis  
H. Malaria  
I. Herpes zoster (shingles)  
J. HIV  
K. Influenza  
L. Rabies  
M. Viral hepatitis  
N. Glandular fever  
O. Cholera  
P. Polio
A

H. Malaria - In the Western world, almost all cases of malaria occurs in travellers so an adequate travel history is crucial or the diagnosis may be missed. Malaria is endemic in many parts of Africa and this is a clue. Patients typically present with non-specific symptoms such as a fever, sweats, chills and myalgia. Sometimes EMQs will describe patterns of fevers occuring at regular intervals of 48-72 hours associated with P. vivax, P. ovale and P. malariae infections but in most patients there is no specific pattern. The test of choice is Giesma-stained thick and thin blood smears. Thick films sensitively detect parasites whereas thin films allow species identification and calculation of parasitaemia to guide treatment. Note that blackwater fever is a complication of malaria which occurs due to haemolysis and the release of haemoglobin into blood vessels and subsequently into the urine, which can frequently lead to renal failure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

A 50 year old man became unwell after a holiday in India. He developed a fever, tiredness, night sweats and a productive cough. He lost half a stone in weight since his return from holiday 6 weeks ago.

A. Toxoplasmosis  
B. Syphilis  
C. Enteric fever  
D. CMV (cytomegalovirus)  
E. Tetanus  
F. Tuberculosis  
G. Giardiasis  
H. Malaria  
I. Herpes zoster (shingles)  
J. HIV  
K. Influenza  
L. Rabies  
M. Viral hepatitis  
N. Glandular fever  
O. Cholera  
P. Polio
A

F. Tuberculosis - The patient’s symptoms and travel history point towards pulmonary TB. It is important to have a high level of suspicion when evaluating patients with risk factors who present with suggestive symptoms. Night sweats, fever, malaise, cough, haemoptysis and erythema nodosum are all suggestive. Key risk factors for pulmonary TB include exposure to infection and returning from or being born in a high-risk region such as Asia, Africa and Latin America. If TB is suspected, the patient should be placed in isolation and a CXR obtained with 3 sputum samples cultured for AFB being the gold standard of diagnosis. Culture on solid media can take 4-8 weeks so sputum smears will be done before culture results are known. Interferon-gamma release assays (IGRAs) are now used by some hospitals to rapidly determine a patient’s TB status. All patients who have TB should be tested for HIV within 2 months of diagnosis.
Classically, in primary disease CXR shows middle and lower zone infiltrates. Post-primary TB usually involves apical changes with or without cavitation. However, recent students have indicated that both presentations are seen in both primary and post-primary TB. HIV positive patients tend to have a more atypical CXR including effusion, lower zone involvement and a miliary pattern.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

A 20 year old student presented with a sore throat, fever, anorexia, malaise and lymphadenopathy. She was treated for tonsillitis by her GP but did not complete the course because she developed an allergic rash.

A. Toxoplasmosis  
B. Syphilis  
C. Enteric fever  
D. CMV (cytomegalovirus)  
E. Tetanus  
F. Tuberculosis  
G. Giardiasis  
H. Malaria  
I. Herpes zoster (shingles)  
J. HIV  
K. Influenza  
L. Rabies  
M. Viral hepatitis  
N. Glandular fever  
O. Cholera  
P. Polio
A

N. Glandular fever - EBV causes a maculopapular pattern after ampicillin, which is what this patient has been given. Infectious mononucleosis (glandular fever) is caused by EBV and is characterised by fever, pharyngitis and lymphadenopathy. Enlargement of the spleen also begins in the first week and lasts 3-4 weeks, occuring in half of all cases. Risk factors for EBV transmission include kissing and sex (your 20 year old student here). A FBC will show an atypical lymphocytosis. Confirmation of IM involves detection of the existence of heterophile antibodies using the Paul Bunnell monospot. A more accurate test is a serological test detecting EBV specific antibodies. Treatment is usually symptomatic but IM carries rare but potentially life threatening complications.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

A 60 year old diabetic man with fever, malaise, headache and muscle pains. After a few days he became very ill and is now confined to his bed with a hot water bottle.

A. Toxoplasmosis  
B. Syphilis  
C. Enteric fever  
D. CMV (cytomegalovirus)  
E. Tetanus  
F. Tuberculosis  
G. Giardiasis  
H. Malaria  
I. Herpes zoster (shingles)  
J. HIV  
K. Influenza  
L. Rabies  
M. Viral hepatitis  
N. Glandular fever  
O. Cholera  
P. Polio
A

K. Influenza - Diabetics are more suspectible to infectious such as flu. This is an acute respiratory tract infection caused by seasonal viral influenza A or B, hence antibiotics would have no effect. It is characterised by respiratory symptoms including rhinorrhoea, cough, fever, chills, headache and myalgia. Examination can be expected to be otherwise unremarkable. Antigenic change presents a challenge in creating new vaccines as there is no incremental protection from previous vaccinations. There have been 4 pandemics since 1918, the recent one being ‘swine flu’ in April 2009, caused by new gene rearrangement of human, avian and swine influenza.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Two weeks after a holiday in the Far East, a 30 year old lady presented with anorexia, fever and joint pains. Jaundice appeared a week later and on examination her liver and spleen were both enlarged and very tender.

A. Toxoplasmosis  
B. Syphilis  
C. Enteric fever  
D. CMV (cytomegalovirus)  
E. Tetanus  
F. Tuberculosis  
G. Giardiasis  
H. Malaria  
I. Herpes zoster (shingles)  
J. HIV  
K. Influenza  
L. Rabies  
M. Viral hepatitis  
N. Glandular fever  
O. Cholera  
P. Polio
A

M. Viral hepatitis - This is likely hepatitis A which is primarily transmitted via the faecal-oral route. After the virus is consumed and absorbed, it replicates in the liver and is excreted in the bile (to be re-transmitted). Transmission usually precedes symptoms by about 2 weeks and patients are non-infectious one week after onset of jaundice. The history can reveal risk factors such as living in an endemic area, contact with an infected person, homosexual sex or a known food-borne outbreak. This is classically, in EMQs, associated with shellfish which is harvested from sewage contaminated water.
The clinical course of HAV consists of a pre-icteric phase, lasting 5-7 days, consisting characteristically of N&V, abdominal pain, fever, malaise and headache. Rarer symptoms may be present such as arthralgias and even severe thrombocytopenia and signs that may be found include splenomegaly, RUQ tenderness and tender hepatomegaly as well as bradycardia. The icteric phase is characterised by dark urine, pale stools, jaundice and pruritis. When jaundice comes on, the pre-icteric phase symptoms usually diminish, and jaundice typically peaks at 2 weeks. However, a fulminant course runs in

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

A 20 year old lady became ill 2 weeks after a holiday in Brazil. She developed a fever, headache, cough & constipation which turned to diarrhoea 10 days later. She also has a blanching red lesion on her chest and abdomen. She is also found to be bradycardic.

A. Toxoplasmosis  
B. Syphilis  
C. Enteric fever  
D. CMV (cytomegalovirus)  
E. Tetanus  
F. Tuberculosis  
G. Giardiasis  
H. Malaria  
I. Herpes zoster (shingles)  
J. HIV  
K. Influenza  
L. Rabies  
M. Viral hepatitis  
N. Glandular fever  
O. Cholera  
P. Polio
A

C. Enteric fever - Typhoid (or enteric fever) is a faecal-oral illness caused by Salmonella enterica, serotype S typhi, Salmonella enterica and S paratyphi. There are over 2500 serovars for S enterica. In this country, it is mainly from people who have returned from a country where it is endemic. The water supplies in Brazil may not treated and sanitary conditions may be dire which prompts transmission of this infection. Humans are the only known reservoir. The vaccine only offers moderate protection and does not protect against paratyphoid infection. This person has a fever which is a hallmark of infection. The fever of typhoid classically increases incrementally until a persistent fever with temperature 39-41 is established. There are also typically flu like symptoms after onset of fever and cough. Remember that characteristic findings such as bradycardia and rose spots may not be present and indeed rose spots may not be easy to spot in those with dark skin. Rose spots are blanching red lesions reported in 5-30% of cases usually occuring on the chest or abdomen.
This patient needs antibiotics though the temperature will fall over about week. A third generation cephalosporin is indicated. If the sensitivity panel returns and shows that this organism is sensitive to all antibiotics then ciprofloxacin should be given.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

A 40 year old business man travels frequently to the Far East and Africa. He became generally unwell with a fever, generalised lymphatic swelling, diarrhoea. On examination he was noted to have oral canididasis

A. Giardiasis  
B. Polio  
C. Glandular Fever  
D. Malaria  
E. Viral Hepatitis  
F. HIV  
G. Tuberculosis  
H. Herpes Zooster (Shingles)  
I. Cholera  
J. Toxoplasmosis  
K. CMV (cytomegalovirus)  
L. Syphilis  
M. Tetanus  
N. Influenza  
O. Rabies
A

F. HIV - The aim here is to establish the patient’s prognosis and begin the patient on HAART (highly active antiretroviral therapy). This patient needs to have a CD4 count, screen for HBV and HCV, VDRL, tuberculin skin test and a CXR. HIV viral load is also assessed at baseline. Generalised lymphadenopathy is common in HIV and present as painless enlarged nodes, usually in 2 or more non-contiguous sites, of >1cm for > 3months. Fevers and night sweats are also commonly seen, which may also indicate TB, which needs to be excluded (and malaria if from an endemic area). Unexplained diarrhoea of >1 month duration with no pathogen diagnosed is also seen in HIV. The oral candidiasis is also indicative of HIV and is an opportunitistic infection in an immunocompromised host. This patient has WHO stage 3 disease and would be placed in CDC category B, or symptomatic non-AIDS conditions. Oropharyngeal candidiasis is not AIDS indicating, but if this patient has candidiasis of the bronchi, trachea or lungs, or oesophagus then this would indicate an AIDS diagnosis (CDC category C – once the patient reaches category C, they stay in this category). I would not worry too much about clinical staging which is done according to the WHO or CDC criteria.
Other category C conditions, which indicate AIDS, include CMV retinitis, Kaposi’s sarcoma, Mycobacterium avium complex/tuberculosis/other, PCP and toxoplasmosis. Key risk factors for HIV include needle sharing with IVDU, unprotected homo- and heterosexual intercourse (a higher risk if the receptive partner, particular with receptive anal intercourse), HIV infected blood transfusion, needle stick injury and high maternal viral load (mother to child transmission).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

A 25 year old man developed a fever, malaise, lymphadenopathy and a rash on the palms of his soles of his feet. 6 weeks earlier he had a painless ulcer on his penis.

A. Giardiasis  
B. Polio  
C. Glandular Fever  
D. Malaria  
E. Viral Hepatitis  
F. HIV  
G. Tuberculosis  
H. Herpes Zooster (Shingles)  
I. Cholera  
J. Toxoplasmosis  
K. CMV (cytomegalovirus)  
L. Syphilis  
M. Tetanus  
N. Influenza  
O. Rabies
A

L. Syphilis - Syphilis is a common STI which is caused by the spirochete bacterium Treponema pallidum (subspecies pallidum). This history is textbook syphilis. People at high risk include those who have had sexual contact with an infected person, men who have sex with men, those with HIV and other STDs, those with multiple partners, commercial sex workers and those who use illicit drugs. The presentation is often asymptomatic but can manifest in many different ways. There is a ulcer of primary syphilis here noticed 6 weeks ago. Initial infection is local and leads to development of a macule. This develops into a papule which then ulcerates to form a chancre (typically appears 9 to 90 days after exposure, usually between 2-3 weeks) and may not be noticed by the patient (as it is painless). It typically develops in the anogenital area or cervix. There may also be (discrete, painless, rubbery) regional lymphadenopathy. This ulcer heals spontaneously.
This patient has then gone on to develop secondary syphilis 6 weeks later (typically 4-8 weeks). Here there is disseminated treponemal infection which has multi-system manifestations and a diverse presentation. There are constitutional symptoms here as well as generalised lymphadenopathy. There may also, like this case, be this typical generalised symmetrical macular, papular or maculopapular diffuse rash which typically affects the palms of the hands and the plantar aspects of the feet. This rash may also occur on the trunk and scalp and may ulcerate. There may also be flesh-coloured wart-like lesions in the genital area which is known as condylomata lata.

The treatment is with penicillin. Untreated syphilis facilitates the transmission of HIV and can cause considerable problems such as cardiovascular and neurological disease, as well as a congenital syndrome in the newborn. In some parts of the developing world, syphilis in pregnancy is a major cause of miscarriage and stillbirth. Pregnant women with syphilis are at risk of transmitting the infection across the placenta to the fetus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

A 32 year old man lacerated his leg in the garden. Two months later he developed a fever and headache followed by a permanent grin-like posture, inability to close his mouth, arching of his body with hyperextension of his neck.

A. Giardiasis  
B. Polio  
C. Glandular Fever  
D. Malaria  
E. Viral Hepatitis  
F. HIV  
G. Tuberculosis  
H. Herpes Zooster (Shingles)  
I. Cholera  
J. Toxoplasmosis  
K. CMV (cytomegalovirus)  
L. Syphilis  
M. Tetanus  
N. Influenza  
O. Rabies
A

M. Tetanus - This is very obvious tetanus which is caused by the exotoxin of the bacterium Clostridium tetani. This should have been prevented by appropriate management of the initial tetanus-prone wound and with complete active immunisation, with passive immunisation given when required. There is trismus here which has resulted in a grimace which is described as ‘risus sardonicus’ or sardonic smile. During a generalised tetanic spasm, the patient classically arches their back and extends their legs, flexes their arms in abduction and clenches their fists. Apnoea may also be a feature of these spasms. Intermittent tonic contractions of skeletal muscles often occurs which causes intensely painful spasms which may last for minutes – these are often triggered by stimuli such as noise, light and physical contact. Tetanic spasms can also produce opisthotonus, board like abdominal wall rigidity, dysphagia and apnoeic periods. Management of clinical tetanus involves supportive care (airway management is crucial here as spasms may compromise ventilation – without mechanical ventilation facilities such as in the third world, asphyxia is the most common cause of death due to muscle spasm), wound debridement, antimicrobials, passive and active immunisation, control of spasms and the management of autonomic dysfunction. Case fatality rate is 12-53%.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

A 30 year old man recently returned from a holiday in Bangladesh. He developed watery diarrhoea 20 hours ago which has increased in volume. There has been vomiting. Now there is an almost continuous passage of loose and pale stools.

A. Giardiasis  
B. Polio  
C. Glandular Fever  
D. Malaria  
E. Viral Hepatitis  
F. HIV  
G. Tuberculosis  
H. Herpes Zooster (Shingles)  
I. Cholera  
J. Toxoplasmosis  
K. CMV (cytomegalovirus)  
L. Syphilis  
M. Tetanus  
N. Influenza  
O. Rabies
A

I. Cholera - This is a secretory diarrhoea caused by the bacterial organism Vibrio cholerae. This organism releases a toxin which stimulates adenylate cyclase. It is classically a disease of poverty but is also well described in returning travellers. Vomiting is a common early feature. The most striking and characteristic feature of cholera is the loose rice-water stools – a high volume diarrhoea which remains pale and loose, without blood. The presentation tends to be with litres of this rice-water stools. Culture of the organism provides a definitive diagnosis and rapid dipstick tests are currently available. Most patients will recover if the effects of the profound volume depletion are corrected with either oral or IV rehydration. Antibiotics do shorten the duration and severity of disease but the rising rate of bacterial resistance is becoming a problem. Note that about 70-80% of those infected with Vibrio cholerae do remain asymptomatic.
What is interesting is that blood group O appears to lead to more severe disease, but may be protective against initial infection. Many infectious diseases indeed do show a relationship between blood group and disease susceptibility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

A 20 year old man was bitten by a dog in France. 2 months later he developed a headache, fever and abnormal behaviour including the fear of water.

A. Giardiasis  
B. Polio  
C. Glandular Fever  
D. Malaria  
E. Viral Hepatitis  
F. HIV  
G. Tuberculosis  
H. Herpes Zooster (Shingles)  
I. Cholera  
J. Toxoplasmosis  
K. CMV (cytomegalovirus)  
L. Syphilis  
M. Tetanus  
N. Influenza  
O. Rabies
A

O. Rabies - This 20 year old man has rabies and is going to die. Symptomatic rabies is 100% fatal and there is no curative medical therapy. Palliative care is needed in this situation and given that spasms in rabies (hydrophobia and aerophobia) are very much stimulus driven, the recommendation is seclusion, room darkening and restraint. Rabies is one horrible way to die. Current recommendations are also to use haloperidol. (Prog Palliat Care. 2006;14:62-67.). Opioid analgesics may also be of use here as well as anticonvulsants for seizures and neuromuscular blockers. If interested, you can look up the Milwaukee protocol, the use of which has led to only 6 patients who have been known to survive symptomatic rabies without receiving the vaccine. This involves putting the patient into a drug induced coma and then giving them antiviral drugs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

A 40 year old lady recently returned from a holiday in Leningrad developed tiredness, flatulence, abdominal bloating and loose stools.

A. Giardiasis  
B. Polio  
C. Glandular Fever  
D. Malaria  
E. Viral Hepatitis  
F. HIV  
G. Tuberculosis  
H. Herpes Zooster (Shingles)  
I. Cholera  
J. Toxoplasmosis  
K. CMV (cytomegalovirus)  
L. Syphilis  
M. Tetanus  
N. Influenza  
O. Rabies
A

A. Giardiasis - Giardiasis (caused by Giardia lamblia) is an intestinal infection with a flagellated protozoan parasite which is transmitted faecal-orally (transmission is by ingestion of water or food contaminated with cysts, and by person to person spread). Symptoms vary from the asymptomatic passage of cysts to acute self limiting diarrhoea or chronic diarrhoea. Presenting symptoms aside from diarrhoea include abdominal bloating with cramps, frequent belching with a sulphuric smell, nausea, anorexia and fatigue. The diagnosis is made on the detection of cysts or trophozoites (the two morphological forms of Giardia which exist) in a stool sample. The first line treatment is with metronidazole or tinidazole.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

A 12 year old boy presents with a flu-like illness, fever, headache, vomiting, tremor of the left side of the body and weakness of his left leg.

A. Giardiasis  
B. Polio  
C. Glandular Fever  
D. Malaria  
E. Viral Hepatitis  
F. HIV  
G. Tuberculosis  
H. Herpes Zooster (Shingles)  
I. Cholera  
J. Toxoplasmosis  
K. CMV (cytomegalovirus)  
L. Syphilis  
M. Tetanus  
N. Influenza  
O. Rabies
A

B. Polio - Poliovirus infection is usually asymptomatic and when symptomatic the most common presentation is with a minor GI illness. There is no cure for poliovirus infection and treatment is primarily supportive. This patient has acute flaccid paralysis (AFP), or paralytic poliomyelitis, which is the hallmark of major illness. This can rarely progress to bulbar paralysis and respiratory compromise. Paralytic poliomyelitis presents with decreased tone and motor function, as well as reduced tendon reflexes and muscle atrophy of the affected limb. Lack of vaccination is a strong risk factor. Remember that there are two main types of polio vaccine – Sabin, which is the oral weakened strain in disease endemic regions, and Salk, which is inactivated poliovirus in the rest of the world.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

A 22 year old woman presents with a postcoital bleed but denies having other symptoms. She is currently in a relationship but is concerned that her partner is having sex with other women. Examination with a speculum reveals a mucopurulent yellow and cloudy discharge from the cervical os. The cervix is friable.

1. Chlamydia
2. Vaginal candidiasis
3. Bacterial vaginosis
4. Trichomonas vaginitis
A
  1. Chlamydia - This is genital tract chlamydia infection which is one of the most common STDs in the world. Remember that many infected individuals are asymptomatic. Women may present with cervical inflammation or yellow, cloudy discharge from the cervical os. A friable cervix is often also found on examination – the cervix bleeds easily with friction from a Dacron swab.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

A 5 year old boy presents with a fever, headache and a very itchy vesicular rash mainly on his chest and face. He has recently taking paracetamol for a sore throat. There has also been a high fever in the last 24 hours. Lung fields are however clear on CXR. In some areas the lesions are crusted over while in others they appear to be newly formed. A classmate at school has had similar symptoms recently.

1. Bartonella
2. Scabies
3. Stevens-Johnson syndrome
4. Varicella zoster
A
  1. Varicella zoster - This is VZV infection (chickenpox) which typically presents with a fever, malaise and a widespread vesicular and pruritic rash which primarily affects the torso and face. Most countries in Europe do not immunise children against varicella.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

A 58 year old man with uncontrolled HIV infection and AIDS presents with 2 week history of blurred vision bilaterally. He also reports seeing visual floaters. Examination reveals a man who is severely cachectic with generalised lymphadenopathy. Fundoscopy reveals creamy coloured areas with overlying retinal haemorrhages.

1. Cytomegalovirus
2. Infectious mononucleosis
3. Mycobacterium avium complex
4. Human herpes virus 6
A
  1. Cytomegalovirus - This is a presentation of CMV retinitis, which is the most common manifestation of CMV disease in AIDS, the second most common being colitis. However do remember that virtually any organ can be affected by CMV and it can cause a range of conditions from encephalitis to pneumonitis. In CMV retinitis, fundoscopy will reveal areas of infarction, haemorrhage, perivascular sheathing and retinal opacification. These findings here are of chorioretinitis.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

A 18 year old student from Malaysia presents with 3 days of continuously high fevers. There are also general aches and pains and a predominantly frontal headache with retro-orbital pain which gets worse on eye movement. Examination reveals hypotension, tachycardia and a generalised skin flush with warm peripheries. There is also mild thrombocytopenia, elevated LFTs and low WBC count.

1. Dengue fever
2. Leptospirosis
3. Rickettsia
4. Rubella
A
  1. Dengue fever - Dengue in endemic in over 100 countries, especially SE Asia, Western Pacific and the Americas. It is an arbovirus which is transmitted by the Aedes aegypti mosquito found in the tropical and subtropical parts of the world. Clinical features include fever, headache, myalgia/arthralgia, skin flush and leucopenia, thrombocytopenia and elevated LFTs. Viral antigen or nucleic acid detection and serology are confirmatory tests to perform.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

A 35 year old homosexual man with HIV presents to his GP after a holiday in Barcelona having recently noticed the presence of painless purple skin plaques on his lower legs and some generalised rubbery lumps located over his body. Examnation reveals that there is also a purple coloured mass on his hard palate.

1. Seborrhoeic dermatitis
2. Human papillomavirus
3. Photodermatitis
4. Kaposi sarcoma
A
  1. Kaposi sarcoma - This is Kaposi sarcoma which is a low-grade neoplasm caused by human herpesvirus-8 (or KSHV). It is associated with the acquired immunodeficiency associated with HIV infection. Oral KS can frequently affect the hard palate, gums and dorsum of the tongue. Cutaneous lesions are purple in colour and usually painless and non-pruritic. Histopathology of these vascular lesions will show characteristic atypical spindle-shape cells.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

A 64 year old smoker is referred to the doctors by his dentist, who noticed a white coloured plaque on the lateral tongue margin and the floor of the mouth. It has a thickened, white and leathery appearance on examination. The surrounding mucosa is clinically normal. He has recently has a kidney transplant. In situ hybridisation confirms the diagnosis.

1. Squamous cell carcinoma
2. Syphilitic leukoplakia
3. Oral hairy leukoplakia
4. Candidiasis
A
  1. Oral hairy leukoplakia - This is oral hairy leukoplakia which presents as a painless white plaque found along the lateral tongue borders. There is history here which suggests immunosuppression. In situ hybridisation here has demonstrated the presence of EBV in the tissue.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

A sexually active female student presents having noticed pearly umbilicated papules on her thigh which feel smooth to the touch. She tells you that these are itchy. Examination reveals local erythema around these lesions.

1. Lymphogranuloma venereum
2. Genital warts
3. Molluscum contagiosum
4. Pelvic inflammatory disease
A
  1. Molluscum contagiosum - This is molluscum contagiosum which is sexually transmitted in adulthood. Lesions appear as the umbilicated pearly and smooth papules mentioned. About a third of patients will also develop symptoms of local redness, swelling or pruritis. Adults should be treated for this STD.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

A 22 year old man notices a painless penile ulcer. He has recently started his first sexually active relationship. His partner has no symptoms and he is also otherwise well. Examination reveals an indurated ulcer with rubbery and moderate inguinal lymphadenopathy.

1. Primary HIV infection
2. Chancroid
3. Genital herpes
4. Syphilis
A
  1. Syphilis - The chance of primary syphilis is usually a solitary, painless and clean ulcer with an indurated base. This is a common sexually transmitted infection caused by the spirochete Treponema pallidum. Treatment is with penicillin – untreated infection can cause considerable morbidity and facilitates HIV transmission.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

A 35 year old woman who loves birds presents with a 10 day history of a low grade fever and a recent 2 day history of a cough which is non-productive. Examination reveals diffuse crackles on chest examination and mild hepatomegaly which is tender on palpation.

  1. Legionella
  2. Q fever
  3. Psittacosis
  4. Mycoplasma
A
  1. Psittacosis - Chlamydia psittaci causes a community-acquired atypical pneumonia. It is often acquired from domesticated or commercially raised birds or exotic imported birds. The presentation can be similar to Mycoplasma and Chlamydophila pneumoniae. Tetracyclines are the preferred treatment. Hepatomegaly can occur in this condition with pain on palpation but is uncommon, as can splenomegaly. Both organs, if enlarged, are diffusely so.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

A 3 year old girl presents with a week history of pain in the abdomen and watery diarrhoea which became bloody after the first 8 hours. Three days before, she had distinctly recalled consuming a burger which may have been undercooked. Investigations show a mild anaemia and thrombocytopenia with blood smear demonstrating multiple schistocytes. Creatinine is also raised.

1. Antiphospholipid syndrome
2. Disseminated intravascular coagulation
3. HELLP syndrome
4. Haemolytic uraemic syndrome
A
  1. Haemolytic uraemic syndrome - This is haemolytic uraemic syndrome which is characterised by MAHA, thrombocytopenia and nephropathy. Most cases are in children and related to gastroenteritis caused by verotoxin producing E. coli (O157:H7). The presence of schistocytes establishes the presence of thrombotic microangiopathy. The anaemia, thrombocytopenia and renal dysfunction characterised by creatinine rise mark this diagnosis.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

A 12 year old boy came back from summer camp and was taken to A&E feeling hot with vomiting and a sore throat. Laboratory tests and CXR is unremarkable and he is discharged. He returns later the same day with paraesthesias of the right arm and scalp, dysphagia and ataxia. When presented with water, he goes into laryngeal spasm and feels he is choking. Placement of nasal cannulae to give oxygen has the same effect.

1. Rabies
2. Attention seeking behaviour
3. Guillain-Barre syndrome
4. West Nile virus encephalitis
A
  1. Rabies - This is rabies, which can be difficult to diagnose if there is the absence of identifiable rabies exposure. There is non-specific prodrome of fever, chills, malaise, sore throat, vomiting, headaches and paraesthesias. The most specific signs of the disease are displayed here with hydrophobia and aerophobia (elicited by the placement of nasal cannulae). This patient is going to die and palliative care is needed. Rabies is considered 100% fatal.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

A 13 year old presents with fever and sore joints. She has had a sore throat about 3 weeks ago but did not see a doctor about it. While waiting in A&E she develops choreiform movements of the whole body and head with facial expressions that resemble grimaces.

1. Streptococcus pyogenes
2. Septic arthritis
3. Borrelia burgdorferi
4. Clostridium tetani
A
  1. Streptococcus pyogenes - This girl has rheumatic fever which is caused by an autoimmune process following infection with group A streptococci. The 5 major manifestations of acute rheumatic fever is something you need to be aware of. They are carditis, polyarthritis, chorea, erythema marginatum and SC nodules. Various other signs can also be seen such as spooning sign and pronator sign.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

A man from Tanzania presents with occassional diarrhoea accompanied by frank blood. Examination reveals mild hepatomegaly and a palpable spleen. On further questioning, he tells you he has been swimming in the local lake.

1. Leishmaniasis
2. Schistosomiasis
3. Salmonella
4. Toxoplasmosis
A

This is caused by a fluke which is acquired through exposure of the skin to contaminated freshwater (it is a snail-borne parasite). Patients can present acutely with bloody diarrhoea and hepatosplenomegaly is a common finding too. Diagnosis is made on microscopic visualisation of eggs in stools or urine. The preferred treatment for schistosome infections is with a drug called praziquantel.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

A 73 year old cut his hand while gardening. He presents with lock jaw which results in a grimace. There are also intermittent tonic contractions of his muscles which are painful and last for minutes.These are sometimes triggered by noise.

1. Tetanus
2. Diphtheria
3. Hypocalcaemia
4. Generalised seizure
A
  1. Tetanus - This is caused by the exotoxin of Clostridium tetani and there is trismus here (lock jaw) which has resulted in risus sardonicus. The intermittent tonic contractions are also characteristic and the spasms can be triggered by both external and internal stimuli.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

A 16 year old woman presents with a headache, fever and photophobia. Her mother became seriously concerned when she noticed a rash. O/E the girl grimaces with pain upon forced extension of the knee whilst her hip is flexed. You also demonstrate neck stiffness.

A. Pseudomonas aeroginosa
B. Mycobacterium leprae
C. Escherchia coliform
D. Legionella pneumophila
E. Campylobacter jejuni
F. Neisseria meningitidis
G. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
H. Salmonella typhi
A

F. Neisseria meningitidis - This patient has meningitis. Schools and universities are common sites of outbreaks due to crowding. Commonly there will be a headache, fever and nuchal rigidity. There may also be an altered mental status, confusion, photophobia and vomiting. Kernig’s sign is uncommon but is positive when attempts to extend the leg are met with resistance when the patient is supine with the thigh flexed to 90 degrees. Another uncommon sign is Brudzinski’s sign and a petechial/purpuric rash, typically associated with meningococcal meningitis.

CT head should be considered before LP if there is any evidence of raised ICP. An LP will confirm the diagnosis with bacterial meningitis showing a low CSF glucose, elevated CSF protein and positive CSF culture/gram stain or meningococcal antigen.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Miss A who recently moved to the UK from Ethiopia where she had undergone two months of antibiotic therapy for a cough, night sweats and blood stained sputum arrives at clinic with lower back pain and kyphosis. There is also hip pain.

A. Pseudomonas aeroginosa
B. Mycobacterium leprae
C. Escherchia coliform
D. Legionella pneumophila
E. Campylobacter jejuni
F. Neisseria meningitidis
G. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
H. Salmonella typhi
A

G. Mycobacterium tuberculosis - This patient has had pulmonary TB in Ethiopa but has not undergone a full course of anti-TB treatment. Subsequently, she has now developed extrapulmonary involvement. There is skeletal TB here with pain of the lower back. The onset of pain is usually gradual occuring over weeks to months and diagnosis is therefore frequently delayed. Local swelling and limitation of movement may be present, along with cold abscesses which may form if this is untreated. They are called cold abscesses as they are neither tender nor erythematous. These are also more common in HIV positive patients. MRI or a CT scan of the involved area is indicated here. Vertebral disease usually starts in the subchondral cancellous bone where it then spreads into the cortex and on to the disc. Destruction is more extensive on the ventral aspect than the dorsal aspect which leads to anterior wedging. As a result patients may present with kyphosis. There may also still be abnormalities on CXR consistent with TB. Note that normally TB initial therapy is a 4 drug regimen of isoniazid, rifampicin, pyrazinamide and ethambutol lasting for at least 6 months.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Three weeks following an illness which caused crampy abdominal pains, vomiting and diarrhoea a 26 year old presented with progressive bilateral leg weakness. Knee jerks and ankle jerks were both reduced on examination.

A. Pseudomonas aeroginosa
B. Mycobacterium leprae
C. Escherchia coliform
D. Legionella pneumophila
E. Campylobacter jejuni
F. Neisseria meningitidis
G. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
H. Salmonella typhi
A

H. Campylobacter jejuni - This patient has Guillain-Barre syndrome. This condition is a demyelinating polyneuropathy. Classic neurology is a progressive symmetrical muscle weakness affecting lower extremities before upper extremities, and proximal muscles before distal muscles, accompanied by paraesthesias in the hands and feet which often precedes onset of weakness. The paralysis is typically flaccid with areflexia and progresses acutely over days, with an ensuing plateau phase followed by recovery. Two thirds of patients have a history of either prior influenza-like illness or gastroenteritis. This patient gives a history of gastroenteritis, the cause of which is likely Campylobacter. Studies have shown that 60-70% of acute cases are preceded by Campylobacter jejuni infection. Additionally, Campylobacter-associated GBS appears to have a worse prognosis with slower recovery and higher residual neurological disability. A study in Sweden has shown that the risk of developing GBS after Campylobacter jejuni infection is roughly 100 fold higher than after other infections.

Other weak risks include immunisation, cancer and lymphoma, older age, HIV infection and male gender. Up to 30% will develop respiratory muscle weakness requiring ventilation so spirometry should be carried out at 6 hour intervals initially (and may show reduced vital capacity). AST and ALT may be elevated though the cause is unclear. LP is useful and the classic finding is of elevated CSF protein with normal cell count (known as albuminocytological dissociation). Treatment is with supportive and disease modifying treatment (plasma exchange or high dose Ig).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

A 42 year old previously healthy plumber is brought to hospital very confused by his wife with a fever, bradycardia and SOB. Investigations reveal elevated WBC count and Na 127mmol/l, K 4.2mmol/l, urea 6.5mmol/l. The doctor orders a urine sample.

A. Pseudomonas aeroginosa
B. Mycobacterium leprae
C. Escherchia coliform
D. Legionella pneumophila
E. Campylobacter jejuni
F. Neisseria meningitidis
G. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
H. Salmonella typhi
A

D. Legionella pneumophila - Legionella is a gram negative rod. Legionella infecting the lungs is legionnaires’ disease or Legionella pneumonia whereas non-lung infection is known as Pontiac fever. This bacteria is found in aqueous environments such as lakes and almost all cases are from contaminated water systems, which relates to the risk factors of getting Legionella (this patient is a plumber). Smoking is also a risk factor. It can cause confusion as well as hyponatraemia, abdominal pain, diarrhoea and bradycardia. Legionella does not grow on routine culture media and diagnosis relies on urine antigen detection (hence the request for a urine sample), serology or culture on special media.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Mr D is a 17 year old man with cystic fibrosis for which he receives intensive physiotherapy. He has come in with shortness of breath and a mild fever. Sputum cultures demonstrated the growth of an organism which also produced a green pigment.

A. Pseudomonas aeroginosa
B. Mycobacterium leprae
C. Escherchia coliform
D. Legionella pneumophila
E. Campylobacter jejuni
F. Neisseria meningitidis
G. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
H. Salmonella typhi
A

A. Pseudomonas aeroginosa - The green pigment here is pyoverdine which is produced by Pseudomonas. Pseudomonas has virulence factors for lung colonisation and is noted for its type III injection apparatus, which you may remember from your microbiology lectures. It is a gram negative bacilli causing hospital acquired pneumonia and UTI. It particularly affects immunocompromised hosts such as those on chemotherapy, those with cystic fibrosis (this patient), burns and wounds. Biofilms are antibiotic resistant.

Pseudomonas is also a special organism which is not sensitive to many antibiotics originally used for gram negatives. You need to prescribe a drug here which has specific anti-pseudomonal activity such as ceftazidime (a third generation cephalosporin), tazocin, ciprofloxacin, imipenem or gentamicin (usually used with one of the others). This organism acquires resistance genes very quickly so two antibiotics are given. It is, as mentioned, inherently resistant to many drug classes. Some are even resistant to all antibiotics.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

A twenty-one year old girl who presents with shortness of breath on climbing stairs, her boyfriend has told her that she looks very pale and should see the doctor. Select the most APPROPRIATE first line investigation:

A. LFTs
B. CRP
C. LP
D. CXR and sputum sample
E. Blood culture
F. Sputum sample
G. FBC
H. Pleural biopsy
I. Wound swab and culture
J. Urinalysis
K. HIV test
L. CT head
A

G. FBC - Pallor and exertional SOB are suggestive of anaemia here. A FBC should be done here which would expect to find a low Hb. The World Health Organisation defines anaemia as

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

An 18 year old history student who has just started at university for his studies develops a pounding headache and fever. The hall warden remarked that he shouted at her to turn the lights off and draw the curtains when she was called to see him. He was then reported as having a seizure. On arrival to A&E, a CT head scan is done. Select the most APPROPRIATE first line investigation:

A. LFTs
B. CRP
C. LP
D. CXR and sputum sample
E. Blood culture
F. Sputum sample
G. FBC
H. Pleural biopsy
I. Wound swab and culture
J. Urinalysis
K. HIV test
L. CT head
A

C. LP - This patient has meningitis. Universities are common sites of outbreaks due to crowding. Commonly there will be a headache, fever and nuchal rigidity. There may also be an altered mental status, confusion, photophobia and vomiting. An LP will confirm the diagnosis with bacterial meningitis showing a low CSF glucose, elevated CSF protein and positive CSF culture/gram stain or meningococcal antigen. A CT head scan should be considered before LP if there is reason to suspect raised ICP such as focal neurology, seizures, papilloedema on fundoscopy or altered mental state. The seizure here would be an indication to do a CT scan before attempting LP.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Mr D is an eco warrior who has spent the last 6 months in India. He has come back very thin with a persistent cough which occasionally produces blood streaked sputum. He has never smoked cigarettes before as it is capitalist. Select the most APPROPRIATE first line investigation:

A. LFTs
B. CRP
C. LP
D. CXR and sputum sample
E. Blood culture
F. Sputum sample
G. FBC
H. Pleural biopsy
I. Wound swab and culture
J. Urinalysis
K. HIV test
L. CT head
A

D. CXR and sputum sample - This sounds like pulmonary TB although it could well also be bronchial carcinoma. Remember that adenocarcinomas are usually located peripherally in the lung and are more common in non-smokers although most cases are still associated with smoking. Which ever the diagnosis is, a CXR will be useful with a sputum sample being obtained to check for TB. This patient should be placed in isolation due to suspected TB and 3 sputum samples cultured for AFB being the gold standard for diagnosis. Culture takes several weeks so sputum smears will be done before culture results are known. Interferon-gamma release assays (IGRAs) are now used by some hospitals to rapidly determine a patient’s TB status. All patients who have TB should be tested for HIV within 2 months of diagnosis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

After coming out of surgery two weeks ago Mrs J’s arm wound has started to produce pus and the whole area is inflamed and red. She has come to you as she is concerned it is not healing. Select the most APPROPRIATE first line investigation:

A. LFTs
B. CRP
C. LP
D. CXR and sputum sample
E. Blood culture
F. Sputum sample
G. FBC
H. Pleural biopsy
I. Wound swab and culture
J. Urinalysis
K. HIV test
L. CT head
A

I. Wound swab and culture - This is a straightforward question. A wound swab and culture is needed to see what the infection is. This will guide treatment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Mrs M presents with a severe headache and fever for the past 3 days. Examination reveals fever, photophobia and neck stiffness. Fundoscopy is performed which reveals bilateral papilloedema. Select the most APPROPRIATE first line investigation:

A. LFTs
B. CRP
C. LP
D. CXR and sputum sample
E. Blood culture
F. Sputum sample
G. FBC
H. Pleural biopsy
I. Wound swab and culture
J. Urinalysis
K. HIV test
L. CT head
A

L. CT head - This patient obviously has meningitis. A CT head scan needs to be done here before a diagnostic LP as there is reason to suspect raised ICP with bilateral papilloedema on fundoscopy. This can exclude a brain abscess or generalised cerebral oedema. Meningitis associated complications may also be identified such as hydrocephalus and brain infarction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

A young adult with a 2 day history of left sided pleuritic chest pain, fever and cough productive of rusty coloured sputum. A CXR was obtained which showed left lower lobe shadowing suggestive of consolidation. On agar the sputum grew gram +ve cocci which demonstrated alpha-haemolysis.

A. Klebsiella pneumoniae
B. Streptoccus pyogenes
C. Enterococcus faecium
D. Streptococcus pneumoniae
E. Escherichia coli
F. Chlamydophila psittaci
G. Shigella
H. Salmonella paratyphi
I. Salmonella typhi
J. Streptoccocus viridans
K. Salmonella typhimurium
L. Chlamydia trachomatis
A

F. Streptococcus pneumoniae - Classic lobar pneumonia with no signs and symptoms to suggest an atypical organism is most likely to due to pneumococcus. Streptococcus pneumoniae is, as mentioned in the question, an alpha haemolytic Gram positive cocci (also Streptococcus viridans but it does not present in this way). A CXR is the most specific and sensitive test available and antibiotics are indicated. The rusty coloured sputum is hinting at a pneumococcal pneumonia too.The patient has presented with common symptoms of fever and a productive cough. There is additionally pleuritic chest pain. Initial treatment of a CAP is empirical with antibiotics. Often diagnosis is made solely on history and examination findings. Management is guided by the patient’s CURB-65 score.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

True or False, the olfactory nerve enters the skull via the cribriform plate.

A

True - It is the shortest cranial nerve and enters the skull at the cribriform plate, then becoming the olfactory tract.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

True or False, acromegaly can be associated with a bitemporal hemianopia.

A

True - Pituitary tumours and craniopharyngiomas can compress the optic chiasm, sparing the outer fibres responsible for the nasal field. This causes the characteristic bitemporal hemianopia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

True or False, third nerve palsy is associated with a ‘down and out’ pupil.

A

True - Because the actions of the trochlear and abducens nerve are unopposed now.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

True or False, the trigeminal nerve carries taste sensation from the anterior two-thirds of the tongue.

A

False - The facial nerve carries taste sensation and the trigeminal carries touch/pain/temperature sensation from the anterior two-thirds of the tongue.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

True or False, the sixth cranial nerve adducts the eye.

A

False - It ABducts the eye.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

True or False, the facial nerve supplies the masseter muscle.

A

False - Muscles of mastication (masseter, temporalis, medial pterygoid, lateral pterygoid) are supplied by the mandibular branch of the trigeminal nerve.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

True or False, the eighth cranial nerve is responsible for balance.

A

True. The vestibular part of the nerve transmits positional and rotational information from the semicircular canals, saccule and utricle.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

True or False, the ninth cranial nerve is the accessory nerve.

A

False - It is the glossopharyngeal nerve.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

True or False - cutting the vagus nerve (vagotomy) increases acid production in the stomach.

A

False - The parasympathetic system generally induces gastrointestinal motility and secretions. Acetylcholine stimulates HCl production so cutting the vagus will reduce this.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

True or False, the accessory nerve allows you to shrug your shoulders.

A

True - It supplies trapezius, which is the muscle responsible for shrugging shoulders!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

True or False, hypoglossal nerve injury makes the tongue deviate away from the side of the injury.

A

False - The tongue will deviate towards the weaker side.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

True or False, upgoing plantars suggest a LMN lesion.

A

False - It is really UMN sign.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

A 25-year-old man was hit on the side of the head with the ball, whilst playing cricket. He recovered enough to finish off the game. He then presented to A&E 8 hours later with a severe headache and vomiting. He rapidly loses consciousness.

A. Extradural haemorrhage 
B. Cluster headache 
C. Trigeminal neuralgia 
D. Subarachnoid haemorrhage 
E. Migraine 
F. Tension headache
A

A. Extradural haemorrhage - Here we have the ‘lucid interval’ classically associated with an extradural haematoma. There is blood buildup this time between the dura mater and the skull. Compressive signs may also be present such as the down and out pupil due to CN III compression. The bleed here is usually from arteries, under high pressure, causing raised intracranial pressure. In this case, there is a chance the brain stem has been compressed causing his LOC. The bleed here is possibly from the anterior branch of the middle meningeal artery which runs beneath the pterion and is vulnerable at this point where the skull is thin. Remember that the pterion marks the junction of four bones: the parietal bone, temporal bone, sphenoid bone and frontal bone.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

A 20-year-old medical student complains of a throbbing pain bilaterally across her forehead, which is present for some hours each time. She is busy catching up on online EMQs and lectures for her exams next week. Physical examination is normal.

A. Extradural haemorrhage 
B. Cluster headache 
C. Trigeminal neuralgia 
D. Subarachnoid haemorrhage 
E. Migraine 
F. Tension headache
A

F. Tension headache - A tension headache is commonly triggered by stress and mental tension (also, fatigure and missing meals), hence the name. It is more common in females and those in middle age, and there is a link with lower socioeconomic status, although this does not necessarily represent causation. Symptoms include a dull, non-pulsatile and constricting bilateral pain, which is often described as a band across the patient’s head. It is not severe or disabling but classically worsens as the day progresses. This headache normally responds well to simple analgesics.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

A 20-year-old student complains of a throbbing headache. It lasts for a few hours, and is associated with nausea. She can usually predict the headache half an hour before, when she sees flashing lights.

A. Extradural haemorrhage 
B. Cluster headache 
C. Trigeminal neuralgia 
D. Subarachnoid haemorrhage 
E. Migraine 
F. Tension headache
A

E. Migranes - Migraine is a chronic condition, with genetic determinants, which usually presents in early to mid life. The typical migraine aura this patient describes (which can be visual, sensory or speech symptoms) which can occur during or before the headache, is pathognomic, but is not seen in the majority of patients. The aura can be positive phenomena (for example this patient seeing flashing lights) or negative phenomena (for example visual loss). Nausea, photophobia and disability (the headache gets in the way with the patient’s ability to function) accompanying a headache also suggest a migraine diagnosis. The headache of a migraine tends to be prolonged if untreated, and tends to be unilateral and pounding (but does not have to be). Tests aim to rule out other differentials, although if the history is compatible and neurological examination is unremarkable, further testing is not needed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

A 34-year-old man has attacks of sudden severe pain waking him up for the last fortnight. The pain is on the right side of his face and makes his right eye water.

A. Extradural haemorrhage 
B. Cluster headache 
C. Trigeminal neuralgia 
D. Subarachnoid haemorrhage 
E. Migraine 
F. Tension headache
A

B. Cluster headache - Cluster headache is characterised by attacks of severe pain localised to the unilateral orbital, supraorbital and/or temporal areas which lasts from 15 minutes to 3 hours, and occurs with a frequency ranging from once every other day to 8 times a day. These attacks can occur at the same time period of many weeks (known as the cluster period) accompanied by ipsilateral autonomic signs. The cause is hypothalamic activation with secondary trigeminal and autonomic activation (for instance, lacrimation, rhinorrhoea, nasal congestion, conjunctival injection and partial Horner’s i.e. ptosis and miosis). Cluster period attacks can be triggered by things like alcohol. Greater occipital nerve blockade often provides immediate relief until preventative medications take effect.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

A 56-year-old man has a sudden pain that ‘shoots’ to his chin whilst shaving. It disappears after a few seconds.

A. Extradural haemorrhage 
B. Cluster headache 
C. Trigeminal neuralgia 
D. Subarachnoid haemorrhage 
E. Migraine 
F. Tension headache
A

C. Trigeminal neuralgia - Trigeminal neuralgia occurs as episodes of severe unilateral pain in the distribution of CNV, usually lasting seconds, with no pain occuring between these episodes. Examination is often unremarkable. The pain is described as sharp, intense, stabbing or burning. It can be triggered commonly by actions such as eating, tooth brushing, cold and touch. Shaving and eating seem to be common in EMQs. Most people are asymptomatic between attacks although the severity of the pain makes these patients live in constant fear. TN is more common in MS and incidence increases with age. Post-herpetic TN is also possible. The mainstay of treatment is medical, with antiepileptics such as carbamazepine (which is the only medicine which is proven in RCTs and is therefore typically first line). If medical treatment fails, surgical options do exist such as microvascular decompression.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

A 40-year-old man presents with an instantaneous onset of a severe headache, followed by drowsiness & vomiting.

A. Extradural haemorrhage 
B. Cluster headache 
C. Trigeminal neuralgia 
D. Subarachnoid haemorrhage 
E. Migraine 
F. Tension headache
A

D. Subarachnoid haemorrhage - SAH (bleeding into the subarachnoid space) presents with sudden severe headache patients will often describe as the worst headache of their life, and can often be so bad that they feel like they’ve been kicked in the back of the back. Half of all patients lose consciousness and eye pain with exposure to light can also be seen. Altered mental status is common. SAH occurs most commonly in the 50-55 age group and affects women and black people more than men and white people.

The most common cause of non-traumatic SAH is an aneurysm which ruptures. Conditions which predispose to aneurysm formation and SAH include adult PKD, Marfan’s, NF1 and Ehlers-Danlos. Cerebral aneurysms arise around the circle of Willis. A CT scan is indicated, and if unrevealing, this should be followed by an LP. Cerebral angiography can confirm the presence of aneurysms. The patient should be stabilised and this followed by surgical clipping or endovascular coil embolisation, the choice is subject to much current controversy sparked by relatively recent research. Complications can commonly occur and include rebleeding, hydrocephalus and vasospasm.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

A 52 year old fund manager with a history of previous heart attacks, feels some palpitations and collapses. A witness said that he went very pale as he collapsed but then became flushed and regained consciousness after 30 seconds.

A. Hypoglycaemia 
B. Anaemia 
C. Stokes-Adams attack 
D. Opioid overdose 
E. Postural hypotension
A

C. Stokes-Adams attack - Stokes-Adams attacks are episodes of transient LOC due to sudden decreased cardiac output. The previous heart attacks and later palpitations towards an arrhythmia such as heart bock, which caused the attack. Pallor prior to the attack and facial flushing due to reactive hyperemia after the attack is characteristic of a Stokes-Adams attack. Definitive treatment is with surgical insertion of a pacemaker.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

A 24-year-old patient with diabetes starts a new preparation of insulin. After going to the gym he feels sweaty, nauseous and dizzy. A few minutes later he is found unconscious on the floor.

A. Hypoglycaemia 
B. Anaemia 
C. Stokes-Adams attack 
D. Opioid overdose 
E. Postural hypotension
A

A. Hypoglycaemia - In DM, hypoglycaemia is usually secondary to insulin or oral hypoglycaemics. Symptoms of hypoglycaemia are present when glucose drops

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

An 80 year old man fainted with a 2 week history of abdominal pain and coughing up a black coffee-ground like substance. He has been feeling irritable, tired and sleepy.

A. Hypoglycaemia 
B. Anaemia 
C. Stokes-Adams attack 
D. Opioid overdose 
E. Postural hypotension
A

B. Anaemia - This man is anaemic and as a result he has fainted. This is IDA from a UGI bleed. His faint can also be attributed to hypovolaemia from his blood loss, from a presumed peptic ulcer (which accounts for his abdominal pain and coffee ground vomit). Whilst he may also display postural hypotension due to his hypovolaemia, this is not what this question is looking for.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

A 75-year-old man is found on his bedroom floor by his wife and is now conscious. He got out of bed in the middle of the night to go to the toilet and felt dizzy and fell to the ground. He is on treatment for hypertension and has no other medical problems.

A. Hypoglycaemia 
B. Anaemia 
C. Stokes-Adams attack 
D. Opioid overdose 
E. Postural hypotension
A

E. Postural hypotension - This patient has postural hypotension which is demonstrated by a fall of >20 in systolic blood pressure and >10 diastolic within 3 minutes of standing upright. It is a side effect of anti-hypertensives and is a common problem in the elderly. A good history should be enough to diagnose this.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

A 38-year-old homeless man is found unconscious on the street. On examination he has pinpoint pupils, a respiratory rate of 6 breaths per minute and needle marks on both arms.

A. Hypoglycaemia 
B. Anaemia 
C. Stokes-Adams attack 
D. Opioid overdose 
E. Postural hypotension
A

D. Opioid overdose - Opiate OD signs include CNS depression, miosis and apnoea. Finding small constricted pupils in someone who is unconscious is highly indicative. Naloxone is indicated both therapeutically and diagnostically. If there is a response, then it is diagnostic. Another diagnosis should be sought if the patient is unresponsive. IV is the preferred route of administration although naloxone can be given IM or SC if IV access cannot be established. Ventilatory support is key with 100% oxygen. You can check out Toxbase for a full database on poisons and treatments.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

A 20-year-old feverish student developed a headache and vomiting during his sociology lecture. The only other student who attended, reports that he was breathing very quickly. On arrival at the surgery 30 minutes later he was semi-conscious, & breathing irregularly. His upper limbs were also jerking.

A. Right-sided stroke 
B. Myasthenia gravis 
C. Transient ischaemic attack 
D. Meningitis 
E. Pontine haemorrhage
F. Hepatic encephalopathy
G. Huntington’s disease
H. PCA aneurysm
I. Partial seizure 
J. Parkinson's disease 
K. Multiple sclerosis
A

D. Meningitis - This 20 year old student has meningitis. Meningitis can present with a host of symptoms and commonly presents with seizures (children who have seizures are more likely to be infected by Streptococcus pneumoniae and Haemophilus influenza than meningococcus). Universities are common sites of outbreaks due to crowding. Commonly there will be a headache, fever and nuchal rigidity. There may also be an altered mental status, confusion, photophobia and vomiting. Kernig’s sign is uncommon but is positive when attempts to extend the leg are met with resistance when the patient is supine with the thigh flexed to 90 degrees. Another uncommon sign is Brudzinski’s sign and a petechial/purpuric rash, typically associated with meningococcal meningitis.

CT head should be considered before LP if there is any evidence of raised ICP. An LP will confirm the diagnosis with bacterial meningitis showing a low CSF glucose, elevated CSF protein and positive CSF culture/gram stain or meningococcal antigen.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

A 30-year-old woman experienced a strange feeling in her stomach, followed by stiffness & jerking in the left arm. Afterwards, she felt drowsy but remembers everything.

A. Right-sided stroke 
B. Myasthenia gravis 
C. Transient ischaemic attack 
D. Meningitis 
E. Pontine haemorrhage
F. Hepatic encephalopathy
G. Huntington’s disease
H. PCA aneurysm
I. Partial seizure 
J. Parkinson's disease 
K. Multiple sclerosis
A

I. Partial seizure - The feeling this woman felt in her stomach before (aura), the description of the arm, incontinence and feeling “worn out” afterwards make this a seizure. Seizures can happen in anyone but epilepsy is the tendency to have repeated, unprovoked seizures (but this is still the best answer option from the available list). Epileptic seizures can be split into focal (partial/localised) and generalised (involving both hemispheres). Generalised seizures can be further divided into abscence (which can be typical or atypical), myoclonic, clonic, tonic, tonic-clonic and atonic types. Be sure to exclude other causes, such as a space occupying lesion with a CT or MRI scan. There may also be tongue biting. Always think of “before, during and after” when taking the history. History taking is the most important aspect of diagnosis. Antiepileptic monotherapy is the preferred treatment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

An 80-year-old woman who is a smoker was brought into A&E from a residential home where her carers noticed that she had difficulty swallowing and that she also had difficulty moving her left arm and leg for the past few days.

A. Right-sided stroke 
B. Myasthenia gravis 
C. Transient ischaemic attack 
D. Meningitis 
E. Pontine haemorrhage
F. Hepatic encephalopathy
G. Huntington’s disease
H. PCA aneurysm
I. Partial seizure 
J. Parkinson's disease 
K. Multiple sclerosis
A

A. Right sided stroke - Weakness on one side and the difficulty swallowing makes this likely to be a stroke. If you have a think about the motor pathways you will realise that this is a right sided stroke. It is important is perform a CT head to exclude a haemorrhagic aetiology and consider thrombolysis with tPA if within the 4.5 hour window and there are no contraindications. Thrombolysis is done with alteplase at 10% bolus, 90% infusion at a dose of 0.9 mg/kg. Presentation after the 4.5 hour window is managed with aspirin. The Bamford/Oxford Stroke Classification subtypes ischaemic stroke according to vascular territory of infarction. After initial management, stroke care involves the ethos of an MDT environment with rehabilitation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

A 25-year-old pregnant lady presents with increasing muscle weakness. She also complains of double vision & drooping eye lids.

A. Right-sided stroke 
B. Myasthenia gravis 
C. Transient ischaemic attack 
D. Meningitis 
E. Pontine haemorrhage
F. Hepatic encephalopathy
G. Huntington’s disease
H. PCA aneurysm
I. Partial seizure 
J. Parkinson's disease 
K. Multiple sclerosis
A

B. Myasthenia gravis - This lady has myasthenia gravis, which is an autoimmune condition with antibodies affecting the NMJ, mostly the nAChR at the post-synaptic muscle membrane. Although some have antibodies against MuSK, and there are other proteins involved. MG is characterised by muscle weakness which increases with exercise (fatigue, unlike Lambert-Eaton myasthenic syndrome). Commonly, presentations include diplopia and drooping eyelids like this patient, and there may also be SOB, proximal limb weakness, facial paresis and oropharyngeal weakness. MG is associated with thymic hyperplasia in 70% or thymoma in 10%, and these associations can also crop up in EMQs. There will be elevated serum AChR receptor antibody titres or MuSK antibodies. Electrophysiology will demonstrate a decremental response on repetitive nerve stimulation. Treatment includes anticholinesterases (pyridostigmine, and immunotherapy. Patients may also require a thymectomy. Some 15-20% may experience a myasthenic crisis (which needs mechanical ventilation). Do you know what the Tensilon test is and why edrophonium is given in this test?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

A 79-year-old man complains of difficulty walking. On examination you also notice he has a resting tremor & his limbs oppose movement.

A. Right-sided stroke 
B. Myasthenia gravis 
C. Transient ischaemic attack 
D. Meningitis 
E. Pontine haemorrhage
F. Hepatic encephalopathy
G. Huntington’s disease
H. PCA aneurysm
I. Partial seizure 
J. Parkinson's disease 
K. Multiple sclerosis
A

J. Parkinsons disease - Parkinson’s is characterised by a resting tremor, rigidity, bradykinesia and postural instability. The resting tremor occurs at 4-6 Hz at rest which dissipates with the use of limbs, with generally asymmetrical onset. There is often also cogwheeling, especially if there is a superimposed tremor. The patient may have other signs like a mask like face due to the loss of spontaneous facial movement, hypophonia and micrographia, and may walk around in a shuffling gait with a stooped posture. The diagnosis is clinical. Treatment is symptomatic in an MDT setting. Medical therapy includes MAO-B inhibitors and DA agonists, for example rasagiline and carbidopa/levodopa. There are other medical therapies depending on the specific symptoms the patient presents with.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

A 30-year-old lady presented with pain in her left eye and numbness & weakness of her right leg. Two months earlier she had an episode of double vision in the left eye.

A. Right-sided stroke 
B. Myasthenia gravis 
C. Transient ischaemic attack 
D. Meningitis 
E. Pontine haemorrhage
F. Hepatic encephalopathy
G. Huntington’s disease
H. PCA aneurysm
I. Partial seizure 
J. Parkinson's disease 
K. Multiple sclerosis
A

K. Multiple Sclerosis - Multiple sclerosis is a demyelinating CNS condition which is characterised by 2 or more episodes of neurological dysfunction which are separated in both time and space. MS classically presents in white women aged 20-40 with temporary visual/sensory loss although any presentation can occur. MRI is a sensitive test but less specific than spinal MRI, however, spinal MRI is abnormal in fewer cases. Treatment aims at treating the attack, preventing future attacks and symptomatic treatment of problems like bladder dysfunction, pain and fatigue.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

A 65-year-old hypertensive man has complained of losing vision twice in one eye, which lasted for a few hours and then went back to normal. He says it’s like a ‘a black sheet falling over the front of my eye’.

A. Right-sided stroke 
B. Myasthenia gravis 
C. Transient ischaemic attack 
D. Meningitis 
E. Pontine haemorrhage
F. Hepatic encephalopathy
G. Huntington’s disease
H. PCA aneurysm
I. Partial seizure 
J. Parkinson's disease 
K. Multiple sclerosis
A

C. Transient Ischaemic Attack - A TIA is colloquially called a ‘mini stroke’ with symptoms typically lasting under an hour. Here there is a description of focal neurological deficit unilaterally in the form of amaurosis fugax. There may also be other signs like unilateral weakness or sensory loss, hemianopsia, aphasia and cranial nerve defects, to name but a few. An antiplatelet drug such as aspirin is effective secondary prevention if the patient is not already anticoagulated. The patient will be anticoagulated if they have a likely or known cardioembolic source such as AF. Clopidogrel is an alternative in those who do not tolerate aspirin.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

A 72-year-old man with a HbA1C of 12.2% has presented with ulcers in his right foot & bilateral loss of sensation below knee.

A. Diabetic neuropathy
B. Carpal tunnel syndrome
C. Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease

A

A. Diabetic Neuropathy - Diabetic neuropathy has lead to the painless ulcer most likely developing over pressure points in the foot such as on the ball of the foot. This may have resulted from an object becoming lodged in the shoe and eroding through the skin with walking. This is why it is important for diabetics to check their feet regularly and to wear specialised footwear. Diabetic neuropathy is a microvascular complication of DM and is characterised by peripheral nerve dysfunction. Pain is a common complaint such as the burning sensation this patient describes. Patient’s may also describe the pain as prickling or sticking.

Complications range from the painless neuropathic ulcer described, at areas of the foot where there is weight loading (particularly the metatarsal heads), to the Charcot foot with severe architectural destruction of the foot. Foot ulceration is a common precusor to amputation. Foot care is crucial in DM. Examination should include peripheral pulses, reflexes and sensation to light touch with a 10g monofilament, vibration (128Hz tuning fork), pinprick and proprioception. The pain may be treated with medications like pregabalin and gabapentin.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

A 40-year-old typist presents with pain & tingling in the lateral side of the left hand, worse at night when she had to get out of bed to shake the hand for relief.

A. Diabetic neuropathy
B. Carpal tunnel syndrome
C. Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease

A

B. Carpal tunnel syndrome - Carpal tunnel syndrome is the most common nerve entrapment and women just past middle age are at the highest risk. Symptoms include numbness/tingling of the thumb and radial fingers, an aching wrist and clumsiness (especially with fine motor tasks). The symptoms are of gradual onset and often wake the patient up at night, and is relieved by shaking the wrist. Numbness is normally on the palmar aspect of the thumb, index and middle fingers (but not the little finger). When the patient wakes up, there may be difficulty flexing or extending fingers. Symptoms in the day tend to be associated with activity. The most sensitive and specific test for diagnosis is EMG and can confirm damage to the median nerve in the carpal tunnel and categorise the severity of the damage. There are specific tests for CTS such as Tinel’s test and Phalen’s test, though clinically these are not particularly useful due to sensitivity and specificity.

CTS is caused by anything that causes a reduction in the size of the carpal tunnel – from inflammation, arthritis and tenosynovitis to old fractures. In CTS there is preserved sensation of the palm as the palmar cutaneous branch comes off a few cm above the carpal tunnel.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

A 10-year-old boy has wasting of his lower leg, which look like ‘inverted champagne bottles’. His father had the same condition.

A. Diabetic neuropathy
B. Carpal tunnel syndrome
C. Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease

A

C. Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease - Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease comprises of a group of hereditary peripheral neuropathies with different genetic abnormalities, hence the FH here (most patients have a FHx). Pes cavus (high foot arches), hammer toes and distal atrophy of the hands and legs are characteristic (resulting in this inverted champagne bottle appearance). Pes cavus can be associated with areflexia. Patients may have to lift their legs up excessively to clear the toes. Rehabilitative and orthotic treatments can help to keep patients functional. There are no other known risk factors for this condition aside from FH. The risk of passing the condition on to the next generation varies depending on the subtype of CMT, which have different inheritance patterns. Most CMT1 and CMT2 are autosomal dominant and CMT 4 is autosomal recessive. There are also X-linked forms.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

A 75 year old lady is brought to A&E by her daughter who found her on the floor. She appears confused which you confirm with 4/10 on the AMTS. O/E she is febrile and complains of a burning pain in her lower abdomen.

A. UTI 
B. Faecal impaction 
C. Hypoxia 
D. Liver failure 
E. Post-operative 
F. Hypoglycaemia. 
G. Thiamine/B1 deficiency 
H. U&E imbalance 
I. Drug effect 
J. MI 
K. CVA
A

A. UTI - Confusion and a fever is not an uncommon presentation of UTI in the elderly where the presentation is often non-specific. The lower abdominal suprapubic pain here is another clue. 10 percent of women over the age of 70 have UTIs. Post-menopause (absence of oestrogen) is a strong risk factor for UTI in women. In women of this age group, sexual activity is less strongly associated with UTI. Treatment can be started on the symptoms here as well as dipstick result, but urine culture and sensitivity confirms the diagnosis and guides the appropriate use of antibiotics. A positive nitrite and leucocyte esterase in the urine indicates a likely UTI diagnosis. A midstream clean-catch urine specimen should be sent for culture (looking for uropathogenic organisms) if symptoms are atypical or do not respond to treatment.

The AMTS is used to rapidly assess mental function and a score of 6 or less suggests either delirium or dementia (the former is acute decline).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

A 42 year old man who lives alone presents with confusion and ataxia. Both his hands have a Dupytrens contracture.

A. UTI 
B. Faecal impaction 
C. Hypoxia 
D. Liver failure 
E. Post-operative 
F. Hypoglycaemia. 
G. Thiamine/B1 deficiency 
H. U&E imbalance 
I. Drug effect 
J. MI 
K. CVA
A

G. Thiamine/B1 deficiency - This patient has Wernicke’s encephalopathy. Wernicke’s is due to acute thiamine deficiency, which is a problem in alcoholics (Dupytren’s contracture here is a clue to alcohol use). Others at risk include those with AIDS, cancer and treatment with chemotherapy, malnutrition and GIT surgery, especially bariatric procedures. It is a clinically under-diagnosed condition. The classic EMQ triad is of mental change, ophthalmoplegia and gait dysfunction, which is actually only seen in 10% of cases. In reality, the manifestations are varied and a high index of suspicion is needed. Despite there, the manifestiations typically include altered consciousness, gait disorders and eye movement abnormalities. This is an emergency and treatment is with parenteral replacement of thiamine. This avoids permanent neurological damage including later development of Korsakoff’s psychosis, which is irreversible. Note that thiamine should be given before dextrose! Magnesium deficiency also needs to be corrected as it is a co-factor in the functioning of thiamine dependent enzymes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

A 16 year old boy dressed in sports kit, presents to A&E confused, sweating and with a tremor. His speech starts to slur and he begins to lose conciousness.

A. UTI 
B. Faecal impaction 
C. Hypoxia 
D. Liver failure 
E. Post-operative 
F. Hypoglycaemia. 
G. Thiamine/B1 deficiency 
H. U&E imbalance 
I. Drug effect 
J. MI 
K. CVA
A

F. Hypoglycaemia - This patient has symptoms of hypoglycaemia, present when glucose drops

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

An 80 year old man on your ward becomes confused. He has no signs of an infection. You notice his mouth and lips are dry.

A. UTI 
B. Faecal impaction 
C. Hypoxia 
D. Liver failure 
E. Post-operative 
F. Hypoglycaemia. 
G. Thiamine/B1 deficiency 
H. U&E imbalance 
I. Drug effect 
J. MI 
K. CVA
A

H. U&E imbalance - This patient has become confused and there is an acute change in mental status. Dehydration (volume depletion) can be a relatively common cause. (The most common causes of volume depletion are haemorrhage, vomiting, diarrhoea, diuresis or third space losses). FBC in this case may reveal a raised haematocrit and high Hb. Serum electrolyte analysis may reveal derangements such as hyper or hypokalaemia and hyponatraemia. Urine specific gravity can be expected to be high and serum urea to creatinine ratio >20. Examination of this dehydrated patient may reveal signs like dry mucosal membranes, postural hypotension, postural tachycardia and possibly even shock depending on severity. The patient may complain of symptoms such as thirst, tiredness, muscle cramps, pain in the chest and/or abdomen as well as confusion. The confusion may result from U&E abnormalities (the best option from this list) but is non-specific and may indeed reflect poor cerebral perfusion or uraemia in the setting of impaired renal function, which are equally if not more likely in this patient.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

A 77 year old lady with longstanding AF presents with confusion. She collapsed suddenly at home. O/E she has an extensor plantar response.

A. UTI 
B. Faecal impaction 
C. Hypoxia 
D. Liver failure 
E. Post-operative 
F. Hypoglycaemia. 
G. Thiamine/B1 deficiency 
H. U&E imbalance 
I. Drug effect 
J. MI 
K. CVA
A

K. CVA - Atrial fibrillation is strongly implicated in the risk of cardioembolic stroke. Confusion is common, especially in the elderly who have had past strokes and in those with cognitive dysfunction. An extensor plantar response is known as Babinski’s sign and is a sign of an UMN lesion. The normal response is flexion where the big toe moves downwards. It is important is perform a CT head exclude a haemorrhagic aetiology and consider thrombolysis with tPA if within the 4.5 hour window and there are no contraindications. Thrombolysis is done with alteplase at 10% bolus, 90% infusion at a dose of 0.9 mg/kg. Presentation after the 4.5 hour window is managed with aspirin. The Bamford/Oxford Stroke Classification subtypes ischaemic stroke according to vascular territory of infarction. After initial management, stroke care involves the ethos of an MDT environment with rehabilitation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

A 65 year old man with a history of an MI 2 years ago. He lost conciousness and presents to you 36 hours later with reduced power in his left arm and leg.

A. Anaemia 
B. Vasovagal syncope
C. TIA 
D. Cardiac arrhythmia 
E. Stroke 
F. Postural hypotension 
G. Myxoedema coma
H. Carotid sinus sensitivity
I. Hypoglycaemia 
J. Aortic stenosis 
K. Epilepsy 
L. Pulmonary stenosis
A

E. Stroke - If you have a think about the motor pathways you will realise that this is a right sided stroke. Cardiac conditions are potential risks for cardioembolism. The previous MI could, for instance, lead to regional wall motion abnormalities or decreased LV ejection fraction which can be risks. Other cardiac conditions include valve disease, PFO, mitral prolapse, prosthetic heart valve and cardiomyopathy. Other major risk factors include AF, DM, smoking, hypertension and FH. It is important is perform a CT head exclude a haemorrhagic aetiology and consider thrombolysis with tPA if within the 4.5 hour window and there are no contraindications. Obviously this patient has presented to late for this but thrombolysis is usually done with alteplase at 10% bolus, 90% infusion at a dose of 0.9 mg/kg. Presentation after the 4.5 hour window will be managed with aspirin.

The Bamford/Oxford Stroke Classification subtypes ischaemic stroke according to vascular territory of infarction. After initial management, stroke care involves the ethos of an MDT environment with rehabilitation. This is not a TIA which resolves within 24 hours of symptom onset, although in practice this is often difficult to distinguish due to interventional measures which are rapidly enacted.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

A 56 year old lady collapses whilst running for the bus. O/E there is a thrusting apex beat and an ejection systolic murmur. This is best heard on expiration and radiates to the carotids

A. Anaemia 
B. Vasovagal syncope
C. TIA 
D. Cardiac arrhythmia 
E. Stroke 
F. Postural hypotension 
G. Myxoedema coma
H. Carotid sinus sensitivity
I. Hypoglycaemia 
J. Aortic stenosis 
K. Epilepsy 
L. Pulmonary stenosis
A

J. Aortic Stenosis - Aortic stenosis can present with chest pain, dyspnoea and syncope. It is characterised by a harsh ejection systolic murmur heard loudest at the right upper sternal edge at end expiration, which radiates up towards the carotids. The pulse pressure is narrow and there may be an associated slow-rising and plateau pulse. Doppler echo is vital for diagnosis and shows a pressure gradient across the narrowed valve orifice. 20% of cases are due to a congenital bicuspid valve. The most common cause of aortic stenosis in adults is calcification of normal trileaflet valves. Clinically stable patients may be considered for surgical repair or TAVR.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

A previously well 14 year old girl collapses after being in a crowd for 2 hours at a pop concert.

A. Anaemia 
B. Vasovagal syncope
C. TIA 
D. Cardiac arrhythmia 
E. Stroke 
F. Postural hypotension 
G. Myxoedema coma
H. Carotid sinus sensitivity
I. Hypoglycaemia 
J. Aortic stenosis 
K. Epilepsy 
L. Pulmonary stenosis
A

B. Vasovagal syncope - This is vasovagal syncope which is also known as the ‘common faint’. It has many manifestations and many triggers such as emotional upset, unpleasant sights, fear and pain. These tend to recur and patients needs to be warned of this and that they are almost never life-threatening. The cause of the faint is a transient insufficiency of cerebral flow. LOC inevitably leads to loss of postural tone and the patient falling over.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

A 54 year old man collapses suddenly as he is walking across the living room. His daughter who witnessed the collapse says he dropped suddenly became very pale and started to twitch for a few seconds. After she woke him up (with some difficulty) he became flushed. O/E his nervous system is normal.

A. Anaemia 
B. Vasovagal syncope
C. TIA 
D. Cardiac arrhythmia 
E. Stroke 
F. Postural hypotension 
G. Myxoedema coma
H. Carotid sinus sensitivity
I. Hypoglycaemia 
J. Aortic stenosis 
K. Epilepsy 
L. Pulmonary stenosis
A

D. Cardiac arrhythmias - Stokes-Adams attacks are episodes of transient LOC due to sudden decreased cardiac output. Pallor prior to the attack and facial flushing due to reactive hyperemia after the attack is characteristic of a Stokes-Adams attack. The underlying cause is a cardiac arrhythmia such as complete heart block.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

A 70 year old lady with a history of well-controlled diabetes, collapses when she gets out of bed in the morning. She regained conciousness and pulled the emegency cord in her bedroom to call for help. She is on medication for hypertension and her ECG is unremarkable

A. Anaemia 
B. Vasovagal syncope
C. TIA 
D. Cardiac arrhythmia 
E. Stroke 
F. Postural hypotension 
G. Myxoedema coma
H. Carotid sinus sensitivity
I. Hypoglycaemia 
J. Aortic stenosis 
K. Epilepsy 
L. Pulmonary stenosis
A

F. Postural hypotension - Postural hypotension is a side effect of anti-hypertensives and is a common problem in the elderly. Diabetic autonomic neuropathy may also be a cause here. A good history should be enough to diagnose this.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

A 71 year old man with long standing hypertension lives on his own. He is found by his son with marked right upper limb weakness and difficulities with speech. He is now incontinent of urine and has some personality changes.

A. Subdural haemorrhage  
B. Space-occupying lesion  
C. Depression  
D. Stroke   
E. Migraine
F. Myasthenia gravis  
G. Extradural haemorrhage
H. Arterial dissection
I. Multiple sclerosis
J. Peripheral neuropathy  
K. Polio
A

D. Stroke - This is a left sided stroke which may have some frontal lobe involvement consistent with his personality changes. It is important is perform a CT head exclude a haemorrhagic aetiology and consider thrombolysis with tPA if within the 4.5 hour window and there are no contraindications. Thrombolysis is done with alteplase at 10% bolus, 90% infusion at a dose of 0.9 mg/kg. Presentation after the 4.5 hour window is managed with aspirin. The Bamford/Oxford Stroke Classification subtypes ischaemic stroke according to vascular territory of infarction. After initial management, stroke care involves the ethos of an MDT environment with rehabilitation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

A 22-year-old female student recently lost her mother. Now she presents with a couple of weeks Hx of increasing weakness in her arm and legs, but also while chewing or talking. Her vision seemed blurred recently.

A. Subdural haemorrhage  
B. Space-occupying lesion  
C. Depression  
D. Stroke   
E. Migraine
F. Myasthenia gravis  
G. Extradural haemorrhage
H. Arterial dissection
I. Multiple sclerosis
J. Peripheral neuropathy  
K. Polio
A

F. Myasthenia gravis - Myasthenia gravis is an autoimmune condition with antibodies affecting the NMJ, mostly the nAChR at the post-synaptic muscle membrane. Although some have antibodies against MuSK, and there are other proteins involved. MG is characterised by muscle weakness which increases with exercise (fatigue, unlike Lambert-Eaton myasthenic syndrome). Commonly, presentations include diplopia and drooping eyelids like this patient, and there may also be SOB, proximal limb weakness, facial paresis and oropharyngeal weakness. MG is associated with thymic hyperplasia in 70% or thymoma in 10%, and these associations can also crop up in EMQs. There will be elevated serum AChR receptor antibody titres or MuSK antibodies. Electrophysiology will demonstrate a decremental response on repetitive nerve stimulation. Treatment includes anticholinesterases (pyridostigmine, and immunotherapy. Patients may also require a thymectomy. Some 15-20% may experience a myasthenic crisis (which needs mechanical ventilation). Do you know what the Tensilon test is and why edrophonium is given in this test?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

A mother of a 16-year old is concerned as he dropped a few things from his hands in the past two weaks. He says his arm went weak. He also complained of progressive headaches, associated with nausea and vomitting. He also had some visual disturbances.

A. Subdural haemorrhage  
B. Space-occupying lesion  
C. Depression  
D. Stroke   
E. Migraine
F. Myasthenia gravis  
G. Extradural haemorrhage
H. Arterial dissection
I. Multiple sclerosis
J. Peripheral neuropathy  
K. Polio
A

B. Space occupying lesion - Intracranial space-occupying lesions are mostly caused by primary and metastatic tumours. The progressive headache associated with N&V, visual disturbances and focal neurology indicate a slowly growing space-occupying mass. This could be a brain tumour, which may be primary (originates within the cranium) or secondary (from a metastatic tumour found elsewhere). The signs of raised intracranial pressure are seen here, and include headache, altered mental status, nausear and/or vomiting and gait abnormality. Tumours may be benign or malignant and range from meningiomas and medulloblastomas to craniopharyngiomas and astrocytic brain tumours. Further investigation is warranted in this case.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

A 56-year-old lady with T2DM presents with gradual onset of weakness of the left hand and right foot. On examination, you also notice reduced sensation in the lower legs. She tells you that she also suffers a burning and shooting pain in her feet.

A. Subdural haemorrhage  
B. Space-occupying lesion  
C. Depression  
D. Stroke   
E. Migraine
F. Myasthenia gravis  
G. Extradural haemorrhage
H. Arterial dissection
I. Multiple sclerosis
J. Peripheral neuropathy  
K. Polio
A

J. Peripheral neuropathy - This is by definition peripheral neuropathy. This is a case of diabetic neuropathy with sensory and motor deficits. This is a microvascular complication of DM and is characterised by peripheral nerve dysfunction. Pain is a common complaint such as the burning and shooting sensation this patient describes. Patient’s may also describe the pain as prickling or sticking. Examination should include peripheral pulses, reflexes and sensation to light touch with a 10g monofilament, vibration (128Hz tuning fork), pinprick and proprioception. The pain may be treated with medications like pregabalin (VGCC modulator) and duloxetine (serotonin-NA re-uptake inhibitor).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

A 41-year-old lady feels unsteady on her feet. She also has visual problems for the past 6 weeks. She has been previously well and has no other medical problems.

A. Subdural haemorrhage  
B. Space-occupying lesion  
C. Depression  
D. Stroke   
E. Migraine
F. Myasthenia gravis  
G. Extradural haemorrhage
H. Arterial dissection
I. Multiple sclerosis
J. Peripheral neuropathy  
K. Polio
A

I. Multiple sclerosis - Multiple sclerosis is a demyelinating CNS condition which is characterised by 2 or more episodes of neurological dysfunction which are separated in both time and space. MS classically presents in white women aged 20-40 with temporary visual/sensory loss although any presentation can occur. MRI is a sensitive test but less specific than spinal MRI, however, spinal MRI is abnormal in fewer cases. Treatment aims at treating the attack, preventing future attacks and symptomatic treatment of problems like bladder dysfunction, pain and fatigue.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

A 87-year-old lady had a seizure at home. Her husband says she has been drowsy for the last couple of days. She is otherwise in good health but she has recently started antihpertensive drugs. On examination, her skin turgor is reduced.

  1. Absence seizure
  2. Meningitis
  3. Jacksonian seizure
  4. Encephalitis
  5. Hypercalcaemia
  6. Hyponatraemia
  7. Hypocalcaemia
  8. Simple partial seizure
  9. Atonic seizure
  10. Tonic-clonic seizure
A
  1. Hyponatraemia - Hyponatraemia is defined by serum sodium
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

A 66-year-old was getting increasing confused over the last couple of days. She was admitted after a seizure. She appears distressed and is pyrexial with mild meningism but no rash. A CT head scan shows changes in the left temporal lobe and cerebral oedema.

  1. Absence seizure
  2. Meningitis
  3. Jacksonian seizure
  4. Encephalitis
  5. Hypercalcaemia
  6. Hyponatraemia
  7. Hypocalcaemia
  8. Simple partial seizure
  9. Atonic seizure
  10. Tonic-clonic seizure
A
  1. Encaphalitis - Encephalitis (brain parenchyma inflammation) is not to be confused with meningitis where the meninges is inflammed (although meningoencephalitis can exist). In encephalitis, there is an altered state of consciousness (this patient is confused) and may there also be focal neurology. There is also a fever (exceptions, however, are subacute sclerosing panencephalitis, VZV and HCV). Other typical features include headache and seizures. It is a medical emergency and people are the extremes of age are more at risk. The list of possible causes is massive. HSV encephalitis is characterised by temporal lobe changes. Hypodense lesions and mass effect can be seen in the temporal lobes on CT. An MRI is a better test for encephalitis although it is less available when compared to CT.

If you suspect this diagnosis, empiral IV acyclovir should be started before the results of any investigations are known. A large proportion are caused by HSV and empirical therapy is backed up by RCTs which show improved mortality. You can change the treatment if the cause is known, for instance, ganciclovir for CMV. You should look for a rash which may give a clue to the aetiology. For example, vesicular patterns are seen in VZV, HSV and enteroviruses, EBV causes a maculopapular pattern after ampicillin, Lyme disease pathognomically gives erythema migrans whereas erythema nodosum might make you think of TB. The patient may also have animal/insect bites and a careful and thorough history is important.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

A 42-year-old lady has a seizure the day after her thyroidectomy surgery. She is previous well and taking no medication. She has never had a seizure before.

  1. Absence seizure
  2. Meningitis
  3. Jacksonian seizure
  4. Encephalitis
  5. Hypercalcaemia
  6. Hyponatraemia
  7. Hypocalcaemia
  8. Simple partial seizure
  9. Atonic seizure
  10. Tonic-clonic seizure
A
  1. Hypocalcaemia - Hypocalcaemia can develop as a complication of thyroid surgery due to the loss of parathyroid glands which produce PTH. This is the cause of this lady’s seizure. Trousseau’s sign can be seen which is carpal spasm when a blood pressure cuff is used for several minutes. Carpopedal spasm that occurs with hypocalcaemia is a painful spasm and could also be the presenting sign. Chvostek’s sign is twitching of the perioral muscles in response to tapping over the facial nerve at the ear. If urgent replacement is necessary, calcium gluconate can be given IV. It is preferred over calcium chloride as it causes less tissue necrosis if it leaks out. It is worth noting that digoxin may be ineffective until serum calcium is restored to normal.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

A 21-year-old man is walking down the street to visit his friends while suddenly he falls to the ground unconscious. His body goes stiff and then he begins to jerk his arms. He becomes incontinent of urine.

  1. Absence seizure
  2. Meningitis
  3. Jacksonian seizure
  4. Encephalitis
  5. Hypercalcaemia
  6. Hyponatraemia
  7. Hypocalcaemia
  8. Simple partial seizure
  9. Atonic seizure
  10. Tonic-clonic seizure
A
  1. Tonic-clonic seizures - This is a tonic-clonic, generalised seizure. It is characterised by LOC and widespread motor tonic contractions followed by clonic jerking movements. There will characteristically be a suppressed level of arousal following the event. This may either reflect a primary generalised episode or a focal seizure with secondary generalisation. The main aim of acute treatment is to terminate the seizure and to protect the airway. Management always starts with basic life-support (like every acute emergency) and your ABCs. IV access needs to be established (bloods sent to the lab too and serum glucose measured to test for reversable causes of seizure activity – thiamine should also be given to the patient if there is any concern about deficiency and hypoglycaemia, for instance in alcohol abuse). The following are needed: ECG, pulse oximetry, ABG. IV lorazepam is the preferred initial therapy, though rectal diazepam can be used if there is no IV access. If BZDs fail to stop the seizure then phenytoin or fosphenytoin can be tried.

After the episode, MRI and EEG are essential in diagnosing an epilepsy syndrome. During the episode of generalised tonic-clonic activity, the EEG will show bilateral synchrony in the epileptiform activity. If this is a one-off seizure in which a provoking factor, such as electrolyte disturbance or hypoglycaemia, has been identified then there is no need for therapy for epilepsy. In unprovoked cases, this depends on history, examination, EEG and MRI. Treatment may not be needed the first time but after a second unprovoked instance, therapy is generally recommended.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

A 10-year-old girl is not doing well at school, her teacher says she doesn’t concentrate and shows no interest. Her parents also noticed the girl has moments (around 10secs) when she just stares blankly, blinking and then returns to normal. It happens up to several times an hour.

  1. Absence seizure
  2. Meningitis
  3. Jacksonian seizure
  4. Encephalitis
  5. Hypercalcaemia
  6. Hyponatraemia
  7. Hypocalcaemia
  8. Simple partial seizure
  9. Atonic seizure
  10. Tonic-clonic seizure
A
  1. Abscence seizures - A typical absence seizure is characterised by behavioural arrest or staring, lasting 5-10 seconds, interrupting otherwise normal activity. It can be induced by hyperventilation. Absence seizures can also be atypical, where it is less clear when it begins and ends and is not usually precipitated by hyperventilation. The definitive test here is to do an EEG to determine the exact nature of the seizure. This will ensure appropriate treatment. Most are medically responsive and childhood absence epilepsy (CAE) tends to remit by adulthood. First line treatment is with ethosuximide, valproate or lamotrigine. Atypical seizures though, tend to be refractory to medical treatment and associated with mental retardation.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

A 72-year-old arteriopath is brought into the A&E collapsed. After admission you realise he is blind although he denies it.

A. Normal pressure hydrocephalus 
B. Occipital Stroke 
C. Multiple Sclerosis 
D. Hypothyroidism 
E. Vascular dementia 
F. Lewy body dementia 
G. Parkinson's disease 
H. Pick's disease 
I. Azheimer's dementia
A

B. Occipital stroke - This is cortical blindness, which is the loss of vision in a normal eye which results from damage to the visual area in the occipital cortex. The lack of insight that they have lost vision is a phenomenon known as Anton’s syndrome. They are ‘cortically blind’ but claim, often confabulate and adamantly despite obvious evidence, claim that they are capable of seeing. The pupillary reflex to light is intact as it does not involve the cortex and fundscopy, if done, would also be normal.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

A 74-year-old man feels unsteady on his feet. He is on no medication and has no PMH. O/E you notice his gait is slow with small steps. He has a resting tremor of his right hand, and you note the cogwheel rigidity of his upper limbs.

A. Normal pressure hydrocephalus 
B. Occipital Stroke 
C. Multiple Sclerosis 
D. Hypothyroidism 
E. Vascular dementia 
F. Lewy body dementia 
G. Parkinson's disease 
H. Pick's disease 
I. Azheimer's dementia
A

G. Parkinson’s disease - Parkinson’s is characterised by a resting tremor, rigidity, bradykinesia and postural instability. This patient has difficulty walking, a resting tremor (4-6 Hz at rest which dissipates with the use of limbs, with generally asymmetrical onset) and limbs oppose movement. This last point demonstrates rigidity, which shows as resistance to passive movement about a joint. There is often also cogwheeling, especially if there is a superimposed tremor. The patient may have other signs like a mask like face due to the loss of spontaneous facial movement, hypophonia and micrographia, and may walk around in a shuffling gait with a stooped posture. The diagnosis is clinical. Treatment is symptomatic in an MDT setting. Medical therapy includes MAO-B inhibitors and DA agonists, for example rasagiline and carbidopa/levodopa. There are other medical therapies depending on the specific symptoms the patient presents with.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

A 75-year-old lady is brought to see her GP by her husband. He says that in the past couple of months she needs more and more assistance with everyday life as she is very forgetful, gets lost easily and cannot name objects at times. He is very upset as he says she is not the way she used to be. Examination and routine investigations are unremarkable although her MMSE is 19/30.

A. Normal pressure hydrocephalus 
B. Occipital Stroke 
C. Multiple Sclerosis 
D. Hypothyroidism 
E. Vascular dementia 
F. Lewy body dementia 
G. Parkinson's disease 
H. Pick's disease 
I. Azheimer's dementia
A

I. Alzheimers dementia - This is Alzheimer’s dementia which is a progressive irreversible disorder characterised by memory loss, loss of social function and dimished executive function. The MMSE is the most widely used screening test for cognitive function and a score

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

A 80-year-old gentleman became agitated recently, he has behavioural changes including sexual disinhibition. He is unable to take care of himself, being unable to plan or make judgements on even simplest matters. His MMSE is 25/30.

A. Normal pressure hydrocephalus 
B. Occipital Stroke 
C. Multiple Sclerosis 
D. Hypothyroidism 
E. Vascular dementia 
F. Lewy body dementia 
G. Parkinson's disease 
H. Pick's disease 
I. Azheimer's dementia
A

H. Picks disease - Pick’s disease (not to be confused with Niemann-Pick disease) is one cause of frontotemporal degeneration. If you are not aware of this then this question would have been difficult. In any case, you should have realised that this is frontotemporal dementia. This type of dementia presents primarily with disruption in personality and social conduct, or as a primary language disorder. Essentially, the patient will present with components of the dysexecutive syndrome. Almost 50% will also display parkinsonism and a subset also have MND. Treatment is supportive combining medications ranging from BZDs to antidepressants depending on symptoms, with community services and carer guidance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

A 72-year-old smoker, a known arteriopath is suffering from increasing behavioural problems and forgetfulness. His family is concerned as his state is deteriorating. This is confirmed by the decline of his MMSE from 25/30 six months ago to 18/30 today.

A. Normal pressure hydrocephalus 
B. Occipital Stroke 
C. Multiple Sclerosis 
D. Hypothyroidism 
E. Vascular dementia 
F. Lewy body dementia 
G. Parkinson's disease 
H. Pick's disease 
I. Azheimer's dementia
A

E. Vascular dementia - Vascular dementia is a chronic and progressive dementia with loss of brain parenchyma mainly due to causes such as infarction and small vessel changes. It is classically assumed to be a stepwise progression in symptoms, although a gradual course can also be seen. This patient is an arteriopath. It is the second most common cause of dementia in older people and there is a large overlap with Alzheimer’s with many patients having a mixed form. Treatment is of limited use and the best course of action is to target vascular risk factors at as early a stage as possible.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

What does the ‘f’ in ‘fMRI’ stand for?

 1. Functional
 2. Fast
 3. Ferrous
 4. Frequency
A
  1. Functional - Functional MRI’s can highlight an area of the brain that is being used in certain tasks.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

Status epilepticus is uncontrolled or serial seizure activity lasting more than 30 minutes.
Selected Answer:

True
False

A

True - It is a medical emergency, treated with IV or PR diazepam initially.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

Which type of seizure is associated with impaired consciousness and feelings of unreality, deja vu, or depersonalisation?
Selected Answer:

  1. Tonic-clonic
  2. Complex partial
  3. Simple partial
  4. Absence
A
  1. Complex partial - The above are all features of a temporal lobe seizure, which is often complex but may be simple (ie. no impairment of consciousness).
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

Parkinson’s disease is characterised by a loss of dopaminergic neurons in which area below?

  1. Caudate nucleus
  2. Substantia nigra
  3. Thalamus
  4. Corpus callosum
A
  1. Substantia nigra - The substantia nigra is the main area affected in Parkinson’s disease.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

Which of these is not a feature of Parkinson’s disease?

  1. Resting tremor
  2. Rigidity of limbs
  3. Hemiplegia
  4. Mask-like face
A
  1. Hemiplegia - Hemiplegia is seen in cerebrovascular disease or lesions affecting the motor cortex and pyramidal tracts.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

Dopamine tablets can be given to patients to treat Parkinson’s disease.

True
False

A

False - Dopamine does not cross the blood-brain barrier. Therefore levodopa (L-dopa), its precursor is given, because this can cross the barrier. It is then processed to make dopamine.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

MS affects peripheral nerves.

True
False

A

False - MS only affects the CNS.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

MS is a demyelinating disease.

True
False

A

True - MS is characterised by inflammation and demyelination.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

Which is the best type of scan to help confirm MS?

  1. MRI
  2. CT
  3. Skull X-ray
  4. Angiogram
A
  1. MRI - MRI scans of the brain or spine are the most useful imaging investigations.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

A 70 year old man is found by his wife to have difficulty speaking and comprehending spoken language. There is also an inability to raise his right arm. He was fine an hour ago when his sister spoke to him on the phone.

  1. Right anterior circulation stroke
  2. Left anterior circulation stroke
  3. Left posterior circulation stroke
  4. Lacunar stroke
A
  1. Left anterior circulation stroke - Anterior circulation strokes are commonly associated with aphasia and loss of strength in the face and upper and/or lower extremities. The inability to raise the right arm points to a left sided lesion. Remember that UMNs innervate contralateral LMNs, which innervate ipsilateral muscles.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

A 30 year old man with a history of alcohol abuse is found by the police lying on the side of the motorway. The man has severe ataxia on walking into A&E. On examination, he is clearly confused. There is horizontal gaze palsy with markedly impaired vestibulo-ocular reflexes.

  1. Alcohol withdrawal
  2. Viral encephalitis
  3. Miller-Fisher syndrome
  4. Wernicke’s encephalopathy
A
  1. Wernicke’s encephalopathy - Wernicke’s encephalopathy is caused by the acute deficiency of thiamine in a susceptible host. It is clinically underdiagnosed. The classic triad is of mental status changes, ophthalmoplegia and gait dysfunction, though this is present in only 10% of cases.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

An 8 year old boy with no significant PMH comes into clinic with worried parents who report frequent unusual episodes over the past few months. The parents tell you their child will suddenly stop activity for 10 to 20 seconds around 5 times a day and will be found staring with minimal eyelid flutter. During this time, he is unresponsive to voice.

  1. Daydreaming
  2. Frontal epilepsy
  3. Partial seizure
  4. Absence seizure
A
  1. Absence seizure - This description is of a typical absence seizure which interrupts otherwise normal activity. This can be hyperventilation-induced. EEG is the definitive test and most cases are medically responsive.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

A 28 year old woman presents with severe weakness in the legs and distal arms. She began to have foot drop in her pre-school years which has progressed through her teens. She finds walking up stairs difficult and has been wheelchair bound since the age of 20. You notice the lower leg and foot are atrophied and there is pes cavus.

  1. Diabetic neuropathy
  2. Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease
  3. Hereditary spastic paraplegia
  4. Motor neurone disease
A
  1. Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease - This history here points to Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease. There is pes cavus and distal atrophy of the legs here which are characteristic features. The progressive history from childhood suggests this genetic condition as the cause.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

A 27 year old medical student complains of a throbbing pain on the left side of her head. This is accompanied by nausea and vomiting as well as photophobia. It lasts about 6 hours and beforehand, she claims she felt a tingling in her limbs.

  1. Subarachnoid haemorrhage
  2. Migraine
  3. Tension headache
  4. Meningitis
A
  1. Migrane - This is a classic migraine history with an aura of a tingling sensation, which is pathognomic of migraine. The pain tends to be described as throbbing or pulsing and tends to be disabling, and can be associated with N&V and photophobia.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

A 54 year old man presents complaining of dizziness. He describes it as a sudden and severe spinning feeling which is precipitated by rolling over in bed onto his left side. Symptoms last under a minute and has occured every night for a month.

  1. Benign positional paroxysmal vertigo
  2. Meniere’s disease
  3. Vestibular neuritis
  4. Labyrinthitis
A
  1. Benign positional paroxysmal vertigo - The history of vertigo on rollong over in bed which lasts for a few seconds is suggestive here. Dix-Hallpike test would be diagnostic in this case and will demonstrate nystagmus and symptoms delayed by about 15s, peak in 20-30s and then decay with complete resolution of the episode of vertigo.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

A hypertensive old man with a history of atrial fibrillation is brought into A&E by his carer who is worried that he is getting confused. The carer tells you that he has fallen over frequently over the last few months and is unstable on his feet. There is right-sided pronator drift and some right sided weakness.

  1. Brain tumour
  2. Subdural haematoma
  3. Concussive syndrome
  4. Benign intracranial hypertension
A
  1. Subdural haematoma - There is a history of falls here and confusion. A subdural haematoma occurs due to extra-axial blood collection between the dura and arachnoid layers surrounding the brain. Surgical treatment will likely be necessary in this case with neurological deficit.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

An 18 month old child from rural India presents to the local clinic where you are based for your elective. He has weakness in his left leg. Approximately 2 weeks ago, he has had fever and diarrhoea which resolved without treatment. The boy’s mother only believes in herbal remedies. Examination reveals the left leg has decreased tone, power and reflexes.

  1. Guillan-Barre syndrome
  2. Poliovirus infection
  3. Transverse myelitis
  4. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
A
  1. Poliovirus infection - This is paralytic poliovirus infection. The mother here only believes in herbal remedies so this child has not been immunised. The gastrointestinal prodrome is common although non-specific. Examination findings here are consistent. While GBS may be preceded by gastroenteritis, the limb weakness is usually symmetrical and there may be autonomic dysfunction. There is no cure for poliovirus infection.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

A 22 year old female presents with recurrent slurred speech which gets worse as she continues to talk. Her friends think she is retarded. She also has difficulty swallowing which worsens as she continues to eat. There is also some double vision.

  1. Myasthenia gravis
  2. Multiple sclerosis
  3. Chronic subdural haematoma
  4. Embolic stroke
A
  1. Myasthenia gravis - MG is characterised by muscle weakness that increases with exercise and improves on rest. It is a chronic autoimmune disorder of the post-synaptic membrane at the NMJ in skeletal muscle.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

A 35 year old engineer with a 10 pack year history presents with cloudy vision and pain on movement of the left eye. He also has some problems discriminating colours. 3 weeks ago she had unilateral parathesias during exam time and also occasionally has some tingling in her arms and legs when she is stressed.

  1. Fibromyalgia
  2. Migraine
  3. Pituitary tumour
  4. Multiple sclerosis
A
  1. Multiple sclerosis - MS is a demyelinating CNS condition clinically defined by 2 episodes of neurological dysfunction which are separated in space and time. Smoking is a weak risk factor.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

A 54 year old postman has had lower back pain for 2 years now. Over the past year he has experienced bilateral leg pain and heavy legs when walking. This pain is relieved by sitting down. He has now assumed a stooped posture when walking which makes the pain better.

  1. Spinal stenosis
  2. Lumbosacral disc herniation
  3. Peripheral vascular disease
  4. Spinal compression fracture
A
  1. Spinal stenosis - This is neurogenic claudication due to spinal stenosis. This is relieved by sitting or bending over, which widens the size of the spinal canal. This is the reason for the stooped posture when walking, which is classically described as the ‘shopping cart sign’ where patients lean forwards like onto a shopping trolley to flex the spine.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

48 yr old man presents with central chest pain on unusual exertion. Resting ECG is normal and there are no obvious risk factors. He would prefer not to take medication until a definitive diagnosis is made.

A. Coronary angiography
B. Exercise ECG
C. Beta blockers
D. Thallium scan
E. CABG
F. Long acting nitrates
G. Angioplasty
H. Ace inhibitors
I. Nifedipine
A

B. Exercise ECG - This patient has presented with stable angina. Resting ECG is often normal however during exercise stress ECG (most often the Bruce Protocol) there will be ST segment depression during exercise indicative of ischaemia. Those unable to exercise to an adequate level may need stress myocardial perfusion imaging or stress echocardiography. 1st line treatment involves lifestyle changes and antiplatelet therapy with aspirin. Anti-anginal theray will also be given, first line being beta-blockade. Statin therapy, blood sugar control in diabetics and BP control with antihypertensives may also be necessary. Those with LMS disease, 3 vessel disease or a reduced EF may benefit from CABG. Single vessel disease may benefit from PCI.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

55 yr old man is taking increasing doses of sublingual GTN for established stable angina. He also has COPD with a reduced PEFR. Coronary angiography has shown diffuse disease but he has refused intervention.

A. Coronary angiography
B. Exercise ECG
C. Beta blockers
D. Thallium scan
E. CABG
F. Long acting nitrates
G. Angioplasty
H. Ace inhibitors
I. Nifedipine
A

I. Nifedipine - First line anti-anginal therapy for stable angina is a beta blocker such as metoprolol. However, this patient has COPD and beta blockers are relatively contraindicated due to bronchospasm (even those considered to be cardioselective). 2nd line treatment is with a CCB such as nifedipine. Long acting nitrates can be used as additional therapy or in patients where beta blockers and CCBs are contraindicated.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

60 yr old man with stable angina is awaiting surgery. He is on the highest tolerated dose of beta blocker and CCB but is still symptomatic. BP is 170/95 mmHg.

A. Coronary angiography
B. Exercise ECG
C. Beta blockers
D. Thallium scan
E. CABG
F. Long acting nitrates
G. Angioplasty
H. Ace inhibitors
I. Nifedipine
A

F. Long acting nitrates - Long acting nitrates such as isosorbide mononitrate or transdermal GTN is indicated as the patient is still symptomatic on beta blockers and CCBs. Appropriate nitrate-free periods will be needed to avoid tolerance. Severe hypotension may occur if combined with a phosphodiesterase-5 inhibitor.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

50 yr old man presents with typical history of exertional angina with ischaemic changes on resting ECG. Coronary angiography shows 70% stenosis of the left anterior descending artery with no significant lesions elsewhere.

A. Coronary angiography
B. Exercise ECG
C. Beta blockers
D. Thallium scan
E. CABG
F. Long acting nitrates
G. Angioplasty
H. Ace inhibitors
I. Nifedipine
A

G. Angioplasty - Those with LMS disease, 3 vessel disease or a reduced EF may benefit from CABG. Most single vessel disease can be adequately managed with PCI.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

For each of the following patients choose one of the options above as the single most appropriate means of reducing cardiovascular risk

A 62 year old man, 3 months after an MI, taking asprin, atenolol and simvistatin, whose echocardigram shows worsening left ventricular function

A. Weight reduction and increased physical activity
B. Angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitor therapy
C. Weight reduction and metformin therapy
D. Cholesterol lowering therapy with a statin
E. Reduced alcohol intake
F. Antihypertensive drugs
G. Aspirin therapy
H. Smoking cessation

A

B. Angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitor therapy - This patient has worsening LV function in line with heart failure. First line treatment is with an ACE inhibitor which reduces morbidity and mortality associated with the condition. All patients with LV dysfunction should receive ACE inhibitors, whether symptomatic or not. Caution should be taken if the patient has renal impairment, cardiogenic shock or hyperkalaemia. All patients with chronic heart failure will also receive a beta blocker such as carvedilol.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

For each of the following patients choose one of the options above as the single most appropriate means of reducing cardiovascular risk

A 46 year old woman, normal blood pressure, cholesterol and blood sugar, body mass index 32

A. Weight reduction and increased physical activity
B. Angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitor therapy
C. Weight reduction and metformin therapy
D. Cholesterol lowering therapy with a statin
E. Reduced alcohol intake
F. Antihypertensive drugs
G. Aspirin therapy
H. Smoking cessation

A

A. Weight reduction and increased physical activity - This woman is obese (BMI greater than or equal to 30) and needs to lose weight. Central obesity has a greater correlation with co-morbidities than peripheral obesity so arguably waist circumference is a better indicator of risk than body mass index. The mainstay of treatment is with diet and exercise. This patient is obese and drug therapy can be considered as an adjunct. This is primarily with orlistat which inhibits fat absorption by inhibiting lipases. For weight loss, the recommended intake is 1200-1500 kcal/day for men and 1000-1200kcal/day for women, producing a 500-1000kcal/day deficit.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

For each of the following patients choose one of the options above as the single most appropriate means of reducing cardiovascular risk

A 77 year old man, normal blood pressure, not diabetic, who has had 3 episodes of transient left sided weakness in the last month

A. Weight reduction and increased physical activity
B. Angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitor therapy
C. Weight reduction and metformin therapy
D. Cholesterol lowering therapy with a statin
E. Reduced alcohol intake
F. Antihypertensive drugs
G. Aspirin therapy
H. Smoking cessation

A

G. Aspirin therapy - A TIA is colloquially called a ‘mini stroke’ with symptoms typically lasting under an hour. An antiplatelet drug such as aspirin is effective secondary prevention if the patient is not already anticoagulated. The patient will be anticoagulated if they have a likely or known cardioembolic source such as AF. Clopidogrel is an alternative in those who do not tolerate aspirin.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

For each of the following patients choose one of the options above as the single most appropriate means of reducing cardiovascular risk

A 54 year old man, normal blood pressure, normal lipid profile, body mass index 28, random blood sugar 15 mmol/L, fasting blood sugar 8.5mmol/L

A. Weight reduction and increased physical activity
B. Angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitor therapy
C. Weight reduction and metformin therapy
D. Cholesterol lowering therapy with a statin
E. Reduced alcohol intake
F. Antihypertensive drugs
G. Aspirin therapy
H. Smoking cessation

A

C. Weight reduction and metformin therapy - This patient has DM. Symptomatic patients need a single random blood glucose of >11.1 or single fasting glucose of >7. Asymptomatic patients need two separate elevated readings for a diagnosis. Alternatively if there are borderline results, an OGTT can be conducted to see if plasma glucose is raised >11.1 two hours after an oral glucose load of 75g. A patient is said to have impaired fasting glucose if fasting glucose falls between 6.1-6.9. Impaired glucose tolerance is present if plasma glucose 2 hours after oral glucose load in OGTT falls between 7.8-11.0. First line intervention in this situation is diet and lifestyle advice and changes. Metformin will be added if there is no adequate response. In terms of this question, this option will reduce cardiovascular risk the most for this patient. Metformin is a biguanide and suppresses hepatic glucose production.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

For each situation choose the single most likely diagnosis from the options. Each option may be used once, more than once or not at all.

30 yr old man attends for a routine pre employment medical. On examination of the CVS system the doctor finds a soft ejection systolic murmur at the apex. He has no previous cardiac or respiratory problems, and has normal pulse and BP

A. Aortic regurgitation
B. Mitral incompetence
C. Mixed mitral and ahortic valve disease
D. Mitral stenosis - rheumatic
E. Infective endocarditis
F. Innocent murmur
G.Aortic stenosis
H. Hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy
I. Mixed aortic valve disease
J. Mixed mitral valve disease
K. Mitral regurgitation- rheumatic
A

F. Innocent Murmur - This is a functional murmur which is not caused by a structural cardiac defect. Functional murmurs tend to be systolic, occuring in an otherwise healthy individual with no symptoms. They are also characteristically position dependent and soft in nature. Ones that occur in children tend to disappear as the child grows. Benign paediatric murmurs include Still’s murmur.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
146
Q

For each situation choose the single most likely diagnosis from the options. Each option may be used once, more than once or not at all.

60 yr old Irish woman comes to see you with a progressive one year history of shortness of breath and recent onset of paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea. She has been previously well apart from Sydenham’s chorea as a child. She had six normal pregnancies. Examination= plethoric cheeks, pulse is 110 bpm irregular and small volume. BP 128/80mmHg. The JVP is normal. The apex is in the 5th i.c.s. and m.c.l and tapping in nature. The 1st heart sound is loud and P2 accentuated. A low pitched mid-diastolic murmur is heard in the apex.

A. Aortic regurgitation
B. Mitral incompetence
C. Mixed mitral and ahortic valve disease
D. Mitral stenosis - rheumatic
E. Infective endocarditis
F. Innocent murmur
G.Aortic stenosis
H. Hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy
I. Mixed aortic valve disease
J. Mixed mitral valve disease
K. Mitral regurgitation- rheumatic
A

D. Mitral stenosis - rheumatic - Sydenham’s chorea (St Vitus Dance) are dancelike movements seen in rheumatic fever. The major criteria for rheumatic fever can be remember by CASES: carditis, arthritis, Sydenham’s chorea, erythema marginatum and subcutaneous nodules. Practically every single case of mitral stenosis is caused by rheumatic heart disease. The process tends to also cause regurgitation. This is characteristically a grade 1-2 low pitch murmur heard in mid-diastole which has a rumbling nature and there is no radiation. There can be an associated malar flush, tapping apex beat and a diastolic thrill palpable at the apex, in the 5th intercostal space in the MCL. The first heart sound is also characteristically loud and often this is the most striking feature on ascultation. It is a difficult murmur to pick up so if you are ever asked at this stage to spot this murmur, it will most likely be based on the loud S1.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
147
Q

For each situation choose the single most likely diagnosis from the options. Each option may be used once, more than once or not at all.

50 yr old man attends A&E with SOB, fever and hyperdynamic regular pulse of 100. BP 160/60 mmHg. He has a murmur at the left sternal edge. On further enquiry it is found he attended for a routine dental procedure 2 months ago.

A. Aortic regurgitation
B. Mitral incompetence
C. Mixed mitral and ahortic valve disease
D. Mitral stenosis - rheumatic
E. Infective endocarditis
F. Innocent murmur
G.Aortic stenosis
H. Hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy
I. Mixed aortic valve disease
J. Mixed mitral valve disease
K. Mitral regurgitation- rheumatic
A

E. Infective endocarditis - Any patient presenting with fever and a new murmur should always make you think of bacterial endocarditis. The classic new or worsening murmur is actually rare. As are splinter haemorrhages, which this patient has. Other uncommon signs you may find include Janeway lesions (painless macular haemorrhagic plaques on the palms and soles) and Osler nodes (painful nodules on the pads of the fingers and toes). Roth spots may also be seen on fundoscopy. Three sets of bood cultures are required and this patient will have to go for an echocardiogram.The Duke criteria is used for diagnosis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
148
Q

For each situation choose the single most likely diagnosis from the options. Each option may be used once, more than once or not at all.

80 yr old woman presents with recent onset of effort related chest pain. On examination= loud ejection systolic murmur and a low pulse pressure with a slow rising pulse.

A. Aortic regurgitation
B. Mitral incompetence
C. Mixed mitral and ahortic valve disease
D. Mitral stenosis - rheumatic
E. Infective endocarditis
F. Innocent murmur
G.Aortic stenosis
H. Hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy
I. Mixed aortic valve disease
J. Mixed mitral valve disease
K. Mitral regurgitation- rheumatic
A

G. Aortic stenosis - Aortic stenosis can present with chest pain, dyspnoea and syncope. It is characterised by a harsh ejection systolic murmur heard loudest at the right upper sternal edge at end expiration, which radiates up towards the carotids. The pulse pressure is narrow and there may be an associated slow-rising and plateau pulse. Doppler echo is vital for diagnosis and shows a pressure gradient across the narrowed valve orifice. 20% of cases are due to a congenital bicuspid valve. The most common cause of aortic stenosis in adults is calcification of normal trileaflet valves. Clinically stable patients may be considered for surgical repair or TAVR.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
149
Q

For each situation choose the single most likely diagnosis from the options. Each option may be used once, more than once or not at all.

65 yr old man had an inferior MI 10 days ago. His initial course was uncomplicated. He suddenly deteriorates with LVF. On examination pulse is regular 100bpm and normal volume and character. BP 110/160mmHg. Apex beat is dynamic. There is a loud grade III apical pan-systolic murmur radiating to the axilla.

A. Aortic regurgitation
B. Mitral incompetence
C. Mixed mitral and ahortic valve disease
D. Mitral stenosis - rheumatic
E. Infective endocarditis
F. Innocent murmur
G.Aortic stenosis
H. Hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy
I. Mixed aortic valve disease
J. Mixed mitral valve disease
K. Mitral regurgitation- rheumatic
A

B. Mitral incompetence - MR is loudest at the apex and radiates to the axilla and tends to be around grade 4. It is associated with a systolic thrill at the apex. TTE is the investigation of choice for diagnosis. Chronic MR is associated with a laterally displaced apex beat with LV dilatation. Mitral valve prolapse is a strong risk factor for development of MR.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
150
Q

Match the cause of hypotension to the following case histories. Each option may be used once, more than once or not at all.

33 year old woman complains of giddiness on standing & can no longer cross a road on her own as she is worried that she may pass out. She developed diabetes when age 12 & has had treatment to her eyes 2 years ago.

A. Addison’s disease
B. Arrhythmia
C. Drug induced
D. Volume depletion
E. Autonomic neuropathy
F. Pulmonary embolus
G. Blood loss
H. Septicaemia
I. Cardiogenic shock
A

E. Autonomic neuropathy - Autonomic neuropathy is a complication of diabetic neuropathy. Symptoms of autonomic neuropathy include… resting tachycardia (late findings due to vagal impairment), impaired HR variation, erectile dysfunction (affects many diabetic men though is not solely due to autonomic neuropathy), decreased libido and dyspareunia, orthostatic hypotension (measure BP supine and then standing after 1, 2, 3 and sometimes 5 minutes – an abnormal drop when standing is indicative) and urinary symptoms of frequency, urgency, incontinence, nocturia, weak stream and retention. Other symptoms include constipation, faecal incontinence and sweating dysfunction. Fludrocortisone may be helpful in this woman.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
151
Q

Match the cause of hypotension to the following case histories. Each option may be used once, more than once or not at all.

76 year old woman was admitted with confusion. She had been increasingly unable to care for herself. On admission, she was found to have cool peripheries & her blood pressure was 100/70. Blood results showed plasma urea 25mmol/l & plasma creatinine 120umol/l.

A. Addison’s disease
B. Arrhythmia
C. Drug induced
D. Volume depletion
E. Autonomic neuropathy
F. Pulmonary embolus
G. Blood loss
H. Septicaemia
I. Cardiogenic shock
A

D. Volume depletion - Volume depletion is a reduction in ECF volume due to salt and fluid losses which exceed intake. Causes include vomiting, bleeding, diarrhoea, diuresis and third space losses. Symptoms do not occur until large losses have alrady occured. Cool peripheries are a sign of peripheral shut down. Confusion may reflect poor cerebral flow or uraemia.Volume depletion has led to the low BP. Other symptoms include postural hypotension and tachycardia, weight loss and signs of shock. Serum urea and creatinine is elevated (you need to eyeball the patient when looking at creatinine – a very big body builder will have a much higher creatinine), indicating poor renal blood flow. This patient needs IV saline fluid replacement.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
152
Q

Match the cause of hypotension to the following case histories. Each option may be used once, more than once or not at all.

22 year old man presented with vomiting. He had not been feeling himself for some weeks. On examination, the skin creases of his hands were dark. Blood results showed plasma urea 8.5mmol/l, sodium 121mmol/l & potassium 5.1mmol/l.

A. Addison’s disease
B. Arrhythmia
C. Drug induced
D. Volume depletion
E. Autonomic neuropathy
F. Pulmonary embolus
G. Blood loss
H. Septicaemia
I. Cardiogenic shock
A

A. Addison’s disease - Hyperpigmentation in the palmar creases points towards Addison’s disease. Hyperpigmentation due to excess ACTH production can be mucosal or cutaneous and is more pronounced in the palms, knuckles and around scars. MSH is a byproduct of the production of ACTH from the cleavage of POMC. Sodium is low and potassium elevated. Vomiting is present in 75% of patients and nausea is a common finding. Additionally, postural hypotension may be present. The presence of other autoimmune diseases is a risk factor for the development of Addison’s.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
153
Q

Match the cause of hypotension to the following case histories. Each option may be used once, more than once or not at all.

45 year old man presented with severe chest pain radiating down his left arm. He was pale, cold & sweaty. Blood pressure was 80/50mmHg, pulse rate was 100 & regular. JVP was raised by 3cm & auscultation of the chest revealed basal creps. Over the next few hours, he became progressively short of breath despite being given intravenous diuretics. Chest x-ray showed signs of pulmonary congestion.

A. Addison’s disease
B. Arrhythmia
C. Drug induced
D. Volume depletion
E. Autonomic neuropathy
F. Pulmonary embolus
G. Blood loss
H. Septicaemia
I. Cardiogenic shock
A

I. Cardiogenic shock - Cardiogenic shock is pump dysfunction. This may occur, like in this case, after MI (shock complicates just under 10% of MIs) or may be due to cardiomyopathy, valve dysfunction or arrhythmias. This cause of shock in this patient is obviously apparent. Clinical signs of shock include stress responses of tachycardia and tachypnoea, hypotension (

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
154
Q

Match the cause of hypotension to the following case histories. Each option may be used once, more than once or not at all.

67 year old man was observed to be very drowsy 12 hours after an aortic aneurysm repair. There had been considerable blood loss & he had been given 4 units of blood during surgery. He had been written up for pethidine 50-100mg 3 hourly postoperatively & had had 3 doses. BP had been 150/80 post-operatively & was now 100/60 with a pulse rate of 75/minute. Oxygen saturation was low at 85%.

A. Addison’s disease
B. Arrhythmia
C. Drug induced
D. Volume depletion
E. Autonomic neuropathy
F. Pulmonary embolus
G. Blood loss
H. Septicaemia
I. Cardiogenic shock
A

C. Drug induced - Opioid OD symptoms include CNS depression (drowsiness, sleepiness), respiratory depression and relative bradycardia. This patient needs ventilation prior to the administration of naloxone, titrated to patient response.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
155
Q

For each patient below, choose the SINGLE most useful investigation from the above list of options. Each option may be used once, more than once or not at all.

An 80 year old man with a history of ischaemic heart disease trips over a paving stone & fractures his hip. An ambulance takes him to A&E. 1 hour after arrival, he develops crushing central chest pain.

A. Upper GI endoscopy
B. Thoracic spine x-ray
C. ECG
D. Coronary angiogram
E. Transthoracic echo
F. CT scan abdomen
G. Chest x-ray
H. Chest x-ray in expiration
I. Barium swallow
J. Chest x-ray rib views
K. V/Q scan
L. Exercise ECG
M. CPK (creatine phosphokinase)
A

C. ECG - This patient’s crushing central chest pain sounds like an MI. Chest pain is classically severe and heavy in nature, located centrally with possible radiation to the left arm or jaw and lasts for >20 minutes. SOB due to pulmonary congestion and sweating due to high sympathetic output are common symptoms. Risk factors incorporate the standard set of cardiovascular risks such as smoking, high BP, DM, obesity and dyslipidaemia. An ECG is indicated. If ECG shows STEMI, new LBBB or confirmed posterior MI then PCI/thrombolysis is indicated. It is worth noting that RV infarction is present in 40% of inferior infarcts so if ST elevation is seen in II, III and aVF, right sided ECG leads should be obtained.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
156
Q

For each patient below, choose the SINGLE most useful investigation from the above list of options. Each option may be used once, more than once or not at all.

A 19 year old male medical student develops acute chest pain during a game of squash. On examination he is distressed there but examination is otherwise unremarkable. There is a family history of sudden death.

A. Upper GI endoscopy
B. Thoracic spine x-ray
C. ECG
D. Coronary angiogram
E. Transthoracic echo
F. CT scan abdomen
G. Chest x-ray
H. Chest x-ray in expiration
I. Barium swallow
J. Chest x-ray rib views
K. V/Q scan
L. Exercise ECG
M. CPK (creatine phosphokinase)
A

E. Transthoracic echo - This patient has likely HOCM. The patient’s young age makes it unlikely to be atherosclerotic coronary artery disease (unstable angina). HOCM is the most likely cardiomyopathy and the most frequent cause of sudden cardiac death in younger people. The FH of sudden death is suggestive of this diagnosis. This has a benign prognosis is most people though symptomatic patients are treated medically with beta blockade, CCBs or disopyramide. Chest pain on exertion (playing squash) is a common presentation in those who are symptomatic, as is dyspnoea on exertion, palpitations (such as due to AF) and a history of either pre-syncope or syncope (due to LV outflow obstruction). Inheritance is autosomal dominant with a variable penetrance.

Examination findings may be normal or may reveal an ejection systolic murmur which is positionally responsive and a double carotid or apex pulsation due to the transient interruption of CO. A fourth heart sound may also be heard due to hypertrophy. Echocardiography must be performed to establish a diagnosis, though ECG and CXR will also be done and may also show changes. Echo will show septal hypertrophy. There may also be MR.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
157
Q

For each patient below, choose the SINGLE most useful investigation from the above list of options. Each option may be used once, more than once or not at all.

A 55 year old obese female complains of a 6 month history of chest pain which radiated to the jaw and both shoulders. The pain is reported to be more severe at night. ECG and chest x-rays are normal.

A. Upper GI endoscopy
B. Thoracic spine x-ray
C. ECG
D. Coronary angiogram
E. Transthoracic echo
F. CT scan abdomen
G. Chest x-ray
H. Chest x-ray in expiration
I. Barium swallow
J. Chest x-ray rib views
K. V/Q scan
L. Exercise ECG
M. CPK (creatine phosphokinase)
A

A. Upper GI endoscopy - This patient has GORD characterised by heartburn and regurgitation of acid. It is more severe at night when the patient is lying flat and also when the patient is bending over. Risk factors include obesity and hiatus hernia. Diagnosis is generally clinical and can also be achieved by a diagnostic trial of a PPI. Normally an upper GI endoscopy is reserved for complications such as strictures, Barrett’s or cancer, or for atypical features. An OGD may show oesophagitis or Barrett’s (red velvety), however OGD may be normal. Manometry and pH monitoring may also be performed, but in this case, this patient will probably just have a therapeutic and diagnostic trial of a PPI instead of an OGD.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
158
Q

For each patient below, choose the SINGLE most useful investigation from the above list of options. Each option may be used once, more than once or not at all.

A 30 year old male alcoholic presents nausea and pain in the lower chest in a band radiating around to the back. The pain makes the patient curl up in a ball and movement worsens it. On examination there is decreased breath sounds on the left side which is stony dull to percussion at the base.

A. Upper GI endoscopy
B. Thoracic spine x-ray
C. ECG
D. Coronary angiogram
E. Transthoracic echo
F. CT scan abdomen
G. Chest x-ray
H. Chest x-ray in expiration
I. Barium swallow
J. Chest x-ray rib views
K. V/Q scan
L. Exercise ECG
M. CPK (creatine phosphokinase)
A

F. CT scan abdomen - This patient has acute pancreatitis. He has vomited and is describing mid-epigastric pain radiating around to the back which is relieved in the fetal position and is worse with movement. He is an alcoholic and alcoholic pancreatitis is seen more frequently in men usually after an average of 4-8 years of alcohol intake. Binge drinking also increases the risk. This patient also has nausea and may describe vomiting too, with agitation and confusion. The examination findings described here allude to a pleural effusion which is seen in half of patients with acute pancreatitis. Complicated haemorrhagic pancreatitis may exhibit Cullen’s sign, Grey-Turner’s sign and Fox’s sign. Make sure you know what these are and you are familiar with the causes of acute pancreatitis. Those caused by hypocalcaemia may display Chvostek’s sign and Trousseau’s sign.

Key to diagnosis is serum amylase or lipase levels which are massively elevated. Prognostic criteria are outlined in Ranson’s criteria applied on admission and after 48 hours, or the modified Glasgow score which you can find in your Oxford Handbook. An abdominal CT is however the most sensitive and specific study and findings may include enlargement of the pancreas with irregular contours, necrosis, pseudocysts and peripancreatic fat obliteration.

For interest, urinary trypsinogen-2 is now considered a better screening test than amylase but is not currently clinically used.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
159
Q

For each patient below, choose the SINGLE most useful investigation from the above list of options. Each option may be used once, more than once or not at all.

An 80 year old woman on corticosteroids develops acute chest pain while standing up. It is posteriorly sited, radiating anteriorly under the breast. The pain is worse on movement and there is tenderness on the back of the chest. Cardiovascular and respiratory examination are normal.

A. Upper GI endoscopy
B. Thoracic spine x-ray
C. ECG
D. Coronary angiogram
E. Transthoracic echo
F. CT scan abdomen
G. Chest x-ray
H. Chest x-ray in expiration
I. Barium swallow
J. Chest x-ray rib views
K. V/Q scan
L. Exercise ECG
M. CPK (creatine phosphokinase)
A

B. Thoracic spine x-ray - This patient likely has osteoporotic vertebral collapse/fracture which is compressing the intercostal nerve and causing her sudden pain in the back of her chest. The pain tends not to be related to traumatic activities and can occue on standing up or bending forwards, even coughing and sneezing. The history of corticosteroid use is associated with osteoporosis through multiple mechanisms. The thoracic spine plain x-ray would show loss of height in one of the thoracic vertebrae. Osteoporotic changes may also be seen such as osteopenia. Treatment depends on the extent of spinal involvement and the severity of the pain and whether it is complicated by spinal deformity such as kyphosis. For the diagnosis of osteoporosis, a DEXA scan is needed indicating a T score of less than or equal to -2.5.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
160
Q

A 62 year old gentleman presents with fatigue, breathlessness & anorexia. On examination his JVP is noted as being elevated, he has hepatomegaly & swollen ankles.

A. Atrial fibrillation
B. Unstable angina
C. Atrial flutter
D. Left ventricular failure
E. Congestive cardiac failure
F. Myocardial infarction
G. Decubitus angina
H. Constrictive pericarditis
I. Stable angina
J. Bacterial endocarditis
A

E. Congestive cardiac failure - The key manifestation is dyspnoea and tiredness. CCF is a term used for patients who are breathless with oedema (signs of LVF and RVF). Elevated JVP, hepatomegaly and peripheral oedema are all signs of RVF. Initial investigations should include ECG, CXR, TTE and bloods including BNP levels. First line treatment is with an ACE inhibitor which reduces morbidity and mortality. Salt and fluid restriction is also beneficial. All patients with chronic heart failure will also receive a beta blocker such as carvedilol. Other adjuncts include spironolactone, diuretics, hydralazine and a nitrate, and digoxin. The NYHA classification criteria can be used based on symptoms to describe functional limitations and ranges from Class I to Class IV with symptoms occuring at rest. Many patients are asymptomatic for long periods of time because mild cardiac impairment is balanced by compensation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
161
Q

A 55 year old gentleman with a history of systemic hypertension presents to A&E with breathlessness on exertion & orthopnoea. Examination reveals cardiomegaly & a displaced apex beat to the left.

A. Atrial fibrillation
B. Unstable angina
C. Atrial flutter
D. Left ventricular failure
E. Congestive cardiac failure
F. Myocardial infarction
G. Decubitus angina
H. Constrictive pericarditis
I. Stable angina
J. Bacterial endocarditis
A

D. Left ventricular failure - This patient has no signs of RVF mentioned above. You should know the distinction between LVF and RVF. RVF leads to a backlog of blood and congestion of the systemic capillaries. This causes peripheral oedema and ascites and hepatomegaly may develop. Nocturia may be a symptom as fluid returns from the legs when the patient lies down flat. LVF causes congestion in the pulmonary circulation so the symptoms are respiratory. As seen in this patient, there is SOB on exertion and orthopnoea. This is why you can ask patients in a cardiac history how many pillows they sleep with. PND can also occur as well as ‘cardiac asthma’.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
162
Q

A diabetic, 66 year old lady presents to A&E with breathlessness, sweating, nausea & vomiting. She is feeling very distressed. She has no pain. On inspection she appears pale, sweaty & grey.

A. Atrial fibrillation
B. Unstable angina
C. Atrial flutter
D. Left ventricular failure
E. Congestive cardiac failure
F. Myocardial infarction
G. Decubitus angina
H. Constrictive pericarditis
I. Stable angina
J. Bacterial endocarditis
A

F. Myocardial infarction - This diabetic is having a silent MI without chest pain. Silent MIs are more common in the elderly and those with DM probably due to autonomic neuropathy.

Tachycardia is a common feature of MI especially anterior wall MI. Chest pain of MI is classically severe and heavy in nature, located centrally with possible radiation to the left arm or jaw and lasts for >20 minutes. SOB due to pulmonary congestion and sweating due to high sympathetic output are common symptoms. This patient also has pallor which is due to a high sympathetic output. Risk factors incorporate the standard set of cardiovascular risks such as smoking, high BP, DM, obesity and dyslipidaemia. Patients with DM are at increased risk of CAD by a variety of mechanisms which are not fully known.

If ECG shows STEMI, new LBBB or confirmed posterior MI then PCI/thrombolysis is indicated. It is worth noting that RV infarction is present in 40% of inferior infarcts so if ST elevation is seen in II, III and aVF, right sided ECG leads should be obtained. Cardiac biomarkers include CK-MB and troponin.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
163
Q

A 49 year old man presents to A&E with a 2 week history of a ‘tight’ central chest pain radiating to the jaw experienced when he is lying down.

A. Atrial fibrillation
B. Unstable angina
C. Atrial flutter
D. Left ventricular failure
E. Congestive cardiac failure
F. Myocardial infarction
G. Decubitus angina
H. Constrictive pericarditis
I. Stable angina
J. Bacterial endocarditis
A

G. Decubitus angina - Usually as a complication of heart failure. This patient has chest pain which occurs on lying down, which is decubitus angina by definition.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
164
Q

A 45 year old man comes to A&E with shortness of breath, giving a history of decreased exercise tolerance. On examination the patient is noted as having an irregular pulse, warm vasodilated peripheries, exopthalmos & a goitre.

A. Atrial fibrillation
B. Unstable angina
C. Atrial flutter
D. Left ventricular failure
E. Congestive cardiac failure
F. Myocardial infarction
G. Decubitus angina
H. Constrictive pericarditis
I. Stable angina
J. Bacterial endocarditis
A

A. Atrial fibrillation - This patient has hyperthyroidism. More specifically, Graves’ disease (peripheral manifestations such as ophthalmopathy do not occur with other causes of hyperthyroidism). Treatment of Graves’ aims to normalise thyroid function and is achieved by radioactive iodine, antithyroid medications or with surgery. They are all effective and relatively safe options. Symptomatic therapy is given with beta blockers such as propranolol. This patient has AF which has occured as a result of his hyperthyroid state which affects around 10% of untreated patients. Irregular HR is the hallmark feature of AF. Have a think about what the ECG would show.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
165
Q

Mrs James is a 50 year old diabetic lady who complains of a tightness in her chest plus a cramping sensation in her jaw and neck after climbing 2 flights of stairs to her apartment.

A. Pericarditis
B. Angina
C. VSD
D. Romano-Ward syndrome
E. Infective endocarditis
F. HOCM (hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy)
G. ASD
H. Congestive cardiac failure
I. MI
J. Left ventricular failure
A

B. Angina - This patient has presented with stable angina. Resting ECG is often normal however during exercise stress ECG (most often the Bruce Protocol) there will be ST segment depression during exercise indicative of ischaemia. Those unable to exercise to an adequate level may need stress myocardial perfusion imaging or stress echocardiography. 1st line treatment involves lifestyle changes and antiplatelet therapy with aspirin. Anti-anginal theray will also be given, first line being beta-blockade. 2nd line is with a CCB. Long acting nitrates can be used as additional therapy or in patients where beta blockers and CCBs are contraindicated. Statin therapy, blood sugar control in diabetics and BP control with antihypertensives may also be necessary. Those with LMS disease, 3 vessel disease or a reduced EF may benefit from CABG. Single vessel disease may benefit from PCI.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
166
Q

A 45 year old man developed severe central chest pain, lasting for approximately 30 mins. He vomited with the pain, became acutely breathless & sweated profusely.

A. Pericarditis
B. Angina
C. VSD
D. Romano-Ward syndrome
E. Infective endocarditis
F. HOCM (hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy)
G. ASD
H. Congestive cardiac failure
I. MI
J. Left ventricular failure
A

I. MI - Chest pain of MI is classically severe and heavy in nature, located centrally with possible radiation to the left arm or jaw and lasts for >20 minutes. SOB due to pulmonary congestion and sweating due to high sympathetic output are common symptoms. N&V was believed to be associated with inferior wall infarction but this has been disputed. If ECG shows STEMI, new LBBB or confirmed posterior MI then PCI/thrombolysis is indicated. Risk factors incorporate the standard set of cardiovascular risks such as smoking, high BP, DM, obesity and dyslipidaemia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
167
Q

Jean is a 35 year old lady who has recently given birth to her 3rd baby. 2 weeks ago she developed a fever, malaise & night sweats. She feels too tired to care for the baby & is losing weight. She attended her GP following the loss of control in her left arm. On examination there was weakness on the left side of her body. Her BP was normal, 120/80. Urinalysis showed small amounts of blood & auscultation revealed a loud pansystolic murmur plus bilateral basal crepitations.

A. Pericarditis
B. Angina
C. VSD
D. Romano-Ward syndrome
E. Infective endocarditis
F. HOCM (hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy)
G. ASD
H. Congestive cardiac failure
I. MI
J. Left ventricular failure
A

E. Infective endocarditis - Any patient presenting with fever and a new murmur should always make you think of bacterial endocarditis. The classic new or worsening murmur is actually rare. Other uncommon signs you may find include splinter haemorrhages, Janeway lesions (painless macular haemorrhagic plaques on the palms and soles) and Osler nodes (painful nodules on the pads of the fingers and toes). Roth spots may also be seen on fundoscopy. Septic embolic are common in IE and urinalysis may show active sediment. Three sets of bood cultures are required and this patient will have to go for an echocardiogram.The Duke criteria is used for diagnosis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
168
Q

John is a 20 year old man with breathlessness and chest pain after exertion. 5 days ago he developed palpitations & fainted during a game of squash. Examination revealed a jerky pulse and a systolic murmur. His ECG showed changes of left ventricular hypertrophy.

A. Pericarditis
B. Angina
C. VSD
D. Romano-Ward syndrome
E. Infective endocarditis
F. HOCM (hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy)
G. ASD
H. Congestive cardiac failure
I. MI
J. Left ventricular failure
A

F. HOCM - This patient has HOCM. The patient’s young age makes it unlikely to be atherosclerotic coronary artery disease (unstable angina). HOCM is the most likely cardiomyopathy and the most frequent cause of sudden cardiac death in younger people. This has a benign prognosis in most people though symptomatic patients are treated medically with beta blockade, CCBs or disopyramide. Chest pain on exertion (playing squash) is a common presentation in those who are symptomatic, as is dyspnoea on exertion, palpitations (such as due to AF) and a history of either pre-syncope or syncope (due to LV outflow obstruction). Inheritance is autosomal dominant with a variable penetrance and there may be a FH of sudden death. Examination findings may be normal or may reveal an ejection systolic murmur which is positionally responsive and a double carotid or apex pulsation due to the transient interruption of CO. The arterial pulse is described as ‘jerky’. A fourth heart sound may also be heard due to hypertrophy. Echocardiography must be performed to establish a diagnosis, though ECG and CXR will also be done and may also show changes. Echocardiography will show septal hypertrophy. There may also be MR.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
169
Q

Mark developed a sharp sternal chest pain 10 days after a flu-like illness. The pain radiated down the arm & to the left shoulder. It was aggravated by lying flat, inspiration, coughing & swallowing. It was relieved by sitting forward.

A. Pericarditis
B. Angina
C. VSD
D. Romano-Ward syndrome
E. Infective endocarditis
F. HOCM (hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy)
G. ASD
H. Congestive cardiac failure
I. MI
J. Left ventricular failure
A

A. Pericarditis - This patient has presented with pericarditis. Symptoms include a sharp and severe chest pain retrosternally which is worse on inspiration and when supine, relieved by sitting forwards. The classical finding on examination is a friction rub which is said to sound like ‘walking on snow’. There may be diffuse ST elevations on ECG, an effusion on echocardiography and blood results suggesting inflammation. Complications include tamponade and constrictive pericarditis. The prior viral infection is a risk factor with the most common pericardial infection being viral. Bacterial purulent pericarditis also occurs. The inflammation is due either to direct viral attack or immune mediated damage. Other risk factors include male gender, post-MI (both ‘early’ and Dressler’s), post-pericardiotomy syndrome, neoplasm from local tumour invasion, uraemia and autoimmune conditions such as RA and SLE.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
170
Q

A 45 year old Caucasian lady presents with a 4cm chronic ulcer on the medial aspect of the lower leg. She has a history of “bursting” pain in the calf on walking. The skin around the ulcer is brown & heavily indurated.

A. RA
B. Arterial ulcer
C. Malignant ulcer
D. Neuropathic ulcer
E. Cardiac failure
F. Lymphoedema
G. Cellulitis
H. Syphilis
I. TB
J. Pyoderma gangrenosum
K. Venous ulcer
L. DVT
A

K. Venous ulcer - Venous ulcers occur on a background of deep venous insufficiency. There is oedema and a brown skin discolouration due to leaching of pigments and haemosiderin deposition. In addition there may be lipodermatosclerosis and an inflammatory response, which is seen as an eczema-like thickening and hardening of the skin. The skin can also be drawn tightly around the ankle. Ulceration usually follows trauma and is usually on the medial gaiter region. The base has granulation tissue and is sloughy in nature and there is a sloping edge to the ulcer. The shape is often irregular. Look up some photos to help you remember. Once significant arterial disease is excluded (ulcers can have mixed components), the mainstay of treatment is with compression bandaging, appropriate dressings and treatment of any infection with antibiotics. Maggots can also be used and varicose veins should be treated where possible to reduce recurrence. If the ulcer is not healing, a biopsy should be considered (Marjolin’s ulcer).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
171
Q

A 75 year old woman with long standing hypertension has had progressive swelling of her legs over the last 3 months. She has consulted her GP because she has developed an ulcer on the anterior aspect of the right shin which weeps serous fluid profusely. She wonders what caused this ulcer?

A. RA
B. Arterial ulcer
C. Malignant ulcer
D. Neuropathic ulcer
E. Cardiac failure
F. Lymphoedema
G. Cellulitis
H. Syphilis
I. TB
J. Pyoderma gangrenosum
K. Venous ulcer
L. DVT
A

E. Cardiac failure - This sounds like a venous ulcer due to right-sided heart failure. Venous ulcers are mainly caused by either venous insufficiency or heart failure. RVF will lead to peripheral oedema which may be complicated by a venous ulcer. Initial investigations should include ECG, CXR, TTE and bloods including BNP levels. First line treatment is with an ACE inhibitor which reduces morbidity and mortality. Salt and fluid restriction is also beneficial. All patients with chronic heart failure will also receive a beta blocker such as carvedilol. Other adjuncts include spironolactone, diuretics, hydralazine and a nitrate, and digoxin.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
172
Q

A 50 year old Asian woman, who is known to be diabetic, presents with a painless ulcer on the ball of her foot. She has been complaining of a burning feeling of the soles of her feet for the last year.

A. RA
B. Arterial ulcer
C. Malignant ulcer
D. Neuropathic ulcer
E. Cardiac failure
F. Lymphoedema
G. Cellulitis
H. Syphilis
I. TB
J. Pyoderma gangrenosum
K. Venous ulcer
L. DVT
A

D. Neuropathic ulcer - This is a case of diabetic neuropathy. This is a microvascular complication of DM and is characterised by peripheral nerve dysfunction. Pain is a common complaint such as the burning sensation this patient describes. Patient’s may also describe the pain as prickling or sticking. Complications range from the painless neuropathic ulcer described, at areas of the foot where there is weight loading (particularly the metatarsal heads), to the Charcot foot with severe architectural destruction of the foot. Foot ulceration is a common precusor to amputation. Foot care is crucial in DM. Examination should include peripheral pulses, reflexes and sensation to light touch with a 10g monofilament, vibration (128Hz tuning fork), pinprick and proprioception. The pain may be treated with medications like pregabalin and gabapentin.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
173
Q

A 70 year old man, with ischaemic heart disease & COPD, presents with an ulcer between the great & second toes on the right foot. This is associated with pain in the whole foot at night.

A. RA
B. Arterial ulcer
C. Malignant ulcer
D. Neuropathic ulcer
E. Cardiac failure
F. Lymphoedema
G. Cellulitis
H. Syphilis
I. TB
J. Pyoderma gangrenosum
K. Venous ulcer
L. DVT
A

B. Arterial ulcer - Arterial ulcers are deep and painful with a well defined edge, usually found on the shin or foot. There may be local changes such as cold peripheries, loss of hair, dusky cyanosis and toenail dystrophy. On examination, peripheral pulses may be absent or reduced. An angiogram with contrast will define the lesion and determine whether it can be improved by surgical intervention. Pain often increases when your legs are at rest and elevated. They can occur between the webs of toes so it is important to always check these in your peripheral vascular examination.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
174
Q

A 30 year old woman with long-standing ulcerative colitis, which is in remission, presents with 2 areas of ulceration on the right mid-thigh.

A. RA
B. Arterial ulcer
C. Malignant ulcer
D. Neuropathic ulcer
E. Cardiac failure
F. Lymphoedema
G. Cellulitis
H. Syphilis
I. TB
J. Pyoderma gangrenosum
K. Venous ulcer
L. DVT
A

J. Pyoderma gangrenosum - Pyoderma gangrenosum is mainly associated with IBD (UC more so than CD), RA and the myeloid blood dyscrasias. It causes necrotic tissue leading to deep ulcers, often found on the legs. There are dark red borders.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
175
Q

A 60 year old male smoker complains of severe central chest pain radiating to the left arm. This is post operational following a sigmoidectomy the previous day.

A. Variant angina
B. Pulmonary embolus
C. MI
D. Anxiety
E. Congestive heart failure
F. Unstable angina
G. Stable angina
H. GORD
A

C. MI - NSTEMI is a common complication of surgical procedures and is often detected as a rise in cardiac markers in the days following surgery. Chest pain of MI is classically severe and heavy in nature, located centrally with possible radiation to the left arm or jaw and lasts for >20 minutes. SOB due to pulmonary congestion and sweating due to high sympathetic output are common symptoms. If ECG shows STEMI, new LBBB or confirmed posterior MI then PCI/thrombolysis is indicated. Risk factors incorporate the standard set of cardiovascular risks such as smoking, high BP, DM, obesity and dyslipidaemia, though there are variations in risk factors attributed to STEMIs and NSTEMIs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
176
Q

A 40 year old obese male presents with a burning chest pain which is worsened by lying down.

A. Variant angina
B. Pulmonary embolus
C. MI
D. Anxiety
E. Congestive heart failure
F. Unstable angina
G. Stable angina
H. GORD
A

H. GORD - This is a common condition and the patient here is complaining of heartburn and acid regurgitation. The diagnosis is easily made clinically as the symptoms the patient describes are worse on lying down or bending over. Typically a patient will describe a burning sensation after meals which is not exertional. Reflux of acid into the mouth can leave a sour taste. Aside from obesity, other strong risk factors include advanced age, family history and hiatus hernia. This patient will need a trial of a PPI which will both be therapeutic and diagnostic. Complications of GORD include stricture formation, Barrett’s and oesophageal carcinoma.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
177
Q

A 59 year old female is admitted to A&E with chest pain. The pain is central in origin and came on while she was watching television. The patient has a BMI of 34 and is a known hypertensive. Troponin and CK-MB are not elevated.

A. Variant angina
B. Pulmonary embolus
C. MI
D. Anxiety
E. Congestive heart failure
F. Unstable angina
G. Stable angina
H. GORD
A

F. Unstable angina - This is UA characterised by chest pain at rest. ECG will typically show ST depression and T wave inversion. Acute management includes antiplatelets and antithrombotics to reduce damage and complications. Long term management aims at reducing risk factors. Key risk factors include obesity, hypertension, smoking, hyperlipidaemia, FH, DM and positive FH. People with diabetes may again present with atypical symptoms. Cardiac biomarkers will not be elevated although in a patient who has had an acute MI days earlier, troponin may remain elevated (remains elevated up to 10-14 days after release). All patients with presumed cardiac chest pain should in the first instance get oxygen, morphine and GTN with antiplatelet therapy in the absence of contraindications.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
178
Q

A 62 year old male complains of chest pain at rest. An ECG performed in A&E shows ST elevation. A subsequent angiogram with a provocative agent showed an exaggerated spasm of the coronary arteries.

A. Variant angina
B. Pulmonary embolus
C. MI
D. Anxiety
E. Congestive heart failure
F. Unstable angina
G. Stable angina
H. GORD
A

A. Variant angina - Variant angina (Prinzmetal) is angina caused by coronary artery vasospasm rather than atherosclerosis. It occurs at rest and in cycles. Many patients will also have some degree of atherosclerosis although not in proportion to the severity of the chest pain experienced. ECG changes are of ST elevation (rather than depression) when the patient is experiencing an attack and a stress ECG will be negative. Patients with Prinzmetal angina are often treated for ACS and indeed, cardiac biomarkers may be raised as vasospasm can cause damage to the myocardium. The gold standard investigation is with coronary angiography and the injection of agents to try to provoke a spasm.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
179
Q

A 45 year old merchant banker is referred by her GP to the Rapid Access Chest Pain clinic. She is asked to perform the treadmill test & complains of chest pain 9 minutes into the test.

A. Variant angina
B. Pulmonary embolus
C. MI
D. Anxiety
E. Congestive heart failure
F. Unstable angina
G. Stable angina
H. GORD
A

G. Stable angina - This patient has presented with stable angina. Resting ECG is often normal and the patient is asymptomatic. However during exercise stress ECG (most often the Bruce Protocol) there will be ST segment depression during exercise indicative of ischaemia and the patient will complain of chest pain. Those unable to exercise to an adequate level may need stress myocardial perfusion imaging or stress echocardiography. 1st line treatment involves lifestyle changes and antiplatelet therapy with aspirin. Anti-anginal theray will also be given, first line being beta-blockade. Statin therapy, blood sugar control in diabetics and BP control with antihypertensives may also be necessary. Those with LMS disease, 3 vessel disease or a reduced EF may benefit from CABG. Single vessel disease may benefit from PCI.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
180
Q

A 49 year old man with recent history of long-haul travel presents with shortness of breath & haemoptysis. He also complains of chest pain & ECG shows sinus tachycardia.

A. Pericarditis
B. Pulmonary embolism
C. MI
D. Hiatus hernia
E. Anxiety
F. Angina
G. Coronary artery disease
H. Oesophageal spasm
I. Tietze’s syndrome
J. Dissecting aortic aneurysm
A

B. Pulmonary embolism - Patients with a high clinical suspicion of PE should be anticoagulated while waiting a definitive diagnosis unless contraindicated. The underlying pathophysiology is based on Virchow’s triad. SOB and chest pain are common symptoms and there may also be haemoptysis. This patient has recent air travel, which is actually a weak risk factor but seems to crop up a lot on EMQs. Strong risk factors include DVT, obesity, surgery in the past 2 months, prolonged bed rest, malignancy, previous VTE, pregnancy and the thrombophilias such as factor V Leiden. ECG may be normal, or may show tachycardia, new RAD, new RBBB or the classical S wave in I, Q wave with T inversion in III. Various clinical probability scores exist for PE and D-dimer can be used to exclude PE as a diagnosis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
181
Q

A 53 year old lady complains of central “crushing” chest pain, sudden onset & spontaneous remission, with no attributable cause. She has no history of hypertension, current BP is 116/76.

A. Pericarditis
B. Pulmonary embolism
C. MI
D. Hiatus hernia
E. Anxiety
F. Angina
G. Coronary artery disease
H. Oesophageal spasm
I. Tietze’s syndrome
J. Dissecting aortic aneurysm
A

E. Anxiety - The presence of anxiety does not exclude a cardiac cause and appropriate investigations are required even if the patient obviously has anxiety.The absence of an attributable cause and the sudden onset and spontaneous remission with no cardiac risk factors make this likely to be due to anxiety.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
182
Q

A 73 year old gentleman presents to A&E with sudden “tearing” chest pain, radiating to the back. The house officer on duty notices unequal arm pulses & BP.

A. Pericarditis
B. Pulmonary embolism
C. MI
D. Hiatus hernia
E. Anxiety
F. Angina
G. Coronary artery disease
H. Oesophageal spasm
I. Tietze’s syndrome
J. Dissecting aortic aneurysm
A

J. Dissecting aortic aneurysm - The tearing chest pain suggests aortic dissection. There may also be interscapular pain with dissection of the descending aorta. Dissecting aneurysms are either type A, which involves the ascending aorta, or type B. Type A dissections require urgent surgery whereas type B can be managed medically if it is not complicated by end organ ischaemia. BP differential between the 2 arms is a hallmark feature. Pulse differences may also be present in the lower limbs. There may also be the diastolic murmur of AR in proximal dissections.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
183
Q

A 63 year old gentleman develops acute central chest pain, radiating down the left arm. He appears very pale & sweaty, & has a strong family history of ischaemic heart disease.

A. Pericarditis
B. Pulmonary embolism
C. MI
D. Hiatus hernia
E. Anxiety
F. Angina
G. Coronary artery disease
H. Oesophageal spasm
I. Tietze’s syndrome
J. Dissecting aortic aneurysm
A

C. MI - Chest pain of MI is classically severe and heavy in nature, located centrally with possible radiation to the left arm or jaw and lasts for >20 minutes. SOB due to pulmonary congestion and sweating due to high sympathetic output are common symptoms. This patient also has pallor which is due to a high sympathetic output. Risk factors incorporate the standard set of cardiovascular risks such as smoking, high BP, DM, obesity and dyslipidaemia.

If ECG shows STEMI, new LBBB or confirmed posterior MI then PCI/thrombolysis is indicated. It is worth noting that RV infarction is present in 40% of inferior infarcts so if ST elevation is seen in II, III and aVF, right sided ECG leads should be obtained. Cardiac biomarkers include CK-MB and troponin. Troponins rise 4-6 hrs after onset of infarction and peak at 18-24 hours and may persist for 7-10 days.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
184
Q

A 67 year old man recovering from an inferior MI complains of sharp retrosternal chest pain. He comments that leaning forward provides relief of the pain. The attending medical student claims to have heard a “rub” on auscultation.

A. Pericarditis
B. Pulmonary embolism
C. MI
D. Hiatus hernia
E. Anxiety
F. Angina
G. Coronary artery disease
H. Oesophageal spasm
I. Tietze’s syndrome
J. Dissecting aortic aneurysm
A

A. Pericarditis - This patient has presented with pericarditis. Symptoms include a sharp and severe chest pain retrosternally which is worse on inspiration and when supine, relieved by sitting forwards. The classical finding on examination is a friction rub which is said to sound like ‘walking on snow’. There may be diffuse (saddle-shaped) ST elevations on ECG, an effusion on echocardiography and blood results suggesting inflammation. Complications include tamponade and constrictive pericarditis. The prior viral infection is a risk factor with the most common pericardial infection being viral. Bacterial purulent pericarditis also occurs. The inflammation is due either to direct viral attack or immune mediated damage. Other risk factors include male gender, post-MI (both ‘early’ and Dressler’s), post-pericardiotomy syndrome, neoplasm from local tumour invasion, uraemia and autoimmune conditions such as RA and SLE.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
185
Q

There is a harsh pan-systolic murmur loudest at the lower left sternal edge & inaudible at the apex. The apex is not displaced.

A. Tricuspid stenosis
B. Pulmonary stenosis
C. Patent ductus arteriosus
D. Aortic stenosis
E. Atrial septal defect
F. Mitral regurgitation
G. Aortic regurgitation
H. Tricuspid regurgitation
I. Mitral valve prolapse
J. HOCM
K. Left ventricular aneurysm
L. Aortic sclerosis
M. Mitral stenosis
N. Ventricular septal defect
A

H. Tricuspid regurgitation - The murmur of TR is a lower left parasternal systolic murmur (pansystolic, or less, depending on severity). The murmur commonly increases on inspiration (Carvallo’s sign). The apex is not displaced in TR whereas it may be displaced in MR. Key risk factors for TR include LVF, rheumatic heart disease, endocarditis and the presence of a permanent pacemaker. Patients typically present with SOB, periperal oedema and tiredness. There may also be abdominal distension. An enlarged and pulsatile liver is normally seen in severe TR and caused by a reversal in blood flow during systole. It is worth noting that mild to moderate TR is not necessarily abnormal and is present in many asymptomatic young adults.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
186
Q

There is a mid-systolic click and a soft late systolic murmur at the apex.

A. Tricuspid stenosis
B. Pulmonary stenosis
C. Patent ductus arteriosus
D. Aortic stenosis
E. Atrial septal defect
F. Mitral regurgitation
G. Aortic regurgitation
H. Tricuspid regurgitation
I. Mitral valve prolapse
J. HOCM
K. Left ventricular aneurysm
L. Aortic sclerosis
M. Mitral stenosis
N. Ventricular septal defect
A

I. Mitral valve prolapse - This is mitral valve prolapse characterised by the mid-systolic click and the late systolic murmur, the combination of which is specific for mitral prolapse but not sensitive enough for diagnosis. It occurs when one or more leaflets of the mitral valve prolapse into the LA in systole. Dynamic manoevres such as Valsalva or squatting change the timing of the murmur and click. Patients also commonly suffer from palpitations. Diagnosis can be confirmed with an echocardiogram. Connective tissue diseases such as Marfan’s are key risk factors. The exact cause of MVP is unknown but genetic links have been identified and there is histological myxomatous degeneration in MVP. MR is a complication of MVP.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
187
Q

The pulse is slow rising. There is an ejection systolic murmur loudest at the right upper sternal border radiating to the carotids.

A. Tricuspid stenosis
B. Pulmonary stenosis
C. Patent ductus arteriosus
D. Aortic stenosis
E. Atrial septal defect
F. Mitral regurgitation
G. Aortic regurgitation
H. Tricuspid regurgitation
I. Mitral valve prolapse
J. HOCM
K. Left ventricular aneurysm
L. Aortic sclerosis
M. Mitral stenosis
N. Ventricular septal defect
A

D. Aortic stenosis - Aortic stenosis can present with chest pain, dyspnoea and syncope. It is characterised by a harsh ejection systolic murmur heard loudest at the apex at end expiration, which radiates up towards the carotids. The pulse pressure is narrow and there may be an associated slow-rising and plateau pulse. Carotid parvus et tardus may also be present. Doppler echo is vital for diagnosis and shows a pressure gradient across the narrowed valve orifice. 20% of cases are due to a congenital bicuspid valve which experience abnormal shear stress. Bicuspid valves are more common in those with aortic co-arctation and Turner’s. The most common cause of aortic stenosis in adults is calcification of normal trileaflet valves. Clinically stable patients may be considered for surgical repair or TAVR. The murmur of aortic sclerosis is usually less than grade 2 and describes leaflet thickening without obstruction. The pulse character is normal in sclerosis as blood flow is normal. It is the beginning of a spectrum of calcific aortic disease with severe stenosis at the end of the spectrum.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
188
Q

The pulse is irregularly irregular and jerky in character. There is an ejection systolic murmur lessened by squatting loudest at the lower left sternal edge. There is a double apical impulse felt. The apex beat is not displaced.

A. Tricuspid stenosis
B. Pulmonary stenosis
C. Patent ductus arteriosus
D. Aortic stenosis
E. Atrial septal defect
F. Mitral regurgitation
G. Aortic regurgitation
H. Tricuspid regurgitation
I. Mitral valve prolapse
J. HOCM
K. Left ventricular aneurysm
L. Aortic sclerosis
M. Mitral stenosis
N. Ventricular septal defect
A

J. HOCM - This patient has HOCM which is the most frequent cause of sudden cardiac death in younger people. Examination findings may be normal or may reveal an ejection systolic murmur which is positionally responsive and a double carotid or apex pulsation due to the transient interruption of CO. A fourth heart sound may also be heard due to hypertrophy. There may also be MR. The arterial pulse is described as ‘jerky’ and this patient is also in AF which warrants anticoagulation and anti-arrhythmics. Echocardiography must be performed to establish a diagnosis, though ECG and CXR will also be done and may also show changes. Echo will show septal hypertrophy. This has a benign prognosis in most people though symptomatic patients are treated medically with beta blockade, CCBs or disopyramide. Chest pain on exertion is a common presentation in those who are symptomatic, as is dyspnoea on exertion, palpitations (such as due to AF) and a history of either pre-syncope or syncope (due to LV outflow obstruction). Inheritance is autosomal dominant with a variable penetrance. It is worth noting that ventricular hypertrophy causes concentric hypertrophy i.e. the wall of the ventricle gets thicker inwards. Hence the apex beat is not displaced unlike in DCM.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
189
Q

There is a constant ‘machinery-like’ murmur throughout systole & diastole.

A. Tricuspid stenosis
B. Pulmonary stenosis
C. Patent ductus arteriosus
D. Aortic stenosis
E. Atrial septal defect
F. Mitral regurgitation
G. Aortic regurgitation
H. Tricuspid regurgitation
I. Mitral valve prolapse
J. HOCM
K. Left ventricular aneurysm
L. Aortic sclerosis
M. Mitral stenosis
N. Ventricular septal defect
A

C. Patent ductus arteriosus - The ductus arteriosus is a fetal structure which normally closes within 2 days of birth. Persistence can result in heart failure and increased pressures in the pulmonary vasculature as blood is shunted from the aorta into the pulmonary artery. The classic murmur is known as a Gibson murmur or machinery murmur and is best heard in the left infraclavicular area, usually peaking in late systole and continuing into diastole. Maternal rubella infection in the first trimester is a predisposing risk factor for PDA. The definitive diagnostic test is an echocardiogram.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
190
Q

A 78 year old male with an ejection systolic murmur loudest at the aortic area and radiating to the neck.

A. Atrial septal defect
B. Chemotherapy
C. Aortic stenosis
D. Mitral stenosis
E. Aortic regurgitation
F. Systemic hypertension
G. Pulmonary hypertension
H. Mitral valve prolapse
I. Alcohol
A

C. Aortic stenosis - Aortic stenosis is characterised by a harsh ejection systolic murmur heard loudest at the right upper sternal border at end expiration, which radiates up towards the carotids. The pulse pressure is narrow and there may be an associated slow-rising and plateau pulse. Doppler echo is vital for diagnosis and shows a pressure gradient across the narrowed valve orifice. 20% of cases are due to a congenital bicuspid valve. The most common cause of AS in adults is calcification of normal trileaflet valves. Clinically stable patients may be considered for surgical repair or TAVR. Presentation includes chest pain, dyspnoea and syncope.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
191
Q

56 year old male with ankylosing spondylitis. Collapsing pulse was noted on peripheral pulse examination.

A. Atrial septal defect
B. Chemotherapy
C. Aortic stenosis
D. Mitral stenosis
E. Aortic regurgitation
F. Systemic hypertension
G. Pulmonary hypertension
H. Mitral valve prolapse
I. Alcohol
A

E. Aortic regurgitation - Aortic regurgitation is the leakage of blood back into the LV in diastole. The collapsing pulse is also known as a water hammer or Corrigan’s pulse and describes the rapid rise and quick ‘collapse’ of the arterial pulse resulting in a wide pulse pressure. The murmur in AR is early diastolic in mild cases and increases to pansystolic in severe cases. Risk factors include a bicuspid valve, rheumatic fever, endocarditis, anklylosing spondylitis and Marfan’s. Other commonly seen signs in EMQs, although uncommon in clinical practice include Traube’s, Quincke’s, Duroziez’s and de Musset’s sign. Occasionally although uncommon, an Austin Flint murmur may be heard which is a rumbling mid-diastolic murmur best heard at the apex, produced by the regurgitant jet hitting the LV endocardium. Its presence indicates severe AR and the absence of a loud S1 or an opening snap distinguishes this from the murmur of mitral stenosis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
192
Q

65 year old female with a mid-systolic click and a late systolic murmur.

A. Atrial septal defect
B. Chemotherapy
C. Aortic stenosis
D. Mitral stenosis
E. Aortic regurgitation
F. Systemic hypertension
G. Pulmonary hypertension
H. Mitral valve prolapse
I. Alcohol
A

H. Mitral valve prolapse - This is mitral valve prolapse characterised by the mid-systolic click and the late systolic murmur, the combination of which is specific for mitral prolapse but not sensitive enough for diagnosis. It occurs when one or more leaflets of the mitral valve prolapse into the LA in systole. Dynamic manoevres such as Valsalva or squatting change the timing of the murmur and click. Patients also commonly suffer from palpitations. Diagnosis can be confirmed with an echocardiogram. Connective tissue diseases such as Marfan’s are key risk factors. The exact cause of MVP is unknown but genetic links have been identified and there is histological myxomatous degeneration in MVP.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
193
Q

44 year old diabetic with renal impairment. Fundoscopy revealed AV nipping, silver wiring and small haemorrhages.

A. Atrial septal defect
B. Chemotherapy
C. Aortic stenosis
D. Mitral stenosis
E. Aortic regurgitation
F. Systemic hypertension
G. Pulmonary hypertension
H. Mitral valve prolapse
I. Alcohol
A

F. Systemic hypertension - Fundoscopy clearly demonstrates changes associated with hypertensive retinopathy. There are 4 grades:

Grade 1: ‘Silver wiring’ and tortuous vessels,
Grade 2: Plus ‘AV nipping’,
Grade 3: Plus cotton wool spots (previously called soft exudates but they are not exudates) and flame haemorrhages,
Grade 4: Plus papilloedema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
194
Q

34 year old male complaining of headaches, anxiety attacks, recurrent sweating and postural dizziness.

A. Addisons Disease
B. Doxazosin
C. Renal artery stenosis
D. Phenelzine
E. Conns syndrome
F. Coarctation of the aorta
G. Patent ductus arteriosus
H. Cushings disease
I. Hyperthyroidism
J. Phaeochromocytoma
A

J. Phaeochromocytoma - Phaeochromocytomas presents with paroxysmal episodes of palpitations, anxiety, excessive sweating, pallor and hypertension. The postural dizziness is thought to be due to a reduction in volume secondary to alpha stimulation. Episodic panic attacks are seen commonly in adrenaline producing phaeochromocytomas. Headaches occur in up to 90% of those symptomatic. It can be inherited in MEN2, von Hippel-Lindau syndrome and NF1. Diagnosis is based on raised urinary and serum catecholamines, metanephrines and normetanephrines. 24 hour urinary VMA will be elevated. CT is used to localise the tumour. Treatment includes medical with the use of phenoxybenzamine, phentolamine and surgical options. Surgical excision is carried out under alpha and beta blockade to protect against the release of catecholamines into circulation when the tumour is being manipulated. The 10% rule is often quoted: 10% are bilateral, 10% malignant, 10% extraadrenal and 10% hereditary.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
195
Q

23 year old female with a complaint of progressive weight loss, palpitations and frequent loose motions.

A. Addisons Disease
B. Doxazosin
C. Renal artery stenosis
D. Phenelzine
E. Conns syndrome
F. Coarctation of the aorta
G. Patent ductus arteriosus
H. Cushings disease
I. Hyperthyroidism
J. Phaeochromocytoma
A

I. Hyperthyroidism - This woman has hyperthyroidism. Symptoms include those mentioned and heat intolerance, sweating, tremor and tachycardia. In countries where sufficient iodine intake is not an issue, Graves’ disease is the most common cause of hyperthyroidism. Treatment aims to normalise thyroid function and is achieved by radioactive iodine, antithyroid medications or with surgery. Symptomatic therapy is given with beta blockers such as propranolol.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
196
Q

54 year old asymptomatic male. A left paraumbilical bruit was noted on examination.

A. Addisons Disease
B. Doxazosin
C. Renal artery stenosis
D. Phenelzine
E. Conns syndrome
F. Coarctation of the aorta
G. Patent ductus arteriosus
H. Cushings disease
I. Hyperthyroidism
J. Phaeochromocytoma
A

C. Renal artery stenosis - This is a renal bruit which is best heard in the MCL at the costal margin. The finding of a bruit in the abdomen should make you suspicious of renal artery stenosis. RAS is due, typically, to atherosclerosis and often presents with hypertension and worsening renal function. A form of imaging is required for diagnosis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
197
Q

17 year old male with radiological apperance of rib notching on chest radiograph.

A. Addisons Disease
B. Doxazosin
C. Renal artery stenosis
D. Phenelzine
E. Conns syndrome
F. Coarctation of the aorta
G. Patent ductus arteriosus
H. Cushings disease
I. Hyperthyroidism
J. Phaeochromocytoma
A

F. Coarctation of the aorta - Aortic coarctation is characterised by a BP difference between the upper and lower extremities. Posterior rib notching is due to enlargement of collateral vessels due to aortic narrowing. Diagnosis is made on demonstrating narrowing of the aortic arch, typically shown by echocardiography. Treatment may involve surgical repair such as the placement of a stent. This condition is typically congenital with a male predominance. It is commonly detected in the first decade and is associated with Turner’s and DiGeorge. An ejection systolic murmur is also common present over the LSB and back.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
198
Q

18 year old female with progressive weight gain and gradual development of bitemporal hemianopia.

A. Addisons Disease
B. Doxazosin
C. Renal artery stenosis
D. Phenelzine
E. Conns syndrome
F. Coarctation of the aorta
G. Patent ductus arteriosus
H. Cushings disease
I. Hyperthyroidism
J. Phaeochromocytoma
A

H. Cushings disease - There is weight gain in Cushing’s due to hypercorticolism. Gradual bitemporal hemianopia occurs due to an enlarging pituitary adenoma. Cushing’s disease is due to an ACTH secreting pituitary adenoma and is responsible for most cases of Cushing’s syndrome. A low dose 1mg overnight dexamethasone suppresion test can be done, or a 24 hour urinary free cortisol collection to diagnose Cushing’s syndrome. Plasma ACTH should guide further investigation. If ACTH is suppressed, the problem is likely to be with the adrenals. If it not suppressed, pituitary or ectopic disease is more likely. The treatment of choice in this case is surgical resection of the adenoma.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
199
Q

A 50 year old male smoker describes episodes of dull central chest pain on exertion lasting 10 minutes & relieved by rest.

A. Thallium perfusion scan
B. Chest x-ray
C. Ventilation/perfusion scan
D. Coronary angiogram
E. Abdominal ultrasound
F. CT chest
G. Sputum culture
H. Upper GI endoscopy
I. ECG
J. Liver function tests
K. Lower limb venogram
L. Exercise ECG
M. Arterial blood gases
N. Creatine kinase
A

L. Exercise ECG - This patient has presented with stable angina. Resting ECG is often normal however during exercise stress ECG (most often the Bruce Protocol) there will be ST segment depression during exercise indicative of ischaemia. Those unable to exercise to an adequate level may need stress myocardial perfusion imaging or stress echocardiography. 1st line treatment involves lifestyle changes and antiplatelet therapy with aspirin. Anti-anginal theray will also be given, first line being beta-blockade. Statin therapy, blood sugar control in diabetics and BP control with antihypertensives may also be necessary. Those with LMS disease, 3 vessel disease or a reduced EF may benefit from CABG. Single vessel disease may benefit from PCI.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
200
Q

A 60 year old man who is waiting to have a knee replacement, describes daily episodes of central chest pain when he gets up in the morning. The pain lasts 15 minutes & settles with rest.

A. Thallium perfusion scan
B. Chest x-ray
C. Ventilation/perfusion scan
D. Coronary angiogram
E. Abdominal ultrasound
F. CT chest
G. Sputum culture
H. Upper GI endoscopy
I. ECG
J. Liver function tests
K. Lower limb venogram
L. Exercise ECG
M. Arterial blood gases
N. Creatine kinase
A

D. Coronary angiogram - Variant angina (Prinzmetal) is angina caused by coronary artery vasospasm rather than atherosclerosis. It occurs at rest and in cycles. Many patients will also have some degree of atherosclerosis although not in proportion to the severity of the chest pain experienced. ECG changes are of ST elevation (rather than depression) when the patient is experiencing an attack and a stress ECG will be negative. Patients with Prinzmetal angina are often treated for ACS and indeed, cardiac biomarkers may be raised as vasospasm can cause damage to the myocardium. The gold standard investigation is with coronary angiography and the injection of agents to try to provoke a spasm.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
201
Q

A 25 year old pregnant woman, who has returned from Australia, developed sudden severe pleuritic pain and mild breathlessness. Her left leg was swollen yesterday, but not today.

A. Thallium perfusion scan
B. Chest x-ray
C. Ventilation/perfusion scan
D. Coronary angiogram
E. Abdominal ultrasound
F. CT chest
G. Sputum culture
H. Upper GI endoscopy
I. ECG
J. Liver function tests
K. Lower limb venogram
L. Exercise ECG
M. Arterial blood gases
N. Creatine kinase
A

C. Ventilation/perfusion scan - This patient has a PE. The study of choice is a CTPA with direct visualisation of the thrombus. If there is a contraindication to a CT scan such as contrast allergy or pregnancy, then a V/Q scan is indicated. If a V/Q scan is not possible, alternatives such as MRA can be requested. It is worth noting that in patients with cardiopulmonary disease, these tests may not be accurate. A TTE can also be used to detect RV strain seen with PE.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
202
Q

A 30 year old man has had a 12 hour history of central chest pain, relieved by sitting forwards. He recently had a sore throat.

A. Thallium perfusion scan
B. Chest x-ray
C. Ventilation/perfusion scan
D. Coronary angiogram
E. Abdominal ultrasound
F. CT chest
G. Sputum culture
H. Upper GI endoscopy
I. ECG
J. Liver function tests
K. Lower limb venogram
L. Exercise ECG
M. Arterial blood gases
N. Creatine kinase
A

I. ECG - This patient has presented with pericarditis. Symptoms include a sharp and severe chest pain retrosternally which is worse on inspiration and when supine, relieved by sitting forwards. The classical finding on examination is a friction rub which is said to sound like ‘walking on snow’. ECG is the investigation of choice with changes seen in 90%. There may be diffuse (saddle-shaped) ST elevations on ECG. Also, an effusion may be seen on echocardiography and blood results suggesting inflammation. Complications include tamponade and constrictive pericarditis. Risk factors include viral/bacterial infection (this patient’s sore throat), male gender, post-MI (both ‘early’ and Dressler’s), post-pericardiotomy syndrome, neoplasm from local tumour invasion, uraemia and autoimmune conditions such as RA and SLE.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
203
Q

82 year old man with hypertension for many years. He presents with increasing shortness of breath particularly when lying flat, & ankle swelling. On examination JVP is raised, BP 140/60, pulse 120/minute in atrial fibrillation.

A. Arterial doppler studies
B. Lymphangiogram
C. Chest x-ray
D. Venous doppler studies
E. 24 hour urine protein
F. Pelvic ultrasound
G. Liver function tests
H. Plasma creatinine
I. Coagulation screen
J. Full blood count
A

C. Chest x-ray - The signs and symptoms this patient has points to CCF (congestive cardiac failure). This patient has a history of hypertension and is elderly. Other key cardiovascular risk factors include MI, DM and dyslipiaemia. SOB with orthopnoea due to the sudden increase in pre-load, indicates LV failure. Neck vein distension is also present, which is a major Framingham criteria for diagnosis. Tachycardia and ankle oedema are both minor criteria for diagnosis. Other major criteria for diagnosis include S3 gallop, cardiomegaly and hepatojugular reflux. For all patients, initial investigations should include ECG, CXR, TTE and bloods including BNP levels.

CXR may reveal pulmonary vascular redistribution to the upper zones, Kerley B lines, an increased CTR (cardiomegaly) and pleural effusion.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
204
Q

54 year old Asian woman with type 2 diabetes for 15 years. She comes to the clinic complaining of ankle swelling. On examination, BP 170/95, JVP not raised & bilateral oedema to the knees. Albumin is low.

A. Arterial doppler studies
B. Lymphangiogram
C. Chest x-ray
D. Venous doppler studies
E. 24 hour urine protein
F. Pelvic ultrasound
G. Liver function tests
H. Plasma creatinine
I. Coagulation screen
A

E. 24hr urine protein - The most common cause of nephrotic syndrome in adults with long standing diabetes is diabetic nephropathy. However, non-diabetic renal disease cannot be excluded. Nephrotic syndrome is defined by the presence of proteinuria (>3.5g/24h), oedema and hypoalbuminaemia. Some definitions add hyperlipidaemia. Do not confuse this with nephritic syndrome. Diagnosis is made by quantification of proteinuria with a 24 hour urine collection, although now it is common to do a spot urine protein-to-creatinine ratio for practical reasons.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
205
Q

65 year old woman with weight loss, malaise & ankle swelling. She smokes 20 cigarettes/day. There is a past history of irritable bowel syndrome. On examination; pulse 80/min irregularly irregular, JVP not seen, BP 135/85, clear chest, bilateral oedema & large mass in pelvis. Urine testing reveals protein +.

A. Arterial doppler studies
B. Lymphangiogram
C. Chest x-ray
D. Venous doppler studies
E. 24 hour urine protein
F. Pelvic ultrasound
G. Liver function tests
H. Plasma creatinine
I. Coagulation screen
A

F. Pelvic ultrasound - There is a large mass in the pelvis which is most likely malignant given the history. This needs to be investigated by pelvic ultrasound.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
206
Q

73 year old man was reviewed in the diabetic clinic. He was complaining of increasing tiredness & loss of appetite. His ankles had become more swollen over the last few weeks.

A. Arterial doppler studies
B. Lymphangiogram
C. Chest x-ray
D. Venous doppler studies
E. 24 hour urine protein
F. Pelvic ultrasound
G. Liver function tests
H. Plasma creatinine
I. Coagulation screen
A

H. Plasma creatinine - Diabetic patients are at risk of diabetic nephropathy and need to have their plasma creatinine regularly checked to monitor renal function. Tiredness, loss of appetite, confusion and pruritis can all be subtle signs of worsening renal function.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
207
Q

66 year old man presents with swelling of his right leg to the knee. He had had a right hip replacement 5 weeks previously.

A. Arterial doppler studies
B. Lymphangiogram
C. Chest x-ray
D. Venous doppler studies
E. 24 hour urine protein
F. Pelvic ultrasound
G. Liver function tests
H. Plasma creatinine
I. Coagulation screen
A

D. Venous doppler studies - Recent surgery, especially orthopaedic surgery, is a strong risk factor for developing a DVT. Other strong risks include active malignancy, pregnancy, obesity and coagulopathies such as factor V Leiden. A Wells score is determined in all patients with a suspected DVT with the condition being likely if the score is 2 or more. If the Wells score is

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
208
Q

A man who works in the city suffers from burning, retrosternal discomfort radiating from epigastrium to jaw & throat. Worse on lying down.

A. BNP level
B. ultrasound scan
C. CTPA
D. Exercise ECG
E. Upper GI endoscopy
F. MRI scan
G. CT scan
H. V/Q scan
I. Chest X-ray
A

E. Upper GI endoscopy - This patient has GORD characterised by heartburn and regurgitation of acid. It is more severe at night when the patient is lying flat and also when the patient is bending over. Risk factors include obesity and hiatus hernia. Diagnosis is generally clinical and can also be achieved by a diagnostic trial of a PPI. Normally an upper GI endoscopy is reserved for complications such as strictures, Barrett’s or cancer, or for atypical features. An OGD may show oesophagitis or Barrett’s (red velvety), however OGD may be normal. Manometry and pH monitoring may also be performed, but in this case, this patient will probably just have a therapeutic and diagnostic trial of a PPI instead of an OGD.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
209
Q

A gentleman suffers from intermittent episodes of nausea, sweating, central crushing pain, radiating to jaw, lasting a few minutes, which is made worse by exercise.

A. BNP level
B. ultrasound scan
C. CTPA
D. Exercise ECG
E. Upper GI endoscopy
F. MRI scan
G. CT scan
H. V/Q scan
I. Chest X-ray
A

D. Exercise ECG - During exercise stress ECG (most often the Bruce Protocol) there will be ST segment depression during exercise indicative of ischaemia. Those unable to exercise to an adequate level may need stress myocardial perfusion imaging or stress echocardiography. 1st line angina treatment involves lifestyle changes and antiplatelet therapy with aspirin. Anti-anginal theray will also be given, first line being beta-blockade. Statin therapy, blood sugar control in diabetics and BP control with antihypertensives may also be necessary. Those with LMS disease, 3 vessel disease or a reduced EF may benefit from CABG. Single vessel disease may benefit from PCI.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
210
Q

A lady suffers from dyspnoea, coughing up blood as well which is mixed with frothy sputum and is stony dull to percuss.

A. BNP level
B. ultrasound scan
C. CTPA
D. Exercise ECG
E. Upper GI endoscopy
F. MRI scan
G. CT scan
H. V/Q scan
I. Chest X-ray
A

I. Chest X-ray - This patient has pulmonary oedema likely due to heart failure. There is also a pleural effusion which may be due to LVF. CXR may show pulmonary vascular redistribution to the upper zones, Kerley B lines, an increased CTR (cardiomegaly) and pleural effusion consistent with pulmonary oedema. Other investigations should include ECG, TTE and bloods including BNP levels. First line treatment for chronic heart failure is with an ACE inhibitor which reduces morbidity and mortality. Salt and fluid restriction is also beneficial. All patients with chronic heart failure will also receive a beta blocker such as carvedilol. Other adjuncts include spironolactone, diuretics, hydralazine and a nitrate, and digoxin.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
211
Q

30 year old women returning from holiday. Sudden onset chest pain with shortness of breath, coughed blood. She has no other lung disease.

A. BNP level
B. ultrasound scan
C. CTPA
D. Exercise ECG
E. Upper GI endoscopy
F. MRI scan
G. CT scan
H. V/Q scan
I. Chest X-ray
A

C. CTPA - This patient has a PE. Regardless of whether there is lung disease, guidelines state that the study of choice if there is an initial high probability of PE is a CTPA with direct visualisation of the thrombus (a filling defect is seen). If there is a contraindication to a CT scan such as contrast allergy or pregnancy, then a V/Q scan is indicated.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
212
Q

An older man collapses with sudden chest pain radiating to back.

A. BNP level
B. ultrasound scan
C. CTPA
D. Exercise ECG
E. Upper GI endoscopy
F. MRI scan
G. CT scan
H. V/Q scan
I. Chest X-ray
A

G. CT scan - A CT scan is indicated as soon as a diagnosis of aortic dissection is suspected and should be from the chest to the pelvis to see the full extent of the dissecting aneurysm. MRI is more sensitive and specific but is more difficult to obtain acutely.

Aortic dissection typically presents with tearing/ripping chest pain and classically radiates through to the back. There may be interscapular pain with dissection of the descending aorta. Dissecting aneurysms are either type A, which involves the ascending aorta, or type B. Type A dissections require urgent surgery whereas type B can be managed medically if it is not complicated by end organ ischaemia. BP differential between the 2 arms is a hallmark feature. Pulse differences may also be present in the lower limbs. There may also be the diastolic murmur of AR in proximal dissections.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
213
Q

70 yr old retired boiler maker presents with a 5 year history of exertional dyspnoea and a dry cough. The patient is non-smoker. Examination reveals fine crackles heard at the lung bases.

A. PE
B. Chronic lymphatic leukaemia
C. Pulmonary TB
D. COPD
E. Congestive cardiac failure
F. Pulmonary fibrosis
G. Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia
H. Bronchopneumonia
I. Iron deficiency anaemia
J. Sarcoidosis
K. Pernicious anaemia
A

F. Pulmonary fibrosis - Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis (previously known as Cryptogenic fibrosing alveolitis) progresses over several years and is characterised by pulmonary scar tissue formation and dyspnoea. Patients complain of a non-productive cough and typically reproducible and predictable SOB on exertion. Boiler makers can come into contact with small organic or inorganic dust particles which is thought to be implicated in the cascade of events leading to IPF. While this patient does not smoke, another risk factor is cigarette smoking which significantly increases the risk of IPF. The mean age of diagnosis is 60-70. End expiratory basal crackles are found on examination. These are described as ‘Velcro-like’ in quality. IPF is also associated with clubbing.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
214
Q

25 yr old HIV positive man has a productive cough for the last 3 months with haemoptysis and night sweats. CXR shows hilar lymphadenopathy.

A. PE
B. Chronic lymphatic leukaemia
C. Pulmonary TB
D. COPD
E. Congestive cardiac failure
F. Pulmonary fibrosis
G. Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia
H. Bronchopneumonia
I. Iron deficiency anaemia
J. Sarcoidosis
K. Pernicious anaemia
A

C. Pulmonary TB - HIV infection is a key risk factor for pulmonary TB. It is important to have a high level of suspicion when evaluating patients with risk factors who present with suggestive symptoms. Night sweats, fever, malaise, cough, haemoptysis and erythema nodosum are all suggestive. In the first half of the 20th century, tuberculosis accounted for over 90% of cases of erythema nodosum. Other key risk factors for pulmonary TB include exposure to infection and returning from or being born in a high-risk region such as Asia, Africa and Latin America. If TB is suspected, the patient should be placed in isolation and a CXR obtained with 3 sputum samples cultured for AFB being the gold standard of diagnosis. Culture takes several weeks so sputum smears will be done before culture results are known. Interferon-gamma release assays (IGRAs) are now used by some hospitals to rapidly determine a patient’s TB status. All patients who have TB should be tested for HIV within 2 months of diagnosis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
215
Q

12 yr old boy has become increasingly tired over the last month. On examination he looks pale, has a large bruise over his right thigh and a firm palpable liver and spleen.

A. PE
B. Chronic lymphatic leukaemia
C. Pulmonary TB
D. COPD
E. Congestive cardiac failure
F. Pulmonary fibrosis
G. Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia
H. Bronchopneumonia
I. Iron deficiency anaemia
J. Sarcoidosis
K. Pernicious anaemia
A

G. Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia - ALL presents in children with bone marrow involvement and the associated symptoms or in adults with an anterior mediastinal mass. Bone marrow infiltration leads to a pancytopenia leading to anaemia (reduced red blood cells), haemorrhage (reduced platelets) and infections (reduced mature white blood cells). In ALL, bone marrow is replaced by lymphoblasts. There may also be spread to CNS and testes. ALL is associated with Down’s syndrome. In contrast, CLL presents in older adults and is often asymptomatic, discovered by chance when a FBC is ordered. Smear/smudge cells are seen in peripheral blood smear. CLL is associated with a warm-type AIHA and there is peripheral blood lymphocytosis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
216
Q

60 yr old publican smokes 20 a day. He has a 10 year history of having a ‘smoker’s morning cough’ when he expectorates clear sputum. This is worse in winter when it turns green and he has to go to his GP for antibiotics. Examination reveals poor air entry over both lung fields and his PEFR is 210 L/min (reduced by 60%)

A. PE
B. Chronic lymphatic leukaemia
C. Pulmonary TB
D. COPD
E. Congestive cardiac failure
F. Pulmonary fibrosis
G. Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia
H. Bronchopneumonia
I. Iron deficiency anaemia
J. Sarcoidosis
K. Pernicious anaemia
A

D. COPD - Smoking is the most important risk factor, accounting for 90% of COPD. COPD has an insidious onset and usually presents in older people with a history of cough, wheeze and SOB. This patient appears to have infective exacerbations of his COPD every winter. Patients with COPD are at a higher risk of infections and are vaccinated against influenza annually and pneumococcal pneumonia every 5 years. Spirometry is the gold standard for diagnosis, with FEV1/FVC ratio

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
217
Q

A 58-year-old man, who smoked 30 cigarettes a day, presents with a 6-week history of cough, malaise, anorexia and weight loss. Past medical history includes hypertension for which he has taken lisinopril and bendrofluazide for 4 years.

A. Oesophageal reflux
B. COPD
C. Asthma 
D. Bronchiectasis
E. Carcinoma of bronchus
F. Sarcoidosis
G. ACE inhibitor
H. Postnasal drip
I. Tuberculosis
J. Foreign body
A

E. Carcinoma of the bronchus - The history of smoking and weight loss point to a bronchial carcinoma. Initial investigation is with a CXR. Diagnosis relies on pathological confirmation from a tissue sample, often obtained from bronchoscopy. First line treatment aims at surgical resection if possible. Small cell lung cancer is treated with chemotherapy and is associated with SIADH and ectopic ACTH. Non-small cell lung cancer is more often associated with clubbing. Squamous cell carcinoma is associated with PTHrp release and is treated with radiotherapy. Adenocarcinomas are usually located peripherally in the lung and are more common in non-smokers although most cases are still associated with smoking. The paraneoplastic syndromes may include Lambert-Eaton myasthenic syndrome.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
218
Q

A 45-year-old woman who smokes 25 cigarettes a day is reviewed in the diabetic clinic. She has had a dry cough for 2 months. She is on numerous tablets as her diabetes is complicated by microalbuminuria and hypertension. Her GP had given her a course of antibiotics 2 weeks previously.

A. Oesophageal reflux
B. COPD
C. Asthma 
D. Bronchiectasis
E. Carcinoma of bronchus
F. Sarcoidosis
G. ACE inhibitor
H. Postnasal drip
I. Tuberculosis
J. Foreign body
A

G. ACE inhibitor - A dry cough is a side effect of ACE inhibitors due to the build up of bradykinin which is normally degraded by ACE. ARB such as losartan will be indicated in this case. ARBs are insurmountable antagonists of AT1 receptors for angiotensin II, preventing its renal and vascular effects.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
219
Q

A 40-year-old Afro-Caribbean woman presents with bilateral parotid swelling, and painful nodules on the front of the shins. She has a dry cough and slight shortness of breath on exertion.

A. Oesophageal reflux
B. COPD
C. Asthma 
D. Bronchiectasis
E. Carcinoma of bronchus
F. Sarcoidosis
G. ACE inhibitor
H. Postnasal drip
I. Tuberculosis
J. Foreign body
A

F. Sarcoidosis - Sarcoidosis is a chronic multisystem disease with an unknown aetiology. The painful (mauve) nodules are erythema nodosum. Lupus pernio is another typical skin manifestation of sarcoidosis presenting with indurated plaques with discoloration on the face. Parotid enlargement is a classic feature (involvement of exocrine glands). The dry cough and SOB on exertion indicate pulmonary involvement. CXR will typically show bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy and CXR findings are used in the staging of disease. Additionally, serum calcium and ACE levels may be raised. A transbronchial biopsy is essential for diagnosis in most cases and shows the presence of non-caseating granulomas. Black people have a higher lifetime risk of sarcoidosis, as do those of Scandinavian origin. The mainstay of treatment for severe disease involves systemic corticosteroids.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
220
Q

An 18-year-old man presents with a night-time cough and shortness of breath while playing football. This has got progressively worse over the previous 2 months.

A. Oesophageal reflux
B. COPD
C. Asthma 
D. Bronchiectasis
E. Carcinoma of bronchus
F. Sarcoidosis
G. ACE inhibitor
H. Postnasal drip
I. Tuberculosis
J. Foreign body
A

C. Asthma - SOB and the cough, which may wake the patient from sleep combined with the patient’s age and progessive course suggest asthma. Examination can show an expiratory wheeze but may be normal and treatment is step-wise based on BTS guidelines. It is worth noting that in severe exacerbations, the chest may be silent. Night symptoms occur in more severe asthma and symptoms can be exacerbated by exercise. Diagnosis is supported by PEFR variation of at least 20% over 3 days in a week over several weeks or an increase of at least 20% to treatment. Stepwise treatment is outlined below. Look up the BTS guidelines for more information.

Step 1: SABA PRN, Step 2: Plus low-dose inhaled corticosteroids (ICS) , Step 3: Plus LABA, Step 4: Increase dose of ICS or add LTRA, SR theophylline or beta agonist tablet, Step 5: Daily steroid tablet and maintain ICS with specialist care.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
221
Q

A 30-year-old man, a lifelong non-smoker, presents with a history of at least 6 months of purulent sputum. He has had regular chest infections since an attack of measles at the age of 14.

A. Oesophageal reflux
B. COPD
C. Asthma 
D. Bronchiectasis
E. Carcinoma of bronchus
F. Sarcoidosis
G. ACE inhibitor
H. Postnasal drip
I. Tuberculosis
J. Foreign body
A

D. Bronchiectasis - Bronchiectasis is permanent bronchi dilatation due to bronchial wall damage and loss of elasticity. It is often as a consequence of recurrent/severe infections and most present with chronic productive mucopurulent cough. The most common identifiable cause is CF. Chest CT is the diagnostic test. Diagnosis is aided by sputum analysis. Have a think about what you would expect to hear on ascultation of the chest.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
222
Q

50 yr old male smoker presents with 3 month hx of cough, haemoptysis and wt loss. Chest examination = unremarkable

A. Fibrosing alveolitis
B. TB
C. Chronic bronchitis
D. Pneumonia
E. Influenza
F. ACE inhibitor 
G. Asthma
H. Extrinsic allergic alveolitis
I. Right ventricular failure
J. Left ventricular failure
K. Bronchial carcinoma
A

K. Bronchial carcinoma - The history of smoking, weight loss, cough and haemoptysis point to a bronchial carcinoma. Initial investigation is with a CXR. Diagnosis relies on pathological confirmation from a tissue sample, often obtained from bronchoscopy. First line treatment aims at surgical resection if possible. Small cell lung cancer is treated with chemotherapy and is associated with SIADH and ectopic ACTH. Non-small cell lung cancer is more often associated with clubbing. Squamous cell carcinoma is associated with PTHrp release and is treated with radiotherapy. Adenocarcinomas are usually located peripherally in the lung and are more common in non-smokers although most cases are still associated with smoking. The paraneoplastic syndromes may include Lambert-Eaton myasthenic syndrome.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
223
Q

5yr old coughs most nights. He has frequent courses of antibiotics for a ‘bad chest’ especially in winter. He also has eczema.

A. Fibrosing alveolitis
B. TB
C. Chronic bronchitis
D. Pneumonia
E. Influenza
F. ACE inhibitor 
G. Asthma
H. Extrinsic allergic alveolitis
I. Right ventricular failure
J. Left ventricular failure
K. Bronchial carcinoma
A

G. Asthma - These are infective exacerbations of asthma. The eczema is an atopic disease which is a strong risk factor for the development of asthma. A dry night time cough is commonly seen and suggestive. The hyperexpanded chest suggests persistent asthma. A Harrison’s sulcus, though rare, may also be seen. Treatment will be based on paediatric guidelines which differs from adult asthma. If you are really keen, you can look these up.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
224
Q

50 yr old male smoker has a productive cough with clear sputum most days, especially winter. He has not lost wt. On examination he has hyperexpanded chest and a few scattered wheezes and crackles.

A. Fibrosing alveolitis
B. TB
C. Chronic bronchitis
D. Pneumonia
E. Influenza
F. ACE inhibitor 
G. Asthma
H. Extrinsic allergic alveolitis
I. Right ventricular failure
J. Left ventricular failure
K. Bronchial carcinoma
A

C. Chronic bronchitis - This patient has COPD, which is a progressive disease characterised by not fully reversible airflow limitation. COPD encompasses both emphysema and chronic bronchitis. Cigarette smoking is the most important risk factor. The hyperexpanded chest implies trapping of air due to incomplete expiration. Wheezes and coarse crackles are commonly seen in exacerbations. The cough is often the first symptom a patient complains of and is usually a morning event which is normally productive. The sputum can change quality with exacerbations/infection. Treatment aims at stopping smoking and vaccinating the patient against influence and pneumococcus with options such as bronchodilators or ICS. LTOT improves survival in those with severe COPD with a low PaO2. Lung function tests are key in diagnosis with an obstructive FEV1/FVC ratio

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
225
Q

40 yr old Asian male has a 2 month hx of cough, haemoptysis, wt loss and night sweats. He has swollen cervical lymph nodes and his trachea deviated to the left.

A. Fibrosing alveolitis
B. TB
C. Chronic bronchitis
D. Pneumonia
E. Influenza
F. ACE inhibitor 
G. Asthma
H. Extrinsic allergic alveolitis
I. Right ventricular failure
J. Left ventricular failure
K. Bronchial carcinoma
A

B. TB - It is important to have a high level of suspicion when evaluating patients with risk factors who present with suggestive symptoms. Night sweats, fever, malaise, weight loss, cough, haemoptysis and erythema nodosum are all suggestive. This patient’s tracheal deviation may be due to apical fibrosis or a cavitating lesion. The swollen lymph nodes in this patient’s neck may well represent a scrofula. Other key risk factors for pulmonary TB include exposure to infection and returning from or being born in a high-risk region such as Asia, Africa and Latin America. If TB is suspected, the patient should be placed in isolation and a CXR obtained with 3 sputum samples cultured for AFB being the gold standard of diagnosis. Culture takes several weeks so sputum smears will be done before culture results are known. Interferon-gamma release assays (IGRAs) are now used by some hospitals to rapidly determine a patient’s TB status. All patients who have TB should be tested for HIV within 2 months of diagnosis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
226
Q

40 yr old man has a hx of hypertension. His anti-hypertensive meds were recently changed due to ankle swelling. He has now developed a dry cough.

A. Fibrosing alveolitis
B. TB
C. Chronic bronchitis
D. Pneumonia
E. Influenza
F. ACE inhibitor 
G. Asthma
H. Extrinsic allergic alveolitis
I. Right ventricular failure
J. Left ventricular failure
K. Bronchial carcinoma
A

F. ACE inhibitor - A dry cough is a side effect of ACE inhibitors due to the build up of bradykinin which is normally degraded by ACE. ARB such as losartan will be indicated in this case. ARBs are insurmountable antagonists of AT1 receptors for angiotensin II, preventing its renal and vascular effects.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
227
Q

A 62 year old man presents with progressive breathlessness over many years. He worked in power stations. He has finger clubbing and his chest xray shows a honeycomb apperance.

A. Bronchiectasis
B. Sarcoidosis
C. Sinusitis
D. Wegeners Granulomatosis
E. Silicosis
F. Tuberculosis
G. Asbestosis
H. Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis
I. Asthma
J. Streptococcal pneumonia
K. Mycoplasma pneumonia
L. Cystic fibrosis
A

H. Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis - Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis (previously known as Cryptogenic fibrosing alveolitis) progresses over several years and is characterised by pulmonary scar tissue formation and dyspnoea. Patients complain of a non-productive cough and typically reproducible and predictable SOB on exertion. Work in power stations can involve contact with small organic or inorganic dust particles which is thought to be implicated in the cascade of events leading to IPF. Another risk factor is cigarette smoking which significantly increases the risk of IPF. The mean age of diagnosis is 60-70. End expiratory basal crackles are found on examination. These are described as ‘Velcro-like’ in quality. IPF is also associated with clubbing. A CXR in most will show reticulonodular shadowing consistent with fibrosis. This can be described as a ‘honeycomb’ pattern.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
228
Q

A 35 year old lady presents with a rash over her face and raised levels of ACE.

A. Bronchiectasis
B. Sarcoidosis
C. Sinusitis
D. Wegeners Granulomatosis
E. Silicosis
F. Tuberculosis
G. Asbestosis
H. Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis
I. Asthma
J. Streptococcal pneumonia
K. Mycoplasma pneumonia
L. Cystic fibrosis
A

B. Sarcoidosis - Sarcoidosis is a chronic multisystem disease with an unknown aetiology. The lesion described is lupus pernio which is a typical skin manifestation of sarcoidosis presenting with indurated plaques with discoloration on the face. Erythema nodosum is another dermatological manifestation. Additionally, serum calcium and ACE levels may be raised. CXR will typically show bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy and CXR findings are used in the staging of disease. A transbronchial biopsy is essential for diagnosis in most cases and shows the presence of non-caseating granulomas. Black people have a higher lifetime risk of sarcoidosis, as do those of Scandinavian origin. The mainstay of treatment for severe disease involves systemic corticosteroids.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
229
Q

A 28 year old homeless man presents with tiredness and cough for over 3 months. His CXR showed patchy shadows in the upper zones. His sputum grew positive culture on Lowenstein-jensen medium after 4 weeks.

A. Bronchiectasis
B. Sarcoidosis
C. Sinusitis
D. Wegeners Granulomatosis
E. Silicosis
F. Tuberculosis
G. Asbestosis
H. Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis
I. Asthma
J. Streptococcal pneumonia
K. Mycoplasma pneumonia
L. Cystic fibrosis
A

F. Tuberculosis - This patient should be placed in isolation. His sputum culture results suggest TB which is an AFB growing on Lowenstein-Jensen medium. A sputum culture is the most sensitive and specific test for TB and whilst growth takes a long time, the positive culture is diagnostic of TB. Sputum cultures will be repeated during treatment until 2 consecutive negative cultures. Treatment consists of anti-TB medication. Ethambutol should be stopped if the AFB is sensitive to isoniazid and rifampicin. Pyridoxine should be given with isoniazid to help prevent neuropathy. Pyrazinamide is not recommended in acute gout or pregnancy. Treatment of MDR TB involves additional therapy with agents such as amikacin and ethionamide.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
230
Q

A 19 year old presents with headache and malaise for 1 week. His chest was clear on auscultation. He subsequently developed a cough and was given erythomycin for 1 week.

A. Bronchiectasis
B. Sarcoidosis
C. Sinusitis
D. Wegeners Granulomatosis
E. Silicosis
F. Tuberculosis
G. Asbestosis
H. Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis
I. Asthma
J. Streptococcal pneumonia
K. Mycoplasma pneumonia
L. Cystic fibrosis
A

K. Mycoplasma pneumonia - The atypical presentation (a week of headache and malaise before the cough) and the prescription of erythromycin, a macrolide antibiotic, point to infection with an atypical pneumonia. However, depending on local prescribing policies, first line therapy for a CAP like pneumococcus may also be with a macrolide. Young people who ‘live together’ are commonly affected. The cough often does not resolve and is dry in nature. Symptoms tend to be prolonged and a low-grade fever is a common finding. Mycoplasma is the only atypical pneumonia on the list although there is no reason why this cannot be Legionella or Chlamydia. All can be treated with macrolides although in EMQs Chlamydia tends to be treated with doxycyline. All 3 atypicals are to some extent sensitive to fluoroquinolones and tetracylines too although these cannot be used in pregnancy. Whether they are first or second line therapy depends on the organism.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
231
Q

A newborn child presents with small bowel obstruction due to meconium ileus.

A. Bronchiectasis
B. Sarcoidosis
C. Sinusitis
D. Wegeners Granulomatosis
E. Silicosis
F. Tuberculosis
G. Asbestosis
H. Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis
I. Asthma
J. Streptococcal pneumonia
K. Mycoplasma pneumonia
L. Cystic fibrosis
A

L. Cystic fibrosis - CF can present in newborns with a failure to pass meconium (early stools) which can even result in bowel obstruction as in this patient. The bowel may even perforate if the patient is very unlucky resulting in a meconium peritonitis. The most conclusive diagnostic test is the sweat test which is pisitive if sweat chloride is >60mmol/L. Serum IRT from a heel prick blood spot allows screening of newborns. CF is a genetic condition with abnormal salt and water transport due to mutations in the CFTR (an apical anion channel). Heterozygotes generally do not demonstrate disease.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
232
Q

A 42 year old man has a 3 year history of progressive SOB and joint pains. His bloods show positive rheumatoid factor

A. Bronchiectasis
B. Sarcoidosis
C. Sinusitis
D. Wegeners Granulomatosis
E. Silicosis
F. Tuberculosis
G. Asbestosis
H. Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis
I. Asthma
J. Streptococcal pneumonia
K. Mycoplasma pneumonia
L. Cystic fibrosis
A

D. Wegeners Granulomatosis - Wegener’s is a systemic vasculitis affecting the small and medium vessels and presents with the classic triad of upper respiratory tract involvement, lower respiratory tract involvement and GN. It is a multisystem disease which can manifest with symptoms ranging from cutaneous, musculoskeletal, ocular and neurological features. Joint swelling and tenderness may all be present. It is associated with a positive cANCA and rhematoid factor is positive in around half.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
233
Q

A 38 year old woman with a history of multiple allergies is given intravenous contrast medium for a urogram. Within a couple of minutes, she has become breathless, with wheeze & stridor, & her blood pressure is 80/40 mmHg.

A. Acute anxiety
B. Epiglotitis
C. Exacerbation of COPD
D. Inhaled foreign body
E. Pneumothorax
F. Anaphylaxis
G. Left ventricular failure
H. Viral pneumonia
I. Asthma
J. Pulmonary embolus
A

F. Anaphylaxis - There is a sudden onset of both respiratory and cardiovascular complaints with the recently given IV contrast agent. This patient is having an anaphylactic reaction and the airway needs to be promptly secured with prompt treatment with adrenaline. IM adrenaline must not be delayed and the anterolateral thigh is the preferred location, with repeated doses as necessary every 10 minutes or so. A 1:1000 solution is used of 0.3-0.5mg adrenaline. Fluid replacement with IV saline is also indicated to correct the intravascular volume redistribution.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
234
Q

A 69 year old man with a history of hypertension & stable angina wakes up severely short of breath. He is slightly more comfortable sitting upright. On examination, his blood pressure is 195/115 mmHg & there are crepitations at the bases of both lungs.

A. Acute anxiety
B. Epiglotitis
C. Exacerbation of COPD
D. Inhaled foreign body
E. Pneumothorax
F. Anaphylaxis
G. Left ventricular failure
H. Viral pneumonia
I. Asthma
J. Pulmonary embolus
A

G. Left ventricular failure - This patient has LVF and pulmonary oedema. This accounts for the basal crepitations heard on ascultation and the SOB which is better on sitting upright. Patients need to be sat upright for this reason and IV access needs to be established. Oxygen, morphone, diuretics (frusemide or another loop diuretic) and nitrates will be given. Once stable, medical treatment of heart failure should be started which involves in the first instance, an ACE inhibitor followed by beta blockade. Ongoing diuretics are necessary if the patient has persistent symptoms of fluid overload.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
235
Q

A 73 year old woman is recovering in hospital 3 days after an operation to replace her right hip. On going to the toilet she suddenly becomes extremely short of breath & rapidly loses consciousness. Blood pressure is 60/20 mmHg.

A. Acute anxiety
B. Epiglotitis
C. Exacerbation of COPD
D. Inhaled foreign body
E. Pneumothorax
F. Anaphylaxis
G. Left ventricular failure
H. Viral pneumonia
I. Asthma
J. Pulmonary embolus
A

J. Pulmonary embolus - This patient should be thrombolysed immediately if not contraindicated due to her haemodynamically unstable and critical state. Treatment should not be delayed in this obvious PE. This patient is now at a serious risk of cardiac arrest. Anticoagulation should also be started. The underlying pathophysiology is based on Virchow’s triad. SOB is a common symptom and there may also be chest pain and haemoptysis. This patient has had recent surgery, particularly orthopaedic surgery, which is a strong risk factor for PE. Other strong risk factors include DVT, obesity, prolonged bed rest, malignancy, previous VTE, pregnancy and the thrombophilias such as factor V Leiden. ECG may be normal, or may show tachycardia, new RAD, new RBBB or the classical S wave in I, Q wave with T inversion in III. Various clinical probability scores exist for PE and D-dimer can be used to exclude PE as a diagnosis. The study of choice is a CTPA with direct visualisation of the thrombus. If there is a contraindication to a CT scan such as contrast allergy or pregnancy, then a V/Q scan is indicated. If a V/Q scan is not possible, alternatives such as MRA can be requested. It is worth noting that in patients with cardiopulmonary disease, these tests may not be accurate. A TTE can also be used to detect RV strain seen with PE.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
236
Q

A 77 year old former coal miner has 30 year history of cough, mostly productive of sputum. He suddenly becomes breathless after a bout of coughing & complains of right sided chest pain. On examination, he is cyanosed, the trachea is deviated to the left & no breath sounds are audible over part of the right side of the chest.

A. Acute anxiety
B. Epiglotitis
C. Exacerbation of COPD
D. Inhaled foreign body
E. Pneumothorax
F. Anaphylaxis
G. Left ventricular failure
H. Viral pneumonia
I. Asthma
J. Pulmonary embolus
A

E. Pneumothorax - This patient has developed a right sided tension pneumothorax and will need emergency intervention in the form of the insertion of a large bore cannula into the 2nd intercostal space in the MCL of the affected side. This will need to be followed by the insertion of a chest drain.

Otherwise if this was not a tension pneumothorax, for secondary spontaneous pneumothoraces, if large enough for a chest drain or the patient is clinically unstable, chest drain insertion is indicated. Simple aspiration success rate is reduced in secondary spontaneous pneumothoraces. Primary pneumothoraces occur in young people without known lung conditions. This patient has pulmonary fibrosis. Those who suffer recurrent pneumothoraces may have to undergo pleurodesis to stick the parietal and visceral pleural together by an inflammatory reaction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
237
Q

A 25 year old man has a 3 day history of shivering, general malaise & productive cough. The x-ray shows right lower lobe consolidation.

A. Bacteroides fragilis
B. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
C. E coli
D. Haemophilus influenzae
E. Mixed growth of organisms
F. Mycoplasma pneumoniae
G. Staphylococcus aureus
H. Pneumocystis jirovecii
I. Legionella pneumophila
J. Coxiella burnetii
K. Streptococcus pneumoniae
A

K. Streptococcus pneumoniae - Classic lobar pneumonia with no signs and symptoms to suggest an atypical organism is most likely to due to pneumococcus. Symptoms include chills, fever, cough, SOB and pleuritic chest pain. A CXR is the most specific and sensitive test available and antibiotics are indicated.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
238
Q

A 26 year old man presents with severe shortness of breath and a dry cough which he has had for several weeks. He is an IV drug user. There are purple patches on the arms and in the mouth. CXR shows reticular perihilar opacities. Chest examination is unremarkable.

A. Bacteroides fragilis
B. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
C. E coli
D. Haemophilus influenzae
E. Mixed growth of organisms
F. Mycoplasma pneumoniae
G. Staphylococcus aureus
H. Pneumocystis jirovecii
I. Legionella pneumophila
J. Coxiella burnetii
K. Streptococcus pneumoniae
A

H. Pneumocystus jirovecii - PCP is caused by Pneumocystis jirovecii, previously called Pneumocystis carinii. It is a fungal organism and an AIDS defining illness. Signs and symptoms occur in a patient who is immunosuppressed especially HIV with a CD4 count

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
239
Q

A 35 year old previously healthy man returned from a conference in the USA 5 days ago. He travels frequently and gives a 30 pack year history. He presents with mild confusion, a productive cough, diarrhoea and is pyrexic. His chest examination is normal. CXR shows infiltrates in the RUL.

A. Bacteroides fragilis
B. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
C. E coli
D. Haemophilus influenzae
E. Mixed growth of organisms
F. Mycoplasma pneumoniae
G. Staphylococcus aureus
H. Pneumocystis jirovecii
I. Legionella pneumophila
J. Coxiella burnetii
K. Streptococcus pneumoniae
A

I. Legionella pneumophila - Legionella is a gram negative rod. Legionella infecting the lungs is legionnaires’ disease or Legionella pneumonia whereas non-lung infection is known as Pontiac fever. This bacteria is found in aqueous environments such as lakes and almost all cases are from contaminated water systems, which relates to the risk factors of getting Legionella (recent water exposure like a hot tub). Smoking is also a risk factor. It can cause confusion as well as hyponatraemia, abdominal pain, diarrhoea and bradycardia. Legionella does not grow on routine culture media and diagnosis relies on urine antigen detection, serology or culture on special media.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
240
Q

A 20 year old previously healthy woman presents with general malaise, severe cough & breathlessness which has not improved with a 7 day course of amoxicillin. There is nothing significant to find on examination. The x-ray shows patchy shadowing throughout the lung fields. The blood film shows clumping of red cells with suggestion of cold agglutinins.

A. Bacteroides fragilis
B. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
C. E coli
D. Haemophilus influenzae
E. Mixed growth of organisms
F. Mycoplasma pneumoniae
G. Staphylococcus aureus
H. Pneumocystis jirovecii
I. Legionella pneumophila
J. Coxiella burnetii
K. Streptococcus pneumoniae
A

F. Mycoplasma pneumoniae - The cold agglutinins is what gives this question away. Mycoplasma is associated with with cold type agglutinins and a cold AIHA. Humans are thought to be the only host for Mycoplasma. The most commonly affected are young adults living in close proximity to each other. PCR can be used in diagnosis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
241
Q

A 63 year old tramp presents to the A&E department with a 4 day history of haemoptysis. He has felt unwell for about 2 months with a cough, loss of weight & generalised weakness. He attributes his diplopia, which started a fortnight ago, to excessive alcohol consumption. On examination he has bilateral ptosis & proximal weakness in the limbs which improves on repeated testing.

A. Pulmonary metastases
B. Pulmonary embolism
C. Pulmonary abscess
D. Small cell carcinoma
E. Streptococcal pneumonia
F. Squamous cell carcinoma
G. Microscopic polyarteritis
H. Tuberculosis
I. Goodpasture’s disease
J. Myaesthenia gravis
K. Mesothelioma
A

D. Small cell carcinoma - First line treatment aims at surgical resection if possible. Small cell lung cancer is treated with chemotherapy and is also associated with SIADH and ectopic ACTH. Non-small cell lung cancer is more often associated with clubbing. Squamous cell carcinoma is associated with PTHrp release and is treated with radiotherapy. Adenocarcinomas are usually located peripherally in the lung and are more common in non-smokers although most cases are still associated with smoking. The paraneoplastic syndromes may include Lambert-Eaton myasthenic syndrome which this patient has (though weakness of the eye muscles is uncommon in Lambert-Eaton and is more prominent in myasthenia gravis). This classically presents with weakness which improves on repeated testing (in contrast to myaesthenia gravis) and is more commonly associated with small cell lung cancer than other lung cancers. It is for this reason that the most likely diagnosis is small cell and not squamous cell lung cancer.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
242
Q

A 48 year old woman with ovarian carcinoma presents to the A&E department with a 12 hour history of haemoptysis associated with dyspnoea & pleuritic pains. On examination she is apyrexial & has a right sided pleural rub. The chest x-ray shows a wedge shaped infarct peripherally on the right but is otherwise normal.

A. Pulmonary metastases
B. Pulmonary embolism
C. Pulmonary abscess
D. Small cell carcinoma
E. Streptococcal pneumonia
F. Squamous cell carcinoma
G. Microscopic polyarteritis
H. Tuberculosis
I. Goodpasture’s disease
J. Myaesthenia gravis
K. Mesothelioma
A

B. Pulmonary embolism - This CXR finding is Hampton’s hump seen in about a third of PE. Additional CXR signs include Westermark’s sign and Fleischner’s sign. CXR is however not diagnostic and may well be normal. Patients with a high clinical suspicion of PE should be anticoagulated while waiting a definitive diagnosis unless contraindicated. The underlying pathophysiology is based on Virchow’s triad. SOB and chest pain are common symptoms and there may also be haemoptysis. Strong risk factors include DVT, obesity, surgery in the past 2 months, prolonged bed rest, malignancy (which this patient has), previous VTE, pregnancy and the thrombophilias such as factor V Leiden. ECG may be normal, or may show tachycardia, new RAD, new RBBB or the classical S wave in I, Q wave with T inversion in III. Various clinical probability scores exist for PE and D-dimer can be used to exclude PE as a diagnosis. The study of choice is a CTPA with direct visualisation of the thrombus. If there is a contraindication to a CT scan such as contrast allergy or pregnancy, then a V/Q scan is indicated. If a V/Q scan is not possible, alternatives such as MRA can be requested. It is worth noting that in patients with cardiopulmonary disease, these tests may not be accurate. A TTE can also be used to detect RV strain seen with PE.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
243
Q

A 51 year old social worker presents to her GP with haemoptysis. On further questioning she admits to having a productive cough for 6 months & to losing 2 stones in weight over the same time. Chest x-ray shows patchy consolidation & scarring in both apices.

A. Pulmonary metastases
B. Pulmonary embolism
C. Pulmonary abscess
D. Small cell carcinoma
E. Streptococcal pneumonia
F. Squamous cell carcinoma
G. Microscopic polyarteritis
H. Tuberculosis
I. Goodpasture’s disease
J. Myaesthenia gravis
K. Mesothelioma
A

H. Tuberculosis - It is important to have a high level of suspicion when evaluating patients with risk factors who present with suggestive symptoms. Night sweats, fever, malaise, cough, haemoptysis and erythema nodosum are all suggestive. Other key risk factors for pulmonary TB include exposure to infection and returning from or being born in a high-risk region such as Asia, Africa and Latin America. If TB is suspected, the patient should be placed in isolation and a CXR obtained with 3 sputum samples cultured for AFB being the gold standard of diagnosis. Culture takes several weeks so sputum smears will be done before culture results are known. Interferon-gamma release assays (IGRAs) are now used by some hospitals to rapidly determine a patient’s TB status. All patients who have TB should be tested for HIV within 2 months of diagnosis. CXR is the first line test to order. Classically, in primary disease there are middle and lower zone infiltrates. Post-primary TB usually involves apical changes with or without cavitation. However, recent students have indicated that both presentations are seen in both primary and post-primary TB. HIV positive patients tend to have a more atypical CXR including effusion, lower zone involvement and a miliary pattern.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
244
Q

A 34 year old man presents to the A&E department with a short history of haemoptysis. He has had a cough for a fortnight & noticed his ankles beginning to swell 5 days ago. Initial blood tests show a creatinine of 400mol/l. An autoantibody screen is positive for p-ANCA & anti-glomerular basement membrane antibodies.

A. Pulmonary metastases
B. Pulmonary embolism
C. Pulmonary abscess
D. Small cell carcinoma
E. Streptococcal pneumonia
F. Squamous cell carcinoma
G. Microscopic polyarteritis
H. Tuberculosis
I. Goodpasture’s disease
J. Myaesthenia gravis
K. Mesothelioma
A

I. Goodpasture’s disease - Goodpasture’s is associated with anti-GBM antibodies, and of those who are positive, some will have a positive ANCA too, although this is more suggestive of diagnoses such as Churg-Strauss and microscopic polyarteritis. Definitive diagnosis is by renal biopsy showing crescentic GN and linear IgG staining on immunofluorescence. It is one of the few causes of pulmonary renal syndrome. Aggressive treatment is often needed and plasma exchange can also be performed to remove preformed antibodies.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
245
Q

Trachea deviated to the right. Hyper-resonant percussion on the left side with reduced breath sounds.

A. Pleurisy
B. Emphysema
C. Normal variant
D. Pulmonary oedema
E. Pleural effusion
F. Lobar collapse
G. Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis
H. Hyperventilation
I. Pneumothorax
J. Lobar pneumonia
K. Chronic bronchitis
A

I. Pneumothorax - A tension pneumothorax shifts the trachea AWAY with hyper-resonance on affected side and reduced/absent breath sounds. A tracheal shift means this is a tension pneumothorax which needs immediate relief with a wide bore cannula inserted into the second intercostal space in the MCL.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
246
Q

Trachea deviated to left. Dull to percussion & reduced breath sounds at left base.

A. Pleurisy
B. Emphysema
C. Normal variant
D. Pulmonary oedema
E. Pleural effusion
F. Lobar collapse
G. Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis
H. Hyperventilation
I. Pneumothorax
J. Lobar pneumonia
K. Chronic bronchitis
A

F. Lobar collapse - Collapse pulls the trachea TOWARDS the affected side. There is dullness and reduced/absent breath sounds due to a lack of air filled lung in this space. Do you know how to identify which lobe has collapsed on a CXR? The findings in this examination are consistent with LLL collapse. A ‘sail sign’ will classically be seen behind the cardiac shadow on CXR.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
247
Q

Reduced chest movements bilaterally. Using accessory muscles of respiration. Breath sounds generally quiet.

A. Pleurisy
B. Emphysema
C. Normal variant
D. Pulmonary oedema
E. Pleural effusion
F. Lobar collapse
G. Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis
H. Hyperventilation
I. Pneumothorax
J. Lobar pneumonia
K. Chronic bronchitis
A

B Emphysema - This patient is in obvious respiratory distress and is using accessory muscles of respiration. Chest movements are reduced too. There is hyperexpansion of the lung fields due to emphysema, which has caused the respiratory distress, combined with diminished breath sounds.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
248
Q

Bilateral fine basal crepitations. There are no signs of CCF.

A. Pleurisy
B. Emphysema
C. Normal variant
D. Pulmonary oedema
E. Pleural effusion
F. Lobar collapse
G. Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis
H. Hyperventilation
I. Pneumothorax
J. Lobar pneumonia
K. Chronic bronchitis
A

G. Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis - Bibasal inspiratory crackles without signs of CCF are seen in idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis. These are described as ‘Velcro-like’ in quality. IPF is also associated with clubbing. Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis (previously known as Cryptogenic fibrosing alveolitis) progresses over several years and is characterised by pulmonary scar tissue formation and dyspnoea. Patients complain of a non-productive cough and typically reproducible and predictable SOB on exertion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
249
Q

Trachea central. Reduced chest movement on right. Dull to percussion on right. Bronchial breathing at right base.

A. Pleurisy
B. Emphysema
C. Normal variant
D. Pulmonary oedema
E. Pleural effusion
F. Lobar collapse
G. Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis
H. Hyperventilation
I. Pneumothorax
J. Lobar pneumonia
K. Chronic bronchitis
A

J. Lobar pneumonia - These are the classic signs of pneumonia. Also expect to find increased vocal resonance and tactile vocal fremitus over areas of consolidation. In reality, it can be confusing if the pneumonia causes a lobar collapse as you can also find signs of collapse on examination. Always consider the history as well as examination and investigation findings. On a CXR with pneumonia, you can expect to see air space shadowing with air bronchograms. Always remember to auscultate at the right axilla when doing a respiratory examination or a RML pneumonia may be missed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
250
Q

A 50 year old man became suddenly breathless whilst eating. He has marked stridor & is choking & drooling.

A. Heimlich manoeuvre
B. Forced alkaline diuresis
C. Intravenous furosemide
D. Rapid infusion of saline
E. Nebulised salbutamol
F. Intravenous aminophylline
G. Re-breathing into paper bag
H. Pleural aspiration
I. Chest drain
J. Intravenous adrenaline
K. Heparin
L. Intravenous insulin
A

A. Heimlich manoeuvre - This patient has choked on some food. The patient should be encouraged to cough if they are conscious. Otherwise, external manoevres can be performed such as abdominal thrusts (Heimlich) or back blows. These actions increase intrathoracic pressure and help to dislodge the foreign body. If it still isn’t removed, a flexible bronchoscopy may be necessary. Most cases occur in very young children.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
251
Q

A 60 year old male presents with acute breathlessness & a cough productive of frothy, pink sputum. He cannot lie flat. On examination, he has crackles to both midzones & a few scattered wheezes.

A. Heimlich manoeuvre
B. Forced alkaline diuresis
C. Intravenous furosemide
D. Rapid infusion of saline
E. Nebulised salbutamol
F. Intravenous aminophylline
G. Re-breathing into paper bag
H. Pleural aspiration
I. Chest drain
J. Intravenous adrenaline
K. Heparin
L. Intravenous insulin
A

C. Intravenous furosemide - This patient has pulmonary oedema. CXR may show pulmonary vascular redistribution to the upper zones, Kerley B lines, an increased CTR (cardiomegaly) and pleural effusion.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
252
Q

A 20 year old woman is too breathless to speak. Her pulse is 120/min, respiratory rate 30 per min & peak expiratory flow is 100l/min. Examination reveals a very quiet chest & chest x-ray is normal.

A. Heimlich manoeuvre
B. Forced alkaline diuresis
C. Intravenous furosemide
D. Rapid infusion of saline
E. Nebulised salbutamol
F. Intravenous aminophylline
G. Re-breathing into paper bag
H. Pleural aspiration
I. Chest drain
J. Intravenous adrenaline
K. Heparin
L. Intravenous insulin
A

E. Nebulised salbutamol - This patient is having an asthma attack. This patient is too breathless to speak and has a quiet chest so this is severe and ICU admission is indicated. Initial treatment is with repeated administration of an inhaled SABA with early systemic corticosteroids and supplemental oxygen, monitoring the patient’s status regularly.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
253
Q

A 25 year old woman has just returned from a holiday in Kenya. She suddenly became breathless & is cyanosed. Her pulse is 120/min, BP 110/70, peak expiratory flow 400l/min. Chest x-ray is normal.

A. Heimlich manoeuvre
B. Forced alkaline diuresis
C. Intravenous furosemide
D. Rapid infusion of saline
E. Nebulised salbutamol
F. Intravenous aminophylline
G. Re-breathing into paper bag
H. Pleural aspiration
I. Chest drain
J. Intravenous adrenaline
K. Heparin
L. Intravenous insulin
A

K. Heparin - Patients with a high clinical suspicion of PE should be anticoagulated while waiting a definitive diagnosis unless contraindicated. As UFH is used in this case, a weight based dosing normogram will need to be used to establish a therapeutic APTT within the first 24 hours. Alternatives include LMWH and fondaparinux.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
254
Q

A 50 year old with pulmonary fibrosis develops sudden left-sided pleuritic pain & dyspnoea. He has reduced air entry in the left side of the chest & percussion is hyper-resonant. Oxygen saturation is 80%.

A. Heimlich manoeuvre
B. Forced alkaline diuresis
C. Intravenous furosemide
D. Rapid infusion of saline
E. Nebulised salbutamol
F. Intravenous aminophylline
G. Re-breathing into paper bag
H. Pleural aspiration
I. Chest drain
J. Intravenous adrenaline
K. Heparin
L. Intravenous insulin
A

I. Chest drain - This patient has developed a pneumothorax. This is a secondary spontaneous pneumothorax, and if large enough for a chest tube or the patient is clinically unstable, chest drain insertion is indicated. Simple aspiration success rate is reduced in secondary spontaneous pneumothoraces. Primary pneumothoraces occur in young people without known lung conditions. This patient has pulmonary fibrosis. Those who suffer recurrent pneumothoraces may have to undergo pleurodesis using a chemical such as doxycycline to stick the perietal and visceral pleural together by an inflammatory reaction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
255
Q

A 36 year old popstar presents with fever, a cough & an itchy vesicular rash. Chest x-ray shows mottling through both lung fields.

A. Mycoplasma pneumonia
B. Streptococcus pneumonia
C. Varicella zoster
D. Adenovirus
E. Pneumocystis jirovecii
F. Influenzae A
G. Haemophilus influenza
H. Group A streptococci
I. Staphylococcus aureus
J. Corynebacterium diphtheriae
K. Legionella pneumophila
L. Escherichia coli
M. Aspergillus fumigatus
N. Clamydia pneumoniae
A

C. Varicella zoster - The pruritic vesicular rash (the classic description of a ‘dewdrop on a rose petal’) makes you think of VZV. The rash typically occurs on the patient’s torso and face and pneumonia is a complication occuring more commonly in those with immunosuppression. The lesions are often crusted over by 7-10 days. The diagnosis is based on clinical findings.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
256
Q

A 60 year old woman presented to the casualty with chest pain on coughing, fever, shortness of breath for the last 2 days. Her chest x-ray showed right lower lobe consolidation & pleural effusion.

A. Mycoplasma pneumonia
B. Streptococcus pneumonia
C. Varicella zoster
D. Adenovirus
E. Pneumocystis jirovecii
F. Influenzae A
G. Haemophilus influenza
H. Group A streptococci
I. Staphylococcus aureus
J. Corynebacterium diphtheriae
K. Legionella pneumophila
L. Escherichia coli
M. Aspergillus fumigatus
N. Clamydia pneumoniae
A

B. Streptococcus pneumoniae - This is classic CAP. Classic lobar pneumonia with no signs and symptoms to suggest an atypical organism is most likely to due to pneumococcus. Symptoms include chills, fever, cough, SOB and pleuritic chest pain. A CXR is the most specific and sensitive test available and antibiotics are indicated.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
257
Q

30 year old intravenous drug abuser presented to the GP with shortness of breath. The GP sent him for a blood count, HIV testing & a chest x-ray. He was found to be HIV positive. Chest x-ray showed bilateral fluffy opacities.

A. Mycoplasma pneumonia
B. Streptococcus pneumonia
C. Varicella zoster
D. Adenovirus
E. Pneumocystis jirovecii
F. Influenzae A
G. Haemophilus influenza
H. Group A streptococci
I. Staphylococcus aureus
J. Corynebacterium diphtheriae
K. Legionella pneumophila
L. Escherichia coli
M. Aspergillus fumigatus
N. Clamydia pneumoniae
A

E. Pneumocystis jirovecii - PCP is caused by Pneumocystis jirovecii, previously called Pneumocystis carinii. It is a fungal organism and an AIDS defining illness. Signs and symptoms occur in a patient who is immunosuppressed, especially HIV with a CD4 count

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
258
Q

A plumber renovating old properties presented to casualty with fever & loss of consciousness. On examination he had bilateral consolidation. Plasma sodium was low. The doctor sent for urinary antigen & serology. On the results he was treated with azithromycin & ciprofloxacin & improved.

A. Mycoplasma pneumonia
B. Streptococcus pneumonia
C. Varicella zoster
D. Adenovirus
E. Pneumocystis jirovecii
F. Influenzae A
G. Haemophilus influenza
H. Group A streptococci
I. Staphylococcus aureus
J. Corynebacterium diphtheriae
K. Legionella pneumophila
L. Escherichia coli
M. Aspergillus fumigatus
N. Clamydia pneumoniae
A

K. Legionella pneumphila - Legionella is a gram negative rod. Legionella infecting the lungs is legionnaires’ disease or Legionella pneumonia whereas non-lung infection is known as Pontiac fever. This bacteria is found in aqueous environments such as lakes and almost all cases are from contaminated water systems, which relates to the risk factors of getting Legionella (recent water exposure like a hot tub). Smoking is also a risk factor. It can cause confusion as well as hyponatraemia, abdominal pain, diarrhoea and bradycardia. Legionella does not grow on routine culture media and diagnosis relies on urine antigen detection, serology or culture on special media. Treatment is with fluoroquinolones or macrolides. Azithromycin is considered a safer option than erythromycin. For severe cases, a combination of both is given although this is potentially toxic and can cause long QT and torsades de pointes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
259
Q

A holiday worker had a severe chest infection abroad & was diagnosed to have influenza A infection. He was improving but suddenly deteriorated with the last 24 hours becoming breathless, febrile & septic. X-ray chest showed circular opacities some with a fluid level. Gram stain of sputum showed Gram positive cocci in clusters.

A. Mycoplasma pneumonia
B. Streptococcus pneumonia
C. Varicella zoster
D. Adenovirus
E. Pneumocystis jirovecii
F. Influenzae A
G. Haemophilus influenza
H. Group A streptococci
I. Staphylococcus aureus
J. Corynebacterium diphtheriae
K. Legionella pneumophila
L. Escherichia coli
M. Aspergillus fumigatus
N. Clamydia pneumoniae
A

I. Staphylococcus aureus - Think Staphylococcus aureus for post-influenza pneumonia. It causes a cavitating pneumonia which explains the CXR findings (some abscesses are also seen) and Gram stain of culture yields grape like clusters of Gram positive cocci which is consistent with staphylococcus. Treatment of staphyloccocal infection is with flucoxacillin or vancomycin if MRSA.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
260
Q

A 30 year old company executive became unwell whilst on a business trip. He developed a high fever, muscle pains, nausea & vomiting, abdominal pain. He admitted to the hotel doctor that his cough has worsened over the past 7 days & he had coughed up blood on a couple of occasions. Chest x-ray showed consolidation in both lungs.

A. Atypical pneumonia
B. Bronchial carcinoma
C. Pleural effusion
D. Sarcoidosis
E. Fibrosing alveolitis
F. Pneumothorax
G. Lung abscess
H. Bronchiectasis
I. Bronchial asthma
J. COPD
K. Cystic fibrosis
A

A. Atypical pneumonia - Given this is the only pneumonia option on the list, this is an easy question, although the presentation is in line with an atypical organism. The most common atypical pneumonias are Mycoplasma, Legionella and Chlamydophila (Chlamydia). All can be treated with macrolides and are to some extent sensitive to fluoroquinolones and tetracyclines too, although these are contraindicated in pregnancy. Check local prescribing policies first.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
261
Q

A 40 year old alcoholic man who was treated for a chest infection one week previously, developed a productive cough, & a fever. He felt unwell. He lost weight during this period of illness & also coughed up blood several times. A chest x-ray showed a fluid level in the right lung.

A. Atypical pneumonia
B. Bronchial carcinoma
C. Pleural effusion
D. Sarcoidosis
E. Fibrosing alveolitis
F. Pneumothorax
G. Lung abscess
H. Bronchiectasis
I. Bronchial asthma
J. COPD
K. Cystic fibrosis
A

G. Lung abscess - A lung abscess is diagnosed on CXR with a cavitation with an air-fluid level in it. Preceding pneumonia which this patient gives a history of is a risk factor. Fever and a productive cough are common symptoms and treatment involves antibacterials and drainage/resection if unresponsive. Lung abscesses are commonly caused by aspiration of gastric contents.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
262
Q

A 20 year old man with recurrent episodes of chest infection & diarrhoea, which is difficult to flush away in the toilet. He developed a persistent cough with the production of sputum & blood. On examination his fingers are clubbed & in his chest there are low pitched inspiratory & expiratory crackles, plus some wheeze. He recalls being small for his age despite having a healthy appetite.

A. Atypical pneumonia
B. Bronchial carcinoma
C. Pleural effusion
D. Sarcoidosis
E. Fibrosing alveolitis
F. Pneumothorax
G. Lung abscess
H. Bronchiectasis
I. Bronchial asthma
J. COPD
K. Cystic fibrosis
A

K. Cystic fibrosis - CF is autosomal recessive and the mean age of death is around 40. There is currently no cure for this condition. The reccurent chest infections and greasy stools (fat malabsorption due to pancreatic insufficiency) should make you think of CF. A persistent cough which is productive should also raise suspicions. Examination findings here which raise your suspicion include clubbing and crackles on auscultation. Additionally, you may find nasal polyps and hepatomegaly and/or splenomegaly and a congenital absence of the vas deferens in males. There is also some failure to thrive with the patient being small for his age. The most conclusive diagnostic test is the sweat test which is positive if sweat chloride is >60mmol/L. Serum IRT from a heel prick blood spot allows screening of newborns. CF is a genetic condition with abnormal salt and water transport due to mutations in the CFTR (an apical anion channel). Heterozygotes generally do not demonstrate disease.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
263
Q

Mr Jones is a 60 year old man who smoked heavily over the past 40 years (up to 40 cigarettes per day). He gives a 4 week history of a cough with the production of sputum & blood, breathlessness chest pain & weight loss. On examination his fingers were clubbed & he had a ptosis in the left eye.

A. Atypical pneumonia
B. Bronchial carcinoma
C. Pleural effusion
D. Sarcoidosis
E. Fibrosing alveolitis
F. Pneumothorax
G. Lung abscess
H. Bronchiectasis
I. Bronchial asthma
J. COPD
K. Cystic fibrosis
A

B. Bronchial carcinoma - This patient is a heavy smoker with a history of respiratory signs and weight loss. The presentation is alluding to a pancoast tumour (most are non-small cell) in the left apex causing ipsilateral Horner’s syndrome (miosis, anhidrosis, ptosis and enophthalmos). A pancoast tumour can also affect the brachial plexus leading to wasting of the intrinsic muscles of the hand as well as a hoarse bovine cough due to compression of the recurrent laryngeal nerve. Initial investigation of bronchial carcinoma is with a CXR. Diagnosis relies on pathological confirmation from a tissue sample, often obtained from bronchoscopy. First line treatment aims at surgical resection if possible. Small cell lung cancer is treated with chemotherapy and is associated with SIADH and ectopic ACTH. Non-small cell lung cancer is more often associated with clubbing. Squamous cell carcinoma is associated with PTHrp release and is treated with radiotherapy. Adenocarcinomas are usually located peripherally in the lung and are more common in non-smokers although most cases are still associated with smoking. The paraneoplastic syndromes may include Lambert-Eaton myasthenic syndrome.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
264
Q

John is a 35 year old tennis player who complains of breathlessness after games. His sleep has been disturbed recently by coughing during the night. On examination he was a tall, thin but athletic looking young man. There were high-pitched expiratory wheeze in both lungs.

A. Atypical pneumonia
B. Bronchial carcinoma
C. Pleural effusion
D. Sarcoidosis
E. Fibrosing alveolitis
F. Pneumothorax
G. Lung abscess
H. Bronchiectasis
I. Bronchial asthma
J. COPD
K. Cystic fibrosis
A

I. Bronchial asthma - This patient has developed a primary pneumothorax. Primary pneumothoraces occur in young people without known lung conditions. The main investigation is a CXR and pneumothoraces are classified by the BTS as large (>2cm visible rim between the lung margin and the chest wall) or small (

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
265
Q

Mark is a 20 year old student who developed acute chest pain with breathlessness after working out at the gym. On examination he was breathless at rest. Expansion of the chest was restricted on one side with hyper-resonant percussion note.

A. Atypical pneumonia
B. Bronchial carcinoma
C. Pleural effusion
D. Sarcoidosis
E. Fibrosing alveolitis
F. Pneumothorax
G. Lung abscess
H. Bronchiectasis
I. Bronchial asthma
J. COPD
K. Cystic fibrosis
A

F. Pneumothorax - A tension pneumothorax shifts the trachea AWAY with hyper-resonance on affected side and reduced/absent breath sounds. A tracheal shift means this is a tension pneumothorax which needs immediate relief with a wide bore cannula inserted into the second intercostal space in the MCL.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
266
Q

A 20 year old man with cystic fibrosis presents to the chest clinic with haemoptysis. He has felt unwell for a fortnight with increased sputum production, fever & rigors. Gram stain of the sputum shows Gram-positive cocci in clusters.

A. Pulmonary metastases
B. Pulmonary embolism
C. Pulmonary abscess
D. Small cell carcinoma
E. Streptococcal pneumonia
F. Squamous cell carcinoma
G. Microscopic polyarteritis
H. Tuberculosis
I. Goodpasture’s disease
J. Myaesthenia gravis
K. Mesothelioma
A

C. Pulmonary abscess - A lung abscess is diagnosed on CXR with a cavitation with an air-fluid level in it. Preceding pneumonia which a patient with CF is at risk of is a risk factor. Of gram positive cocci, staphylococcus occurs in grape-like clusters (this patient) whereas streptococcus occurs in chains. It is worth learning your gram stains for the main organisms. It is worth noting that Staphylococcus aureus is coagulase positive (also Yersinia pestis which causes plague) and Streptoccus pneumoniae is optochin sensitive. Fever and a productive cough are common symptoms and treatment involves antibacterials and drainage/resection if unresponsive. Lung abscesses are commonly caused by aspiration of gastric contents.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
267
Q

A 45 year old doctor from Ethiopia with a 6 week history of fever, drenching night sweats and a cough. He is a heavy smoker. On examination he is thin and looks unwell. He has nicotine stained fingers. Dull to percusion at the right upper zone with reduced breath sounds.

A. Pneumothorax
B. Pneumonia
C. COPD
D. Carcinoma of Bronchus
E. Chest injury with rib fractures
F. Lung metastases
G. Rheumatoid arthritis
H. Pleural mesothelioma
I. Aspiration pneumonia
J. Pulmonary oedema
K. Sarcoidosis
L. Pulmonary embolus
M. Acute asthma
N. Pulmonary tuberculosis
A

N. Pulmonary TB - This is pulmonary TB. The patient is from an endemic area and has presented with fever, drenching night sweats and a cough. There is also anorexia and examination findings are consistent with post-primary TB with apical consolidation. CXR is the first line test to order. Classically, in primary disease there are middle and lower zone infiltrates. Post-primary TB usually involves apical changes with or without cavitation. However, recent students have indicated that both presentations are seen in both primary and post-primary TB. HIV positive patients tend to have a more atypical CXR including effusion, lower zone involvement and a miliary pattern.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
268
Q

25 year old female with acute onset of chills, fever, cough with brown phlegm for three days. On examination she appears toxic, temperture 40degrees C, reduced breath sounds, bronchial breathing and stony dullness left lung base.

A. Pneumothorax
B. Pneumonia
C. COPD
D. Carcinoma of Bronchus
E. Chest injury with rib fractures
F. Lung metastases
G. Rheumatoid arthritis
H. Pleural mesothelioma
I. Aspiration pneumonia
J. Pulmonary oedema
K. Sarcoidosis
L. Pulmonary embolus
M. Acute asthma
N. Pulmonary tuberculosis
A

B. Pneumonia - The rusty coloured phlegm is hinting at a pneumococcal pneumonia.The patient has presented with common symptoms of fever, chills and a cough. There may also be SOB, rigors and pleuritic chest pain. The most specific and sensitive test is a CXR (PA and lateral) and initial treatment of a CAP is empirical with antibiotics. Often diagnosis is made solely on history and examination findings. Bronchial breathing, reduced breath sounds and the presence of a left sided parapneumonic effusion all indicate a pneumonia. Management is guided by the patient’s CURB-65 score.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
269
Q

70 year old male ex-builder with progressive pain in his right chest, and with cough and SOB for a few months. CXR shows pleural thickening and right pleural effusion.

A. Pneumothorax
B. Pneumonia
C. COPD
D. Carcinoma of Bronchus
E. Chest injury with rib fractures
F. Lung metastases
G. Rheumatoid arthritis
H. Pleural mesothelioma
I. Aspiration pneumonia
J. Pulmonary oedema
K. Sarcoidosis
L. Pulmonary embolus
M. Acute asthma
N. Pulmonary tuberculosis
A

H. Pleural mesothelioma - An ex-builder is likely to have a history of asbestos exposure which is the principal risk factor for developing a malignant pleural mesothelioma. CXR shows the presence of a unilateral effusion and irregular pleural thickening. Most patients present with SOB and chest pain. There is a 20-40 year latency period between exposure to asbestos and development of malignancy. Hence, the typical patient presents between 60-80. A more invasive investigation is needed for a definitive diagnosis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
270
Q

A 70 year old female, heavy smoker, for several years who presents with weight loss, reduced appetite and haemoptysis for 1 month. On examination she is thin, afebrile and is clubbed. She has bronchial breathing right upper zone. Reduced breath sounds and dullness on right base. CXR shows right lung collapse with effusion

A. Pneumothorax
B. Pneumonia
C. COPD
D. Carcinoma of Bronchus
E. Chest injury with rib fractures
F. Lung metastases
G. Rheumatoid arthritis
H. Pleural mesothelioma
I. Aspiration pneumonia
J. Pulmonary oedema
K. Sarcoidosis
L. Pulmonary embolus
M. Acute asthma
N. Pulmonary tuberculosis
A

D. Carcinoma of bronchus - The history of smoking and weight loss combined with examination findings point to a bronchial carcinoma. First line treatment aims at surgical resection if possible. Small cell lung cancer is treated with chemotherapy and is associated with SIADH and ectopic ACTH. Non-small cell lung cancer is more often associated with clubbing. Squamous cell carcinoma is associated with PTHrp release and is treated with radiotherapy. Adenocarcinomas are usually located peripherally in the lung and are more common in non-smokers although most cases are still associated with smoking. The paraneoplastic syndromes may include Lambert-Eaton myasthenic syndrome.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
271
Q

A 50 year old Asian diabetic woman is admitted with increasing shortness of breath and ankle swelling. ECG shows inverted T waves in levels I, AVL and V4-6. Upper lobe blood diversion and bilateral pleural effusions are found on chest X-ray.

A. Pneumothorax
B. Pneumonia
C. COPD
D. Carcinoma of Bronchus
E. Chest injury with rib fractures
F. Lung metastases
G. Rheumatoid arthritis
H. Pleural mesothelioma
I. Aspiration pneumonia
J. Pulmonary oedema
K. Sarcoidosis
L. Pulmonary embolus
M. Acute asthma
N. Pulmonary tuberculosis
A

J. Pulmonary oedema - CXR findings here are consistent with pulmonary oedema. Pulmonary vascular redistribution to the upper zones, Kerley B lines, an increased CTR (cardiomegaly) and pleural effusion may be seen. The patient is also in CCF with evidence of LV dysfunction (SOB) and RV dysfunction (ankle swelling).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
272
Q

A 10 year old boy presents to A&E one winter following a school P.E. lesson with a difficulty in breathing and an audible wheeze.

A. TB
B. Emphysema
C. Bronchitis
D. Pleural effusion
E. Pneumonia
F. Lung Tumour
G. Pulmonary embolism
H. Asthma
I. Pneumothorax
J. Pulmonary fibrosis
K. Sarcoidosis
A

H. Asthma - This is likely to be asthma, exacerbated by the cold air and exercise. Treatment is in this case based on paediatric guidelines which differs from that of adult asthma. Diagnosis is supported by PEFR variation of at least 20% over 3 days in a week over several weeks or an increase of at least 20% to treatment.

Stepwise treatment for adult asthma (BTS guidelines) is outlined here as this is most commonly examined. Step 1: SABA PRN, Step 2: Plus low-dose inhaled corticosteroids (ICS) , Step 3: Plus LABA, Step 4: Increase dose of ICS or add LTRA, SR theophylline or beta agonist tablet, Step 5: Daily steroid tablet and maintain ICS with specialist care.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
273
Q

A 24 year old accountant presented to his GP with a 2 week history of tiredness and a persistant cough and complained of “not being able to complete his normal gym routine”. On examination he was pyrexic, had decreased lung expansion and increased vocal resonance and auscultation revealed bronchial breathing.

A. TB
B. Emphysema
C. Bronchitis
D. Pleural effusion
E. Pneumonia
F. Lung Tumour
G. Pulmonary embolism
H. Asthma
I. Pneumothorax
J. Pulmonary fibrosis
K. Sarcoidosis
A

E. Pneumonia - This patient has pneumonia. Symptoms include chills, fever, cough, SOB and pleuritic chest pain. Examination findings are consistent with his diagnosis. A CXR is the most specific and sensitive test available and antibiotics are indicated.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
274
Q

A 73 year old lady, presented to the respiratory team after a 2 week stay in hospital following a stroke. She was breathless at rest with a central chest pain and was coughing up blood.

A. TB
B. Emphysema
C. Bronchitis
D. Pleural effusion
E. Pneumonia
F. Lung Tumour
G. Pulmonary embolism
H. Asthma
I. Pneumothorax
J. Pulmonary fibrosis
K. Sarcoidosis
A

G. Pulmonary embolism - Patients with a high clinical suspicion of PE should be anticoagulated while waiting a definitive diagnosis unless contraindicated. The underlying pathophysiology is based on Virchow’s triad. SOB and chest pain are common symptoms and there may also be haemoptysis. Strong risk factors include DVT, obesity, surgery in the past 2 months, prolonged bed rest, malignancy, previous VTE, pregnancy and the thrombophilias such as factor V Leiden. ECG may be normal, or may show tachycardia, new RAD, new RBBB or the classical S wave in I, Q wave with T inversion in III. Various clinical probability scores exist for PE and D-dimer can be used to exclude PE as a diagnosis. The study of choice is a CTPA with direct visualisation of the thrombus. If there is a contraindication to a CT scan such as contrast allergy or pregnancy, then a V/Q scan is indicated. If a V/Q scan is not possible, alternatives such as MRA can be requested. It is worth noting that in patients with cardiopulmonary disease, these tests may not be accurate. A TTE can also be used to detect RV strain seen with PE.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
275
Q

A 55 year old male smoker presents to her GP with a 6 month history of a persistant dry cough and unexplained weight loss. On examination she was jaundiced with an enlarged liver.

A. TB
B. Emphysema
C. Bronchitis
D. Pleural effusion
E. Pneumonia
F. Lung Tumour
G. Pulmonary embolism
H. Asthma
I. Pneumothorax
J. Pulmonary fibrosis
K. Sarcoidosis
A

F. Lung tumour - This is a smoker with respiratory complaints and unexplained weight loss pointing to malignancy. The hepatomegaly is likely to be nodular due to hepatic secondaries from a primary lung cancer and this hepatic dysfunction has caused this patient’s jaundice. First line treatment aims at surgical resection if possible. Small cell lung cancer is treated with chemotherapy and is associated with SIADH and ectopic ACTH. Non-small cell lung cancer is more often associated with clubbing. Squamous cell carcinoma is associated with PTHrp release and is treated with radiotherapy. Adenocarcinomas are usually located peripherally in the lung and are more common in non-smokers although most cases are still associated with smoking.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
276
Q

A Nigerian 26 year old female presents to her doctor with a dry cough and a painful and strange red left shin. A subsequent chest X-ray reveals bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy.

A. TB
B. Emphysema
C. Bronchitis
D. Pleural effusion
E. Pneumonia
F. Lung Tumour
G. Pulmonary embolism
H. Asthma
I. Pneumothorax
J. Pulmonary fibrosis
K. Sarcoidosis
A

K. Sarcoidosis - Sarcoidosis is a chronic multisystem disease with an unknown aetiology. Lung involvement is very common. The strange red left shin is erythema nodosum and are tender erythematous nodules. Lupus pernio is another typical skin manifestation of sarcoidosis presenting with indurated plaques with discoloration on the face. CXR will typically show bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy and CXR findings are used in the staging of disease. Additionally, serum calcium and ACE levels may be raised. A transbronchial biopsy is essential for diagnosis in most cases and shows the presence of non-caseating granulomas. Black people have a higher lifetime risk of sarcoidosis, as do those of Scandinavian origin. The mainstay of treatment for severe disease involves systemic corticosteroids.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
277
Q

A 48 year old male pharmeceutical worker presents with difficulty sleeping. On further questioning you find out that it is due to coughing all night. He is also suffering chest tightness, breathlessness and you can detect a wheeze when he talks to you. Although his wife notes that he is not as bad on the weekend.

A. Cystic fibrosis
B. Pancreatitis
C. Tuberculosis
D. Emphysema
E. Asthma
F. Pneumonia
G. Chronic bronchitis
H. Bronchiectasis
I. Lung cancer
J. HIV
K. Lung abscess
A

E. Asthma - This patient has signs and symptoms of asthma. Diagnosis is supported by PEFR variation of at least 20% over 3 days in a week over several weeks or an increase of at least 20% to treatment. Stepwise treatment is based on BTS guidelines:

Step 1: SABA PRN, Step 2: Plus low-dose inhaled corticosteroids (ICS) , Step 3: Plus LABA, Step 4: Increase dose of ICS or add LTRA, SR theophylline or beta agonist tablet, Step 5: Daily steroid tablet and maintain ICS with specialist care.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
278
Q

A 26 year old Italian nightclub DJ presents with abdominal pain. On enquiry he has been unwell with a productive cough, fever and breathlessness. On examination his heart rate is 110bpm and his blood pressure is 110/75. His abdomen is soft, non tender.

A. Cystic fibrosis
B. Pancreatitis
C. Tuberculosis
D. Emphysema
E. Asthma
F. Pneumonia
G. Chronic bronchitis
H. Bronchiectasis
I. Lung cancer
J. HIV
K. Lung abscess
A

F. Pneumonia - This is basal pneumonia which can present with upper abdominal pain. The symptoms this patient gives are consistent with pneumonia. Treatment is guided by the CURB-65 score. A CXR is the most specific and sensitive test available and antibiotics are indicated. CXR may show airspace shadowing with air bronchograms. Make sure you can spot consolidation on a CXR.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
279
Q

A 65 year old American woman suffering from chronic bronchitis presents with weight loss, worsening of cough and red blood in sputum. She recently gave up smoking after being a heavy smoker since she was a teenager.

A. Cystic fibrosis
B. Pancreatitis
C. Tuberculosis
D. Emphysema
E. Asthma
F. Pneumonia
G. Chronic bronchitis
H. Bronchiectasis
I. Lung cancer
J. HIV
K. Lung abscess
A

I. Lung cancer - Weight loss combined with worsening respirtory symptoms and the past history of smoking point to malignancy. First line treatment aims at surgical resection if possible. Small cell lung cancer is treated with chemotherapy and is associated with SIADH and ectopic ACTH. Non-small cell lung cancer is more often associated with clubbing. Squamous cell carcinoma is associated with PTHrp release and is treated with radiotherapy. Adenocarcinomas are usually located peripherally in the lung and are more common in non-smokers although most cases are still associated with smoking.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
280
Q

A 3yr old Caucasian child is brought into clinic by his mother who is concerned about his cough. Looking through his notes you find out he has a history of chest infection. However the only medication he is currently taking is a steroid cream for his eczema. You discover that he opens his bowels twice a day and has offensive loose stools. On examination his height is on the 91st centile and his weight is below the 25th centile.

A. Cystic fibrosis
B. Pancreatitis
C. Tuberculosis
D. Emphysema
E. Asthma
F. Pneumonia
G. Chronic bronchitis
H. Bronchiectasis
I. Lung cancer
J. HIV
K. Lung abscess
A

A. Cystic Fibrosis - This infant has presented with cystic fibrosis which is an autosomal recessive condition characterised by a mutation in the CFTR gene on chromosome 7 (delta-F508). In this case there is failure to thrive, recurrent chest infections and evidence of pancreatic insufficiency (steatorrhoea). The most conclusive diagnostic test is the sweat test which is pisitive if sweat chloride is >60mmol/L. Serum IRT from a heel prick blood spot allows screening of newborns. CF is a genetic condition with abnormal salt and water transport due to mutations in the CFTR (an apical anion channel). Heterozygotes generally do not demonstrate disease.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
281
Q

A 37 year old Malaysian female presents with a productive cough and purulent sputum and night sweats. What concerns her most is the bright red blood which is often also in the sputum.

A. Cystic fibrosis
B. Pancreatitis
C. Tuberculosis
D. Emphysema
E. Asthma
F. Pneumonia
G. Chronic bronchitis
H. Bronchiectasis
I. Lung cancer
J. HIV
K. Lung abscess
A

C. Tuberculosis - It is important to have a high level of suspicion when evaluating patients with risk factors who present with suggestive symptoms. Night sweats, fever, malaise, cough, haemoptysis and erythema nodosum are all suggestive. Other key risk factors for pulmonary TB include exposure to infection and returning from or being born in a high-risk region such as Asia, Africa and Latin America. If TB is suspected, the patient should be placed in isolation and a CXR obtained with 3 sputum samples cultured for AFB being the gold standard of diagnosis. Culture takes several weeks so sputum smears will be done before culture results are known. Interferon-gamma release assays (IGRAs) are now used by some hospitals to rapidly determine a patient’s TB status. All patients who have TB should be tested for HIV within 2 months of diagnosis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
282
Q

A 35 year old man presents to A&E with a short history of haemoptysis & breathlessness. His pulse is 125bpm & he has recently travelled to Australia. Chest examination is unremarkable. He is allergic to contrast agents.

A. Sputum cultures
B. Bronchoscopy
C. History only
D. D-dimer
E. CTPA
F. Chest x-ray
G. MRA
H. Lung function tests
I. ABG
J. Clotting screen
K. V/Q scan
L. CT head
A

K. V/Q scan - This patient has a PE. The study of choice is a CTPA with direct visualisation of the thrombus. If there is a contraindication to a CT scan such as contrast allergy (in this case) or pregnancy, then a V/Q scan is indicated. If a V/Q scan is not possible, alternatives such as MRA can be requested. It is worth noting that in patients with cardiopulmonary disease, these tests may not be accurate. A TTE can also be used to detect RV strain seen with PE. Patients with a high clinical suspicion of PE should be anticoagulated while waiting a definitive diagnosis unless contraindicated. The underlying pathophysiology is based on Virchow’s triad. SOB and chest pain are common symptoms and there may also be haemoptysis. Strong risk factors include DVT, obesity, surgery in the past 2 months, prolonged bed rest, malignancy (which this patient has), previous VTE, pregnancy and the thrombophilias such as factor V Leiden.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
283
Q

A 30 year old Indian lady who has recently returned from a 4 month trip to Delhi complains of a cough & haemoptysis & night sweats over the last month.

A. Sputum cultures
B. Bronchoscopy
C. History only
D. D-dimer
E. CTPA
F. Chest x-ray
G. MRA
H. Lung function tests
I. ABG
J. Clotting screen
K. V/Q scan
L. CT head
A

A. Sputum cultures - This sounds like TB. The patient should be placed in isolation and a CXR obtained with 3 sputum samples cultured for AFB being the gold standard of diagnosis. Treatment is with anti-TB medication: generally 2 months of rifampicin, isoniazid (given with pyridoxine to prevent associated neuropathy), pyrazinamide and ethambutol followed by 4 months of rifampicin and isoniazid alone. Treatment of MDR TB is more complicated and involves longer treatment with more drugs. Note that CNS TB requires 12 months of treatment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
284
Q

A 19 year old man who has been intubated due to a recent RTA is recovering well & is extubated. He complains of coughing up a small amount of blood streaked phlegm.

A. Sputum cultures
B. Bronchoscopy
C. History only
D. D-dimer
E. CTPA
F. Chest x-ray
G. MRA
H. Lung function tests
I. ABG
J. Clotting screen
K. V/Q scan
L. CT head
A

C. History only - This is a result of intubation which has caused some iatrogenic trauma to this patient’s upper airway.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
285
Q

A 55 year old lawyer who has had a chronic cough for 3 months complains of 1 episode of haemoptysis. She is a heavy smoker (about 40/day) & has experienced some recent weight loss.

A. Sputum cultures
B. Bronchoscopy
C. History only
D. D-dimer
E. CTPA
F. Chest x-ray
G. MRA
H. Lung function tests
I. ABG
J. Clotting screen
K. V/Q scan
L. CT head
A

B. Bronchoscopy - This sounds like bronchial carcinoma from the history of smoking, respiratory complaints and weight loss. Initial investigation of bronchial carcinoma is with a CXR but definitive diagnosis relies on pathological confirmation from a tissue sample, often obtained from bronchoscopy. During bronchoscopy, endobronchial masses can be biopsied and washings/alveolar lavage can also be performed for cytological analysis. Trans-thoracic needle aspiration may be needed for peripheral lesions that cannot be reached by bronchoscopy. First line treatment aims at surgical resection if possible.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
286
Q

A 40 year old man complains of breathlessness & coughing up blood for 3 days. He mentions that prior to this he had fallen onto the corner of a table. Breath sounds seem slightly reduced on the right had side.

A. Sputum cultures
B. Bronchoscopy
C. History only
D. D-dimer
E. CTPA
F. Chest x-ray
G. MRA
H. Lung function tests
I. ABG
J. Clotting screen
K. V/Q scan
L. CT head
A

F. Chest x-ray - This is chest trauma which has obviously caused some damage. This will need to be visualised by performing a chest XR. A CT scan may also be necessary. There is a chance of atelectasis given this patient’s history and findings on examination.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
287
Q

A young 23 year old allergic atopic asthmatic woman becomes acutely breathless. She has just taken an Aspirin for headache. Her neck is swollen, eyes puffy, & her breathing is noisy, with marked wheeze throughout the lung fields.

A. Oral prednisolone
B. 24% continuous oxygen
C. Long acting beta agonist
D. Beta agonist via metered dose inhaler
E. Antibiotic reserve
F. Influenza immunisation
G. Intravenous aminophylline
H. 40% continuous oxygen
I. Beta agonist via nebuliser
J. Intravenous hydrocortisone
K. Amoxycillin intravenously
L. Intramuscular adrenaline
A

L. Intramuscular adrenaline - There is a sudden onset of respiratory (and cardiovascular) complaints with the recently given aspirin tablet. This patient is having an anaphylactic reaction and the airway needs to be promptly secured and prompt treatment started with adrenaline. IM adrenaline must not be delayed and the anterolateral thigh is the preferred location, with repeated doses as necessary every 10 minutes or so. A 1:1000 solution is used of 0.3-0.5mg adrenaline. Fluid replacement with IV saline is also indicated to correct the intravascular volume redistribution.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
288
Q

A 70 year old man has been newly diagnosed with stage I COPD and has been given inhaled salbutamol PRN and has agreed to stop smoking. What additional measure is needed?

A. Oral prednisolone
B. 24% continuous oxygen
C. Long acting beta agonist
D. Beta agonist via metered dose inhaler
E. Antibiotic reserve
F. Influenza immunisation
G. Intravenous aminophylline
H. 40% continuous oxygen
I. Beta agonist via nebuliser
J. Intravenous hydrocortisone
K. Amoxycillin intravenously
L. Intramuscular adrenaline
A

F. Influenza immunisation - The GOLD guidelines published in April 2010 provide a framework for a stepwise approach to treating COPD. Stages of COPD are based on predicted FEV1. For all stages of COPD, influenza vaccination is given yearly and pneumococcal vaccine is given every 5 years. Long term oxygen is only added if there is chronic respiratory failure in stage IV disease. Stage II involves the addition of long acting bronchodilators and rehabilitation. Stage III involves adding inhaled GCs if there are repeated exacerbations.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
289
Q

A 64 year old man has become acutely breathless over the last 4 days, with a productive cough, green sputum & chest tightness. He is a longstanding smoker. Clinically he is hypoxic, with tachycardia, tachypnoea, & central cyanosis. His ABG are as follows: pH 7.35, PaO2 6.7kPa, PaCO2 7.8kPa. He has been given nebulised bronchodilators & intravenous antibiotics & steroids.

A. Oral prednisolone
B. 24% continuous oxygen
C. Long acting beta agonist
D. Beta agonist via metered dose inhaler
E. Antibiotic reserve
F. Influenza immunisation
G. Intravenous aminophylline
H. 40% continuous oxygen
I. Beta agonist via nebuliser
J. Intravenous hydrocortisone
K. Amoxycillin intravenously
L. Intramuscular adrenaline
A

B. 24% continuous oxygen - This patient with COPD is having an acute exacerbation. He is being treated accordingly but will need supplemental oxygen as a result of his ABG results. >8kPa is an acceptable level of arterial oxygenation or SaO2 >90%. Ceftriaxone is an acceptable antibiotic. High risk individuals should get tazocin or meropenem (especially if pseudomonas is suspected). Check local antibiotic prescribing policies. Chronic oxygen therapy is indicated for patients with PaO2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
290
Q

A 35 year old man with known asthma who takes low dose inhaled steroids has been using his salbutamol inhaler 8-9 times a day over the last month. He has nocturnal cough & a tight chest early in the morning. There are no signs of infection & his environment hasn’t changed. He is a non-smoker & is allergic to house dust mite. He is physically active ie his peak flow diary shows peak flow of around 85% of expected. What would be the next step in the management of this patient?

A. Oral prednisolone
B. 24% continuous oxygen
C. Long acting beta agonist
D. Beta agonist via metered dose inhaler
E. Antibiotic reserve
F. Influenza immunisation
G. Intravenous aminophylline
H. 40% continuous oxygen
I. Beta agonist via nebuliser
J. Intravenous hydrocortisone
K. Amoxycillin intravenously
L. Intramuscular adrenaline
A

C. Long acting beta agonist - This question requires knowledge of stepwise BTS treatment guidelines for adults: Step 1: SABA PRN, Step 2: Plus low-dose inhaled corticosteroids (ICS) , Step 3: Plus LABA, Step 4: Increase dose of ICS or add LTRA, SR theophylline or beta agonist tablet, Step 5: Daily steroid tablet and maintain ICS with specialist care. This patient is still symptomatic on Step 2, so has to be moved up to Step 3. The rest of the question such as his HDM allergy is not particularly relevant in answering this question.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
291
Q

A 9 year old girl attends her GP surgery as an emergency with wheezing, difficulty in breathing & cough. Her PEFR is 250l/min, expected PEFR 500. There is no sign of infection on her chest examination. She is admitted to hospital and given inhaled salbutamol although shows an incomplete response. Which treatment should be given next?

A. Oral prednisolone
B. 24% continuous oxygen
C. Long acting beta agonist
D. Beta agonist via metered dose inhaler
E. Antibiotic reserve
F. Influenza immunisation
G. Intravenous aminophylline
H. 40% continuous oxygen
I. Beta agonist via nebuliser
J. Intravenous hydrocortisone
K. Amoxycillin intravenously
L. Intramuscular adrenaline
A

A. Oral prednisolone - Acute asthma exacerbation this time. Bear in mind that treatment guidelines differ for adults and children. The PEFR is 50% predicted making this a moderate exacerbation of asthma (40-69%). A mild exacerbation is defined by a PEFR of 70% of more of predicted whereas severe is defined as 26 to 39% with life-threatening falling under 25%. Note that these values are for children. For moderate exacerbations like this, an oral corticosteroid needs to be prescribed alongside inhaled SABA. If this were life-threatening or severe, then IV may be indicated. It is worth knowing the symptoms and signs of mild, moderate and severe/life threatening asthma. The treatment guidelines that you need to familiarise yourself with tend to be for adults.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
292
Q

A 70 year old male smoker with a 5 year history of productive cough presents with breathlessness. On examination you find hyperinflation & diminished breath sounds when examining the chest.

A. Mitral stenosis
B. Pneumonia
C. COPD
D. Pneumothorax
E. Anaemia
F. Left ventricular failure
G. Thyrotoxicosis
H. Epiglottitis
I. Asthma
J. Anxiety
K. Aspirin poisoning
L. Pulmonary embolus
M. Mitral regurgitation
A

C. COPD - Smoking is the most important risk factor, accounting for 90% of COPD. COPD has an insidious onset and usually presents in older people with a history of cough, wheeze and SOB. Patients with COPD are at a higher risk of infections and are vaccinated against influenza annually and pneumococcal pneumonia every 5 years. Spirometry is the gold standard for diagnosis, with FEV1/FVC ratio

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
293
Q

A 40 year old widowed female presents with a 3 week history of shortness of breath. She also complains of chronic fatigue. On examination she is pale with a pulse of 120.

A. Mitral stenosis
B. Pneumonia
C. COPD
D. Pneumothorax
E. Anaemia
F. Left ventricular failure
G. Thyrotoxicosis
H. Epiglottitis
I. Asthma
J. Anxiety
K. Aspirin poisoning
L. Pulmonary embolus
M. Mitral regurgitation
A

E. Anaemia - Anaemia is defined by haemoglobin concentration (

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
294
Q

An 85 year old male presents with shortness of breath associated with confusion. On examination there is decreased expansion on the left side & the patient with respiratory rate of 35/min.

A. Mitral stenosis
B. Pneumonia
C. COPD
D. Pneumothorax
E. Anaemia
F. Left ventricular failure
G. Thyrotoxicosis
H. Epiglottitis
I. Asthma
J. Anxiety
K. Aspirin poisoning
L. Pulmonary embolus
M. Mitral regurgitation
A

B. Pneumonia - This patient has pneumonia. Symptoms include chills, fever, cough, SOB and pleuritic chest pain. Examination findings are consistent with his diagnosis. A CXR is the most specific and sensitive test available and antibiotics are indicated.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
295
Q

A 75 year old recently widowed male smoker with a history of angina presents with shortness of breath. He has also vomited & complains of a ringing in his ears. On examination the patient has a BP of 80/50mmHg & fine crackles at both lung bases.

A. Mitral stenosis
B. Pneumonia
C. COPD
D. Pneumothorax
E. Anaemia
F. Left ventricular failure
G. Thyrotoxicosis
H. Epiglottitis
I. Asthma
J. Anxiety
K. Aspirin poisoning
L. Pulmonary embolus
M. Mitral regurgitation
A

K. Aspirin poisoning - This patient has angina so probably has a stash of aspirin. Tinnitis is common in the early stages of acute salicylate poisoning and reflects CNS toxicity. There may also be deafness and both are reversible. GIT decontamination should be considered as an adjunct on arrival to A&E and activated charcoal can be given. The mainstay of treatment is alkaline diuresis induced by an infusion of sodium bicarbonate. In cases of severe poisoning, it is still started as a bridge to haemodialysis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
296
Q

An 80 year old female with a history of rheumatic fever in childhood & palpitations presents with shortness of breath. On examination he has an irregularly irregular pulse of 120bpm & loud first heart sound.

A. Mitral stenosis
B. Pneumonia
C. COPD
D. Pneumothorax
E. Anaemia
F. Left ventricular failure
G. Thyrotoxicosis
H. Epiglottitis
I. Asthma
J. Anxiety
K. Aspirin poisoning
L. Pulmonary embolus
M. Mitral regurgitation
A

A. Mitral stenosis - Practically every single case of mitral stenosis is caused by rheumatic heart disease. The major criteria for rheumatic fever can be remember by CASES: carditis, arthritis, Sydenham’s chorea, erythema marginatum and subcutaneous nodules. The process tends to also cause regurgitation. Mitral stenosis is characteristically a grade 1-2 low pitch murmur heard in mid-diastole which has a rumbling nature and there is no radiation. There can be an associated malar flush, tapping apex beat and a diastolic thrill palpable at the apex, in the 5th intercostal space in the MCL. The first heart sound is also characteristically loud and often this is the most striking feature on ascultation. It is a difficult murmur to pick up so if you are ever asked at this stage to spot this murmur, it will most likely be based on the loud S1. Mitral stenosis is associated with AF caused by LA enlargement (seen by the irregularly irregular pulse).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
297
Q

A 70 year old smoker who has a 6 week history of epigastric discomfort worse on eating. He has lost his appetite as he has a sense of fullness all the time & has lost 3 kilos in weigh. Abdominal examination is unremarkable.

A. History only
B. Colonoscopy
C. Ultrasound abdomen
D. H. pylori antibodies
E. Stool examination for pathogens
F. Barium meal
G. Full blood count, ESR, creatinine, electrolytes & liver function tests
H. Gastroscopy
I.Barium enema
J.Serum Amylase
A

H. Gastroscopy - Weight loss is one of the most common presenting symptoms in patients with gastric cancer. Epigastric pain is present in about 80% and may resemble that of a gastric ulcer. Although commonly mentioned in EMQs, lymphadenopathy is an uncommon presentation. On examination there may be the presence of a left supraclavicular node (Virchow’s node), a periumbilical nodule (Sister Mary Joseph’s nodule) or a left axillary nodule (Irish node). These are rare findings. A mass may be palpable in advanced disease. More proximal tumours can present with dysphagia. Acanthosis nigricans, a black velvety rash, may also be present.

Strong risk factors include pernicious anaemia, Helicobacter pylori and the consumption of N-nitroso compounds found in cured meats. The peak incidence occurs between 50-70 and men are twice as likely to have gastric cancer. Most are adenocarcinomas. The first test to order for suspected gastric malignancy is an urgent upper GI endoscopy with biopsy of the lesion. The mainstay of treatment is surgical resection unless there is evidence of metastatic disease.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
298
Q

A 45 year old unmarried labourer who increasingly severe central abdominal pain over the last 3 hours. The pain radiates through to his back & makes him vomit. He has no previous history. On examination is cold & sweaty, pulse 120, BP 90/70, & has guarding over his whole abdomen.

A. History only
B. Colonoscopy
C. Ultrasound abdomen
D. H. pylori antibodies
E. Stool examination for pathogens
F. Barium meal
G. Full blood count, ESR, creatinine, electrolytes & liver function tests
H. Gastroscopy
I.Barium enema
J.Serum Amylase
A

J. Serum Amylase - This patient has acute pancreatitis. He has vomited and is describing mid-epigastric pain radiating around to the back. This pain is classically relieved if the patient curls up and is worse with movement. This patient also vomited too. Complicated haemorrhagic pancreatitis may exhibit Cullen’s sign, Grey-Turner’s sign and Fox’s sign. Make sure you know what these are and you are familiar with the causes of acute pancreatitis. Those caused by hypocalcaemia may display Chvostek’s sign and Trousseau’s sign.

Key to diagnosis is serum amylase or lipase levels which are massively elevated. Prognostic criteria are outlined in Ranson’s criteria applied on admission and after 48 hours, or the modified Glasgow score which you can find in your Oxford Handbook. An abdominal CT is however the most sensitive and specific study and findings may include enlargement of the pancreas with irregular contours, necrosis, pseudocysts and peripancreatic fat obliteration.

For interest, urinary trypsinogen-2 is now considered a better screening test than amylase but is not currently clinically used.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
299
Q

A 20 year old secretary who complains of abdominal discomfort & bloating over the last 3 months. She also has intermittent diarrhoea, but when she opens her bowels, her symptoms are relieved. There is no blood or mucus in her stools. Abdominal & rectal examination is normal.

A. History only
B. Colonoscopy
C. Ultrasound abdomen
D. H. pylori antibodies
E. Stool examination for pathogens
F. Barium meal
G. Full blood count, ESR, creatinine, electrolytes & liver function tests
H. Gastroscopy
I.Barium enema
J.Serum Amylase
A

A. History only - The intermittent diarrhoea, dyspepsia and bloating without symptoms suggestive of IBD make IBS a more likely diagnosis. IBS is a chronic condition with abdominal pain associated with bowel dysfunction and is a diagnosis of exclusion. The pain or discomfort may be relieved by defecation, as in this case. Examination is usually unremarkable and the diagnosis is based on the patient’s history in line with the Rome Criteria. If the patient presents with any worrying symptoms, then these will warrant a more thorough investigation. Treatment depends on the patient’s predominant symptoms. Antispasmodics relieve abdominal pain or discomfort but do not affect bowel habit. Examples include peppermint oil and dicycloverine. Laxatives can also be used such as lactulose. Lifestyle and dietary modifications combined with reassurance remain the 1st line intervention for functional bowel disease. IBS is linked with stressful jobs such as working as a secretary and there is a female/male ratio of 2:1.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
300
Q

A 50 year old housewife & mother of 5 has sudden severe epigastric pain that radiates to the back on the right & has vomited. She puts it down to her recent meal of fish & chips, as she usually never eats fatty food. Examination is somewhat difficult as she is obese but you think she has some guarding over the epigastium and right hypochondrium.

A. History only
B. Colonoscopy
C. Ultrasound abdomen
D. H. pylori antibodies
E. Stool examination for pathogens
F. Barium meal
G. Full blood count, ESR, creatinine, electrolytes & liver function tests
H. Gastroscopy
I.Barium enema
J.Serum Amylase
A

C.Ultrasound abdomen - Cholecystitis is acute GB inflammation caused by an obstruction at the cystic duct. It occurs as a major complication of gallstones and classically presents with RUQ pain and fever. Gallstones in EMQs classically involves the Fs (Fat, Forty, Female, Fertile, Fair). USS is the definitive initial investigation. HIDA scanning and MRI may help if the diagnosis remains unclear. Treatment is with cholecystectomy. Make sure you know the difference between ascending cholangitis, cholecystitis and biliary colic.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
301
Q

A 25 year old previously well man who has a 3 day history of abdominal cramps diarrhoea with bloody stools 5 or 6 times a day. Examination shows a soft but tender abdomen.

A. History only
B. Colonoscopy
C. Ultrasound abdomen
D. H. pylori antibodies
E. Stool examination for pathogens
F. Barium meal
G. Full blood count, ESR, creatinine, electrolytes & liver function tests
H. Gastroscopy
I.Barium enema
J.Serum Amylase
A

E. Stool examination for pathogens - This patient has most likely has infectious diarrhoea. There is a short history in a previous well person. This man has probably eaten something dodgy like a kebab. Do you know the organisms that can cause bloody diarrhoea? Think of the organisms which cause bloody diarrhoea such as EHEC. The mainstay of treatment is rehydration and supportive therapy. Antibiotics may be indicated, particularly in severe cases. The diagnosis would be confirmed by stool examination.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
302
Q

An 82 year old female presents with a large lump which appears at the anus after defecation, & spontaneously on coughing. The lump is uncomfortable & the patient has tenesmus. She also has incontinence & has noticed mucus PR.

A. Irritable bowel syndrome
B. Pilonidal sinus
C. Haemorrhoids
D. Inflammatory bowel disease
E. Abscess
F. Prolapse
G. Fissure
H. Fistula
I. Intussusception
A

F. Prolapse - Rectal prolapse tends to present as a mass protruding from the rectum, especially with straining on the toilet. This may be associated with mucous or blood-stained discharge, pain and even faecal incontinence. In contrast, haemorrhoids tend to present with painless PR bleeding or perianal pain with a tender mass in the area. This can be confirmed on examination. Tenesmus is the constant feeling of needing to pass stools, even if there is nothing to pass. It may also be a symptom of rectal carcinoma, and is caused by a SOL.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
303
Q

A 20 year old male presents with painful defecation which persists for 30 mins afterwards. The stool is smeared with blood, & he has noticed recent constipation.

A. Irritable bowel syndrome
B. Pilonidal sinus
C. Haemorrhoids
D. Inflammatory bowel disease
E. Abscess
F. Prolapse
G. Fissure
H. Fistula
I. Intussusception
A

G. Fissure - This patient has an anal fissure. This causes severe pain on defecation and may continue for 1 to 2 hours. A small amount of fresh blood is often passed on the stool. Hard stools is a strong risk factor and this patient’s constipation will likely be the cause. Opiates are associated with constipation and subsequently anal fissures too and fissures may also occur in the third trimester of pregnancy or after delivery. Initial treatment is with topical GTN or diltiazem along with supportive measures such a high fibre diet. Resistant or chronic fissures may benefit from surgical measures or botulinum toxin.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
304
Q

A 50 year old female presents with a purulent discharge from the anal region & has recurrent episodes of pain, which is intense & throbbing. On examination there was pruritis ani.

A. Irritable bowel syndrome
B. Pilonidal sinus
C. Haemorrhoids
D. Inflammatory bowel disease
E. Abscess
F. Prolapse
G. Fissure
H. Fistula
I. Intussusception
A

E. Abscess - Typically, this presents with perianal pain. The location is important and affects management and diagnosis. If it is inter-sphincteric, then anaesthesia tends to be required to examine the rectal passage adequately for diagnosis – the pain tends to be so bad that a DRE is impossible otherwise. Abscesses found above levator ani may minic an abdominal condition. CT/MRI may be needed to establish the diagnosis. Risk factors include conditions like Crohn’s and anal fistulae (a complication of an abscess can also be a fistula). This accounts for the patient’s symptoms such as pruritis ani. A pilodinal abscess would be difficult to distinguish from an anorectal abscess on history alone but are usually located in the inter-gluteal region and often have a sinus tract in the midline. If the two are difficult to distinguish (such as if the patient cannot be examined), then MRI or CT of the pelvis may be used. Treatment involves drainage of the abscess surgically and the fistula, if present, can also be managed with a fistulotomy or seton insertion. Some patients will also get adjunctive antibiotics, such as the elderly and diabetics.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
305
Q

A 40 year old male presents with PR bleeding & a palpable lump from anus, with associated mucus discharge. There is blood splashed around lavatory pan

A. Irritable bowel syndrome
B. Pilonidal sinus
C. Haemorrhoids
D. Inflammatory bowel disease
E. Abscess
F. Prolapse
G. Fissure
H. Fistula
I. Intussusception
A

C. Haemorrhoids - Haemorrhoids are vascular rich cushions in the anal canal and presents, typically, as painless bright PR bleeding or with sudden onset pain in the area associated with a palpable mass. Pruritus ani is common and there is often perianal pain or discomfort. Diagnosis is made visually. Grade 1 is limited to within the anal canal. Grade 2 protrudes but spontaneously reduces when the patient stops straining. Grade 3 protrudes and reduces fully on manual pressure. Grade 4 is irreducible. Treatment includes fibre, ligation, photocoagulation, sclerotherapy or surgical haemorrhoidectomy. Haemorrhoidectomy is the treatment of choice of choice for patients with grade 4 haemorrhoids or for any patient who has failed with more conservative treatment such as sclerotherapy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
306
Q

A 70 year old male who presents with significant weight loss & progressive painless jaundice. Ultrasound demonstrates a dilated biliary system down to the head of the pancreas.

A. Cholecystitis
B. Hepatitis B
C. Infectious mononucleosis
D. Drug induced hepatitis
E. Sickle cell anaemia
F. Carcinoma tail of pancreas
G. Autoimmune hepatitis
H. Gallstone in common bile duct
I. Ascending cholangitis
J. Hepatitis A
K. Cirrhosis
L. Carcinoma head of pancreas
A

L. Carcinoma head of pancreas - Pancreatic cancer (of the head) typically presents with painless obstructive jaundice and weight loss and generally presents late. Whipple’s procedure or Traverso-Longmire procedure (pancreaticoduodenectomy) offers the only hope of a cure but only a small minority are elegible for these procedures. The first tests to order are an abdominal USS and LFTs. Note Courvoisier’s law: Jaundice and a palpable painless gallbladder is unlikely to be caused by gallstones. The tumour marker for pancreatic cancer is CA19-9 which is useful in preoperative staging.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
307
Q

A 46 year old sales rep has recently lost his job & presents with jaundice & ascites. Ultrasound of the biliary tract is normal.

A. Cholecystitis
B. Hepatitis B
C. Infectious mononucleosis
D. Drug induced hepatitis
E. Sickle cell anaemia
F. Carcinoma tail of pancreas
G. Autoimmune hepatitis
H. Gallstone in common bile duct
I. Ascending cholangitis
J. Hepatitis A
K. Cirrhosis
L. Carcinoma head of pancreas
A

K. Cirrhosis - This sales rep who has just lost his job has been hitting the bottle. The gynaecomastia is a sign of chronic liver disease and ascites indicates a degree of decompensation. Alcoholic liver disease is the most common cause of cirrhosis in the Western world.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
308
Q

An obese 40 year old woman, with a history of episodic right upper quadrant pain, presents with rapid onset of jaundice with severe abdominal pains, fever & rigors.

A. Cholecystitis
B. Hepatitis B
C. Infectious mononucleosis
D. Drug induced hepatitis
E. Sickle cell anaemia
F. Carcinoma tail of pancreas
G. Autoimmune hepatitis
H. Gallstone in common bile duct
I. Ascending cholangitis
J. Hepatitis A
K. Cirrhosis
L. Carcinoma head of pancreas
A

I. Ascending cholangitis - Charcot’s triad of ascending cholangitis: fever with or without rigors, RUQ pain and jaundice. Cholangitis is infection of the biliary tree and can quickly become septic. Drainage of the biliary tree is crucial and is undertaken via ERCP. Make sure you know the difference between ascending cholangitis, cholecystitis and biliary colic.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
309
Q

A 24 year old unemployed rough sleeping male presents unwell, with jaundice, anorexia & lassitude. He has a number of venepuncture marks in the antecubital fossae.

A. Cholecystitis
B. Hepatitis B
C. Infectious mononucleosis
D. Drug induced hepatitis
E. Sickle cell anaemia
F. Carcinoma tail of pancreas
G. Autoimmune hepatitis
H. Gallstone in common bile duct
I. Ascending cholangitis
J. Hepatitis A
K. Cirrhosis
L. Carcinoma head of pancreas
A

B. Hepatits B - This could well be HCV although this is not an option. There are HBV risk factors in this patient including IVDU. Serum LFTs will shown a transaminitis. HBsAg, HBcAg and HBeAg can be measured. In HCV, HCV RNA can be measured. HAV is not associated with IVDU. Serum IgM anti-HAV can be measured.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
310
Q

A 20 year old man has been constipated since childhood. He opens his bowels once or twice a week & has noticed faecal soiling.

A. Parkinson’s disease
B. Hypercalcaemia
C. Colorectal carcinoma
D. Diverticular disease
E. Hypothyroidism
F. Pelvic trauma
G. Irritable bowel syndrome
H. Chronic laxative abuse
I. Hirschsprung’s disease
J. Adverse effect of drugs
A

I. Hirschsprung - In this condition there is colonic obstruction associated with absent intramural ganglion cells. The lumen is hence tonically contracted. Hirschsprung’s disease is commonly diagnosed in the first year of life and presents with vomiting, distension and/or colitis. There tends to be explosure liquid foul stools, delayed meconium passage and fever (enterocolitis). However, sometimes, it can present with intermittent bouts of symptoms later on in life and have minimal or absent symptoms in the first few days/weeks (adult presentations are rare). It can be associated with Down’s and MEN2A.

The diagnosis is definitively made on a rectal biopsy with stain for ganglion cells in the submucosal plexus. This will be absent in Hirschsprung’s with the presence of other features such as thickened non-myelinated nerves and increased acetylcholinesterase. A contrast enema will also be done and will show a contracted distal bowel with the proximal bowel dilated, making the location of the transition zone visible on XR. An AXR is always the first investigation performed but a normal film does not exclude the possibility of this diagnosis (it is a non-specific investigation, though having said that, if there are no distended bowel loops then Hirschsprung’s is unlikely). Manometry is not usually performed, but the reflex where when the rectum is distended, pressure in the anal canal falls (as the internal sphincter relaxes) is absent. Initial treatment is with irrigation followed by surgery.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
311
Q

A 40 year old woman has constipation, weight gain & menorrhagia. She opens her bowels only twice a week. Pulse is 50/min & she has dry skin.

A. Parkinson’s disease
B. Hypercalcaemia
C. Colorectal carcinoma
D. Diverticular disease
E. Hypothyroidism
F. Pelvic trauma
G. Irritable bowel syndrome
H. Chronic laxative abuse
I. Hirschsprung’s disease
J. Adverse effect of drugs
A

E. Hypothyroidism - This patient has hypothyroidism. Worldwide, the most common cause is iodine deficiency. Other causes include Hashimoto’s or secondary and tertiary hypothyroidism. It can also result from viral de Quervain’s thyroiditis or postpartum thyroiditis. Symptoms include those mentioned (depression, fatigue, weight gain, bradycardia and sluggish reflexes) as well as others such as constipation, cold intolerance, menstrual problems in females, dry skin and muscle cramps. Diagnosis is based on measurement of TSH and thyroid hormones. Treatment is by replacement of T4 with or without T3 in combination. If the patient has normal T3 and T4 but mildly elevated TSH, this is described as subclinical hypothyroidism.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
312
Q

A 35 year old woman has mild long-standing constipation without weight loss. She passes hard pellet-like stools, often with straining & a feeling of incomplete evacuation. Examination is normal.

A. Parkinson’s disease
B. Hypercalcaemia
C. Colorectal carcinoma
D. Diverticular disease
E. Hypothyroidism
F. Pelvic trauma
G. Irritable bowel syndrome
H. Chronic laxative abuse
I. Hirschsprung’s disease
J. Adverse effect of drugs
A

G. Irritable bowel syndrome - IBS is a chronic condition with abdominal pain associated with bowel dysfunction and is a diagnosis of exclusion. The pain or discomfort may be relieved by defecation. Examination is usually unremarkable and the diagnosis is based on the patient’s history in line with the Rome Criteria. If the patient presents with any worrying symptoms, then these will warrant a more thorough investigation. Treatment depends on the patient’s predominant symptoms. Antispasmodics relieve abdominal pain or discomfort but do not affect bowel habit. Examples include peppermint oil and dicycloverine. Laxatives can also be used such as lactulose. Lifestyle and dietary modifications combined with reassurance remain the 1st line intervention for functional bowel disease. IBS is linked with stressful jobs and there is a female/male ratio of 2:1.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
313
Q

A 50 year old man fell from a ladder & injured his back. He requires regular pain-killers for back pain. Since the accident he has had difficulty opening his bowels & has noticed reduced bowel frequency.

A. Parkinson’s disease
B. Hypercalcaemia
C. Colorectal carcinoma
D. Diverticular disease
E. Hypothyroidism
F. Pelvic trauma
G. Irritable bowel syndrome
H. Chronic laxative abuse
I. Hirschsprung’s disease
J. Adverse effect of drugs
A

J. Adverse effect of drugs - This patient is on opiates. Let us review opiates such as morphine and codeine. They are commonly prescribed for analgesia and can also be used as an anti-tussive (suppresses ACh and NK release needed for cough activation and inteferes with serotonin receptors in the DRN). They are also abused for their euphoric effects mediated by their action on dopamine release at the nucleus accumbens. They have a host of side effects, including, in this case, GI effects (receptors present on the myenteric and submucosal plexus) of decreased gastric motility, emptying and increased gut water reabsorption… in short, it causes constipation. Other side effects include respiratory depression (desensitises central chemoreceptors to lessen the response to PaCO2), N&V by stimulating the CTZ, pupillary constriction via the Edinger-Westphal nucleus and causes symptoms like pruritis, urticaria, hypotension through histamine release via a direct effect on mast cells.

Arrestins also promote internalisation of opioid receptors which leads to tolerance with prolonged treatment. Prolonged use will also lead to dependance and withdrawl effects if stopped, such as cravings, and the physical effects may be very profound, resembling flu. Naloxone is indicated in an overdose. It is worth looking at the pathways to help you remember the effects.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
314
Q

A 52 year old woman has recently developed constipation & feels that she does not completely empty her rectum on defecation. She has passed blood per rectum on 2 occasions.

A. Parkinson’s disease
B. Hypercalcaemia
C. Colorectal carcinoma
D. Diverticular disease
E. Hypothyroidism
F. Pelvic trauma
G. Irritable bowel syndrome
H. Chronic laxative abuse
I. Hirschsprung’s disease
J. Adverse effect of drugs
A

C. Colorectal carcinoma - This a rectal carcinoma. Tenesmus, blood and mucus PR alongside weight loss and anorexia are all highly suggestive. Treatment of rectal carcinoma involves surgical excision where possible. This can either be an anterior resection (tumours in the upper 1/3 of the rectum) or an abdominoperineal resection (if the tumour lies lower down). APER involves the formation of a permanent colostomy and has a high incidence of sexual and urinary dysfunction. Anterior resection involves a colo-anal anastamosis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
315
Q

A 70 year old woman has seen her GP for depression on several occasions. She now complains of abdominal pain, constipation & thirst

A. Parkinson’s disease
B. Hypercalcaemia
C. Colorectal carcinoma
D. Diverticular disease
E. Hypothyroidism
F. Pelvic trauma
G. Irritable bowel syndrome
H. Chronic laxative abuse
I. Hirschsprung’s disease
J. Adverse effect of drugs
A

B. Hypercalcaemia - Symptoms of high calcium include confusion, constipation, polyuria, polydipsia, depression, kidney stones and lethargy. This can be remembered by ‘stones, bones, abdominal groans and psychiatric moans’. 90% of hypercalcaemia is caused by primary hyperparathyroidism or cancer. Malignancy can cause hypercalcaemia either by direct bony involvement leading to osteolytic lesions or paraneoplastic syndromes involving PTHrp release. The tumour is typically very advanced if hypercalcaemia is a feature. Less common causes include vitamin D overdose, hyperthyroidism, immobilisation, Paget’s and milk-alkali syndrome. The classic bone disease in hyperparathyroidism is osteitis fibrosa cystica which causes pain. The serum PTH level is elevated in primary hyperparathyroidism whereas it may be very low in malignancy due to negative feedback.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
316
Q

A 30 year old male intravenous drug user with a history of tuberculosis develops profuse watery diarrhoea with no abdominal pain.

A. Clostridium difficile
B. Staphylococcus aureus
C. Chronic pancreatitis
D. Drug-induced diarrhoea
E. Villous adenoma of the rectum
F. Cryptosporidium infection
G. Coeliac disease
H. Ulcerative colitis
I. Irritable bowel syndrome
J. Diverticular disease
K. Campylobacter
L. Crohn’s disease
A

F. Cryptospradium - I’m sure at some point most of you will see ‘diarrhoea’ and ‘HIV’ together and jump straight to Cryptosporidium. This is a disease caused by a protozoa and diagnosis is made in the lab by detection of oocysts or antigens in stool. The presentation is of watery diarrhoea, often accompanied with severe pain in the tummy, often lasting more than 7 days. It is self-limiting if the patient is immunocompetent but those who are immunocompromised can suffer a chronic sveere course. Those most at risk are those with T cell deficiencies, such as HIV, and those with haematological malignancies, especially children. In immunocompetent people, nitazoxanide can be used in treatment (as can paramomycin). In immunocompromised patients, treatment mainly aims at treating the primary disorder, such as using HAART to improve CD4 cell count and to restore immunity. Protease inhibitors such as ritanovir also act directly to reduce host cell invasion by the sporozoites and reduce parasite development.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
317
Q

A 25 year old male student presents with 12 hours of abdominal pain, vomiting & watery diarrhoea. This has occurred once before.

A. Clostridium difficile
B. Staphylococcus aureus
C. Chronic pancreatitis
D. Drug-induced diarrhoea
E. Villous adenoma of the rectum
F. Cryptosporidium infection
G. Coeliac disease
H. Ulcerative colitis
I. Irritable bowel syndrome
J. Diverticular disease
K. Campylobacter
L. Crohn’s disease
A

B. Staphylococcus aureus - This patient has infectious vomiting predominant food poisoning. When vomiting is the main presenting symptom, you should be thinking of Staphylococcus aureus, Bacillus cereus or norovirus. There is a short history in a previous well person. This man has probably eaten something dodgy like a kebab with undercooked chicken, or something like that. The mainstay of treatment is rehydration and supportive therapy. Antibiotics may be indicated, particularly in severe cases.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
318
Q

A 27 year old woman presents with a 2 week history of bloody diarrhoea & abdominal pain. She has also passed mucus per rectum at times

A. Clostridium difficile
B. Staphylococcus aureus
C. Chronic pancreatitis
D. Drug-induced diarrhoea
E. Villous adenoma of the rectum
F. Cryptosporidium infection
G. Coeliac disease
H. Ulcerative colitis
I. Irritable bowel syndrome
J. Diverticular disease
K. Campylobacter
L. Crohn’s disease
A

H. Ulcerative colitis - While this could be Crohn’s disease, bloody diarrhoea is more commonly a presentation of UC than Crohn’s. UC is characterised by diffuse mucosal inflammation running a relapsing and remitting course. Bloody diarrhoea is commonly experienced by patients who may also complain of other symptoms such as (lower) abdominal pain, faecal urgency and the host of extra-intestinal manifestations associated with UC. Diagnosis of UC requires endoscopy with biopsy and a negative stool culture to rule out infectious gastroenteritis. Flare ups are usually linked to pathogens so a stool culture will always be needed in these cases. Toxic megacolon is a complication which is associated with a risk of perforation. UC is also linked with bowel adenocarinoma and PSC. Treatment involves mesalazine (5-ASA) used to induce and maintain remission.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
319
Q

A 45 year old man has a long history of drinking excess alcohol. He has a 3 month history of intermittent, severe abdominal pain & diarrhoea with pale, bulky, foul-smelling stools which are hard to flush away

A. Clostridium difficile
B. Staphylococcus aureus
C. Chronic pancreatitis
D. Drug-induced diarrhoea
E. Villous adenoma of the rectum
F. Cryptosporidium infection
G. Coeliac disease
H. Ulcerative colitis
I. Irritable bowel syndrome
J. Diverticular disease
K. Campylobacter
L. Crohn’s disease
A

C. Chronic pancreatitis - This is chronic pancreatitis which is most commonly associated with chronic alcohol abuse. Features include the epigastric pain here, which classically radiates to the back, and steatorrhoea from malabsorption, described here with the pale, foul-smelling and difficult to flush stools. There may additionally be DM due to pancreatic failure and the patient may be malnourished. The diagnosis is based on findings and imaging – your options are USS which is less sensitive, or CT, which is more sensitive but involves radiation exposure. AXR is not a sensitive enough test. There is no real definitive treatment, which is mainly symptomatic and the underlying and precipitating factors are treated – in this case, this man’s alcohol excess. Complications of chronic pancreatic imflammation include the development of pseudocysts, calficiation, DM and malabsorption.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
320
Q

A 55 year old man who takes bendrofluazide for hypertension, presents with a 2 month history of watery diarrhoea with occasional blood & mucus mixed in the stool. He has serum potassium of 2.3mmol/l.

A. Clostridium difficile
B. Staphylococcus aureus
C. Chronic pancreatitis
D. Drug-induced diarrhoea
E. Villous adenoma of the rectum
F. Cryptosporidium infection
G. Coeliac disease
H. Ulcerative colitis
I. Irritable bowel syndrome
J. Diverticular disease
K. Campylobacter
L. Crohn’s disease
A

E. Villous adenoma of the rectum - Do not be fooled by the bendrofluazide, which is taken by many patients, but does not by itself lead to such profound hypokalaemia (but I’m sure contributes), and in any case would not account for the GI symptoms experienced. This patient has a villous adenoma, which is a type of polyp in the GIT with a malignant potential. Most colorectal cancers arise from an adenoma and polypectomy reduces the incidence of colorectal cancer. The non-neoplastic polyps include hyperplastic ones, hamartomas, inflammatory and lymphoid polyps. Villous adenomas secrete large amounts of mucus and result in hypokalaemia.

Adenomatous polyps are increasingly common with age. FAP and Gardner’s syndrome, for example, predispose to adenomatous polyps (Peutz-Jeghers leads to hamartomatous polyps). This patient is going to need a colonoscopy with biopsy histology to see if the polyp is benign or malignant.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
321
Q

A 40 year old man has just returned from a holiday in Kenya. Since his return, he has developed watery diarrhoea with crampy abdominal pain.

A. Clostridium difficile
B. Staphylococcus aureus
C. Chronic pancreatitis
D. Drug-induced diarrhoea
E. Villous adenoma of the rectum
F. Cryptosporidium infection
G. Coeliac disease
H. Ulcerative colitis
I. Irritable bowel syndrome
J. Diverticular disease
K. Campylobacter
L. Crohn’s disease
A

K. Campylobacter - So why is this Campylobacter? Well, it doesn’t have to be. Salmonella, E. Coli, Shigella, Listeria, Vibrio species etc all present with symptoms which are not drastically different and the only way to be sure is to do a stool culture. The only real option here are between Campylobacter, Staphylococcus aureus and Clostridium difficile. However, this patient does not have a history of recent antibiotic use. Staphylococcus tends to present with vomiting as the main feature and the watery diarrhoea here is typical of Campylobacter. UC and CD are chronic conditions (it is worth noting that Yersinia enterocolitis can mimic Crohn’s RLQ pain). This person has most likely eaten something dodgy on holiday. Erythromycin can be used effectively if started early but resistance is a problem and only a small number will benefit. Campylobacter jejuni is the main cause of food poisoning (also coli and fetus species cause disease). Diarrhoea normally resolves in 5-7 days and the patient will need fluid/electrolyte replacement. Campylbacter is one of the infections which is commonly linked to Guillain-Barre (although still a rare phenomenon).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
322
Q

A 21 year old student has been on a drinking binge to celebrate the end of his final exams. He has a 6 hour history of profuse vomiting with small amounts of fresh blood mixed in the vomit. His vital signs are stable.

A. Peptic ulcer
B. Mallory-Weiss syndrome
C. Angiodysplasia
D. Gastric erosions
E. Oesophageal varices
F. Oesophageal carcinoma
G. Peutz-Jeghers syndrome
H. GORD
I. Osler-Weber-Rendu syndrome
J. Mallory-Weiss syndrome
K. Carcinoma of the stomach
L. Bleeding diathesis
A

B. Mallory-Weiss Syndrome - This occurs after a rise in abdominal pressure which induces a tear in the oesophageal mucosa, causing subsequent GI bleeding. It commonly presents with haematemesis after an episode of retching/vomiting/coughing/straining. Hence, risk factors include anything which can cause vomiting like heavy alcohol use, which is commonly the case in EMQs. Also, other conditions would include food poisoning, bowel obstruction, hyperemesis gravidarum, bulimia, the chronic cough of COPD, meningitis etc… you name it really. Classically, MWT presents with a small self limiting episode of haematemesis. Definitive diagnosis is made by OGD. Treatment is supportive because most cases, as mentioned, are self limiting and emergency treatment is not offered unless the patient is showing signs of clinical instability. If the patient is actively bleeding, treatment will be with therapeutic endoscopy in most cases, and very very few cases will require more intervention such as angiography with embolisation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
323
Q

A 24 year old woman has had 24 hours of vomiting & diarrhoea, which she thinks followed eating reheated take-away food. There was fresh blood in the last 3 vomits. Vital signs are stable.

A. Peptic ulcer
B. Mallory-Weiss syndrome
C. Angiodysplasia
D. Gastric erosions
E. Oesophageal varices
F. Oesophageal carcinoma
G. Peutz-Jeghers syndrome
H. GORD
I. Osler-Weber-Rendu syndrome
J. Mallory-Weiss syndrome
K. Carcinoma of the stomach
L. Bleeding diathesis
A

B. Mallory-Weiss Syndrome - This occurs after a rise in abdominal pressure which induces a tear in the oesophageal mucosa, causing subsequent GI bleeding. It commonly presents with haematemesis after an episode of retching/vomiting/coughing/straining. Hence, risk factors include anything which can cause vomiting like heavy alcohol use, which is commonly the case in EMQs. Also, other conditions would include food poisoning, bowel obstruction, hyperemesis gravidarum, bulimia, the chronic cough of COPD, meningitis etc… you name it really. Classically, MWT presents with a small self limiting episode of haematemesis. Definitive diagnosis is made by OGD. Treatment is supportive because most cases, as mentioned, are self limiting and emergency treatment is not offered unless the patient is showing signs of clinical instability. If the patient is actively bleeding, treatment will be with therapeutic endoscopy in most cases, and very very few cases will require more intervention such as angiography with embolisation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
324
Q

A 55 year old man has chronic back pain for which he takes diclofenac. He has epigastric pain after meals & has recently developed black tarry stools & has had an episode of ‘coffee-ground’ vomiting.

A. Peptic ulcer
B. Mallory-Weiss syndrome
C. Angiodysplasia
D. Gastric erosions
E. Oesophageal varices
F. Oesophageal carcinoma
G. Peutz-Jeghers syndrome
H. GORD
I. Osler-Weber-Rendu syndrome
J. Mallory-Weiss syndrome
K. Carcinoma of the stomach
L. Bleeding diathesis
A

A. Peptic ulcer - This patient has a bleeding peptic ulcer (the black tarry stools and the coffee-ground vomit from the UGI bleed). Epigastric pain and tenderness related to eating a meal is typical of a peptic ulcer. 80% are duodenal and 20% are gastric. Ulcers may cause iron deficiency anaemia and associated symptoms may feature. Key risk factors are NSAID use, like in this patient, H. pylori infection, smoking and a family history of PUD. Zollinger-Ellison syndrome should be considered if there are multiple ulcers or ulcers refractory to treatment.

Gastric ulcers classically cause pain which is exacerbated by eating and immediately relieved on vomiting. There is usually also weight loss due to a fear of food and its association with pain. Duodenal ulcers are classically made worse by hunger and are relieved by eating and the patient may wake at night with the pain. As a result, weight gain is typically a feature. In reality, it is difficult to differentiate the site of the ulcer based on these features.

The most specific and sensitive test is an upper GI endoscopy which is initially ordered if the patient has ‘red flag’ symptoms, is >55 years of age or fails to respond to treatment. Duodenal ulcers rarely undergo malignant transformation so do not require a compulsory biopsy but gastric ulcers require biopsies to rule this out. In patients who are 55 or younger without ‘red flags’, testing for Helicobacter pylori (breath testing with radiolabelled urea or stool antigen testing) is necessary. Management is aimed at correcting the underlying cause such as discontinuing NSAIDs. H. pylori eradication should be started if the organism is present with triple therapy. Otherwise, a PPI is indicated.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
325
Q

A 35 year old man with a long history of excess drinking of alcohol presents with massive haematemesis. He is also jaundiced, hypotensive & a tachycardia.

A. Peptic ulcer
B. Mallory-Weiss syndrome
C. Angiodysplasia
D. Gastric erosions
E. Oesophageal varices
F. Oesophageal carcinoma
G. Peutz-Jeghers syndrome
H. GORD
I. Osler-Weber-Rendu syndrome
J. Mallory-Weiss syndrome
K. Carcinoma of the stomach
L. Bleeding diathesis
A

E. Oesophageal varices - Oesophageal varices occurs as a result of portal hypertension which is a complication of cirrhosis, caused in this patient by his long history of alcohol excess. Other signs may be present such as spider naevi, ascites, caput medusa (vascular collaterals in the abdominal wall), jaundice etc. Splenomegaly is also commonly found and hence patents often have thrombocytopenia and anaemia as a result. The bleeding carries a significant morbidity and mortality, and beta-blockers and/or endoscopic ligation can prevent variceal bleeding prophylactically (though beta blockers are not be used in the acute setting of a variceal bleed – do not get confused here!). Oesophageal varices are basically dilated veins and these can be seen on OGD. Worldwide, HBV and HCV are also major causes of cirrhosis, leading to varices and HIV co-infection can rapidly speed up the progression to cirrhosis in chronic liver failure. The size of the varices is the key predictor of haemorrhage. Acute bleed can be managed with resuscitation, terlipression (DDAVP)/somatostatin analogues/endoscopic ligation. Additionally, a shunt can be deployed and antbiotic prophylaxis started.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
326
Q

A 40 year old woman describes intermittent haemoptysis as well as small amounts of haematemesis. She has telangiectasia on her face.

A. Peptic ulcer
B. Mallory-Weiss syndrome
C. Angiodysplasia
D. Gastric erosions
E. Oesophageal varices
F. Oesophageal carcinoma
G. Peutz-Jeghers syndrome
H. GORD
I. Osler-Weber-Rendu syndrome
J. Mallory-Weiss syndrome
K. Carcinoma of the stomach
L. Bleeding diathesis
A

I. Osler-Weber-Rendu synrome - This woman has the facial telangiectasia of OWR, also called hereditary haemorrhagic telangiectasia. This causes abnormal blod vessels pretty much everywhere which are prone to bleed. It is an autosomal dominant condition so a positive FH can often be found.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
327
Q

52 year old man presents with abdominal distension & ankle swelling. He has been drinking 6 pints of beer & half a bottle of whisky a day for some years. On examination he has palmar erythema & spider naevi on his chest.

A. Tuberculous peritonitis
B. Heart failure
C. Budd Chiari syndrome
D. Liver cirrhosis
E. Primary liver tumour
F. Carcinoma of the ovary
G. Bacterial peritonitis
H. Primary biliary cirrhosis
I. Secondary liver tumours
J. Nephrotic syndrome
K. Carcinoma of caecum with peritoneal secondaries
A

D. Liver cirrhosis - Cirrhosis is the end-stage of chronic liver disease, in this case due to alcoholic liver disease. Cirrhosis results in hepatic insufficiency and portal hypertension. This has resulted in the patient’s ascites which is a symptom of decompensated cirrhosis. Other complications include variceal bleeds, jaundice, hepatic encephalopathy, hepatorenal syndrome and the development of HCC. Palmar erythema affects the thenar and hypothenar eminences. Apart from spider naevi and palmar erythema, other signs you might find include telangiectasia, bruising, gynaecomastia, Dupuytren’s contracture, parotid swelling and a red tongue. The patient will have to undergo a diagnostic paracentesis for the ascitic presentation. The treatment of ascites involves restricting salt intake and the use of diuretics (frusemide and spironolactone).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
328
Q

A 50 year old alcoholic man fails to respond to treatment for pancreatitis and has recurrent epigastric pain. There is a palpable epigastric mass. CT scan of the abdomen shows a round well-circumscribed mass in the epigastrium.

A. Hepatoma
B. Perforated peptic ulcer
C. Sigmoid volvulus
D. Splenic rupture
E. Pancreatic abscess
F. Haematoma of the rectus sheath
G. Pancreatic ascites
H. Pancratic effusion
I. Umbilical hernia
J. Oesophageal varices
K. Pancreatic pseudocyst
L. Divarication of the recti
M. Mallory-Weiss tear
N. Fractured rib
A

K. Pancreatic pseudocyst - This patient has developed a pancreatic psuedocyst as a complication of pancreatitis. Pseudocysts are collections of fluids with a high concentration of enzymes. The walls are fibrotic membranes of the peritoneum, mesentery and serosa which stops the fluid from leaking out. The wall is not epithelium and indeed there is no epithelial lining – it is not a real cyst. In patients who fail to respond to treatment, this should be considered as a possible diagnosis. The most common finding is pain, followed by a palpable mass. CT scan is diagnostic. Treatment options include excision, drainage (surgical or percutaneous, or internal e.g. cystojejunostomy Roux-en-Y etc, which I’m sure is going into too much surgery than is necessary now but surgical wannabes can look up the procedures… if they really want to – also cystogastrostomy and cystoduodenostomy).

The pseudocyst can be complicated with infection, rupture and haemorrhage. Pancreatic abscess would give a fever and CT will show a ring-enhancing fluid collection with gas. Treatment would be drainage and antibiotics. Pancreatic ascites is pancreatic fluid accumulating in the peritoneal cavity due to chronic pseudocyst leakage (in most cases, anyway) – there will be weight loss and the ascites will not respond to diuretics. A pancreatic effusion is secondary to a fistula draining into the chest, from the pancreas. These are actually all more common complications to arise from pancreatitis than a pseudocyst.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
329
Q

A 40 year old multiparous woman presents with a midline abdominal mass. The mass is non tender & appears when she is straining. On examination, the midline mass is visible when she raises her head off the examining bed.

A. Hepatoma
B. Perforated peptic ulcer
C. Sigmoid volvulus
D. Splenic rupture
E. Pancreatic abscess
F. Haematoma of the rectus sheath
G. Pancreatic ascites
H. Pancratic effusion
I. Umbilical hernia
J. Oesophageal varices
K. Pancreatic pseudocyst
L. Divarication of the recti
M. Mallory-Weiss tear
N. Fractured rib
A

L. Divaricaction of the recti - Divaricate means to spread apart. The rectus goes from the pubic crest, tubercle and symphysis to the costal cartilages 5,6 and 7, costal margin of 7, sternum and diaphragm. It is innervated by T7-12. Normally, the rectus muscles meet in the midline (linea alba). However, some people have a defect above the umbilicus which causes the gap between the recti to be wider than normal. Hence, when the patient sites up, the rectus muscles will spread apart. Surgica correction is possible but most are asymptomatic. It is not a true hernia, and this is the only option from the list that fits the presentation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
330
Q

A 19 year old man presents with sudden severe upper abdominal pain after being tackled during rugby practice. He was recently diagnosed with glandular fever.

A. Hepatoma
B. Perforated peptic ulcer
C. Sigmoid volvulus
D. Splenic rupture
E. Pancreatic abscess
F. Haematoma of the rectus sheath
G. Pancreatic ascites
H. Pancratic effusion
I. Umbilical hernia
J. Oesophageal varices
K. Pancreatic pseudocyst
L. Divarication of the recti
M. Mallory-Weiss tear
N. Fractured rib
A

D. Splenic rupture - Infectious mononucleosis caused by EBV infection causes splenomegaly. This makes the patient susceptible to splenic rupture due to trauma, such as during this rugby practice session. Rupture is a cause of splenomegaly, and splenomegaly is a risk factor for rupture. If the patient is previously known to have mono, with an enlarged spleen, then they should really avoid contact sports. It would be an irresponsible doctor to not advise against this. This is a medical emergency as the spleen is a very vascular organ and bleeding can rapidly lead to shock and death.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
331
Q

An 87 year old woman presents with constipation and nausea

A. Hepatoma
B. Perforated peptic ulcer
C. Sigmoid volvulus
D. Splenic rupture
E. Pancreatic abscess
F. Haematoma of the rectus sheath
G. Pancreatic ascites
H. Pancratic effusion
I. Umbilical hernia
J. Oesophageal varices
K. Pancreatic pseudocyst
L. Divarication of the recti
M. Mallory-Weiss tear
N. Fractured rib
A

C. Sigmoid volvulus - While this woman has indeed presented with very non-specific symptoms, the only feasible answer from the list is a sigmoid volvulus. A volvulus is bowel obstruction occuring due to a loop of bowel twisting on its own mesenteric axis. Broadly speaking, there are three types: small bowel, sigmoid and gastric. This is something you need to be able to recognise on AXR and it appears as a dilated loop of large bowel present in the lower abdomen, resembling a coffee bean shape (or like an upside down U shape). The rest of the bowel is usually dilated. For a caecal volvulus, the caecum leaves the RLQ to appear like a second satomach bubble in the centre of the film. There is often associated small bowel dilation. A gastric volvulus is very rare.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
332
Q

A 55 year old male alcoholic presents with vomiting 800ml of blood. His blood pressure is 80/50 with a pulse rate of 120. He also has ascites.

A. Hepatoma
B. Perforated peptic ulcer
C. Sigmoid volvulus
D. Splenic rupture
E. Pancreatic abscess
F. Haematoma of the rectus sheath
G. Pancreatic ascites
H. Pancratic effusion
I. Umbilical hernia
J. Oesophageal varices
K. Pancreatic pseudocyst
L. Divarication of the recti
M. Mallory-Weiss tear
N. Fractured rib
A

J. Oesophageal varices - Oesophageal varices occurs as a result of portal hypertension which is a complication of cirrhosis, caused in this patient by his long history of alcohol excess. Other signs may be present such as spider naevi, ascites, caput medusa (vascular collaterals in the abdominal wall), jaundice etc. Splenomegaly is also commonly found and hence patents often have thrombocytopenia and anaemia as a result. The bleeding (explaining the BP and HR of this patient) carries a significant morbidity and mortality, and beta-blockers and/or endoscopic ligation can prevent variceal bleeding prophylactically (though beta blockers are not be used in the acute setting of a variceal bleed – do not get confused here!). Oesophageal varices are basically dilated veins and these can be seen on OGD. Worldwide, HBV and HCV are also major causes of cirrhosis, leading to varices and HIV co-infection can rapidly speed up the progression to cirrhosis in chronic liver failure. The size of the varices is the key predictor of haemorrhage. Acute bleed can be managed with resuscitation, terlipression (DDAVP)/somatostatin analogues/endoscopic ligation. Additionally, a shunt can be deployed and antbiotic prophylaxis started.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
333
Q

34 year old male with Crohn’s disease had had no bowel motions for 4 days & has been vomiting for 24 hours. Examination reveals a distended abdomen & tinkling bowel sounds.

A. Salmonella
B. Viral gastroenteritis
C. Appendicitis
D. Combined oral contraceptive pill
E. Gastric carcinoma
F. Intussusception
G. Bulimia
H. Uraemia
I. Bowel obstruction
J. Pyloric stenosis
K. Pancreatitis
L. Oesophageal carcinoma
M. Peptic ulcer disease
A

I. Bowel obstruction - Bowel obstruction has several causes such as adhesions or cancer. The lack of bowel motions, vomiting, distended abdomen and tinkling bowel signs are all indicative. The proximal segment of bowel dilates and distal bowel collapses. Completely obstructed patients generally require surgery. If, on AXR, air is seen to be seeping past the obstruction then the obstruction is partial. As a standard, all patients should be made NBM and given supplemental oxygen, IV fluids and NG decompression (to reduce flow/gastric contents/air towards the obstruction), unless they are rushed off for an emergency laparotomy because, for example, they have complete SBO and are peritonitic.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
334
Q

83 years old man with longstanding heart failure for which he takes digoxin & diuretics. For the last 24 hours he has been vomiting & passed very little urine. On examination he is pale & mildly dehydrated; examination of the abdomen is normal.

A. Salmonella
B. Viral gastroenteritis
C. Appendicitis
D. Combined oral contraceptive pill
E. Gastric carcinoma
F. Intussusception
G. Bulimia
H. Uraemia
I. Bowel obstruction
J. Pyloric stenosis
K. Pancreatitis
L. Oesophageal carcinoma
M. Peptic ulcer disease
A

H. Uraemia - This patient has developed acute renal failure, probably associated with the longstanding CCF. Advanced heart failure will lead to depressed renal perfusion and ARF. The decreased urine output is a symptom and the vomiting here is caused by uraemia or a general build up of waste products. An acute increase in creatinine will be seen, commonly with hyperkalaemia, hyperphosphataemia and a metabolic acidosis. There may also be respiratory compensation for this. Treatment is largely supportive, managing, in this case, the heart failure, and correcting abnormalities like volume status and the metabolic acidosis. Dialysis may be required.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
335
Q

54 year old publican has 48 hour history of severe epigastric pain & vomiting. On examination he is unwell. Pulse rate is 110/min, BP 130/90. Temp 380C. Upper abdomen very tender. Amylase 1000U/l.

A. Salmonella
B. Viral gastroenteritis
C. Appendicitis
D. Combined oral contraceptive pill
E. Gastric carcinoma
F. Intussusception
G. Bulimia
H. Uraemia
I. Bowel obstruction
J. Pyloric stenosis
K. Pancreatitis
L. Oesophageal carcinoma
M. Peptic ulcer disease
A

K. Pancreatitis - This patient has acute pancreatitis. He has vomited and is describing mid-epigastric pain radiating around to the back. This patient can also have nausea and vomiting too, with agitation and confusion. A pleural effusion is seen in half of patients with acute pancreatitis. Complicated haemorrhagic pancreatitis may exhibit Cullen’s sign, Grey-Turner’s sign and Fox’s sign. Make sure you know what these are and you are familiar with the causes of acute pancreatitis (GET SMASHED). Those caused by hypocalcaemia may display Chvostek’s sign and Trousseau’s sign.

Key to diagnosis is serum amylase or lipase levels which are massively elevated. Prognostic criteria are outlined in Ranson’s criteria applied on admission and after 48 hours, or the modified Glasgow score which you can find in your Oxford Handbook. An abdominal CT is however the most sensitive and specific study and findings may include enlargement of the pancreas with irregular contours, necrosis, pseudocysts and peripancreatic fat obliteration.

For interest, urinary trypsinogen-2 is now considered a better screening test than amylase but is not currently clinically used.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
336
Q

34 year old man has had vomiting 2-3 times a day for 3 days. Complains of severe crampy abdominal pain & blood stained watery diarrhoea. On examination temp 37.70C, abdomen soft; complains of generalised tenderness. No masses/rebound/guarding.

A. Salmonella
B. Viral gastroenteritis
C. Appendicitis
D. Combined oral contraceptive pill
E. Gastric carcinoma
F. Intussusception
G. Bulimia
H. Uraemia
I. Bowel obstruction
J. Pyloric stenosis
K. Pancreatitis
L. Oesophageal carcinoma
M. Peptic ulcer disease
A

A. Salmonella - The only option on the list which fits is Salmonella. This could obviously be E coli or Campylobacter too, for instance. This is infectious gastroenteritis and Salmonella is a common cause, pretty much able to contaminate any food. It is commonly linked to poultry, dairy items and undercooked eggs. It is self-limiting and diagnosis is on isolating the organism from a stool culture. Treatment is supportive with fluid and electrolyte replacement and antibiotics are generally used only for patients with risk factors for severe disease or those with extra-GI complications.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
337
Q

A 25 year old travelling salesman is awoken in his hotel with crampy abdominal pain, feeling very ill & vomits 3 times over the next half an hour. He asks the receptionist to call a doctor.

A. Salmonella
B. Viral gastroenteritis
C. Appendicitis
D. Combined oral contraceptive pill
E. Gastric carcinoma
F. Intussusception
G. Bulimia
H. Uraemia
I. Bowel obstruction
J. Pyloric stenosis
K. Pancreatitis
L. Oesophageal carcinoma
M. Peptic ulcer disease
A

B. Viral gastroenteritis - Viral gastroenteritis often presents with mainly UGI symptoms like N&V more so than diarrhoea. It is on this basis that this is likely to be viral gastroenteritis caused by organisms such as rotavirus, norovirus and adenovirus. Staphylococcus aureus and Bacillus cereus also tend to cause mostly UGI symptoms and acts by preformed toxins, though these are not on the list of available options. The differentiation is made on studying the stool and identifying the organism.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
338
Q

A 30 year old woman who has recently returned from holiday in the Gambia. She is in the 3rd trimester of pregnancy & complains of headaches & fever. On examination her BP is 110/70, there is a soft ESM, shotty lymphadenopathy & hepatosplenomegaly. Examination of the skin is unremarkable. Investigations revealed a Hb of 10.5g/dl, WBC of 5x109/l, platelet count of 80x109/l.

A. RA
B. Right heart failure
C. Haemachromatosis
D. CML
E. Malaria
F. CLL
G. Toxoplasmosis
H. Portal vein thrombosis
I. Systemic amyloidosis
J. Cirrhosis with hepatoma
K. Polycythaemia rubra vera
L. Congestive cardiac failure
M. Malignant melanoma
N. Severe emphysema
A

E. Malaria - In the Western world, almost all cases of malaria occurs in travellers so an adequate travel history is crucial or the diagnosis may be missed. Patients typically present with non-specific symptoms such as a fever, sweats, chills and myalgia. This woman has just returned from an endemic area. Sometimes EMQs will describe patterns of fevers occuring at regular intervals of 48-72 hours associated with P. vivax, P. ovale and P. malariae infections but in most patients there is no specific pattern. Hepatosplenomegaly is a common presenting sign although not common at presentation in a first world setting. Thrombocytopenia is common with falciparum infection and a mild degree of anaemia are commonly seen. WCC can be high, low or normal.

Pregnant women affected by P. falciparum are susceptible to the complications of pregnancy due to placental parasite sequestration. Treatment of malaria in pregnancy must be managed with an ID specialist and should be treated with IV antimalarial therapy.

The test of choice is Giesma-stained thick and thin blood smears. Thick films sensitively detect parasites whereas thin films allow species identification and calculation of parasitaemia to guide treatment. Studies have shown that for P falciparum, the most effective treatment is artesunate which is more effective than quinine without the risk of cinchonism. Numerous studies such as the AQUAMAT study in The Lancet showing that quinine should no longer be the established treatment of choice.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
339
Q

A 78 year old woman attends complaining of widespread itching. Examination reveals hepatosplenomegaly. The patient appears plethoric with no lymphadenopathy

A. RA
B. Right heart failure
C. Haemachromatosis
D. CML
E. Malaria
F. CLL
G. Toxoplasmosis
H. Portal vein thrombosis
I. Systemic amyloidosis
J. Cirrhosis with hepatoma
K. Polycythaemia rubra vera
L. Congestive cardiac failure
M. Malignant melanoma
N. Severe emphysema
A

K. Polycythaemia rubra vera - PRV is a disease of middle and older age and is strongly associated with the JAK2V617 mutation. Pruritis is a common feature and is often severe and evoked by contact with water. Facial redness and fullness is commonly observed and splenomegaly is a common finding. It is a myeloproliferative disorder with raised Hct, Hb and RBC count. Blood hence becomes very viscous. There is a clear link between Budd-Chiari syndrome and subsequent PRV. Treatment is with venesection. Around 30% will go on to develop myelofibrosis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
340
Q

A 78 year old woman attends complaining of recent onset of tiredness. She is pale, has hepatosplenomegaly and generalised painless lymphadenopathy in the neck, axillae and groin. Coombs’ (DAT) test is positive.

A. RA
B. Right heart failure
C. Haemachromatosis
D. CML
E. Malaria
F. CLL
G. Toxoplasmosis
H. Portal vein thrombosis
I. Systemic amyloidosis
J. Cirrhosis with hepatoma
K. Polycythaemia rubra vera
L. Congestive cardiac failure
M. Malignant melanoma
N. Severe emphysema
A

F. CLL - This elderly woman has CLL. CLL presents in older adults (generally >60) and is often asymptomatic. Smear cells can be seen in peripheral blood smear and it is associated with a warm type AIHA accounting for her pallor and fatigue (hence the Coombs’ test is positive). Painless lymphadenopathy may be present and splenomegaly is a common finding. A WCC with differential is required to make a diagnosis. An absolute lymphocytosis will be seen. CML is not associated with an AIHA and tends to present at a younger age.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
341
Q

A 60 year old woman is found to have hepatomegaly. She has a history of moderate alcohol use. She had an anterior MI 2 years previously. Examination reveals significant ankle oedema, elevated JVP & 1-2 spider naevi on her chest.

A. RA
B. Right heart failure
C. Haemachromatosis
D. CML
E. Malaria
F. CLL
G. Toxoplasmosis
H. Portal vein thrombosis
I. Systemic amyloidosis
J. Cirrhosis with hepatoma
K. Polycythaemia rubra vera
L. Congestive cardiac failure
M. Malignant melanoma
N. Severe emphysema
A

L. COngestive heart failure - The significant ankle oedema and raised JVP point towards right sided heart failure.The presence of 1-2 spider naevi is completely normal. Initial investigations should include ECG, CXR, TTE and bloods including BNP levels. First line treatment is with an ACE inhibitor which reduces morbidity and mortality. Salt and fluid restriction is also beneficial. All patients with chronic heart failure will also receive a beta blocker such as carvedilol. Other adjuncts include spironolactone, diuretics, hydralazine and a nitrate, and digoxin.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
342
Q

A 50 year old male with haemophilia & hepatitis C presents with weight loss & abdominal discomfort. He is mildly icteric with features of chronic liver disease & a large left lobe of the liver

A. RA
B. Right heart failure
C. Haemachromatosis
D. CML
E. Malaria
F. CLL
G. Toxoplasmosis
H. Portal vein thrombosis
I. Systemic amyloidosis
J. Cirrhosis with hepatoma
K. Polycythaemia rubra vera
L. Congestive cardiac failure
M. Malignant melanoma
N. Severe emphysema
A

J. Cirrhosis with hepatoma - HCV has caused this patient’s hepatic cirrhosis which has resulted in a hepatoma (HCC). It is likely that his HCV infection has resulted from contaminated blood products due to his haemophilia. This was a key problem before blood donor screening took place. Unlike HBV, HCV infection almost always results in cirrhosis before a hepatoma develops. The length of time the patient has HCV is a good correlate to the development of HCC. HCV is also strongly associated with IVDU which accounts for most infections. Treatment of the hepatoma is guided by staging and prognosis. Treatment includes resection, transplant, percutaneous ablation and chemo-embolisation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
343
Q

A 65 year old heavy smoker. He has been progressively short of breath over a few years. He has a smooth liver edge 2cms below the costal margin.

A. RA
B. Right heart failure
C. Haemachromatosis
D. CML
E. Malaria
F. CLL
G. Toxoplasmosis
H. Portal vein thrombosis
I. Systemic amyloidosis
J. Cirrhosis with hepatoma
K. Polycythaemia rubra vera
L. Congestive cardiac failure
M. Malignant melanoma
N. Severe emphysema
A

N. Severe emphysema - The liver is palpable in this man because severe emphysema has resulted in hyperexpanded lung fields.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
344
Q

A 25 year old female trainee solicitor presents complaining of bloating & excessive flatus. She is passing pellet-like stools associated with abdominal pains. Her symptoms have been intermittent for several years

A. Radiation proctitis
B. Infectious diarrhoea
C. Colorectal cancer
D. Diverticular disease
E. Irritable bowel syndrome
F. Benign colonic stricture
G. Hyperthyroidism
H. Inflammatory bowel disease
I. Ischaemic colitis
A

E. Irritable bowel syndrome - IBS is a chronic condition with abdominal pain associated with bowel dysfunction and is a diagnosis of exclusion. The pain or discomfort may be relieved by defecation. Examination is usually unremarkable and the diagnosis is based on the patient’s history in line with the Rome Criteria. If the patient presents with any worrying symptoms, then these will warrant a more thorough investigation. Treatment depends on the patient’s predominant symptoms. Antispasmodics relieve abdominal pain or discomfort but do not affect bowel habit. Examples include peppermint oil and dicycloverine. Laxatives can also be used such as lactulose. Lifestyle and dietary modifications combined with reassurance remain the 1st line intervention for functional bowel disease. IBS is linked with stressful jobs such as working as a secretary and there is a female/male ratio of 2:1. ‘Pellet-like’ stools is an indicator in EMQs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
345
Q

A 75 year old man with a 6 month history of straining at stool. He also thinks he is not emptying his rectum completely. He is passing blood & mucus per rectum. He has some weight loss & anorexia.

A. Radiation proctitis
B. Infectious diarrhoea
C. Colorectal cancer
D. Diverticular disease
E. Irritable bowel syndrome
F. Benign colonic stricture
G. Hyperthyroidism
H. Inflammatory bowel disease
I. Ischaemic colitis
A

C. Colorectal cancer - This a rectal carcinoma. Tenesmus, blood and mucus PR alongside weight loss and anorexia are all highly suggestive. Treatment of rectal carcinoma involves surgical excision where possible. This can either be an anterior resection (tumours in the upper 1/3 of the rectum) or an abdominoperineal resection (if the tumour lies lower down). APER involves the formation of a permanent colostomy and has a high incidence of sexual and urinary dysfunction. Anterior resection involves a colo-anal anastamosis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
346
Q

A 32 year old female presents with a 4 week history of bloody liquid stool with mucus, 9 times a day. She has anorexia, weight loss & anaemia.

A. Radiation proctitis
B. Infectious diarrhoea
C. Colorectal cancer
D. Diverticular disease
E. Irritable bowel syndrome
F. Benign colonic stricture
G. Hyperthyroidism
H. Inflammatory bowel disease
I. Ischaemic colitis
A

H. Inflammatory bowel disease - This patient gives a history of IBD. The history would be more suggestive of UC where the mainstay of treatment is with 5-ASA. A colonoscopy is required to assess the extent of disease and for a definitive diagnosis. Biopsy in CD will show transmural granulomatous inflammation. CD can affect the whole GIT but favours the TI and proximal colon and is macroscopically characterised by skip lesions. UC on the other hand is characterised by the presence of crypt abscesses, which is pathognomic. CD risk is increased 3-4 fold by smoking whereas smoking seems protective in UC. The mainstay of treatment in CD is with steroids and azathioprine to revent relapses and for those suffering side effects of steroid treatment. TNF-alpha inhibitors also have a role. Surgery in CD is only indicated in a small number of patients who bleed, for bowel perforation and cases of complete obstruction. The aim is to rest distal disease by temporarily diverting faecal flow.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
347
Q

A 19 year old male returns from a recent back packing holiday in India. He is passing bloody liquid stools about 15 times a day. He has lassitude, anorexia & a temperature of 37.50C

A. Radiation proctitis
B. Infectious diarrhoea
C. Colorectal cancer
D. Diverticular disease
E. Irritable bowel syndrome
F. Benign colonic stricture
G. Hyperthyroidism
H. Inflammatory bowel disease
I. Ischaemic colitis
A

B. Infectious diarrhoea - This patient has low grade pyrexia and recent foreign travel making infectious diarrhoea very likely. This man has probably eaten something dodgy while on holiday in India. Think of the organisms which cause bloody diarrhoea such as EHEC. E coli is the most common cause of traveller’s diarrhoea. There may be a contact history due to faecal-oral spread. The mainstay of treatment is rehydration and supportive therapy. Antibiotics may be indicated, particularly in severe ETEC.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
348
Q

A 65 year old man had an elective aortic aneurysm repair 5 days ago. He now has abdominal distension & left sided abdominal pain. He is passing a small amount of blood & mucus per rectum.

A. Radiation proctitis
B. Infectious diarrhoea
C. Colorectal cancer
D. Diverticular disease
E. Irritable bowel syndrome
F. Benign colonic stricture
G. Hyperthyroidism
H. Inflammatory bowel disease
I. Ischaemic colitis
A

I. Ischaemic collitis - Ischaemic colitis causes focal or diffuse abdominal pain and often has a more insidious onset than mesenteric ischaemia (over several hours or days). The recent operation in the approximate area has resulted in an incomplete blood supply to that part of the bowel. Mesenteric ischaemia and ischaemic colitis all form part of ‘ischaemic bowel disease’.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
349
Q

A 71 year old man who has had a MI 6 months ago presents with shortness of breath & fatigue. On examination, the JVP is raised. He has pitting oedema to the knees. There is tenderness in the right upper quadrant with a smooth liver edge at 5cm.

A. Tuberculous peritonitis
B. Heart failure
C. Budd Chiari syndrome
D. Liver cirrhosis
E. Primary liver tumour
F. Carcinoma of the ovary
G. Bacterial peritonitis
H. Primary biliary cirrhosis
I. Secondary liver tumours
J. Nephrotic syndrome
K. Carcinoma of caecum with peritoneal secondaries
A

B. Heart failure - This patient has heart failure, which has possibly occured as a consequence of his MI. SOB indicates pulmonary oedema due to LV failure. The raised JVP, peripheral oedema and tender hepatomegaly indicates RV failure. Initial investigations should include ECG, CXR, TTE and bloods including BNP levels. First line treatment is with an ACE inhibitor which reduces morbidity and mortality. Salt and fluid restriction is also beneficial. All patients with chronic heart failure will also receive a beta blocker such as carvedilol. Other adjuncts include spironolactone, diuretics, hydralazine and a nitrate, and digoxin.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
350
Q

A 50 year old man with a 1 month history of progressive abdominal distension preceded by increased tiredness, shortness of breath on exertion & weight loss of 10kg. There is a non-tender irregular mass in the right iliac fossa.

A. Tuberculous peritonitis
B. Heart failure
C. Budd Chiari syndrome
D. Liver cirrhosis
E. Primary liver tumour
F. Carcinoma of the ovary
G. Bacterial peritonitis
H. Primary biliary cirrhosis
I. Secondary liver tumours
J. Nephrotic syndrome
K. Carcinoma of caecum with peritoneal secondaries
A

K. Carcinoma of the caecum with peritoneal secondaries - The weight loss of 10kg, fatigue and non-tender irregular RIF mass point to caecal carcinoma. Right sided colorectal cancer tends to present with anaemic symptoms. Almost 90% are anaemic at diagnosis. The progressive abdominal distension indicates the presence of peritoneal secondaries, which causes vague symptoms. Treatment in this case for a cancer that has become widely metastatic will be palliative.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
351
Q

A 20 year old man presents with generalised swelling of the limbs, face & abdomen. Tests show that he has a normal blood count & liver function tests, except a low albumin level of 18g/L and a high cholesterol of 9.5mmol/L.

A. Tuberculous peritonitis
B. Heart failure
C. Budd Chiari syndrome
D. Liver cirrhosis
E. Primary liver tumour
F. Carcinoma of the ovary
G. Bacterial peritonitis
H. Primary biliary cirrhosis
I. Secondary liver tumours
J. Nephrotic syndrome
K. Carcinoma of caecum with peritoneal secondaries
A

J. Nephrotic syndrome - Nephrotic syndrome is the triad of proteinuria (>3.5g/24h), hypoalbuminaemia (

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
352
Q

A 35 year old woman has a 10 year history of low retrosternal dysphagia & painless regurgitation of food in the mouth

A. Cerebrovascular accident
B. Carcinoma of oesophagus
C. Plummer-Vinson syndrome
D. Gastric volvulus
E. Hiatus hernia
F. Pneumonia
G. Myasthenia gravis
H. Thyroid goitre
I. Carcinoma of bronchus
J. Pharyngeal pouch
K. Achalasia
A

E. Hiatus hernia - A hiatus hernia is where intraabdominal contents protrude through the oesophageal hiatus of the diaphragm. Risk factors inclyde obesity and high intra-abdominal pressure. The condition may be asymptomatic, or it may present with symptoms (which are non-specific) such as heartburn, dysphagia, pain on swallowing, wheezing, hoarseness and chest pain. A CXR is the first test done and may show an air bubble in the wrong place but barium studies are diagnostic and treatment depends on the symptoms and anatomy of the hernia. Hernias can be sliding or rolling (or mixed, or giant), uncomplicated or complicated by, for instance, obstruction and bleeding. Do you know the difference between a sliding and a rolling hiatal hernia?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
353
Q

A 65 year old woman has progressive low retrosternal dysphagia, initially to solids, but now also to liquids – coming on for the last 4 months. There has also been loss of appetite & 3kg weight loss.

A. Cerebrovascular accident
B. Carcinoma of oesophagus
C. Plummer-Vinson syndrome
D. Gastric volvulus
E. Hiatus hernia
F. Pneumonia
G. Myasthenia gravis
H. Thyroid goitre
I. Carcinoma of bronchus
J. Pharyngeal pouch
K. Achalasia
A

B. Carcinoma of oesophagus - Dysphagia (in this progressive pattern) coupled with weight loss points to malignancy. Dysphagia occurs when there is obstruction of more than 2/3 of the lumen and presence indicates locally advanced disease. There may additionally be odynophagia. Men are twice as likely to develop oesophageal cancer. GORD, Barrett’s oesophagus, FH, tobacco and alcohol are all risk factors. The two main types are squamous cell carcinoma and adenocarcinoma. Tumours in the upper 2/3 of the oesophagus are SCC whereas those that lie in the lower 1/3 are adenocarcinomas. The main test to order is an OGD with biopsy. Treatment is either surgical resection or with chemo or radiotherapy alongside endoscopic ablation with or without stenting and brachytherapy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
354
Q

A 45 year old lady presents with high retrosternal dysphagia. She has spoon-shaped nails & is noted to be pale.

A. Cerebrovascular accident
B. Carcinoma of oesophagus
C. Plummer-Vinson syndrome
D. Gastric volvulus
E. Hiatus hernia
F. Pneumonia
G. Myasthenia gravis
H. Thyroid goitre
I. Carcinoma of bronchus
J. Pharyngeal pouch
K. Achalasia
A

C. Plummer-Vinson syndrome - Plummer-Vinson syndrome is the association of chronic Iron Deficiency Anaemia (IDA) (shown here by the koilonychia and paleness on examination) with dysphagia due to a post cricoid web. Roughly 7% of those with IDA may complain of gradual onset dysphagia with the discomfort found in the area of the cricoid cartilage. Invasive procedures may be needed for management such as endoscopic dilation of the web but treatment is largely aimed at correcting the IDA.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
355
Q

A 40 year old man presents with dysphagia that worsens as he eats. He has droopy eyelids & sometimes has difficulty in speaking.

A. Cerebrovascular accident
B. Carcinoma of oesophagus
C. Plummer-Vinson syndrome
D. Gastric volvulus
E. Hiatus hernia
F. Pneumonia
G. Myasthenia gravis
H. Thyroid goitre
I. Carcinoma of bronchus
J. Pharyngeal pouch
K. Achalasia
A

G. Myesthenia gravis - Myasthenia gravis is an autoimmune condition with antibodies affecting the NMJ, mostly the nAChR at the post-synaptic muscle membrane. Although some have antibodies against MuSK, and there are other proteins involved. MG is characterised by muscle weakness which increases with exercise (fatigue, demonstrated here as the dysphagia gets worse as he eats, unlike Lambert-Eaton myasthenic syndrome). Commonly, presentations include diplopia and drooping eyelids like this patient, and there may also be SOB, proximal limb weakness, facial paresis and oropharyngeal weakness. MG is associated with thymic hyperplasia in 70% or thymoma in 10%, and these associations can also crop up in EMQs. There will be elevated serum AChR receptor antibody titres or MuSK antibodies. Electrophysiology will demonstrate a decremental response on repetitive nerve stimulation. Treatment includes anticholinesterases (pyridostigmine, and immunotherapy. Patients may also require a thymectomy. Some 15-20% may experience a myasthenic crisis (which needs mechanical ventilation). Do you know what the Tensilon test is and why edrophonium is given in this test?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
356
Q

A 50 year old describes a 5 month history of heartburn and cramp-like chest pain relived by drinking cold water, both unrelated to food. There has also been intermittent dysphagia to both liquids and solids, regurgitation and weight loss of 2kg.

A. Cerebrovascular accident
B. Carcinoma of oesophagus
C. Plummer-Vinson syndrome
D. Gastric volvulus
E. Hiatus hernia
F. Pneumonia
G. Myasthenia gravis
H. Thyroid goitre
I. Carcinoma of bronchus
J. Pharyngeal pouch
K. Achalasia
A

K. Achalasia - This is achalasia which is a motility disorder with loss of peristalsis in the distal oesophagus and failure of the LOS to relax in response to swallowing. This presents commonly with dysphagia to both liquids and solids, regurgitation and retrosternal chest pain, which can be slowly progressive over time. In structural obstruction such as cancer, dysphagia to liquids is uncommon unless the disease is very advanced. Retrosternal pressure experienced can be precipitated by drinking liquids but is eased by continuing to drink, and the pain may be relieved by cold water. This may wake the individual from sleep. A UGI endoscopy is needed to exclude malignancy as a cause of dysphagia. The diagnosis is established on manometry or barium studies. Treatment is symptomatic.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
357
Q

A 45 year old lady presenting with intense pruritus, joint pains & tiredness. She has also noticed that she is becoming yellow. On examination she was clubbed with xanthelasma around her eyes. She has dry eyes and a dry mouth. Her spleen was also palpably enlarged.

A. Reflux oesophagitis
B. Cancer of the liver
C. Hiatus hernia
D. Cancer of the pancreas
E. Gastric ulcer
F. Liver cirrhosis
G. Irritable bowel syndrome
H. Coeliac’s disease
I. Carcinoma of oesophagus
J. Duodenal ulcer
K. Inflammatory bowel disease
L. Chronic hepatitis
M. Primary biliary cirrhosis
N. Pancreatitis
A

M. Primary biliary cirrhosis - Primary biliary cirrhosis (PBC) is a chronic condition where the intrahepatic small bile ducts are progressively damaged (and eventually lost) occuring on a background of portal tract inflammation. Fibrosis develops, ultimately leading to cirrhosis (which is defined as fibrosis with nodular regeneration). It is widely believed to be autoimmune in aetiology as almost all patients have AMA. The pointers in this question which would raise your suspicion, is xanthelasma around the eyes, pruritis in the absence of an obvious dermatological cause, fatigue and the features of liver disease typical of cirrhosis (jaundice) and splenomegaly as a feature of portal hypertension. The patient also has dry eyes and dry mouth from associated Sjogren’s syndrome. The joint pains could indicate RA.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
358
Q

A 70 year old man presents with general malaise, weakness & right upper quadrant abdominal pain. On examination he looked ill & was clinically jaundiced. There were spider naevi, palmar erythema, leuconychia, Dupuytren’s contracture & gynaecomastia.

A. Reflux oesophagitis
B. Cancer of the liver
C. Hiatus hernia
D. Cancer of the pancreas
E. Gastric ulcer
F. Liver cirrhosis
G. Irritable bowel syndrome
H. Coeliac’s disease
I. Carcinoma of oesophagus
J. Duodenal ulcer
K. Inflammatory bowel disease
L. Chronic hepatitis
M. Primary biliary cirrhosis
N. Pancreatitis
A

F. Liver cirrhosis - Cirrhosis is the end-stage of chronic liver disease, resulting in hepatic insufficiency and portal hypertension. This has resulted in this man’s jaundice. Palmar erythema affects the thenar and hypothenar eminences. Other signs include spider naevi, telangiectasia, Dupuytren’s contracture, parotid swelling, leuconychia from hypoalbuminaemia, gynaecomastia and bruising. Management is aimed at treating the underlying liver disease. The only curative option, once decompensated, is liver transplantation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
359
Q

A 25 year old lady presented with fever, abdominal pains & weight loss. She was opening her bowels x 10-12/day with blood & mucus.

A. Reflux oesophagitis
B. Cancer of the liver
C. Hiatus hernia
D. Cancer of the pancreas
E. Gastric ulcer
F. Liver cirrhosis
G. Irritable bowel syndrome
H. Coeliac’s disease
I. Carcinoma of oesophagus
J. Duodenal ulcer
K. Inflammatory bowel disease
L. Chronic hepatitis
M. Primary biliary cirrhosis
N. Pancreatitis
A

K. Inflammatory bowel disease - This patient gives a history of IBD. The history would be more suggestive of UC (but could be CD) where the mainstay of treatment is with 5-ASA. A colonoscopy is required to assess the extent of disease and for a definitive diagnosis. Biopsy in CD will show transmural granulomatous inflammation. CD can affect the whole GIT but favours the TI and proximal colon and is macroscopically characterised by skip lesions. UC on the other hand is characterised by the presence of crypt abscesses, which is pathognomic. CD risk is increased 3-4 fold by smoking whereas smoking seems protective in UC. The mainstay of treatment in CD is with steroids and azathioprine to revent relapses and for those suffering side effects of steroid treatment. TNF-alpha inhibitors also have a role. Surgery in CD is only indicated in a small number of patients who bleed, for bowel perforation and cases of complete obstruction. The aim is to rest distal disease by temporarily diverting faecal flow.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
360
Q

A 40 year old anxious lady with intermittent abdominal pain relieved by defecation. Her abdomen feels distended & her stool, alternated between diarrhoea & constipation.

A. Reflux oesophagitis
B. Cancer of the liver
C. Hiatus hernia
D. Cancer of the pancreas
E. Gastric ulcer
F. Liver cirrhosis
G. Irritable bowel syndrome
H. Coeliac’s disease
I. Carcinoma of oesophagus
J. Duodenal ulcer
K. Inflammatory bowel disease
L. Chronic hepatitis
M. Primary biliary cirrhosis
N. Pancreatitis
A

G. Irritable bowel syndrome - IBS is a chronic condition with abdominal pain associated with bowel dysfunction and is a diagnosis of exclusion. The pain or discomfort may be relieved by defecation. Examination is usually unremarkable and the diagnosis is based on the patient’s history in line with the Rome Criteria. If the patient presents with any worrying symptoms, then these will warrant a more thorough investigation. Treatment depends on the patient’s predominant symptoms. Antispasmodics relieve abdominal pain or discomfort but do not affect bowel habit. Examples include peppermint oil and dicycloverine. Laxatives can also be used such as lactulose. Lifestyle and dietary modifications combined with reassurance remain the 1st line intervention for functional bowel disease. IBS is linked with stressful jobs such as working as a secretary and there is a female/male ratio of 2:1. ‘Pellet-like’ stools is an indicator in EMQs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
361
Q

A 70 year old diabetic man, who smoked 40 cigs/day for 40 years. He presents with abdominal pain worse at night & radiating to his back. He is losing weight, suffers from dyspepsia & pruritus. On examination he is cachectic, jaundiced & has an enlarged gallbladder.

A. Reflux oesophagitis
B. Cancer of the liver
C. Hiatus hernia
D. Cancer of the pancreas
E. Gastric ulcer
F. Liver cirrhosis
G. Irritable bowel syndrome
H. Coeliac’s disease
I. Carcinoma of oesophagus
J. Duodenal ulcer
K. Inflammatory bowel disease
L. Chronic hepatitis
M. Primary biliary cirrhosis
N. Pancreatitis
A

D. Cancer of the pancreas - Pancreatic cancer typically presents with painless obstructive jaundice and weight loss and generally presents late. It can however, like this case, present with abdominal pain which is typically non-specific in the upper abdomen. If the patient presents with persistent back pain, then this symptom is consistent with retroperitoneal metastases. It is estimated that 1 in 4 cases can be linked to smoking. Whipple’s procedure or Traverso-Longmire procedure (pancreaticoduodenectomy) offers the only hope of a cure but only a small minority are elegible for these procedures. The first tests to order are an abdominal USS and LFTs. Note Courvoisier’s law with regard to this question: Jaundice and a palpable painless gallbladder is unlikely to be caused by gallstones. The tumour marker for pancreatic cancer is CA19-9 which is useful in preoperative staging.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
362
Q

A 50 year old man: BR 50umol/l, ALP 200iu/l, ALT 120iu/l, GGT 600iu/l.

A. Alcoholic cirrhosis
B. Gilbert’s syndrome
C. Acute pancreatitis
D. Hepatocellular carcinoma
E. Paracetamol overdose
F. Cholangiocarcinoma
G. Drug-induced cholestasis
H. CMV infection
I. Haemolysis
J. Pancreatic cancer
K. Wilson’s disease
L. Gallstones
M. Viral hepatitis
A

A. Alcoholic cirrhosis - Cirrhosis is the end-stage of chronic liver disease, in this case due to alcoholic liver disease. Cirrhosis results in hepatic insufficiency and portal hypertension. The high GGT here is as a result of high alcohol consumption.

Liver function tests are mistakenly named really because they don’t test liver function. They are better called ‘liver tests’ or ‘tests of liver chemistry’. The tests of liver synthetic function come from measuring albumin levels (produced by the liver) and the prothrombin time, as the liver has a key role in the manufacture of clotting factors. Some general points on liver tests to consider: These tests tend to include bilirubin (breakdown product of RBC after hepatic conjugation, and is secreted in the biliary system), AST, ALT, GGT, ALP (alk phos) and LDH. It’s really all about pattern recognition. Isolated elevation of liver tests tends to make you think of non-hepatic causes and you should take into account the patient’s history during interpretation. A normal liver panel does not mean that the person does not have liver disease, and liver tests are elevated in a small percentage of normals.

You can split the possible causes into three broad categories. It is worth noting that people with any pattern can have cirrhosis. AST is also present in heart, skeletal muscle, kidney, brain and in RBCs too. 80% of AST is found in the mitochondria and 20% in the cytoplasmic matrix. ALP, which is a cytoplasmic enzyme, can come from bone, kidney, intestines or the placenta. GGT may come from the heart or RBCs.

The first is predominantly elevated AST/ALT, which is described as a hepatocellular pattern and occurs in conditions such as viral hepatitis, alcoholic disease, Wilson’s etc. Here the hepatocytes get damaged and enzymes leak out.

The second is predominantly elevated ALP (GGT too, but an isolated rise in GGT is common so many hospitals remove GGT from the liver panel. GGT is only useful if there is an isolated rise in ALP). This is seen in a cholestatic (here, the hepatobiliary system is affected) or infiltrative pattern in bile duct obstruction, malignancy e.g. HCC or pancreatic, PBC/PSC etc or infiltrative conditions such as TB and lymphomas.

The last is an isolated hyperbilirubinaemia seen in haemolysis, intra-abdominal bleeding or with conditions such as Gilbert’s. BR elevation can be further divided into conjugated or unconjugated. Unconjugated is normally due to breakdown of RBC beyond the liver’s capacity to conjugate. Conjugated occurs in liver disease and problems with obstructed bile flow.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
363
Q

A 50 year old man: BR 110umol/l, ALP 300iu/l, ALT 110iu/l, AFP is elevated.

A. Alcoholic cirrhosis
B. Gilbert’s syndrome
C. Acute pancreatitis
D. Hepatocellular carcinoma
E. Paracetamol overdose
F. Cholangiocarcinoma
G. Drug-induced cholestasis
H. CMV infection
I. Haemolysis
J. Pancreatic cancer
K. Wilson’s disease
L. Gallstones
M. Viral hepatitis
A

D. Hepatocellular carcinoma - The pattern here is cholestatic. Furthermore, elevated AFP is given, which is a tumour marker for HCC, differentiating this from other potential causes like pancreatic cancer. AST and ALT may be normal or elevated.

Liver function tests are mistakenly named really because they don’t test liver function. They are better called ‘liver tests’ or ‘tests of liver chemistry’. The tests of liver synthetic function come from measuring albumin levels (produced by the liver) and the prothrombin time, as the liver has a key role in the manufacture of clotting factors. Some general points on liver tests to consider: These tests tend to include bilirubin (breakdown product of RBC after hepatic conjugation, and is secreted in the biliary system), AST, ALT, GGT, ALP (alk phos) and LDH. It’s really all about pattern recognition. Isolated elevation of liver tests tends to make you think of non-hepatic causes and you should take into account the patient’s history during interpretation. A normal liver panel does not mean that the person does not have liver disease, and liver tests are elevated in a small percentage of normals.

You can split the possible causes into three broad categories. It is worth noting that people with any pattern can have cirrhosis. AST is also present in heart, skeletal muscle, kidney, brain and in RBCs too. 80% of AST is found in the mitochondria and 20% in the cytoplasmic matrix. ALP, which is a cytoplasmic enzyme, can come from bone, kidney, intestines or the placenta. GGT may come from the heart or RBCs.

The first is predominantly elevated AST/ALT, which is described as a hepatocellular pattern and occurs in conditions such as viral hepatitis, alcoholic disease, Wilson’s etc. Here the hepatocytes get damaged and enzymes leak out.

The second is predominantly elevated ALP (GGT too, but an isolated rise in GGT is common so many hospitals remove GGT from the liver panel. GGT is only useful if there is an isolated rise in ALP). This is seen in a cholestatic (here, the hepatobiliary system is affected) or infiltrative pattern in bile duct obstruction, malignancy e.g. HCC or pancreatic, PBC/PSC etc or infiltrative conditions such as TB and lymphomas.

The last is an isolated hyperbilirubinaemia seen in haemolysis, intra-abdominal bleeding or with conditions such as Gilbert’s. BR elevation can be further divided into conjugated or unconjugated. Unconjugated is normally due to breakdown of RBC beyond the liver’s capacity to conjugate. Conjugated occurs in liver disease and problems with obstructed bile flow.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
364
Q

A 35 year old woman: BR 80umol/l, ALP 300iu/l, ALT 30iu/l, GGT 30iu/l. Abdominal USS shows biliary dilation. The patient has RUQ tenderness.

A. Alcoholic cirrhosis
B. Gilbert’s syndrome
C. Acute pancreatitis
D. Hepatocellular carcinoma
E. Paracetamol overdose
F. Cholangiocarcinoma
G. Drug-induced cholestasis
H. CMV infection
I. Haemolysis
J. Pancreatic cancer
K. Wilson’s disease
L. Gallstones
M. Viral hepatitis
A

L. Gallstones - This is again a cholestatic pattern and the ultrasound scan means this is either choledocholithiasis, pancreatic cancer or cholangiocarcinoma. The fact there is RUQ pain points more towards gallstones. The other two tend to present painlessly.

Liver function tests are mistakenly named really because they don’t test liver function. They are better called ‘liver tests’ or ‘tests of liver chemistry’. The tests of liver synthetic function come from measuring albumin levels (produced by the liver) and the prothrombin time, as the liver has a key role in the manufacture of clotting factors. Some general points on liver tests to consider: These tests tend to include bilirubin (breakdown product of RBC after hepatic conjugation, and is secreted in the biliary system), AST, ALT, GGT, ALP (alk phos) and LDH. It’s really all about pattern recognition. Isolated elevation of liver tests tends to make you think of non-hepatic causes and you should take into account the patient’s history during interpretation. A normal liver panel does not mean that the person does not have liver disease, and liver tests are elevated in a small percentage of normals.

You can split the possible causes into three broad categories. It is worth noting that people with any pattern can have cirrhosis. AST is also present in heart, skeletal muscle, kidney, brain and in RBCs too. 80% of AST is found in the mitochondria and 20% in the cytoplasmic matrix. ALP, which is a cytoplasmic enzyme, can come from bone, kidney, intestines or the placenta. GGT may come from the heart or RBCs.

The first is predominantly elevated AST/ALT, which is described as a hepatocellular pattern and occurs in conditions such as viral hepatitis, alcoholic disease, Wilson’s etc. Here the hepatocytes get damaged and enzymes leak out.

The second is predominantly elevated ALP (GGT too, but an isolated rise in GGT is common so many hospitals remove GGT from the liver panel. GGT is only useful if there is an isolated rise in ALP). This is seen in a cholestatic (here, the hepatobiliary system is affected) or infiltrative pattern in bile duct obstruction, malignancy e.g. HCC or pancreatic, PBC/PSC etc or infiltrative conditions such as TB and lymphomas.

The last is an isolated hyperbilirubinaemia seen in haemolysis, intra-abdominal bleeding or with conditions such as Gilbert’s. BR elevation can be further divided into conjugated or unconjugated. Unconjugated is normally due to breakdown of RBC beyond the liver’s capacity to conjugate. Conjugated occurs in liver disease and problems with obstructed bile flow.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
365
Q

A 20 year old man: BR 45umol/l, (Conjugated 7, unconjugated 38), ALP 40iu/l, AST 12iu/l, Hb 15g/dl, Normal blood film

A. Alcoholic cirrhosis
B. Gilbert’s syndrome
C. Acute pancreatitis
D. Hepatocellular carcinoma
E. Paracetamol overdose
F. Cholangiocarcinoma
G. Drug-induced cholestasis
H. CMV infection
I. Haemolysis
J. Pancreatic cancer
K. Wilson’s disease
L. Gallstones
M. Viral hepatitis
A

B. Gilberts syndrome - Gilbert’s occurs in an asymptomatic patient, often as an incidental finding or mild jaundice occuring in adolescence/young adult age. There is elevated unconjugated BR with other liver tests being normal. The blood smear is also normal with normal reticulocyte count, and normal Hb indicating that this is not due to haemolysis. It is a common syndrome and is not really a disease, more a physiological variant. No treatment is needed and this condition is due to decreased UDPGT activity leading to decreased conjugation of unconjugated bilirubin, leading to elevated levels.

Liver function tests are mistakenly named really because they don’t test liver function. They are better called ‘liver tests’ or ‘tests of liver chemistry’. The tests of liver synthetic function come from measuring albumin levels (produced by the liver) and the prothrombin time, as the liver has a key role in the manufacture of clotting factors. Some general points on liver tests to consider: These tests tend to include bilirubin (breakdown product of RBC after hepatic conjugation, and is secreted in the biliary system), AST, ALT, GGT, ALP (alk phos) and LDH. It’s really all about pattern recognition. Isolated elevation of liver tests tends to make you think of non-hepatic causes and you should take into account the patient’s history during interpretation. A normal liver panel does not mean that the person does not have liver disease, and liver tests are elevated in a small percentage of normals.

You can split the possible causes into three broad categories. It is worth noting that people with any pattern can have cirrhosis. AST is also present in heart, skeletal muscle, kidney, brain and in RBCs too. 80% of AST is found in the mitochondria and 20% in the cytoplasmic matrix. ALP, which is a cytoplasmic enzyme, can come from bone, kidney, intestines or the placenta. GGT may come from the heart or RBCs.

The first is predominantly elevated AST/ALT, which is described as a hepatocellular pattern and occurs in conditions such as viral hepatitis, alcoholic disease, Wilson’s etc. Here the hepatocytes get damaged and enzymes leak out.

The second is predominantly elevated ALP (GGT too, but an isolated rise in GGT is common so many hospitals remove GGT from the liver panel. GGT is only useful if there is an isolated rise in ALP). This is seen in a cholestatic (here, the hepatobiliary system is affected) or infiltrative pattern in bile duct obstruction, malignancy e.g. HCC or pancreatic, PBC/PSC etc or infiltrative conditions such as TB and lymphomas.

The last is an isolated hyperbilirubinaemia seen in haemolysis, intra-abdominal bleeding or with conditions such as Gilbert’s. BR elevation can be further divided into conjugated or unconjugated. Unconjugated is normally due to breakdown of RBC beyond the liver’s capacity to conjugate. Conjugated occurs in liver disease and problems with obstructed bile flow.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
366
Q

A 55 year old man presents with a few months history of weight loss, lethargy & fever. On examination, he has a large liver & spleen. His WBC is 10.2x109/l & his blood film shows increased granulocytes & granulocyte precursors.

A. Sarcoidosis
B. Polycythaemia
C. Gaucher’s disease
D. Portal hypertension
E. Infectious mononucleosis
F. IDA
G. Bacterial endocarditis
H. Hodgkin’s disease
I. Malaria
J. Idiopathic myelofibrosis
K. Metastatic carcinoma
L. CML
A

L. CML - This is CML which tends to present in the 30-60 age group. At presentation 1/3 may be asymptomatic though if symptomatic, it presents with symptoms including fever, weight loss and night sweats. There is myeloid stem cell proliferation and presents with raised neutrophils, metamyelocytes and basophils. The patient’s granulocytosis is suggestive of CML. CML is associated with the philadelphia chromosome characterised by t(9;22) of bcr-abl. There tends to be massive splenomegaly which is the most common physical finding on examination. This conditon may transform to AML or ALL in what is known as a ‘blast crisis’. CML responds to imatinib, which is an anti-bcr-abl antibody and gives long term remission in most patients.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
367
Q

A 27 year old Afro-Caribbean man presents with fever, weight loss and an intractable itch. His spleen is just palpable and he has two 3cm nodes in his right neck. Hb is low.

A. Sarcoidosis
B. Polycythaemia
C. Gaucher’s disease
D. Portal hypertension
E. Infectious mononucleosis
F. IDA
G. Bacterial endocarditis
H. Hodgkin’s disease
I. Malaria
J. Idiopathic myelofibrosis
K. Metastatic carcinoma
L. CML
A

H. Hodgkin’s disease - This is a case of lymphoma. Reed-Sternberg cells are binucleate cells characteristically seen in Hodgkin’s lymphoma. Hodgkin’s is localised to a single group of nodes (normally the cervical and/or supraclavicular) and extranodal involvement is rare. Mediastinal involvement is common. Spread is contiguous and B symptoms may be present such as a low grade fever, weight loss and night sweats. Pruritis may be found in approximately 10% of cases but has no prognostic significance. 50% of cases is associated with EBV infection and distribution is bimodal with peaks in young and old. There is classically pain in lymph nodes on alcohol consumption.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
368
Q

An 18 year old Caucasian shop assistant presents with fever & a sore throat. She is found to have enlarged but soft cervical lymph nodes & a soft spleen palpable 3cm below the costal margin. Blood film shows atypical lymphocytes.

A. Sarcoidosis
B. Polycythaemia
C. Gaucher’s disease
D. Portal hypertension
E. Infectious mononucleosis
F. IDA
G. Bacterial endocarditis
H. Hodgkin’s disease
I. Malaria
J. Idiopathic myelofibrosis
K. Metastatic carcinoma
L. CML
A

E. Infectious mononucleosis - This is caused by EBV and characterised by fever, pharyngitis and lymphadenopathy with atypical lymphocytosis. Positive heterophile antibody test and serological testing for EBV antibodies are diagnostic. Splenomegaly is common and enlargement occurs in the first week, lasting 3-4 weeks. It is worth remembering that splenomegaly is always an abnormal examination finding. IM is commonly named the ‘kissing’ disease as EBV is most commonly transmitted by saliva. Penetrative sex and general promiscuity in young women also increases the risk.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
369
Q

A 70 year old English woman presents with fever, slight splenomegaly, splinter haemorrhages & a diastolic murmur at the apex of the heart.

A. Sarcoidosis
B. Polycythaemia
C. Gaucher’s disease
D. Portal hypertension
E. Infectious mononucleosis
F. IDA
G. Bacterial endocarditis
H. Hodgkin’s disease
I. Malaria
J. Idiopathic myelofibrosis
K. Metastatic carcinoma
L. CML
A

G. Bacterial endocarditis - Any patient presenting with fever and a new murmur should always make you think of bacterial endocarditis. The classic new or worsening murmur is actually rare. As are splinter haemorrhages, which this patient has. Other uncommon signs you may find include Janeway lesions (painless macular haemorrhagic plaques on the palms and soles) and Osler nodes (painful nodules on the pads of the fingers and toes). Roth spots may also be seen on fundoscopy. Three sets of bood cultures are required and this patient will have to go for an echocardiogram.The Duke criteria is used for diagnosis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
370
Q

A 65 year old man presents with angina & claudication. He is found to have a firm spleen extending 20cm below the costal margin. His Hb is 7.5g/dl & his blood film is leuco-erythroblastic.

A. Sarcoidosis
B. Polycythaemia
C. Gaucher’s disease
D. Portal hypertension
E. Infectious mononucleosis
F. IDA
G. Bacterial endocarditis
H. Hodgkin’s disease
I. Malaria
J. Idiopathic myelofibrosis
K. Metastatic carcinoma
L. CML
A

J. Ideopathic myelofibrosis - This is a case of myelofibrosis. Leucoerythroblastosis and splenomegaly are common findings. Strong risk factors include exposure to radiation and industrial solvents. BM biopsy is essential for diagnosis. Extramedullary haematopoiesis leads to dacrocytes in the peripheral blood smear. Those without symptoms can be managed with folate and pyridoxine supplements. Otherwise options such as a BM transplant and hydroxycarbamide can be considered.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
371
Q

A 35 year old lawyer with a history of recurring piles & having been treated by his GP with sclerosing therapy continues to bleed. He is referred to surgical outpatients for more definitive treatment.

A. Palliative care
B. Hemicolectomy
C. IV immunoglobulin
D. Anterior resection
E. Topical GTN
F. Haemorrhoidectomy
G. Blood transfusion
H. High fibre diet
I. Colostomy
J. Loperamide (Imodium)
K. IV corticosteroids
A

F. Haemorrhoidectomy - Haemorrhoidectomy is the treatment of choice of choice for patients with grade 4 haemorrhoids or for any patient who has failed with more conservative treatment such as sclerotherapy. Grade 1 is limited to within the anal canal. Grade 2 protrudes but spontaneously reduces when the patient stops straining. Grade 3 protrudes and reduces fully on manual pressure. Grade 4 is irreducible. Lord’s anal stretch is no longer recommended due to the risk of faecal incontinence.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
372
Q

A 33 year old man has severe pain and fresh bleeding on defecation.

A. Palliative care
B. Hemicolectomy
C. IV immunoglobulin
D. Anterior resection
E. Topical GTN
F. Haemorrhoidectomy
G. Blood transfusion
H. High fibre diet
I. Colostomy
J. Loperamide (Imodium)
K. IV corticosteroids
A

E. Topical GTN - This patient has an anal fissure. This causes severe pain on defecation and may continue for 1 to 2 hours. A small amount of fresh blood is often passed on the stool. Initial treatment is with topical GTN or diltiazem along with supportive measures such a high fibre diet. Resistant or chronic fissures may benefit from surgical measures or botulinum toxin.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
373
Q

A 39 year old woman who is on mesalazine for her ulcerative colitis presents with 12 daily bowel movements and massive continuous bleeding PR; she is noted to have a raised ESR.

A. Palliative care
B. Hemicolectomy
C. IV immunoglobulin
D. Anterior resection
E. Topical GTN
F. Haemorrhoidectomy
G. Blood transfusion
H. High fibre diet
I. Colostomy
J. Loperamide (Imodium)
K. IV corticosteroids
A

K. IV corticosteroid - IV corticosteroids are used in fulminant disease. These patients need to be admitted. If there is no response to IV corticosteroids within 24 to 48 hours then surgery is indicated.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
374
Q

A 24 year old woman following a viral infection was diagnosed as having idiopathic thrombocytopaenia. She presents to A&E & complains of multiple bruising & rectal bleeding. She is on oral prednisolone 30mg/day. Her Hb is 12.5g/dl.

A. Palliative care
B. Hemicolectomy
C. IV immunoglobulin
D. Anterior resection
E. Topical GTN
F. Haemorrhoidectomy
G. Blood transfusion
H. High fibre diet
I. Colostomy
J. Loperamide (Imodium)
K. IV corticosteroids
A

C. IV immunoglobulin - ITP is thought to be due to an autoimmune phenomenon. Treatment is based on the patient’s platelet count and bleeding symptoms. This patient has severe active bleeding and must be started on IVIG plus corticosteroids, which she is already on. Platelet transfusions should be considered with tranexamic acid as an adjunct.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
375
Q

A 58 year old man was admitted complaining of abdominal pain. He is found to have rectal carcinoma.

A. Palliative care
B. Hemicolectomy
C. IV immunoglobulin
D. Anterior resection
E. Topical GTN
F. Haemorrhoidectomy
G. Blood transfusion
H. High fibre diet
I. Colostomy
J. Loperamide (Imodium)
K. IV corticosteroids
A

D. Anterior resection - Treatment of rectal carcinoma involves surgical excision where possible. This can either be an anterior resection (tumours in the upper 1/3 of the rectum) or an abdominoperineal resection (if the tumour lies lower down). APER involves the formation of a permanent colostomy and has a high incidence of sexual and urinary dysfunction. Anterior resection involves a colo-anal anastamosis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
376
Q

A 64 year old man presents with a 1 day history of dark rectal bleeding. He has complained of some diarrhoea for the last 6 months, & has noticed some loss of weight. Rectal examination & proctoscopy are normal.

A. Infective colitis
B. Haemorrhoids
C. Anal fissure
D. Colonic carcinoma
E. Anal carcinoma
F. Crohn’s disease
G. Ulcerative colitis
H. Colonic polyp
I. Diverticular disease
J. Ischaemic colitis
A

D. Colonic carcinoma - The symptoms of colorectal cancer are non-specific but the GI symptoms here combined with weight loss should make you suspicious. Symptoms include change in bowel habit, rectal bleeding and anaemia, commonly associated with right sided cancer. Distension, weight loss and vomiting are usually associated with advanced disease. Colonoscopy will be needed in this patient for diagnosis and a biopsy of any suspicious lesion found. Main curative treatment is surgical resection. CEA is the classic tumour marker, which is raised in about 80% but is not really sensitive or specific enough to be useful in diagnosis or screening, but is used to monitor treatment and recurrence in those who have already been diagnosed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
377
Q

A 24 year old woman presents with a 3 month history of lower abdominal colicky pain, diarrhoea (bowels open 6-10 times per day) & passage of blood mixed with the stool.

A. Infective colitis
B. Haemorrhoids
C. Anal fissure
D. Colonic carcinoma
E. Anal carcinoma
F. Crohn’s disease
G. Ulcerative colitis
H. Colonic polyp
I. Diverticular disease
J. Ischaemic colitis
A

G. Ulcerative collitis - While this could be Crohn’s disease, bloody diarrhoea is more commonly a presentation of UC than Crohn’s. UC is characterised by diffuse mucosal inflammation running a relapsing and remitting course. Bloody diarrhoea is commonly experienced by patients who may also complain of other symptoms such as (lower) abdominal pain, faecal urgency and the host of extra-intestinal manifestations associated with UC. Diagnosis of UC requires endoscopy with biopsy and a negative stool culture to rule out infectious gastroenteritis. Flare ups are usually linked to pathogens so a stool culture will always be needed in these cases. Toxic megacolon is a complication which is associated with a risk of perforation. UC is also linked with bowel adenocarinoma and PSC. Treatment involves mesalazine (5-ASA) used to induce and maintain remission.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
378
Q

A 54 year old man with no previous abdominal symptoms complains of several episodes of painless bright red rectal bleeding which is separate from the stool. Abdominal, rectal examination & proctoscopy are normal.

A. Infective colitis
B. Haemorrhoids
C. Anal fissure
D. Colonic carcinoma
E. Anal carcinoma
F. Crohn’s disease
G. Ulcerative colitis
H. Colonic polyp
I. Diverticular disease
J. Ischaemic colitis
A

H. Colonic polyp - Most polyps are asymptomatic and rectal bleeding is indeed an unusual symptom to present with (though FOBT may be positive), but the lack of previous symptoms and normal examination findings makes this likely to be a bleeding polyp. The next step here would be endoscopy with polypectomy for histological examination. Indeed they are frequently found incidentally on screening with FOBT or colonoscopy for another reason. If there are a few polyps, all of them will be removed. If there are many, a sample will be removed for biopsy. Polyps can also be inherited in FAP, also seen in Gardner syndrome and Peutz-Jeghers. They can be neoplastic such as adenomas or non-neoplastic such as hyperplastic polyps.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
379
Q

A 24 year old man presents with a 3 month history of episodes of painless, bright red rectal bleeding on straining at stool. He has noticed some blood in the bowl, separate from the stool & some on the paper after wiping.

A. Infective colitis
B. Haemorrhoids
C. Anal fissure
D. Colonic carcinoma
E. Anal carcinoma
F. Crohn’s disease
G. Ulcerative colitis
H. Colonic polyp
I. Diverticular disease
J. Ischaemic colitis
A

B Haemorrhoids - Haemorrhoids are vascular rich cushions in the anal canal and presents, typically, as painless bright PR bleeding or with sudden onset pain in the area associated with a palpable mass. Pruritus ani is common and there is often perianal pain or discomfort. Diagnosis is made visually. Grade 1 is limited to within the anal canal. Grade 2 protrudes but spontaneously reduces when the patient stops straining. Grade 3 protrudes and reduces fully on manual pressure. Grade 4 is irreducible. Treatment includes fibre, ligation, photocoagulation, sclerotherapy or surgical haemorrhoidectomy. Haemorrhoidectomy is the treatment of choice of choice for patients with grade 4 haemorrhoids or for any patient who has failed with more conservative treatment such as sclerotherapy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
380
Q

A 28 year old female medical student returns from her elective in Africa with a short history of severe lower abdominal cramps & the passage of bloody diarrhoea.

A. Infective colitis
B. Haemorrhoids
C. Anal fissure
D. Colonic carcinoma
E. Anal carcinoma
F. Crohn’s disease
G. Ulcerative colitis
H. Colonic polyp
I. Diverticular disease
J. Ischaemic colitis
A

A Infective collitis - This patient has recent foreign travel and a short history, previously normal, making infectious diarrhoea very likely. Probably eaten something dodgy while on elective. Think of the organisms which cause bloody diarrhoea such as EHEC. E coli is the most common cause of traveller’s diarrhoea. There may be a contact history due to faecal-oral spread. The mainstay of treatment is rehydration and supportive therapy. Antibiotics may be indicated, particularly in severe ETEC.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
381
Q

A 40 year old lady with multiple painful lumps in her breast, which are painful & tender premenstrually.

A. Sebaceous cyst
B. Fibroadenoma
C. Fibroadenosis
D. Gynaecomastia
E. Breast abscess
F. Carcinoma of the breast
G. Breast cyst
H. Lipoma
I. Duct ectasia
A

C. Fibroadenosis - Fibrocystic breasts are characterised by ‘lumpy’ breasts associated with pain which fluctuates with the menstrual cycle (it is worse during the luteal phase of menses). Risk factors include obesity, nulliparity, HRT and late onset menopause and first childbirth. It is a diagnosis of exclusion, and is considered to be an exaggerated physiological phenomenon rather than a disease (54% of clinically normal breasts are found on autopsy to have fibrocystic changes). Symptoms typically arise between the 3rd and 4th decases of life. There may also be a nipple discharge, which can be suspicious if bloody or profuse etc and may indicate the presence of an intraductal papilloma, cancer, or duct ectasia. Cysts can be aspirated if symptomatic (asymptomatic or small ones do not require intervention). If the aspirate is straw coloured and completely aspirated, there is no need for cytology, but if the aspirate is bloody, cytology or biopsy is needed to exclude cancer. There is improvement of mastalgia and cysts at menopause and until then it runs a chronic relapsing course.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
382
Q

A 25 year old lady with a discrete, non-tender, mobile lump in one breast

A. Sebaceous cyst
B. Fibroadenoma
C. Fibroadenosis
D. Gynaecomastia
E. Breast abscess
F. Carcinoma of the breast
G. Breast cyst
H. Lipoma
I. Duct ectasia
A

B. Fibroadenoma - This is a fibroadenoma which tends to be asymptomatic and found incidentally, typically in a patient

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
383
Q

A 35 year old lady is generally unwell with a tachycardia & a fever. A segment of the right breast is painful, tender, red & warm.

A. Sebaceous cyst
B. Fibroadenoma
C. Fibroadenosis
D. Gynaecomastia
E. Breast abscess
F. Carcinoma of the breast
G. Breast cyst
H. Lipoma
I. Duct ectasia
A

E. Breast abscess - Breast abscess presents with mastalgia and fever. Breast infection typically affects women who are lactating and the most commonly implicated pathogen is staphylococcus aureus. The painful, hard and red lump indicates the development of an abscess. Antibiotic therapy is indicated with surgical intervention such as aspiration and drainage with possible duct excision. Prompt management of mastitis when it presents will usually lead to a good timely resolution and prevent the development of complications such as an abscess. An USS can help to identify the underlying abscess which usually forms a hypoechoic lesion. Needle aspiration can be used both therapeutically and diagnostically and can be guided by ultrasound.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
384
Q

A 14 year old boy with bilateral breast enlargement.

A. Sebaceous cyst
B. Fibroadenoma
C. Fibroadenosis
D. Gynaecomastia
E. Breast abscess
F. Carcinoma of the breast
G. Breast cyst
H. Lipoma
I. Duct ectasia
A

D. Gynaecomasatia - This is a boy who has enlarged breasts. Normal to see gynaecomastia in puberty. Other causes include liver disease and as a side effect of drugs such as digoxin, spironolactone and cimetidine.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
385
Q

A 40 year old lady with a green nipple discharge & tender lumpiness beneath the areola.

A. Sebaceous cyst
B. Fibroadenoma
C. Fibroadenosis
D. Gynaecomastia
E. Breast abscess
F. Carcinoma of the breast
G. Breast cyst
H. Lipoma
I. Duct ectasia
A

I. Duct ectasia - Duct ectasia happens because the lactiferous duct gets blocked. Ectasia means widening. It can mimic breast cancer as the discharge can be bloody sometimes and signs can include nipple inversion. The green nipple discharge is typical in EMQs. It is a self limiting condition.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
386
Q

A 40 year old lady with a hard lump in the right breast. The skin overlying the lump has an orange peel appearance.

A. Sebaceous cyst
B. Fibroadenoma
C. Fibroadenosis
D. Gynaecomastia
E. Breast abscess
F. Carcinoma of the breast
G. Breast cyst
H. Lipoma
I. Duct ectasia
A

F. Carcinoma of the breast - Patient’s with breast cancer, on examination (familiarise yourself with how to conduct a breast exam), tend to demonstrate a firm hard lump which may be associated with axillary lymphadenopathy, skin changes such as the orange peel (peau d’orange) and nipple changes/discharge. The skin changes here are most likely associated with locally advanced cancer. Many breast cancers are also diagnosed on routine mammography which can show microcalcifications, in the absence of a palpable mass. MRI is more sensitive but less specific so is recommended only in patients who are at high risk, such as BRCA1/2 mutation, history of chest radiation or certain syndromes like Cowden’s or Li-Fraumeni. FNA is also useful in rapid diagnosis, although is operator dependent when it comes to how sensitive and specific it is, and a core biopsy is preferred in most cases for diagnosis as it can differentiate pre-invasive and invasive disease. Treatment is MDT involving surgeons, oncologists, radiation oncologists etc. Do you know about the current NHS breast screening programme?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
387
Q

A 48 year old women presents with mild breast pain which improves in the days after her menstrual period. Her breasts are lumpy on examination.

A. Fibrocystic changes
B. Breast cancer
C. Necrotising fasciitis
D. Galactocoele
E. Costochondritis
F. Phylloides tumour
G. Diabetic breast lesion
H. Mondor’s disease
I. Raynaud’s phenomenon
J. Fibroadenoma
K. Breast abscess
L. Fat necrosis
A

A. Fibrocystic changes - Fibrocystic breasts are characterised by ‘lumpy’ breasts associated with pain which fluctuates with the menstrual cycle (it is worse during the luteal phase of menses). Risk factors include obesity, nulliparity, HRT and late onset menopause and first childbirth. It is a diagnosis of exclusion, and is considered to be an exaggerated physiological phenomenon rather than a disease (54% of clinically normal breasts are found on autopsy to have fibrocystic changes). Symptoms typically arise between the 3rd and 4th decases of life. There may also be a nipple discharge, which can be suspicious if bloody or profuse etc and may indicate the presence of an intraductal papilloma, cancer, or duct ectasia. Cysts can be aspirated if symptomatic (asymptomatic or small ones do not require intervention). If the aspirate is straw coloured and completely aspirated, there is no need for cytology, but if the aspirate is bloody, cytology or biopsy is needed to exclude cancer. There is improvement of mastalgia and cysts at menopause and until then it runs a chronic relapsing course.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
388
Q

A 17 year old school girl presented with breast pain , changed from dull ache to severe continuous throbbing pain. The breast feels hot on palpation and she complains of hot flushes. On examination the whole breast is tender and engorged and nipple is tender.

A. Fibrocystic changes
B. Breast cancer
C. Necrotising fasciitis
D. Galactocoele
E. Costochondritis
F. Phylloides tumour
G. Diabetic breast lesion
H. Mondor’s disease
I. Raynaud’s phenomenon
J. Fibroadenoma
K. Breast abscess
L. Fat necrosis
A

K. Breast abscess - Breast abscess presents with mastalgia and fever. Breast infection typically affects women who are lactating and the most commonly implicated pathogen is staphylococcus aureus. The painful, hot, engorged and red breast suggests the possible development of an abscess. Antibiotic therapy is indicated with surgical intervention such as aspiration and drainage with possible duct excision. Prompt management of mastitis when it presents will usually lead to a good timely resolution and prevent the development of complications such as an abscess. An USS can help to identify the underlying abscess which usually forms a hypoechoic lesion. Needle aspiration can be used both therapeutically and diagnostically and can be guided by ultrasound.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
389
Q

A 20 year old woman presented with a painless lump. On examination there was a 5cm smooth bosselated firm mass, which is highly mobile.

A. Fibrocystic changes
B. Breast cancer
C. Necrotising fasciitis
D. Galactocoele
E. Costochondritis
F. Phylloides tumour
G. Diabetic breast lesion
H. Mondor’s disease
I. Raynaud’s phenomenon
J. Fibroadenoma
K. Breast abscess
L. Fat necrosis
A

J. Fibroadenoma - This is a fibroadenoma which tends to be asymptomatic and found incidentally, typically in a patient

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
390
Q

A 40 year old female presented with a lump in the breast, enlargement of breasts, no pain. There is a history of the lump fluctuating in size. On examination the lump is found in the upper outer quadrant, moderately hard and mobile. It lacks skin or deep attachment.

A. Fibrocystic changes
B. Breast cancer
C. Necrotising fasciitis
D. Galactocoele
E. Costochondritis
F. Phylloides tumour
G. Diabetic breast lesion
H. Mondor’s disease
I. Raynaud’s phenomenon
J. Fibroadenoma
K. Breast abscess
L. Fat necrosis
A

B. Breast cancer - There is a painless lump here which fluctuates in size. Breast cancer progressively increases in size regardless of the menstrual cycle, unlike fibrocystic breasts which may vary in size with the menstrual cycle. When examining the breasts, they should first be examined sat upright to inspect for any changes in skin colour, any dimpling and asymmetry. The axilla, supra and infra-clavicular nodes should also be checked for any nodal metastases. Then, with the patient supine (and arm behind the head), the breast tissue should be felt and the tissue at the beneath the nipple.

Many breast cancers are also diagnosed on routine mammography which can show microcalcifications, in the absence of a palpable mass. MRI is more sensitive but less specific so is recommended only in patients who are at high risk, such as BRCA1/2 mutation, history of chest radiation or certain syndromes like Cowden’s or Li-Fraumeni. The estimated cumulative lifetime incidence of breast cancer in those with BRCA mutations is 87%. FNA is also useful in rapid diagnosis, although is operator dependent when it comes to how sensitive and specific it is, and a core biopsy is preferred in most cases for diagnosis as it can differentiate pre-invasive and invasive disease. Treatment is MDT involving surgeons, oncologists, radiation oncologists etc. Treatment with less than a total mastectomy will require radiotherapy to the remaining breast tissue afterwards.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
391
Q

A 47 year old gentleman presents with bilateral breast enlargement. His PMH includes dyspepsia that is treated with Cimetidine.

A. Benign cyst
B. SLE
C. Breast abcess
D. Fat necrosis
E. Fibrocystic breasts
F. Pagets disease
G. Duct ectasia
H. Fibroadenoma
I. Mastalgia
J. Breast carcinoma
K. Gynaecomastia
A

K. Gynaecomastia - This is a man who has presented with breast enlargement i.e. gynaecomastia. The main cause is either chronic liver disease or drug induced. Drugs include the H2 receptor antagonist cimetidine, as well as digoxin and spironolactone. Gynaecomastia is benign in 99% of cases and results from relative excess of oestrogen or lack of testosterone. Oestrogenisation can follow from anabolic steroid use/abuse. This can hence occur physiologically during the newborn period, puberty and with age and obesity (not true gynaecomastia). Treatment can be offered if there is pain or embarassment including anti-oestrogens such as tamoxifen, androgens or surgical options like liposuction. The drugs that induce gynaecomastia can be subdivided into those that reduce testosterone synthesis (GnRH agonists, cancer drugs, ketoconazole, metronidazole, spironolactone), those that impair the action of testosterone (spironolactone again, finasteride, H2 blockers, PPIs) and those that act via oestrogen (digoxin, PHT, anabolic steroids).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
392
Q

A 50 year old extremely obese lady presents with a tender, hard 3cm lump in the left breast which has appeared quite rapidly. She remembers knocking the breast against a table edge 1 month ago.

A. Benign cyst
B. SLE
C. Breast abcess
D. Fat necrosis
E. Fibrocystic breasts
F. Pagets disease
G. Duct ectasia
H. Fibroadenoma
I. Mastalgia
J. Breast carcinoma
K. Gynaecomastia
A

D. Fat necrosis - Prior breast trauma or breast surgery such as augmentation can lead to fat necrosis. Examination will reveal a firm mass with irregular borders which can resemble malignancy. Biopsy will reveal fat necrosis. USS and mammography shows indistinct margins, sometimes with calcifications which may again resemble findings seen in carcinoma.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
393
Q

A 19 year old girl has noticed a lump in the right breast. It is smooth, 2cm in diameter, non tender and highly mobile.

A. Benign cyst
B. SLE
C. Breast abcess
D. Fat necrosis
E. Fibrocystic breasts
F. Pagets disease
G. Duct ectasia
H. Fibroadenoma
I. Mastalgia
J. Breast carcinoma
K. Gynaecomastia
A

H. Fibroadenoma - Fibroadenomas are typically asymptomatic and are found incidentally in patients

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
394
Q

A 30 year old lady, who is breast feeding, has developed an extremely painful, hard, red 4 cm lump at the edge of the nipple.

A. Benign cyst
B. SLE
C. Breast abcess
D. Fat necrosis
E. Fibrocystic breasts
F. Pagets disease
G. Duct ectasia
H. Fibroadenoma
I. Mastalgia
J. Breast carcinoma
K. Gynaecomastia
A

C. Breast abscess - Breast abscess presents with mastalgia and fever. Breast infection typically affects women who are lactating and the most commonly implicated pathogen is staphylococcus aureus. The painful, hard and red lump indicates the development of an abscess. Antibiotic therapy is indicated with surgical intervention such as aspiration and drainage with possible duct excision. Prompt management of mastitis when it presents will usually lead to a good timely resolution and prevent the development of complications such as an abscess. An USS can help to identify the underlying abscess which usually forms a hypoechoic lesion. Needle aspiration can be used both therapeutically and diagnostically and can be guided by ultrasound.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
395
Q

A 65 year old lady has noticed a 3cm lump behind the right nipple. It is hard, non-tender, mobile and has an irregular edge.

A. Benign cyst
B. SLE
C. Breast abcess
D. Fat necrosis
E. Fibrocystic breasts
F. Pagets disease
G. Duct ectasia
H. Fibroadenoma
I. Mastalgia
J. Breast carcinoma
K. Gynaecomastia
A

J. Breast carcinoma - This lady’s advanced age and the fact the lump is hard, irregular and non-tender all point towards malignancy. The mass is typically fixed but can be mobile in early stages. There may be associated changes such as nipple inversion, peau d’orange, lymphadenopathy and skin retraction. Skin changes are always associated with locally advanced cancer. Triple assessment is indicated with a mammogram and biopsy. Risk factors include FH, prolonged oestrogen exposure and high levels of alcohol consumption.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
396
Q

29 y/o lady presents 3 weeks post partum with pain and a lump in her left breast. O/E you notice swelling, redness, the area feels hot.

A. Lipoma
B. Paget's disease
C. Acute pyogenic mastitis
D. Duct ectasia
E. Fibrocystic disease
F. Sarcoma
G. Radial scar
H. Adenoma
I. Fibroadenoma
J. Breast cancer
K. Intraductal papilloma
A

C. Acute pyogenic mastitis - Breast infection typically affects women who are lactating and the most commonly implicated pathogen is staphylococcus aureus. The painful lump indicates the development of an abscess. Antibiotic therapy is indicated with surgical intervention such as aspiration and drainage with possible duct excision. Prompt management of mastitis when it presents will usually lead to a good timely resolution and prevent the development of complications such as an abscess. An USS can help to identify the underlying abscess which usually forms a hypoechoic lesion. Needle aspiration can be used both therapeutically and diagnostically and can be guided by ultrasound.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
397
Q

33 y/o lady complains of tenderness in her right breast typically in the second half of the menstrual cycle. O/E breast feels lumpy.

A. Lipoma
B. Paget's disease
C. Acute pyogenic mastitis
D. Duct ectasia
E. Fibrocystic disease
F. Sarcoma
G. Radial scar
H. Adenoma
I. Fibroadenoma
J. Breast cancer
K. Intraductal papilloma
A

E. Fibrocysitic - Fibrocystic breasts are characterised by ‘lumpy’ breasts associated with pain which fluctuates with the menstrual cycle (it is worse during the luteal phase of menses). Risk factors include obesity, nulliparity, HRT and late onset menopause and first childbirth. It is a diagnosis of exclusion, and is considered to be an exaggerated physiological phenomenon rather than a disease (54% of clinically normal breasts are found on autopsy to have fibrocystic changes). Symptoms typically arise between the 3rd and 4th decases of life. There may also be a nipple discharge, which can be suspicious if bloody or profuse etc and may indicate the presence of an intraductal papilloma, cancer, or duct ectasia. Cysts can be aspirated if symptomatic (asymptomatic or small ones do not require intervention). If the aspirate is straw coloured and completely aspirated, there is no need for cytology, but if the aspirate is bloody, cytology or biopsy is needed to exclude cancer. There is improvement of mastalgia and cysts at menopause and until then it runs a chronic relapsing course.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
398
Q

63 y/o lady presents with a hard mass in upper outer quadrant of left breast, fixed to underlying structures. There is skin dimpling and nipple retraction. Family history for breast cancer is negative.

A. Lipoma
B. Paget's disease
C. Acute pyogenic mastitis
D. Duct ectasia
E. Fibrocystic disease
F. Sarcoma
G. Radial scar
H. Adenoma
I. Fibroadenoma
J. Breast cancer
K. Intraductal papilloma
A

J. Breast cancer - This lady’s advanced age and the fact the lump is hard and fixed all point towards malignancy. There may be associated changes like in this patient, ranging from nipple inversion, peau d’orange, dimpling and lymphadenopathy to skin retraction. Skin changes are always associated with locally advanced cancer. Triple assessment is indicated with a mammogram and biopsy. Risk factors include FH, prolonged oestrogen exposure and high levels of alcohol consumption.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
399
Q

Cytology of nipple discharge shows inflammatory cells with no evidence of epithelial cells. Discharge is very thick and cheesy.

A. Lipoma
B. Paget's disease
C. Acute pyogenic mastitis
D. Duct ectasia
E. Fibrocystic disease
F. Sarcoma
G. Radial scar
H. Adenoma
I. Fibroadenoma
J. Breast cancer
K. Intraductal papilloma
A

D. Duct ectasia - Duct ectasia happens because the lactiferous duct gets blocked. Ectasia means widening. It can mimic breast cancer as the discharge can be bloody sometimes and signs can include nipple inversion. It is a self limiting condition. The cytology of inflammatory cells confirms this diagnosis as duct ectasia is where the duct is dilated and is associated with inflammation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
400
Q

A 55 year old woman presented with recent onset and rapid enlargement of the breast. On palpation, there is a large breast mass. Biopsy showed stromal and epithelial elements.

A. Intraductal papilloma
B. Lobular carcinoma in situ
C. Gynaecomastia
D. Phylloides tumour
E. Pregnancy
F. Breast Abscess
G. Fibroadenoma
H. Mastalgia
I. Nodularity
J. Invasive breast cancer
K.Adenoma
A

D. Phylloides tumour - A phylloides tumour is a fast growing fibroepithelial mass, as demonstrated here by the history and biopsy findings. It can be benign or malignant. The only cure is surgical, commonly a WLE.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
401
Q

A 17 year old school girl presents to her GP with pain in her breast. This has changed from dull ache to severe continuous throbbing pain. The breast feels hot on palpation and she complains of hot flushes. On examination, there is a red, warm and fluctuant breast mass.

A. Intraductal papilloma
B. Lobular carcinoma in situ
C. Gynaecomastia
D. Phylloides tumour
E. Pregnancy
F. Breast Abscess
G. Fibroadenoma
H. Mastalgia
I. Nodularity
J. Invasive breast cancer
K.Adenoma
A

F. Breast abscess - Breast abscess presents with mastalgia and fever. Breast infection typically affects women who are lactating and the most commonly implicated pathogen is staphylococcus aureus. The painful, hard and red lump indicates the development of an abscess. Antibiotic therapy is indicated with surgical intervention such as aspiration and drainage with possible duct excision. Prompt management of mastitis when it presents will usually lead to a good timely resolution and prevent the development of complications such as an abscess. An USS can help to identify the underlying abscess which usually forms a hypoechoic lesion. Needle aspiration can be used both therapeutically and diagnostically and can be guided by ultrasound.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
402
Q

A 25 year old woman finds a smooth, rubbery and mobile mass on her left breast. She is overwise asymptomatic.

A. Intraductal papilloma
B. Lobular carcinoma in situ
C. Gynaecomastia
D. Phylloides tumour
E. Pregnancy
F. Breast Abscess
G. Fibroadenoma
H. Mastalgia
I. Nodularity
J. Invasive breast cancer
K. Adenoma
A

G. Fibroadenoma - Fibroadenomas are typically asymptomatic and are found incidentally in patients

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
403
Q

A 40 year old lady with a hard lump in the right breast. The skin overlying the lump has an orange peel appearance.

A. Intraductal papilloma
B. Lobular carcinoma in situ
C. Gynaecomastia
D. Phylloides tumour
E. Pregnancy
F. Breast Abscess
G. Fibroadenoma
H. Mastalgia
I. Nodularity
J. Invasive breast cancer
K. Adenoma
A

J. Invasive breast cancer - Patient’s wth breast cancer, on examination (familiarise yourself with how to conduct a breast exam), tend to demonstrate a firm hard lump which may be associated with axillary lymphadenopathy, skin changes such as the orange peel (peau d’orange) and nipple changes/discharge. The skin changes here are most likely associated with locally advanced cancer. Many breast cancers are also diagnosed on routine mammography which can show microcalcifications, in the absence of a palpable mass. MRI is more sensitive but less specific so is recommended only in patients who are at high risk, such as BRCA1/2 mutation, history of chest radiation or certain syndromes like Cowden’s or Li-Fraumeni. FNA is also useful in rapid diagnosis, although is operator dependent when it comes to how sensitive and specific it is, and a core biopsy is preferred in most cases for diagnosis as it can differentiate pre-invasive and invasive disease. Treatment is MDT involving surgeons, oncologists, radiation oncologists etc. Do you know about the current NHS breast screening programme?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
404
Q

A 50 year old man with a painless enlargement of the left breast. He denies finding any definite lumps

A. Intraductal papilloma
B. Lobular carcinoma in situ
C. Gynaecomastia
D. Phylloides tumour
E. Pregnancy
F. Breast Abscess
G. Fibroadenoma
H. Mastalgia
I. Nodularity
J. Invasive breast cancer
K. Adenoma
A

C. Gynaecomastia - This is a man who has presented with breast enlargement i.e. gynaecomastia. The main cause is either chronic liver disease or drug induced. Drugs include the H2 receptor antagonist cimetidine, as well as digoxin and spironolactone. Gynaecomastia is benign in 99% of cases and results from relative excess of oestrogen or lack of testosterone. Oestrogenisation can follow from anabolic steroid use/abuse. This can hence occur physiologically during the newborn period, puberty and with age and obesity (not true gynaecomastia). Treatment can be offered if there is pain or embarassment including anti-oestrogens such as tamoxifen, androgens or surgical options like liposuction.

The drugs that induce gynaecomastia can be subdivided into those that reduce testosterone synthesis (GnRH agonists, cancer drugs, ketoconazole, metronidazole, spironolactone), those that impair the action of testosterone (spironolactone again, finasteride, H2 blockers, PPIs) and those that act via oestrogen (digoxin, PHT, anabolic steroids).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
405
Q

A 30 year old woman has a small, fluctuant, painless swelling which moves upwards when she sticks out her tongue.

A. Thyroglossal cyst
B. Sialolithiasis (Salivary calculus)
C. Parotid adenoma
D. Mumps
E. Thyroid nodule
F. Parotid carcinoma
G. Lipoma
H. Lymphadenopathy
I. Carotid body tumour
J. Branchial cyst
K. Sebaceous cyst
L. Carotid aneurysm
A

A. Thyroglossal cyst - This midline neck swelling moves up on both swallowing and tongue protrusion making this a thyroglossal cyst. Thyroid nodules do not move on protrusion of the tongue. It is a cyst that forms from a remnant thyroglossal duct and can hence develop anywhere along the length of this embryological duct, which is a midline structure between the foramen caecum at the back of the tongue and the thyroid gland.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
406
Q

A 25 year old man has a soft fluctuant swelling which bulges from beneath the anterior border of his left sternomastoid muscle. It is painless & has been present since childhood.

A. Thyroglossal cyst
B. Sialolithiasis (Salivary calculus)
C. Parotid adenoma
D. Mumps
E. Thyroid nodule
F. Parotid carcinoma
G. Lipoma
H. Lymphadenopathy
I. Carotid body tumour
J. Branchial cyst
K. Sebaceous cyst
L. Carotid aneurysm
A

J. Branchial cyst - A branchial cyst is a congenital abnormality arising due to failure to obliterate the 2nd branchial cleft in development. They are congenital, hence the presence since childhood. They most commonly are found along the anterior border of sternocleidomastoid like in this case. They are generally asymptomatic unless they become infected. Treatment can be conservative or involve surgical excision.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
407
Q

A 41 year old woman has a painless fluctuant swelling in her right supraclavicular fossa. It becomes inflamed at times & she has expressed thick, foul-smelling white matter from it.

A. Thyroglossal cyst
B. Sialolithiasis (Salivary calculus)
C. Parotid adenoma
D. Mumps
E. Thyroid nodule
F. Parotid carcinoma
G. Lipoma
H. Lymphadenopathy
I. Carotid body tumour
J. Branchial cyst
K. Sebaceous cyst
L. Carotid aneurysm
A

K. Sebaceous cyst - This is a sebaceous cyst evidence by the swelling which becomes inflamed at times and expresses thick, foul smelling white keratin matter, which is when it becomes infected. They are common in hairier areas and are generally smooth and round. They can be caused by blockage of sebaceous glands.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
408
Q

A 34 year old man describes pain & swelling in the left submandibular region after eating. The swelling is sometimes red & tender but usually settles within a few hours.

A. Thyroglossal cyst
B. Sialolithiasis (Salivary calculus)
C. Parotid adenoma
D. Mumps
E. Thyroid nodule
F. Parotid carcinoma
G. Lipoma
H. Lymphadenopathy
I. Carotid body tumour
J. Branchial cyst
K. Sebaceous cyst
L. Carotid aneurysm
A

B. Sialolithiasis - This patient has sialolithiasis. Salivary gland stones cause pain whenever the patient salivates (eating or thinking of food). Stones are commonly found in the submandibular gland. Diagnosis can be confirmed by facial radiographs but a small number of sialoliths may not be seen on the plain film due to low calcium phosphate content. In this case, sialography used in combination with CT will demonstrate the stone. A complication is the development of sialadenitis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
409
Q

A 58 year old woman has a slowly-growing painless mass in her neck. On examination there is a firm, pulsatile mass anterior to the upper third of sternomastoid. There is no bruit.

A. Thyroglossal cyst
B. Sialolithiasis (Salivary calculus)
C. Parotid adenoma
D. Mumps
E. Thyroid nodule
F. Parotid carcinoma
G. Lipoma
H. Lymphadenopathy
I. Carotid body tumour
J. Branchial cyst
K. Sebaceous cyst
L. Carotid aneurysm
A

I. Carotid body tumour - A carotid body tumour is also called a chemodectoma. It is a paraganglioma – a tumour derived from neural crest cells. PGs can occur anywhere neural crest cells migrate so in the head and neck, other PGs include, for example, tympanic paragangliomas arising from the tympanic plexus. They are more common at high altitudes and in females and most are spontaneous occuring in the 3rd and 4th decade. Most present with a painless lateral neck mass which grows slowly. It will move from side to side but not really up and down (think of the anatomy here, this is known as Fontaine’s sign). Larger tumours may cause cranial nerve palsies. There may be an associated carotid bruit or pulsatility. There may also be dysphagia or pain on swallowing owing to compression. Biopsy of this mass is contraindicated for very obvious reasons. The first investigation would be with a colour doppler ultrasound and gold standard for diagnosis is with digital subtraction angiography. MRI can also be utilised. Treatment is surgical.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
410
Q

A 68 year old man has a rapidly-growing painful neck swelling. On examination he has a hard, fixed mass at the angle of the jaw & appears to have facial weakness on that side.

A. Thyroglossal cyst
B. Sialolithiasis (Salivary calculus)
C. Parotid adenoma
D. Mumps
E. Thyroid nodule
F. Parotid carcinoma
G. Lipoma
H. Lymphadenopathy
I. Carotid body tumour
J. Branchial cyst
K. Sebaceous cyst
L. Carotid aneurysm
A

F. Parotid carcinoma - The main pointers to suggest malignancy here are the involvement of the facial nerve causing a facial palsy, the rapid rate of growth and pain. Another suggestion would be ulceration, if present. There is swelling at the angle of the jaw, which could feasibly be a submandibular tumour, although most salivary gland tumours are parotid. A benign tumour would likely be indolent and slow growing, and asymptomatic (though a lymphoma can too). FNA cytology will be needed and MRI offers excellent views of the soft tissue structures surrounding the tumour and the relation of the tumour to its surroundings.

411
Q

A 16 year old female presents with a non-tender midline neck lump, that moves on protruding the tongue. There are no other associated symptoms.

A. Dermoid cyst
B. Tonsillitis
C. Carcinomatous lymph node
D. TB abscess
E. Hodgkin’s disease
F. Thyroglossal cyst
G. Non-hodgkin’s lymphoma
H. Carotid body tumour
I. Glandular fever
A

F. Thyroglossal cyst - This midline neck swelling moves up on both swallowing and tongue protrusion making this a thyroglossal cyst. Thyroid nodules do not move on protrusion of the tongue. It is a cyst that forms from a remnant thyroglossal duct and can hence develop anywhere along the length of this embryological duct, which is a midline structure between the foramen caecum at the back of the tongue and the thyroid gland.

412
Q

A 57 year old publican presents with a painless supraclavicular lump. He complains of abdominal pain & has recently noticed that his trousers seem too big for him.

A. Dermoid cyst
B. Tonsillitis
C. Carcinomatous lymph node
D. TB abscess
E. Hodgkin’s disease
F. Thyroglossal cyst
G. Non-hodgkin’s lymphoma
H. Carotid body tumour
I. Glandular fever
A

C. Carcinomatous lymph node - Weight loss is one of the most common presenting symptoms in patients with gastric cancer. Epigastric pain is present in about 80%. Although commonly mentioned in EMQs, lymphadenopathy is an uncommon presentation. The left supraclavicular node here is Virchow’s node. It becomes enlarged due to the pattern of lymphatic drainage into the thoracic duct. There may also be a periumbilical nodule (Sister Mary Joseph’s nodule) or a left axillary nodule (Irish node). These are rare findings.

413
Q

A 22 year old student presents with a painless lump in the posterior triangle of the neck. The lump is smooth & rubbery. He feels generally unwell, has lost weight & complains of itchiness. Lymph node biopsy shows Reed-Sternberg cells.

A. Dermoid cyst
B. Tonsillitis
C. Carcinomatous lymph node
D. TB abscess
E. Hodgkin’s disease
F. Thyroglossal cyst
G. Non-hodgkin’s lymphoma
H. Carotid body tumour
I. Glandular fever
A

E. Hodgkin’s lymphoma - This is a case of lymphoma. Reed-Sternberg cells are binucleate cells characteristically seen in Hodgkin’s lymphoma. Hodgkin’s is localised to a single group of nodes (normally the cervical and/or supraclavicular) and extranodal involvement is rare. Mediastinal involvement is common. Spread is contiguous and B symptoms may be present such as a low grade fever, weight loss and night sweats. Pruritis may be found in approximately 10% of cases but has no prognostic significance. 50% of cases is associated with EBV infection and distribution is bimodal with peaks in young and old. There is classically pain in lymph nodes on alcohol consumption.

414
Q

48 year old business man presents with recent blackouts. He has a non-tender lump in his neck, which he has noticed has increased in size over a couple of years. On examination the lump is situated in the anterior triangle & is pulsatile.

A. Dermoid cyst
B. Tonsillitis
C. Carcinomatous lymph node
D. TB abscess
E. Hodgkin’s disease
F. Thyroglossal cyst
G. Non-hodgkin’s lymphoma
H. Carotid body tumour
I. Glandular fever
A

H. Carotid body tumour - A carotid body tumour is also called a chemodectoma. It is a paraganglioma – a tumour derived from neural crest cells. PGs can occur anywhere neural crest cells migrate so in the head and neck, other PGs include, for example, tympanic paragangliomas arising from the tympanic plexus. They are more common at high altitudes and in females and most are spontaneous occuring in the 3rd and 4th decade. Syncope is really quite rare and most present with a painless lateral neck mass which grows slowly. It will move from side to side but not really up and down (think of the anatomy here, this is known as Fontaine’s sign). Larger tumours may cause cranial nerve palsies. There may be an associated carotid bruit, or in this case, pulsatility. There may also be dysphagia or pain on swallowing owing to compression. Biopsy of this mass is contraindicated for very obvious reasons. The first investigation would be with a colour doppler ultrasound and gold standard for diagnosis is with digital subtraction angiography. MRI can also be utilised. Treatment is surgical.

415
Q

A 25 year old West Indian lady presents with a painful swelling in the upper neck. The lump fluctuates, is not hot & the overlying skin is discoloured. She is tachycardiac, pyrexial & feels generally unwell.

A. Dermoid cyst
B. Tonsillitis
C. Carcinomatous lymph node
D. TB abscess
E. Hodgkin’s disease
F. Thyroglossal cyst
G. Non-hodgkin’s lymphoma
H. Carotid body tumour
I. Glandular fever
A

D. TB abscess - This is a cold abscess of TB, which is a cold mass with overlying skin changes where the skin turns a purple-ish colour. The accompanying symptoms are those of TB infection (fever, feeling unwell, tachycardia). Effectively, it is a scrofula, which is TB infection of the lymph nodes in the neck (lymphadenitis). If you are lucky enough to see one on the wards, you won’t forget it.

416
Q

45 year old man with a 6 week history of intermittent tender swelling that occurs below the left side of his jaw often during meals but can occur even if he thinks of food. It disappears overnight. You find a 3 by 2cms firm mass with no other abnormal findings.

A. Sialogram
B. Excise for biopsy
C. Full blood count & Paul Bunnell
D. Amoxycillin
E. Upper GI endoscopy
F. Reassure & explain why no active management necessary
G. Technetium thyroid scan
H. Carbimazole
I. Thyroxine
A

A. Sialogram - This patient has sialolithiasis. Salivary gland stones cause pain whenever the patient salivates (eating or thinking of food, like Pavlov’s dogs!). Stones are commonly found in the submandibular gland. At night time, there is less salivation accounting for the lack of pain. Diagnosis can be confirmed by facial radiographs but a small number of sialoliths may not be seen on the plain film due to low calcium phosphate content. In this case, sialography used in combination with CT will demonstrate the stone. A complication is the development of sialadenitis.

417
Q

A 25 year old woman who complains of heat intolerance, anxiety & weight loss, despite a good appetite. You find a fine tremor in her hands & a pulse of 120. There is a smooth swelling, 5cms by 3cms, centred on the midline of her neck. You hear a bruit when you place the stethoscope diaphragm over it.

A. Sialogram
B. Excise for biopsy
C. Full blood count & Paul Bunnell
D. Amoxycillin
E. Upper GI endoscopy
F. Reassure & explain why no active management necessary
G. Technetium thyroid scan
H. Carbimazole
I. Thyroxine
A

H. Carbimazole - This woman has hyperthyroidism. The smooth midline swelling and the audible bruit point towards a diagnosis of Graves’ disease. In countries where sufficient iodine intake is not an issue, Graves’ disease is the most common cause of hyperthyroidism. Peripheral manifestations such as ophthalmopathy, pretibial myxoedema and hyperthyroid acropachy do not occur with other causes of hyperthyroidism. Acropachy manifests as clubbing with soft tissue swelling. Pretibial myxoedema is almost always associated with ophthalmopathy. A thyroid isotope scan such as Tc-99 pertechnetate is used to differentiate the diffuse enlargement of Graves’ with the patchy uptake of a multinodular goitre. This is not necessary based on the examination findings.

Treatment aims to normalise thyroid function and is achieved by radioactive iodine, antithyroid medications or with surgery. They are all effective and relatively safe options. Symptomatic therapy is given with beta blockers such as propranolol.

418
Q

A woman of 20 with a week’s history of sore throat & fever. You find large smooth tender sub-mandibular bilateral lymph glands.

A. Sialogram
B. Excise for biopsy
C. Full blood count & Paul Bunnell test
D. Amoxycillin
E. Upper GI endoscopy
F. Reassure & explain why no active management necessary
G. Technetium thyroid scan
H. Carbimazole
I. Thyroxine
A

C. Full blood count and Paul Bunnell test - Infectious mononucleosis is caused by EBV and is characterised by fever, pharyngitis and lymphadenopathy. A FBC will show an atypical lymphocytosis. Confirmation of IM involves detection of the existence of heterophile antibodies using the Paul Bunnell monospot. A more accurate test is a serological test detecting EBV specific antibodies. Treatment is usually symptomatic but IM carries rare but potentially life threatening complications.

419
Q

70 year old woman who complains of palpitations, intolerance to heat, diarrhoea & weight loss. You find an irregular goitre in her neck that moves up and down when the patient swallows. There is no stigmata of Graves’ disease.

A. Sialogram
B. Excise for biopsy
C. Full blood count & Paul Bunnell
D. Amoxycillin
E. Upper GI endoscopy
F. Reassure & explain why no active management necessary
G. Technetium thyroid scan
H. Carbimazole
I. Thyroxine
A

G. Technetium thyroid scan - This is a case of toxic multinodular goitre. It is most common in older patients and is associated with head and neck irradiation and iodine deficiency. TSH is the initial screening test and if supressed, T4/T3 levels are measured. As the peripheral stigmata of Graves’ disease is absent, thyroid scan and uptake is indicated. I-123 is the preferred isotope but as this option is not given, Tc-99 can be used although there is a risk of false positive images. The scan will show multiple hot and cold areas consistent with areas of autonomy and areas of suppression. Definitive treatment is commonly given in the form of radioactive iodine.

420
Q

55 year old woman who complains of dysphagia is found to have a 10cms in width & 5cms in height bilateral symmetrical non-tender nodular mass in the front of her neck. Investigations show that she is euthyroid.

A. Sialogram
B. Excise for biopsy
C. Full blood count & Paul Bunnell
D. Amoxycillin
E. Upper GI endoscopy
F. Reassure & explain why no active management necessary
G. Technetium thyroid scan
H. Carbimazole
I. Thyroxine
A

E. Upper GI endoscopy - The bilateral mass in the last part of this question is a multinodular goitre which does not need a biopsy. The patient is euthyroid. If the nodule was unilateral, then a biopsy is essential to establish or exclude malignancy. However, her dysphagia needs to be investigated with an upper GI endoscopy.

421
Q

A 28 year old woman has developed rapid weight loss & palpitations. You notice lid lag & a goitre on examination.

A. Superior vena cava syndrome
B. Thyroglossal cyst
C. Hashimoto's thyroiditis
D. Myxoedema
E. De Quervain's thyroiditis
F. Stomach carcinoma
G. Carotid artery aneurysm
H. TB abcess
I. Grave's disease
J. Thyroid cancer
K. Hodgkin's disease
L. Euthyroid goitre
A

I. Grave’s disease - This woman has symptoms of hyperthyroidism (weight loss and palpitations) and a goitre. In countries where sufficient iodine intake is not an issue, Graves’ disease is the most common cause of hyperthyroidism. Graves’ gives a diffuse goitre. Peripheral manifestations such as ophthalmopathy, pretibial myxoedema and hyperthyroid acropachy do not occur with other causes of hyperthyroidism. Ophthalmopathy includes lid retraction, exophthalmos and eye movement restriction leading to diplopia. Acropachy is an uncommon manifestation presenting as clubbing with soft tissue swelling. Pretibial myxoedema is almost always associated with ophthalmopathy. Treatment aims to normalise thyroid function and is achieved by radioactive iodine, antithyroid medications or with surgery. They are all effective and relatively safe options. Symptomatic therapy is given with beta blockers such as propranolol.

422
Q

A 17 year old man has noticed a painless smooth swelling just above the suprasternal notch. He has had the swelling for 2 years & is well. It moves with swallowing & tongue protusion.

A. Superior vena cava syndrome
B. Thyroglossal cyst
C. Hashimoto's thyroiditis
D. Myxoedema
E. De Quervain's thyroiditis
F. Stomach carcinoma
G. Carotid artery aneurysm
H. TB abcess
I. Grave's disease
J. Thyroid cancer
K. Hodgkin's disease
L. Euthyroid goitre
A

B. Thyroglossal cyst - This midline neck swelling moves up on both swallowing and tongue protrusion making this a thyroglossal cyst. It is a cyst that forms from a remnant thyroglossal duct and can hence develop anywhere along the length of this embryological duct, which is a midline structure between the foramen caecum at the back of the tongue and the thyroid gland.

423
Q

A 17 year old girl has developed an acutely painful goitre. She has a fever & pain on swallowing.

A. Superior vena cava syndrome
B. Thyroglossal cyst
C. Hashimoto's thyroiditis
D. Myxoedema
E. De Quervain's thyroiditis
F. Stomach carcinoma
G. Carotid artery aneurysm
H. TB abcess
I. Grave's disease
J. Thyroid cancer
K. Hodgkin's disease
L. Euthyroid goitre
A

E. De Quervain’s thyroiditis - This girl has de Quervain’s thyroiditis (which can also be called subacute granulomatous thyroiditis) which is inflammation of the thyroid characterised by a triphasic course where there is transient thyrotoxicosis followed by a hypothyroid phase before a return to euthyroidism. The thyrotoxic phase (symptoms of hyperthyroidism may be present) is characterised by pain and tenderness of the thyroid, which tends to be larger, firm and tender to touch. This girl also has a fever and neck pain which is making it painful for her to swallow. This is a self-limiting condition and no specific treatment is needed though NSAIDs and beta blockers can be used for symptomatic relief. Roughly 30-40% describe a prior viral infection.

424
Q

A 22 year old man has developed multiple hard swellings on the left side of the neck. He has had night sweats & anorexia for 2 months.

A. Superior vena cava syndrome
B. Thyroglossal cyst
C. Hashimoto's thyroiditis
D. Myxoedema
E. De Quervain's thyroiditis
F. Stomach carcinoma
G. Carotid artery aneurysm
H. TB abcess
I. Grave's disease
J. Thyroid cancer
K. Hodgkin's disease
L. Euthyroid goitre
A

K. Hodgkin’s disease - This is a case of lymphoma. Reed-Sternberg cells are binucleate cells characteristically seen in Hodgkin’s lymphoma. Hodgkin’s is localised to a single group of nodes (normally the cervical and/or supraclavicular) and extranodal involvement is rare. Mediastinal involvement is common. Spread is contiguous and B symptoms may be present such as a low grade fever, weight loss and night sweats. Pruritis may be found in approximately 10% of cases but has no prognostic significance. 50% of cases is associated with EBV infection and distribution is bimodal with peaks in young and old. There is classically pain in lymph nodes on alcohol consumption.

425
Q

A 67 year old male smoker has developed gross oedema of the neck & face. You also notice swelling of both hands.

A. Superior vena cava syndrome
B. Thyroglossal cyst
C. Hashimoto's thyroiditis
D. Myxoedema
E. De Quervain's thyroiditis
F. Stomach carcinoma
G. Carotid artery aneurysm
H. TB abcess
I. Grave's disease
J. Thyroid cancer
K. Hodgkin's disease
L. Euthyroid goitre
A

A. Superior vena cava syndrome - SVC syndrome occurs due to SVCO. The most common cause of this is malignancy (this smoker probably has lung cancer which is the most likely cause in those >50). There are also benign causes such as iatrogenically due to pacemaker leads and central venous catheters causing SVC thrombosis. Common symptoms are facial swelling and arm swelling as seen, as well as dyspnoea, cough and facial plethora. There may also be a headache, chest pain, blurry vision and stridor. These symptoms tend to be worse on bending forwards or lying down. The most useful imaging test is a chest CT with IV contrast which establishes the diagnosis and also shows the exact location of the pathology. A CXR in SVCO can show a widened mediastinum or the lung cancer which is the cause.

426
Q

A 20 year old medical student is concerned about recent weight gain & lethargy & constipation. You notice bradycardia & a goitre. Her ankle reflexes are sluggish. Her periods have stopped.

A. Superior vena cava syndrome
B. Thyroglossal cyst
C. Hashimoto's thyroiditis
D. Myxoedema
E. De Quervain's thyroiditis
F. Stomach carcinoma
G. Carotid artery aneurysm
H. TB abcess
I. Grave's disease
J. Thyroid cancer
K. Hodgkin's disease
L. Euthyroid goitre
A

D. Myxoedema - This medical student has hypothyroidism. Worldwide, the most common cause is iodine deficiency. Other causes include Hashimoto’s or secondary and tertiary hypothyroidism. It can also result from viral de Quervain’s thyroiditis or postpartum thyroiditis. Symptoms include those mentioned (weight gain, lethargy, sluggish reflexes, bradycardia and constipation) as well as depression, fatigue, constipation, cold intolerance, menstrual problems in females, dry skin and muscle cramps. Diagnosis is based on measurement of TSH and thyroid hormones. Treatment is by replacement of T4 with or without T3 in combination. If the patient has normal T3 and T4 but mildly elevated TSH, this is described as subclinical hypothyroidism.

427
Q

A 72 year old man with weight loss has developed a hard swelling in the left supraclavicular fossa.

A. Superior vena cava syndrome
B. Thyroglossal cyst
C. Hashimoto's thyroiditis
D. Myxoedema
E. De Quervain's thyroiditis
F. Stomach carcinoma
G. Carotid artery aneurysm
H. TB abcess
I. Grave's disease
J. Thyroid cancer
K. Hodgkin's disease
L. Euthyroid goitre
A

F. Stomach carcinoma - The presence of Virchow’s node (Troisier’s sign), a hard enlarged node in the left supraclavicular fossa, points towards a malignancy in the abdominal cavity. This is most often stomach cancer. The lymph drainage of the abdominal cavity drains into Virchow’s node as the lymph drains most of the body from the thoracic duct and enters the venous circulation at the left subclavian vein.

428
Q

An 80 year old woman is admitted with vomiting. Her blood pressure is 120/80mmHg, pulse rate 90/min, with warm peripheries. Plasma urea is 25mmol/l, & creatinine 120umol/l.

A. Measure urea & electrolytes
B. Blood transfusion
C. Intravenous saline
D. Administer diuretics
E. Measure blood gases
F. Intravenous colloid
G. Intravenous plasma
H. Intravenous sodium bicarbonate
I. Intravenous dextrose
A

C. IV Saline - This patient is very dehydrated

Fluid replacement therapy aims to maintain physiological parameters. Systolic BP >90 is required for adequate organ perfusion. IV 0.9% saline is the first line treatment for volume depletion in almost all situations. It is worth noting that normal saline in large amounts carries a risk of inducing a metabolic acidosis due to the high chloride content. 5% dextrose is equivalent to water when given, and is not approriate for volume resuscitation since it will distribute throughout the total body water. Only 1/12 will remain in the intravascular space. 5% dextrose may be used, however, in resuscitation or replacement in diabetics on an insulin drip to prevent hypoglycaemia. The insulin and dextrose infusion should go in the same cannula so there is no risk of giving unopposed insulin. For example, if the arm you are giving the dextrose infusion were to clog up, or more likely, if the patient bends their arm if the cannula is sited in the antecubital fossa.

Sodium bicarbonate solution can be used acutely to treat severe metabolic acidosis. Lactated Ringer’s solution may also be helpful, but may contribute to hyperkalaemia in the setting of renal failure. IV colloids are less preferred. These include albumin, starches, dextrans and gelatins. Colloids are used when there is a risk of tissue oedema as there is a reduced proportion of administered fluid lost into the interstitial space. However, they are expensive and have not shown to benefit mortality in many studies, and indeed a systematic review in the BMJ of 37 RCTs has shown a 4% increase in absolute mortality. Crystalloids remain first choice for fluid resuscitation in the first instance.

Blood is the best intravascular volume expander (replacing like for like), especially if the patient is anaemic or is actively bleeding. It is usually given as packed red cells with saline. Mild volume depletion can be managed by ORT. Glucose is typically added to promote the sodium/glucose co-transporter. Depending on the site of loss, antiemetics and antidiarrhoeals (in non-infectious diarrhoea) may be indicated. Vasopressors are often needed in sepsis. So, having said all of this…

429
Q

A 70 year old man after a laparotomy has been given 4L of dextrose/saline intravenously in 24 hours. He is tachypnoeic, with BP 130/90, pulse 120/min & has bilateral basal crepitations.

A. Measure urea & electrolytes
B. Blood transfusion
C. Intravenous saline
D. Administer diuretics
E. Measure blood gases
F. Intravenous colloid
G. Intravenous plasma
H. Intravenous sodium bicarbonate
I. Intravenous dextrose
A

D. Administer diuretics - This patient has developed pulmonary oedema. This patient should be positioned upright and given diuretics (frusemide).

Fluid replacement therapy aims to maintain physiological parameters. Systolic BP >90 is required for adequate organ perfusion. IV 0.9% saline is the first line treatment for volume depletion in almost all situations. It is worth noting that normal saline in large amounts carries a risk of inducing a metabolic acidosis due to the high chloride content. 5% dextrose is equivalent to water when given, and is not approriate for volume resuscitation since it will distribute throughout the total body water. Only 1/12 will remain in the intravascular space. 5% dextrose may be used, however, in resuscitation or replacement in diabetics on an insulin drip to prevent hypoglycaemia. The insulin and dextrose infusion should go in the same cannula so there is no risk of giving unopposed insulin. For example, if the arm you are giving the dextrose infusion were to clog up, or more likely, if the patient bends their arm if the cannula is sited in the antecubital fossa.

Sodium bicarbonate solution can be used acutely to treat severe metabolic acidosis. Lactated Ringer’s solution may also be helpful, but may contribute to hyperkalaemia in the setting of renal failure. IV colloids are less preferred. These include albumin, starches, dextrans and gelatins. Colloids are used when there is a risk of tissue oedema as there is a reduced proportion of administered fluid lost into the interstitial space. However, they are expensive and have not shown to benefit mortality in many studies, and indeed a systematic review in the BMJ of 37 RCTs has shown a 4% increase in absolute mortality. Crystalloids remain first choice for fluid resuscitation in the first instance.

Blood is the best intravascular volume expander (replacing like for like), especially if the patient is anaemic or is actively bleeding. It is usually given as packed red cells with saline. Mild volume depletion can be managed by ORT. Glucose is typically added to promote the sodium/glucose co-transporter. Depending on the site of loss, antiemetics and antidiarrhoeals (in non-infectious diarrhoea) may be indicated. Vasopressors are often needed in sepsis. So, having said all of this…

430
Q

A 20 year old man has been involved in a road traffic accident & the ambulance has just arrived. He has severe left upper abdominal tenderness, blood pressure 80/60 & pulse 140/min.

A. Measure urea & electrolytes
B. Blood transfusion
C. Intravenous saline
D. Administer diuretics
E. Measure blood gases
F. Intravenous colloid
G. Intravenous plasma
H. Intravenous sodium bicarbonate
I. Intravenous dextrose
A

C. IV saline - As mentioned, first line fluid resuscitation is with 0.9% saline.

Fluid replacement therapy aims to maintain physiological parameters. Systolic BP >90 is required for adequate organ perfusion. IV 0.9% saline is the first line treatment for volume depletion in almost all situations. It is worth noting that normal saline in large amounts carries a risk of inducing a metabolic acidosis due to the high chloride content. 5% dextrose is equivalent to water when given, and is not approriate for volume resuscitation since it will distribute throughout the total body water. Only 1/12 will remain in the intravascular space. 5% dextrose may be used, however, in resuscitation or replacement in diabetics on an insulin drip to prevent hypoglycaemia. The insulin and dextrose infusion should go in the same cannula so there is no risk of giving unopposed insulin. For example, if the arm you are giving the dextrose infusion were to clog up, or more likely, if the patient bends their arm if the cannula is sited in the antecubital fossa.

Sodium bicarbonate solution can be used acutely to treat severe metabolic acidosis. Lactated Ringer’s solution may also be helpful, but may contribute to hyperkalaemia in the setting of renal failure. IV colloids are less preferred. These include albumin, starches, dextrans and gelatins. Colloids are used when there is a risk of tissue oedema as there is a reduced proportion of administered fluid lost into the interstitial space. However, they are expensive and have not shown to benefit mortality in many studies, and indeed a systematic review in the BMJ of 37 RCTs has shown a 4% increase in absolute mortality. Crystalloids remain first choice for fluid resuscitation in the first instance.

Blood is the best intravascular volume expander (replacing like for like), especially if the patient is anaemic or is actively bleeding. It is usually given as packed red cells with saline. Mild volume depletion can be managed by ORT. Glucose is typically added to promote the sodium/glucose co-transporter. Depending on the site of loss, antiemetics and antidiarrhoeals (in non-infectious diarrhoea) may be indicated. Vasopressors are often needed in sepsis. So, having said all of this…

431
Q

A 25 year old woman is admitted semi-comatose. She has been complaining of increasing thirst & lethargy over the previous few weeks. BM stick result is 36mmol/l. Blood pH is 7.10 with a HCO3- of 15mmol/l.

A. Measure urea & electrolytes
B. Blood transfusion
C. Intravenous saline
D. Administer diuretics
E. Measure blood gases
F. Intravenous colloid
G. Intravenous plasma
H. Intravenous sodium bicarbonate
I. Intravenous dextrose
A

C. IV saline - Initial treatment of DKA aims at correcting severe volume depletion, again with IV saline infusion at a rate of 1-1.5L for the first hour. When glucose reaches 11.1mmol, fluid should be changed to 5% dextrose to prevent hypoglycaemia. Bicarbonate therapy may be necessary in adults with pH 90 is required for adequate organ perfusion. IV 0.9% saline is the first line treatment for volume depletion in almost all situations. It is worth noting that normal saline in large amounts carries a risk of inducing a metabolic acidosis due to the high chloride content. 5% dextrose is equivalent to water when given, and is not approriate for volume resuscitation since it will distribute throughout the total body water. Only 1/12 will remain in the intravascular space. 5% dextrose may be used, however, in resuscitation or replacement in diabetics on an insulin drip to prevent hypoglycaemia. The insulin and dextrose infusion should go in the same cannula so there is no risk of giving unopposed insulin. For example, if the arm you are giving the dextrose infusion were to clog up, or more likely, if the patient bends their arm if the cannula is sited in the antecubital fossa.

Sodium bicarbonate solution can be used acutely to treat severe metabolic acidosis. Lactated Ringer’s solution may also be helpful, but may contribute to hyperkalaemia in the setting of renal failure. IV colloids are less preferred. These include albumin, starches, dextrans and gelatins. Colloids are used when there is a risk of tissue oedema as there is a reduced proportion of administered fluid lost into the interstitial space. However, they are expensive and have not shown to benefit mortality in many studies, and indeed a systematic review in the BMJ of 37 RCTs has shown a 4% increase in absolute mortality. Crystalloids remain first choice for fluid resuscitation in the first instance.

Blood is the best intravascular volume expander (replacing like for like), especially if the patient is anaemic or is actively bleeding. It is usually given as packed red cells with saline. Mild volume depletion can be managed by ORT. Glucose is typically added to promote the sodium/glucose co-transporter. Depending on the site of loss, antiemetics and antidiarrhoeals (in non-infectious diarrhoea) may be indicated. Vasopressors are often needed in sepsis. So, having said all of this…

432
Q

A 75 year old man underwent an anterior resection for rectal cancer 48 hours ago. He now has a urine output of 25mls/hr, BP 110/80, pulse 90/min. His Hb is 7.9g/dl. He was initially given IV saline.

A. Measure urea & electrolytes
B. Blood transfusion
C. Intravenous saline
D. Administer diuretics
E. Measure blood gases
F. Intravenous colloid
G. Intravenous plasma
H. Intravenous sodium bicarbonate
I. Intravenous dextrose
A

B. Blood transfusions - This patient has been given IV saline already as the initial choice for volume expansion. His anaemia and clinical state warrants a blood transfusion. 1 unit of blood raises the Hb concentration by 1g/dL. Commonly, transfusion begins with 2 units of packed RBCs and the patient reponse is monitored.

Fluid replacement therapy aims to maintain physiological parameters. Systolic BP >90 is required for adequate organ perfusion. IV 0.9% saline is the first line treatment for volume depletion in almost all situations. It is worth noting that normal saline in large amounts carries a risk of inducing a metabolic acidosis due to the high chloride content. 5% dextrose is equivalent to water when given, and is not approriate for volume resuscitation since it will distribute throughout the total body water. Only 1/12 will remain in the intravascular space. 5% dextrose may be used, however, in resuscitation or replacement in diabetics on an insulin drip to prevent hypoglycaemia. The insulin and dextrose infusion should go in the same cannula so there is no risk of giving unopposed insulin. For example, if the arm you are giving the dextrose infusion were to clog up, or more likely, if the patient bends their arm if the cannula is sited in the antecubital fossa.

Sodium bicarbonate solution can be used acutely to treat severe metabolic acidosis. Lactated Ringer’s solution may also be helpful, but may contribute to hyperkalaemia in the setting of renal failure. IV colloids are less preferred. These include albumin, starches, dextrans and gelatins. Colloids are used when there is a risk of tissue oedema as there is a reduced proportion of administered fluid lost into the interstitial space. However, they are expensive and have not shown to benefit mortality in many studies, and indeed a systematic review in the BMJ of 37 RCTs has shown a 4% increase in absolute mortality. Crystalloids remain first choice for fluid resuscitation in the first instance.

Blood is the best intravascular volume expander (replacing like for like), especially if the patient is anaemic or is actively bleeding. It is usually given as packed red cells with saline. Mild volume depletion can be managed by ORT. Glucose is typically added to promote the sodium/glucose co-transporter. Depending on the site of loss, antiemetics and antidiarrhoeals (in non-infectious diarrhoea) may be indicated. Vasopressors are often needed in sepsis. So, having said all of this…

433
Q

An 85 year old who is known to be hypertensive & has mild impaired renal function presents with signs of dehydration & undergoes a laparotomy for small bowel obstruction.

A. Diclofenac
B. Codydramol
C. Paracetamol
D. Morphine
E. Tramadol
G. Epidural bupivacaine fentanyl
A

A. Diclofenac - NSAIDS may impair renal function and provoke renal failure, especially in patients with pre-existing impairment. NSAIDs should be avoided if possible in these patients or used with caution at the lowest effective dose for the shortest possible time. The mechanism of damage involves reducing creatinine clearance.

NSAIDs are also contraindicated in asthmatics as it causes bronchospasm due to the accumulation of leukotrienes.

434
Q

A 60 year old man with diarrhoea is transferred from another hospital for urgent femoral-distal bypass surgery & arrives with a heparin infusion in situ. His APTT is 2.4.

A. Diclofenac
B. Codydramol
C. Paracetamol
D. Morphine
E. Tramadol
G. Epidural bupivacaine fentanyl
A

G. Epidural bupivacaine fentanyl - Epidurals are relatively contraindicated in anticoagulated patients. Insertion of the epidural needle may lead traumatic bleeding into the epidural space and with clotting abnormalities, the development of a haematoma which can lead to spinal cord compression. Coagulopathy, raised ICP and infection at the injection site are absolute contraindications. Relative contraindications include anticoagulated patients and those with anatomical abnormalities of the vertebral column. NSAIDs do not increase the risk of epidural haematoma.

435
Q

A 62 year old man who requires a knee replacement gives a history of allergy to dihydrocodeine.

A. Diclofenac
B. Codydramol
C. Paracetamol
D. Morphine
E. Tramadol
G. Epidural bupivacaine fentanyl
A

B. Codydramol - Co-dydramol is a combination of dihydrocodeine and paracetamol and the patient is known to be allergic to dihydrocodeine.

436
Q

A 65 year old man with a history of peptic ulceration requires an aortic aneurysm repair electively.

A. Diclofenac
B. Codydramol
C. Paracetamol
D. Morphine
E. Tramadol
G. Epidural bupivacaine fentanyl
A

A. Diclofenac - NSAIDs inhibit COX which has the effect of reducing PGE2 levels. PGE2 plays a role in gastric cytoprotection by downregulating HCl production and increasing mucus and the production of bicarbonate. This leads to gastric irritation and ulceration. A PPI can be prescribed alongside NSAIDs or misoprostol can be used, which is a stable PGE1 analogue which mimics local PG to maintain the gastroduodenal mucosal barrier.

437
Q

A 55 year old known epileptic arrives in A&E having suffered a fit whilst shopping. She is “post ictal” on arrival in A&E & breathing in an obstructed manner with O2 saturation of 92% (on air).

A. None
B. Uncuffed ET tube
C. Oropharyngeal airway with oxygen
D. Single-lumen cuffed ET tube
E. Double-lumen cuffed ET tube
F. Laryngoscopy
G. Suction
H. Tracheostomy
I. Laryngeal mask airway (LMA)
J. Facemask with oxygen
K. Cricothyroidotomy
A

C. Oropharyngeal airway with oxygen - An oropharyngeal (or Guedel) airway is sized from the angle of the mandible to the level of the incisors. It is a non-definitive airway adjunct. The patient is breathing in an obstructed manner indicating some degree of partial upper airway obstruction. The Guedel will keep the airway patent and prevent the tongue obstructing the airway by depressing it. The Guedel can only be used if the patient has a reduced GCS as it can initiate a gag reflex. If the patient was not unconscious, then a nasopharyngeal airway can be used (usually inserted in the right nostril). Additionally, a Guedel is contraindicated if the patient has injuries to the face or a condition that prevents the mouth from opening. Airway manoeuvres can also be used such as a jaw thrust or head tilt chin lift in addition to maintain a patent airway. A jaw thrust can onlybe done if the patient is unconscious. Think about where your fingers are digging in.

438
Q

A 19 year old motorcyclist suffers a head injury after colliding with a lorry. On examination he is found to have a GCS of 4 & requires an urgent CT scan.

A. None
B. Uncuffed ET tube
C. Oropharyngeal airway with oxygen
D. Single-lumen cuffed ET tube
E. Double-lumen cuffed ET tube
F. Laryngoscopy
G. Suction
H. Tracheostomy
I. Laryngeal mask airway (LMA)
J. Facemask with oxygen
K. Cricothyroidotomy
A

D. Single lumen cuffed ET tube - This patient is unconscious and is about to undergo a CT scan. He needs a definitive airway. The cuffed end creates a seal the prevent the aspiration of stomach contents. Reduced consciousness is a major risk factor for aspiration due to an inadequate cough reflex and impaired closure of the glottis.

439
Q

A 23 year old fit 70kg man requires an elective knee arthroscopy under general anaesthesia. He gives no past medical history and does not suffer from reflux.

A. None
B. Uncuffed ET tube
C. Oropharyngeal airway with oxygen
D. Single-lumen cuffed ET tube
E. Double-lumen cuffed ET tube
F. Laryngoscopy
G. Suction
H. Tracheostomy
I. Laryngeal mask airway (LMA)
J. Facemask with oxygen
K. Cricothyroidotomy
A

I. LAryngeal mask airway (LMA) - An LMA is not a definitive airway. It forms a cuff over the opening of the larynx and works better than a bag and mask. It is less likely to result in gastric distension and reflux due to the lower pressures it generates. However, as it lives above the glottis, it does not prevent reflux. It is popular in short day case surgery and this patient is young and healthy without a known risk of aspiration.

440
Q

A 60 year old woman on the ward has an O2 saturation of 91% on air. She underwent a laparotomy for small bowel obstruction the previous day. All her other observations are within normal limits.

A. None
B. Uncuffed ET tube
C. Oropharyngeal airway with oxygen
D. Single-lumen cuffed ET tube
E. Double-lumen cuffed ET tube
F. Laryngoscopy
G. Suction
H. Tracheostomy
I. Laryngeal mask airway (LMA)
J. Facemask with oxygen
K. Cricothyroidotomy
A

J. Facemask with oxygen - This woman is fine apart from a low oxygen saturation. She needs some oxygen via a facemask.

441
Q

A 78 year old patient is due to undergo surgery on her short saphenous veins in the prone position under general anaesthesia. She is obese and has known GORD.

A. None
B. Uncuffed ET tube
C. Oropharyngeal airway with oxygen
D. Single-lumen cuffed ET tube
E. Double-lumen cuffed ET tube
F. Laryngoscopy
G. Suction
H. Tracheostomy
I. Laryngeal mask airway (LMA)
J. Facemask with oxygen
K. Cricothyroidotomy
A

D. SIngle lumen cuffed ET tube - This patient is elderly, having surgery in a recumbent position and has known aspiration risk factors of obesity and GORD. She will need a definitive airway with a cuffed ET tube to create a seal to prevent aspiration of stomach contents. The ease of intubation can be determined by an airway assessment including a Mallampatti score (I to IV). A double lumen ET tube is designed for some intrathoracic operations. An uncuffed ET tube is preferred in children as the trachea is not as strong. If it is an emergency setting and ET intubation fails, cricothyroidotomy can be performed which allows approximately 30 minutes of ventilation. Cricothyroidotomy will only work with at least a partially patent larynx.

442
Q

A 22 year old woman who has taken 40 paracetamol tablets.

A. Dicolbalt edetate
B. Alkaline diuresis
C. Intravenous naloxone
D. Sodium calcium edetate
E. Hyperbaric oxygen
F. Intravenous atropine
G. Intravenous N-acetylcysteine
H. Oral desferrioxamine
I. Haemodialysis
J. Ethanol
A

G. Intravenous N-acetylcysteine - Paracetamol OD can occur after a single large OD or repeated ODs. Often, the patient is asymptomatic at initial presentation but if untreated may cause liver injury over the 2-4 days after ingestion, including fulminant liver failure. Paracetamol is the most frequent intentional OD drug in this country. The risk of liver damage is increased after taking drugs which induce CYP 450. Inducers include St John’s wort, barbiturates, phenytoin, tetracycline, chronic alcohol use and carbamazepine. A serum paracetamol level is important to order as early as possible, but at the earliest 4 hours post-ingestion.Treatment if indicated is with N-acetylcysteine with the level based on a paracetamol treatment graph. NAC will reduce hepatic damage caused by NAPQI. There is insufficient endogenous glutathione to neutralise this in an overdose and NAC binds and neutralises NAPQI. In patients allergic to NAC, oral methionine can be used.

443
Q

A 35 year old drug addict found unconscious on the floor. Pinpoint pupils were found on examination.

A. Dicolbalt edetate
B. Alkaline diuresis
C. Intravenous naloxone
D. Sodium calcium edetate
E. Hyperbaric oxygen
F. Intravenous atropine
G. Intravenous N-acetylcysteine
H. Oral desferrioxamine
I. Haemodialysis
J. Ethanol
A

C. Intravenous naloxone - Signs of opiate OD include CNS depression, miosis (pinpoint pupils) and apnoea. Naloxone is indicated both therapeutically and diagnostically. If there is a response, then it is diagnostic. Another diagnosis should be sought if the patient is unresponsive. IV is the preferred route of administration although naloxone can be given IM or SC if IV access cannot be established. Ventilatory support is key with 100% oxygen.

444
Q

A 51 year old manic depressive man, who has taken an unknown number of extra lithium tablets & has a plasma lithium level of 8 mmol/l. There are marked neurological features.

A. Dicolbalt edetate
B. Alkaline diuresis
C. Intravenous naloxone
D. Sodium calcium edetate
E. Hyperbaric oxygen
F. Intravenous atropine
G. Intravenous N-acetylcysteine
H. Oral desferrioxamine
I. Haemodialysis
J. Ethanol
A

I. Haemodialysis - Haemodialysis is the treatment of choice for severe lithium poisoning. Note that activated charcoal does not adsorb lithium.

445
Q

A 14 year old girl who has taken at least 30 aspirin tablets (300mg each).

A. Dicolbalt edetate
B. Alkaline diuresis
C. Intravenous naloxone
D. Sodium calcium edetate
E. Hyperbaric oxygen
F. Intravenous atropine
G. Intravenous N-acetylcysteine
H. Oral desferrioxamine
I. Haemodialysis
J. Ethanol
A

B. Alkaline diuresis - This patient has ingested at least 9000mg of aspirin. GIT decontamination should be considered as an adjunct on arrival to A&E and activated charcoal can be given. The mainstay of treatment is alkaline diuresis induced by an infusion of sodium bicarbonate. In cases of severe poisoning, it is still started as a bridge to haemodialysis.

446
Q

A 38 year old agricultural worker who has been accidentally exposed to an organophosphorous insecticide & has symptoms of cholinergic overactivity.

A. Dicolbalt edetate
B. Alkaline diuresis
C. Intravenous naloxone
D. Sodium calcium edetate
E. Hyperbaric oxygen
F. Intravenous atropine
G. Intravenous N-acetylcysteine
H. Oral desferrioxamine
I. Haemodialysis
J. Ethanol
A

F. Intravenous atropine - Organophosphate poisoning can occur due to occupational or accidental exposure, or if you were being attacked by Saddam Hussein’s regime. Treatment is with resuscitation and supportive care, removal of contaminated clothing, washing the skin and starting full atropinisation IV. Over treament is very much preferred to under treatment and the skin should feel dry when the patient has received adequate atropine. Pupils will also be dilated. Pralidoxime is often given as an adjunct in very severe cases but evidence does not support its routine use, unless you’ve just been attacked by a nerve agent by terrorists, which is unlikely in this agricultural worker.

447
Q

A 26 year old weightlifter is admitted following an overdose of GBH. He opens his eyes when he hears you speak and starts trying to yank out his Guedel. He can obey simple commands and once his Guedel is out and can talk to you in small sentences and seems a bit confused as to where he is.

What is his GCS score?

A. 0
B. 10
C. 13
D. 1
E. 11
F. 3
G. 8
H. 5
I. 14
J. 7
K. 12
A

C. 13 - M6 V4 E3 = 13

A GCS less than or equal to 8 is deemed a coma. Head injury can also be classified into mild (13-14), moderate (8-12) and severe (

448
Q

A 27 year old woman was playing on the railway line when a train hit her. When you put pressure on the nail bed, the patient flexes the elbow and wrist. When you speak to her, she opens her eyes. She seems to be able to hold a conversation but is very confused.

What is his GCS score?

A. 0
B. 10
C. 13
D. 1
E. 11
F. 3
G. 8
H. 5
I. 14
J. 7
K. 12
A

B. 10 - M3 V4 E3 = 10

A GCS less than or equal to 8 is deemed a coma. Head injury can also be classified into mild (13-14), moderate (8-12) and severe (

449
Q

A 25 year old male overdosed on drugs. In A&E he is admitted unable to speak or open his eyes and has no response when you try a few times to put a grey cannula in.

What is his GCS score?

A. 0
B. 10
C. 13
D. 1
E. 11
F. 3
G. 8
H. 5
I. 14
J. 7
K. 12
A

F. 3 - M1 V1 E1 = 3, the worst possible GCS score

A GCS less than or equal to 8 is deemed a coma. Head injury can also be classified into mild (13-14), moderate (8-12) and severe (

450
Q

A middle aged man on the ward is inexplicably catheterised a week ago by your junior staff. The man opens his eyes when he hears you yelling at your team. However, when you go and talk to him, he groans and makes some sounds which you cannot make out as words. Your F1 pokes him in the eye before you can intervene. He lifts his hand towards his head in response.

What is his GCS score?

A. 0
B. 10
C. 13
D. 1
E. 11
F. 3
G. 8
H. 5
I. 14
J. 7
K. 12
A

B. 10 - M5 V2 E3 = 10

A GCS less than or equal to 8 is deemed a coma. Head injury can also be classified into mild (13-14), moderate (8-12) and severe (

451
Q

A 22 year old woman presents to her GP with a 1 week history of increased frequency of micturation and dysuria. Abdominal examination reveals mild supra-pubic tenderness. You perform a dipstick that reveals haematuria and a positive nitrite and leucocyte esterase.

A. Prostate cancer
B. Ureteric colic
C. Prostatic varices
D. Acute pyelonephritis
E. Urinary tract infection
F. Bladder cancer
G. Trauma
H. Renal cell carcinoma
A

E. Urinary tract infection - E coli causes most uncomplicated cases and Staph saprophyticus is implicated in 5-20%. Sexual intercourse is the single biggest risk factor in women, although other risks include spermicide use, post-menopause, FH and presence of a foreign body like an indwelling catheter. Symptoms include frequency, dysuria, back pain, haematuria with upper tract involvement suggested by urgency, suprapubic pain, fever and/or tenderness over the costovertebral angle. The first test is a dipstick analysis, although if negative with a suggestive history, it is still likely to be a UTI. Dipstick will show positive nitrite and leucocyte esterase. MSU should be sent for MC+S in some cases such as atypical symptoms or unexpected urinalysis findings.

452
Q

A 70 year old male life long smoker complains of painless haematuria to his GP.

A. Prostate cancer
B. Ureteric colic
C. Prostatic varices
D. Acute pyelonephritis
E. Urinary tract infection
F. Bladder cancer
G. Trauma
H. Renal cell carcinoma
A

F. Bladder cancer - Gross haematuria is the primary symptom of bladder cancer. Risk factors include smoking, exposure to carcinogens such as the aromatic amines used in rubber and dye industries, age >55, pelvic radiation and Schistosomiasis resulting in SCC (related to chronic inflammation – so other risks also include UTI, stones etc). Bladder cancer is the most common cancer in Egypt, for the latter reason. Cystoscopy and urinary cytology are key in diagnosis. Low grade tumours are papillary and easy to see on cystoscopy whereas high grade tumours and carcinoma in situ are often difficult to visualise. Resection provides diagnosis and primary treatment in one step.

453
Q

A 36-year-old man comes to A&E with severe right-sided loin pain radiating to his left testicle. It is of sudden onset and he is unable to find a comfortable position to lie.

A. Prostate cancer
B. Ureteric colic
C. Prostatic varices
D. Acute pyelonephritis
E. Urinary tract infection
F. Bladder cancer
G. Trauma
H. Renal cell carcinoma
A

E. Ureteric colic - This patient has renal colic which classically presents with severe flank pain radiating to the groin. Microscopic haematuria is present in up to 90% of cases. Up to 85% of stones are visible on a plain KUB although urate stones are radiolucent. If the stone is radio-opaque, calcification will be seen within the urinary tract. In pregnancy, a renal USS is first line. The IVP has now been replaced by the CT scan which is the new diagnostic standard. A non-contrast helical (or spiral) CT is preferred due to high sensitivity and specificity and acurately determines presence, site and size of stones. Stones are analysed after they are extracted or when they are expelled to check their composition. It is worth noting that in all females of child bearing age, a urine pregnancy test is necessary to exclude an ectopic pregnancy.

454
Q

A 75-year-old retired banker complains of an episode of haematuria. He tells you that he saw blood at the start of voiding and then the urine became clearer as he continued to void. He also tells you that he is hypertensive. A digital rectal examination reveals a smooth enlarged prostate gland.

A. Prostate cancer
B. Ureteric colic
C. Prostatic varices
D. Acute pyelonephritis
E. Urinary tract infection
F. Bladder cancer
G. Trauma
H. Renal cell carcinoma
A

C. Prostatic varices - The examination findings and haematuria at the beginning of the stream, combined with this patient’s history of hypertension suggests prostatic varices as a cause of the bleeding. A varix is an abnormally dilated vein which is prone to rupture and haemorrhage.

455
Q

An 81-year-old male complains of haematuria. He has been an inpatient for 3 weeks following admission for a left hip replacement due to osteoarthritis. His catheter was removed two days ago as he is becoming increasingly mobile.

A. Prostate cancer
B. Ureteric colic
C. Prostatic varices
D. Acute pyelonephritis
E. Urinary tract infection
F. Bladder cancer
G. Trauma
H. Renal cell carcinoma
A

G. Trauma - This patient has had a catheter removed two days ago, which accounts for his gross haematuria (instrumentation of the urinary tract causing damage). The diagnosis is clinical based on the presence of the catheter.

456
Q

A 56 year old smoker complains of seeing bright red blood when he passes water. He mentions no pain but did have a UTI 5 years ago.

A. UTI
B. Waldenstrom's macroglobinaemia
C. Henoch-Schonlein purpura
D. Bladder cancer
E. Post infectious glomerulonephritis
F. Ureteric colic
G. Pseudo-haematuria
H. Goodpasture's disease
I. Nephrotic syndrome
A

D. Bladder cancer - Gross (classically painless) haematuria is the primary symptom of bladder cancer. Risk factors include smoking, exposure to carcinogens such as the aromatic amines used in rubber and dye industries, age >55, pelvic radiation and Schistosomiasis resulting in SCC (related to chronic inflammation – so other risks also include UTI, stones etc). Bladder cancer is the most common cancer in Egypt, for the latter reason. Cystoscopy and urinary cytology are key in diagnosis. Low grade tumours are papillary and easy to see on cystoscopy whereas high grade tumours and carcinoma in situ are often difficult to visualise. Resection provides diagnosis and primary treatment in one step.

457
Q

A 19 year old girl presents with increasing frequency of passing urine, dysuria and foul smelling urine.

A. UTI
B. Waldenstrom's macroglobinaemia
C. Henoch-Schonlein purpura
D. Bladder cancer
E. Post infectious glomerulonephritis
F. Ureteric colic
G. Pseudo-haematuria
H. Goodpasture's disease
I. Nephrotic syndrome
A

A. UTI - This young woman has presented with a UTI (dysuria, frequency, and foul smelling urine). Sexual activity the strongest risk factor for UTIs in women. It is diagnosed with a urine dipstick and microscopic analysis for bacteria, WBC and RBC and urine culture with antibiotic sensitivities. Antibiotic selection should be based on local guidelines or known sensitivities. Uncomplicated UTIs with no known antibiotic resistance can be treated with co-trimoxazole or nitrofurantoin. If there is resistance, a quinolone can be considered such as ciprofloxacin.

458
Q

A 5 year old boy has haematuria and a non-blanching rash over his upper thighs

A. UTI
B. Waldenstrom's macroglobinaemia
C. Henoch-Schonlein purpura
D. Bladder cancer
E. Post infectious glomerulonephritis
F. Ureteric colic
G. Pseudo-haematuria
H. Goodpasture's disease
I. Nephrotic syndrome
A

C. Henoch_Schonlein purpura - Henoch-Schonlein purpura is the most common vasculitis in childhood and in all cases there is a rash of palpable purpura which are typically non-blanching. If there is no rash, then it is not HSP. They are normally 2-10mm in diameter and are due to the extravasation of blood into the skin. They can occur anywhere on the body but are usually concentrated on the lower extremities. Half of all patients have abdominal pain and arthralgias are commonly present (found in about 80%) and often associated with oedema. The joints most often affected are the knees and ankles. About half will show signs of renal disease such as proteinuria or haematuria. Risk factors for this condition include being male, age 3-15 and history of prior UTI. Complications can occur and the most common cause of death is renal failure. Serum IgA levels may also be elevated.

459
Q

A 40 year old builder has a 4 hour history of haematuria and extreme abdominal pain, that he describes as “coming in waves” between his right flank and right testicle

A. UTI
B. Waldenstrom's macroglobinaemia
C. Henoch-Schonlein purpura
D. Bladder cancer
E. Post infectious glomerulonephritis
F. Ureteric colic
G. Pseudo-haematuria
H. Goodpasture's disease
I. Nephrotic syndrome
A

F. Ureteric colic - This patient has renal colic which classically presents with severe flank pain radiating to the groin. Microscopic haematuria is present in up to 90% of cases and macroscopic haematuria may also be present although this is rare. Dehydration is a strong risk factor for renal stone formation and this man’s job may make him susceptible to inadequate fluid intake. A low urine output can lead to higher levels of urinary solutes, therefore leading to stone formation. Up to 85% of stones are visible on a plain KUB although urate stones are radiolucent. If the stone is radio-opaque, calcification will be seen within the urinary tract. In pregnancy, a renal USS is first line. The IVP has now been replaced by the CT scan which is the new diagnostic standard otherwise. A non-contrast helical (or spiral) CT is preferred due to high sensitivity and specificity and acurately determines presence, site and size of stones. Stones are analysed after they are extracted or when they are expelled to check their composition. It is worth noting that in all females of child bearing age, a urine pregnancy test is necessary to exclude an ectopic pregnancy.

460
Q

An 11 year old girl has periorbital oedema. Her urine tests positive for microscopic haematuria and proteinuria. Anti-streptolysin O titre (ASOT) is positive.

A. UTI
B. Waldenstrom's macroglobinaemia
C. Henoch-Schonlein purpura
D. Bladder cancer
E. Post infectious glomerulonephritis
F. Ureteric colic
G. Pseudo-haematuria
H. Goodpasture's disease
I. Nephrotic syndrome
A

E. Post infectious glomerulonephritis - This is post-infectious glomerulonephritis caused by group A beta-haemolytic streptococcus with renal endothelial cell damage. Serological markers would expect to show antibodies to streptococcus and low complement and treatment here is with antibiotics. The high ASOT (antistreptolysin O antibody titres) indicates post-streptococcal GN. There may also be positive anti-Dnase and antihyaluronidase in post-streptococcal GN.

461
Q

A 60 year old obese man presents to A&E with a history suggesting biliary colic. His medical history includes hypertension (treated with an ACE inhibitor) and dyslipidaemia. She smokes regularly and drinks alcohol socially. Abdominal ultrasound demonstrates gallstones as well as a 6cm left-sided renal mass. On further questioning, there has been haematuria.

A. HIV
B. Chronic kidney disease
C. Benign renal cyst
D. Bladder cancer
E. Ureteric cancer
F. Pyelonephritis
G. UTI
H. Hyperkalaemia
I. Rhabdomyolysis
J. Renal artery stenosis
K. Polycystic kidney disease
L. Renal tuberculosis
M. Renal cell carcinoma
A

M. Renal cell carcinoma - Renal cancer arising from the parenchyma/cortex is known as renal cell carcinoma. Clear cell renal cell carcinoma accounts for most primary renal cancers. They are often asymptomatic and diagnosed incidentally like on imaging when localised malignant looking renal masses are seen. Surgery for early local disease (which is diagnosed in more than half) can be curative in up to 90%. Renal masses are usually only symptomatic in late disease. The classic triad is of haematuria, flank pain and an abdominal mass – this is only seen in 10%. Uncommonly, a patient may present with symptoms of metastatic disease such as bone pain or respiratory symptoms. Symptoms, if present, also include abdominal pain, oedema/ascites from IVC disruption and scrotal varicocele in males. Risk factors include: smoking, male gender, living in developed countries, obesity, hypertension, FH, high parity and ionising radiation.

462
Q

A 24 year old lady has repeatedly had urinary tract infections and is frustrated because she must have antibiotics every 2-3 months. She tells you her mother died when she was young from a “bleed in the brain”.

A. HIV
B. Chronic kidney disease
C. Benign renal cyst
D. Bladder cancer
E. Ureteric cancer
F. Pyelonephritis
G. UTI
H. Hyperkalaemia
I. Rhabdomyolysis
J. Renal artery stenosis
K. Polycystic kidney disease
L. Renal tuberculosis
M. Renal cell carcinoma
A

K. Polycystic kidney disease - This sounds like autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease. There may like in this case be a FH, of PKD or ESRF or cerebrovascular events (intracranial berry aneurysms in the circle of Willis and subsequent SAH – the bleed in the brain). Patients may have haematuria (which can be gross), palpable kidneys and symptoms of a UTI which is common in those with the condition. Hypertension and flank pain are also commonly seen. Hepatosplenomegaly may also be found. A renal ultrasound is the first test to order when the diagnosis is suspected. If the ultrasound is equivocal, a CT scan can be done of the abdomen and pelvis.

463
Q

A 30 year old lady presents to A&E feeling very feverish, complaining of dysuria and haematuria with severe flank pain.

A. HIV
B. Chronic kidney disease
C. Benign renal cyst
D. Bladder cancer
E. Ureteric cancer
F. Pyelonephritis
G. UTI
H. Hyperkalaemia
I. Rhabdomyolysis
J. Renal artery stenosis
K. Polycystic kidney disease
L. Renal tuberculosis
M. Renal cell carcinoma
A

F. Pyelonephritis - UTIs involving the renal parenchyma typically presents with fever. Acute onset fever with urinary symptoms and flank pain point to acute pyelonephritis. Urinalysis is highly sensitive but not very specific. Pregnancy is a risk factor for complicated disease as the enlarging uterus compresses the ureters and hormonal changes increase the likelihood of obstructive uropathy. In uncomplicated pyelonephritis, the most common cause is E. coli and gram stain will typically reveal gram negative rods, either E. coli, Proteus or Klebsiella. Gram positive cocci that could be implicated include enterococci and staphylococci. Older patients can often also present non-specifically. Treatment should start before culture results are received to prevent the patient from deteriorating, with empirical antibiotics.

464
Q

A rough looking homeless man presents to A&E with dysuria, haematuria and frequency. Examination reveals a scrotal mass. Chest x-ray is abnormal.

A. HIV
B. Chronic kidney disease
C. Benign renal cyst
D. Bladder cancer
E. Ureteric cancer
F. Pyelonephritis
G. UTI
H. Hyperkalaemia
I. Rhabdomyolysis
J. Renal artery stenosis
K. Polycystic kidney disease
L. Renal tuberculosis
M. Renal cell carcinoma
A

L. Renal tuberculosis - GU TB common presents with symptoms of dysuria, haematuria and urinary frequency. Some 20-30% of patients may also be asymptomatic, and sometimes extensive renal destruction may have occured by the time it is diagnosed. Genital TB in men may present as a scrotal mass and in women there may be pelvic pain. Diagnosis relies on culturing TB from morning urine samples (3 samples are recommended) or biopsy of the lesion. CXR in these patients is abnormal in most cases. Up to 90% are TST positive on Mantoux testing. Extrapulmonary TB can also include pericardial, abdominal, disseminated, skeletal, CNS and pleural TB. Homelessness here is an epidemiological risk factor. Other risks include birth in high TB countries (Asia, Latin America and Africa in particular) and exposure to TB.

465
Q

A 50 year old man is brought into hospital by his wife. She tells you he has become increasingly confused for the last 3 days and is always scratching himself. ABG shows a metabolic acidosis. She remembers he was recently started on a new tablet by his GP.

A. HIV
B. Chronic kidney disease
C. Benign renal cyst
D. Bladder cancer
E. Ureteric cancer
F. Pyelonephritis
G. UTI
H. Hyperkalaemia
I. Rhabdomyolysis
J. Renal artery stenosis
K. Polycystic kidney disease
L. Renal tuberculosis
M. Renal cell carcinoma
A

J. Renal artery stenosis - Renal artery stenosis is basically narrowing of the renal artery. It occurs typically due to atherosclerosis or fibromuscular dysplasia. The presentation tends to be with accelerated or difficult to control hypertension. Acute kidney injury can be seen after starting an ACE inhibitor or an angiotensin II receptor antagonist which this patient has been prescribed. The afferent arteriole is stenosed in RAS and angiotensin II is needed to maintain GFR by constricting the efferent arteriole. ACE inhibitors prevent conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II, which is needed to maintain renal perfusion pressure in those with RAS. The result is this patient has acute renal failure and has developed uraemia. The metabolic acidosis is also as a result of renal failure.

There may not be any clinical consequences of RAS – just because someone’s renal arteries are narrowed does not mean they are suffering worsening kidney function, although this may be the case, especially after blockade of the renin-angiotensin system. A definitive diagnosis is made on imaging, where there is some controversy on what is most appropriate to use. USS is safe and non-invasive but the sensitivity and specificity is low. CT/MR angiography has the risk of contrast nephropathy and nephrogenic systemic fibrosis. Conventional angiography (the best test available) has the risk of bleeding and emboli as well as contrast related risks already mentioned.

466
Q

An unconscious 35-year-old man who has a capillary blood glucose of 1.5 mmol/L.

A. Intravenous naloxone
B. Intramuscular glucagon
C. Intravenous dextrose
D. DC cardioversion
E. Endotracheal intubation
F. Inhaled anticholinergic
G. Lumbar puncture
H. Commence CPR
I. IV antibiotics
J. Precordial thump
K. CT scan brain
L. Gastric lavage
A

C. IV dextrose - This patient is profoundly hypoglycaemic (symptoms of hypoglycaemia are present when glucose drops

467
Q

A 55-year-old man found collapsed at home who, on arrival at hospital, has no palpable pulse or recordable blood pressure.

A. Intravenous naloxone
B. Intramuscular glucagon
C. Intravenous dextrose
D. DC cardioversion
E. Endotracheal intubation
F. Inhaled anticholinergic
G. Lumbar puncture
H. Commence CPR
I. IV antibiotics
J. Precordial thump
K. CT scan brain
L. Gastric lavage
A

H. Commence CPR - This patient has cardiac arrest and the first thing you need to do is commence CPR. It is thought to work by raising intrathoracic pressure and providing direct cardiac compression. 30 compressions (at 100/min) and 2 breaths for a total of 5 cycles (2 minutes), makes up one cycle of CPR. Compressions are the first priority, breaths may follow but compressions are paramount. Further management depends on whether the patient has a shockable rhythm (pulseless CT or VF) or non-shockable rhythm (PEA or asystole). Do you know when a precordial thump can be used?

468
Q

An 18-year-old woman found unconscious at home. She has needle “track” marks in her arms, a respiratory rate of 10/min. and pinpoint pupils.

A. Intravenous naloxone
B. Intramuscular glucagon
C. Intravenous dextrose
D. DC cardioversion
E. Endotracheal intubation
F. Inhaled anticholinergic
G. Lumbar puncture
H. Commence CPR
I. IV antibiotics
J. Precordial thump
K. CT scan brain
L. Gastric lavage
A

A. Intravenous naloxone - Opiate OD signs include CNS depression, miosis and apnoea. Finding small constricted pupils in someone who is unconscious is highly indicative. Naloxone is indicated both therapeutically and diagnostically. If there is a response, then it is diagnostic. Another diagnosis should be sought if the patient is unresponsive. IV is the preferred route of administration although naloxone can be given IM or SC if IV access cannot be established. Ventilatory support is key with 100% oxygen. You can check out Toxbase for a full database on poisons and treatments.

469
Q

A 34-year-old woman who complained of a severe headache on waking and then collapsed.

A. Intravenous naloxone
B. Intramuscular glucagon
C. Intravenous dextrose
D. DC cardioversion
E. Endotracheal intubation
F. Inhaled anticholinergic
G. Lumbar puncture
H. Commence CPR
I. IV antibiotics
J. Precordial thump
K. CT scan brain
L. Gastric lavage
A

K. CT scan brain - A CT head is indicated here in this possible SAH. This may show hyperdense areas in the basal cisterns, major fissures and sulci.

470
Q

An 18-year-old known asthmatic with a respiratory rate of 50 and inaudible breath sounds on auscultation.

A. Intravenous naloxone
B. Intramuscular glucagon
C. Intravenous dextrose
D. DC cardioversion
E. Endotracheal intubation
F. Inhaled anticholinergic
G. Lumbar puncture
H. Commence CPR
I. IV antibiotics
J. Precordial thump
K. CT scan brain
L. Gastric lavage
A

E. Endotracheal intubation - This is life threatening asthma that has not responded to therapy. There is cyanosis and respiratory acidosis despite the tachypnoea of 50/min. This patient is clearly too dyspnoeic to speak and oxygen saturation may be quite low. Pulsus paradoxus may also be observed. This patient should be intubated (mechanical ventilation is required) and transfered to ICU and given supplemental oxygen. IV corticosteroids should also be used and heliox therapy considered (helium-oxygen).

471
Q

A 28-year-old female with recent onset of depression takes 50 capsules, 500 mg each of paracetamol tablets. In several days, the liver is most likely to show what?

A. Hepatitis C virus infection
B. Cirrhosis
C. Portal chronic inflammation
D. Hepatitis B virus infection
E. Extensive necrosis
F. Hepatocellular carcinoma
G. Cholecystitis
H. Mallory weiss tear of oesophagus
I. Portal hypertension
A

E. Extensive necrosis - Paracetamol OD can occur after a single large OD or repeated ODs. Often, the patient is asymptomatic at initial presentation but if untreated may cause liver injury over the 2-4 days after ingestion, including fulminant liver failure. Paracetamol is the most frequent intentional OD drug in this country. The risk of liver damage is increased after taking drugs which induce CYP 450. Inducers include St John’s wort, barbiturates, phenytoin, tetracycline, chronic alcohol use and carbamazepine. A serum paracetamol level is important to order as early as possible, but at the earliest 4 hours post-ingestion.Treatment if indicated is with N-acetylcysteine with the level based on a paracetamol treatment graph.

472
Q

A 40-year-old male has a long history of chronic alcoholism. His liver is firm on palpation. An abdominal CT scan reveals that the liver has changes consistent with cirrhosis. He joins Alcoholics Anonymous and stops drinking. Despite his continued abstinence from alcohol, he remains at risk for development of which disease?

A. Hepatitis C virus infection
B. Cirrhosis
C. Portal chronic inflammation
D. Hepatitis B virus infection
E. Extensive necrosis
F. Hepatocellular carcinoma
G. Cholecystitis
H. Mallory weiss tear of oesophagus
I. Portal hypertension
A

F. Hepatocellular carcinoma - Patients with cirrhosis, especially those with alcoholic liver disease, are at a high risk of developing HCC. Cirrhosis is irreversible so despite stopping drinking, he is still at risk of HCC (hepatoma). Patients with cirrhosis should be screened for HCC with serum AFP and USS at 6 month intervals.

473
Q

A 40-year-old female, rather overweight, has episodes of right upper quadrant pain and fever.

A. Hepatitis C virus infection
B. Cirrhosis
C. Portal chronic inflammation
D. Hepatitis B virus infection
E. Extensive necrosis
F. Hepatocellular carcinoma
G. Cholecystitis
H. Mallory weiss tear of oesophagus
I. Portal hypertension
A

G. Cholecystitis - Cholecystitis is acute GB inflammation caused by an obstruction at the cystic duct. It occurs as a major complication of gallstones and classically presents with RUQ pain and fever. Gallstones in EMQs classically involves the Fs (Fat, Forty, Female, Fertile, Fair). USS is the definitive initial investigation. HIDA scanning and MRI may help if the diagnosis remains unclear. Treatment is with cholecystectomy.

474
Q

A 58-year-old man, who smoked 30 cigarettes a day, presents with a 6-week history of cough, malaise, anorexia and weight loss. Past medical history includes hypertension for which he has taken lisinopril and bendrofluazide for 4 years.

A. Postnasal drip
B. Oesophageal reflux
C. Angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitor
D. Foreign body
E. Asthma
F. Sarcoidosis
G. Tuberculosis
H. COPD
I. Carcinoma of bronchus
J. Bronchiectasis
A

I. Carcinoma of bronchus - The history of smoking and weight loss point to a bronchial carcinoma. Initial investigation is with a CXR. Diagnosis relies on pathological confirmation from a tissue sample, often obtained from bronchoscopy. First line treatment aims at surgical resection if possible. Small cell lung cancer is treated with chemotherapy and is associated with SIADH and ectopic ACTH. Non-small cell lung cancer is more often associated with clubbing. Squamous cell carcinoma is associated with PTHrp release and is treated with radiotherapy. Adenocarcinomas are usually located peripherally in the lung and are more common in non-smokers although most cases are still associated with smoking. The paraneoplastic syndromes may include Lambert-Eaton myasthenic syndrome.

475
Q

A 45-year-old woman who smokes 25 cigarettes a day is reviewed in the diabetic clinic. She has had a dry cough for 2 months. She is on numerous tablets as her diabetes is complicated by microalbuminuria and hypertension. Her GP had given her a course of antibiotics 2 weeks previously.

A. Postnasal drip
B. Oesophageal reflux
C. Angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitor
D. Foreign body
E. Asthma
F. Sarcoidosis
G. Tuberculosis
H. COPD
I. Carcinoma of bronchus
J. Bronchiectasis
A

C. Angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitor - A dry cough is a side effect of ACE inhibitors due to the build up of bradykinin which is normally degraded by ACE. ARB such as losartan will be indicated in this case. ARBs are insurmountable antagonists of AT1 receptors for angiotensin II, preventing its renal and vascular effects.

476
Q

A 40-year-old Afro-Caribbean woman presents with bilateral parotid swelling, and painful nodules on the front of the shins. She has a dry cough and slight shortness of breath on exertion.

A. Postnasal drip
B. Oesophageal reflux
C. Angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitor
D. Foreign body
E. Asthma
F. Sarcoidosis
G. Tuberculosis
H. COPD
I. Carcinoma of bronchus
J. Bronchiectasis
A

F. Sarcoidosis - Sarcoidosis is a chronic multisystem disease with an unknown aetiology. The painful (mauve) nodules are erythema nodosum. Lupus pernio is another typical skin manifestation of sarcoidosis presenting with indurated plaques with discoloration on the face. Parotid enlargement is a classic feature (involvement of exocrine glands). The dry cough and SOB on exertion indicate pulmonary involvement.

CXR will typically show bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy and CXR findings are used in the staging of disease. Additionally, serum calcium and ACE levels may be raised. A transbronchial biopsy is essential for diagnosis in most cases and shows the presence of non-caseating granulomas. Black people have a higher lifetime risk of sarcoidosis, as do those of Scandinavian origin. The mainstay of treatment for severe disease involves systemic corticosteroids.

477
Q

An 18-year-old man presents with a night-time cough and shortness of breath while playing football. This has got progressively worse over the previous 2 months.

A. Postnasal drip
B. Oesophageal reflux
C. Angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitor
D. Foreign body
E. Asthma
F. Sarcoidosis
G. Tuberculosis
H. COPD
I. Carcinoma of bronchus
J. Bronchiectasis
A

E. Asthma - SOB and the cough, which may wake the patient from sleep combined with the patient’s age and progessive course suggest asthma. Examination can show an expiratory wheeze but may be normal and treatment is step-wise based on BTS guidelines. It is worth noting that in severe exacerbations, the chest may be silent. Night symptoms occur in more severe asthma and symptoms can be exacerbated by exercise. Diagnosis is supported by PEFR variation of at least 20% over 3 days in a week over several weeks or an increase of at least 20% to treatment. Stepwise treatment is outlined below. Look up the BTS guidelines for more information.

Step 1: SABA PRN, Step 2: Plus low-dose inhaled corticosteroids (ICS) , Step 3: Plus LABA, Step 4: Increase dose of ICS or add LTRA, SR theophylline or beta agonist tablet, Step 5: Daily steroid tablet and maintain ICS with specialist care.

478
Q

A 30-year-old man, a lifelong non-smoker, presents with a history of at least 6 months of purulent sputum. He has had regular chest infections since an attack of measles at the age of 14.

A. Postnasal drip
B. Oesophageal reflux
C. Angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitor
D. Foreign body
E. Asthma
F. Sarcoidosis
G. Tuberculosis
H. COPD
I. Carcinoma of bronchus
J. Bronchiectasis
A

J. Bronchiectasis -Bronchiectasis is permanent bronchi dilatation due to bronchial wall damage and loss of elasticity. It is often as a consequence of recurrent/severe infections and most present with chronic productive mucopurulent cough. The most common identifiable cause is CF. Chest CT is the diagnostic test. Diagnosis is aided by sputum analysis. Have a think about what you would expect to hear on ascultation of the chest.

479
Q

A 19-year-old student complaining of amenorrhoea for 9 months. Weight loss, generalised weakness and depression. She has started a vegan diet a year ago. Her BMI is 16.

A. Malignancy
B. Anorexia nervosa
C. Tuberculosis
D. Addison's disease
E. Malabsorption
F. Infestation with helminths
G. Cardiac failure
H. Diabetes mellitus
I. Hyperthyroidism
J. Renal failure
K. Liver failure
L. Depression
M. HIV
A

B. Anorexia nervosa - Anorexia nervosa often occurs in women which is a key risk factor. Puberty/adolescence and obsessive personality traits are additional risks. There is a higher incidence reported in western cultures (presumably skinny models on TV, adverts etc…) and studies on immigrants moving to a western culture exhibited a higher incidence. There is also postulated to be a genetic contribution from twin studies.Those who in higher socioeconomic classes are more affected. BMI is usually

480
Q

A 17-year-old man returning from holiday in Africa. He presents with abdominal pain, weight loss, pruritis and a wheeze. Blood film showed eosinophilia.

A. Malignancy
B. Anorexia nervosa
C. Tuberculosis
D. Addison's disease
E. Malabsorption
F. Infestation with helminths
G. Cardiac failure
H. Diabetes mellitus
I. Hyperthyroidism
J. Renal failure
K. Liver failure
L. Depression
M. HIV
A

F. Infestation with helminths - The only option on the list that would give eosinophilia is infection with helminths. There is a risk factor here, having returned from Africa where the sanitation, hygiene and agricultural practices may leave much to be desired. Testing for stool ova and parasites will be needed to see exactly which helminth is causing this infection, although this is not very sensitive for strongyloides larvae. IgG serology can be used with >95% sensitivity if stool samples are negative in the case of strongyloides. This could be strongyloides or ascariasis or a rarer organism. Treatment will be with antihelminths depending on the organism. Ivermectin for strongyloides is the drug of choice. Other antihelmintic agents include albendazole, mebendazole and pyrantel pamoate.

481
Q

A 70-year-old man with a history of 10kg weight loss over the previous 3 months. More recently, he developed acute lower back pain. He presents to A&E with coughing and sputum. Chest x-ray shows left lower lobe pneumonia.

A. Malignancy
B. Anorexia nervosa
C. Tuberculosis
D. Addison's disease
E. Malabsorption
F. Infestation with helminths
G. Cardiac failure
H. Diabetes mellitus
I. Hyperthyroidism
J. Renal failure
K. Liver failure
L. Depression
M. HIV
A

A. Malignancy - This person likely has lung cancer which has resulted in the significant weight loss of 10kg. This is post-obstructive pneymonia which is common in lung cancer patients and is caused, most of the time, by a large and centrally obstructing tumour. It is essential to relieve this obstruction in this case and many techniques can be tried. There is also bone pain here in the lower spinal column which is due to metastases. The prognosis here is not good.

482
Q

A 25-year-old woman with fatigue and weight loss. She gives a history of frequent loose stools with abdominal pain. Full blood count revealed iron deficiency anaemia.

A. Malignancy
B. Anorexia nervosa
C. Tuberculosis
D. Addison's disease
E. Malabsorption
F. Infestation with helminths
G. Cardiac failure
H. Diabetes mellitus
I. Hyperthyroidism
J. Renal failure
K. Liver failure
L. Depression
M. HIV
A

E. Malabsorption - There is frequent loose stools here and abdominal pain. Combined with the IDA, this points to malabsorption. This could well be a presentation of coeliac disease – IDA is one of the most common clinical presentations and abdominal pain and diarrhoea are common. Coeliac disease is a systemic autoimmune condition triggered by dietary gluten peptides found in grains. It is a relatively common condition. The only treatment is a strict gluten-free diet for life.

483
Q

A 40-year-old African refugee has noticed recent weight loss. Although he attributed this to stress you are concerned when you detect generalised lymphadenopathy. Blood count shows neutropenia and thrombocytopenia.

A. Malignancy
B. Anorexia nervosa
C. Tuberculosis
D. Addison's disease
E. Malabsorption
F. Infestation with helminths
G. Cardiac failure
H. Diabetes mellitus
I. Hyperthyroidism
J. Renal failure
K. Liver failure
L. Depression
M. HIV
A

M. HIV - HIV is a retrovirus and there are two types, HIV 1 which is the main virus responsible and HIV 2 which is restricted to parts of West Africa. Weight loss is common in HIV and if more than 10% body weight is lost of BMI reduces to 18.5, this is an indication of more severe immunocompromise. Weight loss in HIV may result from malnutrition, co-existent TB infection or HIV wasting syndrome, the latter being an AIDS defining illness. Generalised lymphadenopathy is also common and is characterised by the painless enlargement of 2 more more non-contiguous sites of >1cm for >3 months. Neutropenia is also seen due to CD4 deficiency and thrombocytopenia may also be seen along with an anaemic picture.

There are WHO (stage 1-4) and CDC criteria used in clinical staging. This patient needs to have a CD4 count, HBV and HCV screen, VDRL (syphilis), tuberculin skin test (TB) and CXR. HIV viral load will also be assessed. Prophylaxis and immunisations should be considered against infections such as hepatitis, influenza, PCP and TB. When to initiate HAART depends on the clinical stage, CD4 and co-morbidities. This patient will need to be started on HAART. Classes of antiretrovirals include NRTIs, NNRTIs, protease inhibitors, fusion inhibitors and integrase inhibitors.

484
Q

A 25-year-old woman returning from Australia presents with acutely painful left calf. Ultrasound confirms deep vein thrombosis extending above the popliteal veins. She has recently missed a period.

A. Check INR and continue warfarin
B. Fondaparinux (FXa inhibitor)
C. Subcutaneous low molecular weight heparin
D. Antiembolism stocking
E. Start warfarin therapy
F. Vena cava filter
G. Reassure and discharge
H. Embolectomy
I. Observation in hospital
J. Intravenous heparin
A

C. Subcutaneous low molecular weight heparin - Women developing a DVT during pregnancy can be treated with heparin or LMWH. However, LMWH is preferred due to more dependable pharmacokinetics. The agents you will commonly hear include enoxaparin, dalteparin and tinzaparin.

485
Q

A 30-year-old man developed acute pain in the right calf after a game of squash. He has marked calf tenderness but no swelling. Doppler ultrasound is negative.

A. Check INR and continue warfarin
B. Fondaparinux (FXa inhibitor)
C. Subcutaneous low molecular weight heparin
D. Antiembolism stocking
E. Start warfarin therapy
F. Vena cava filter
G. Reassure and discharge
H. Embolectomy
I. Observation in hospital
J. Intravenous heparin
A

G. Reassure and discharge - This is likely to be a musculoskeletal injury in an otherwise fit, young man. Eccentric contraction causes more frequent injury. Inadequate warm-up before exercise can predispose to muscle injuries.

486
Q

A 50-year-old woman taking non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs for arthritis presented with a history of sudden onset pain behind her right knee leading to pain down the calf. Ultrasound confirms a Baker’s cyst.

A. Check INR and continue warfarin
B. Fondaparinux (FXa inhibitor)
C. Subcutaneous low molecular weight heparin
D. Antiembolism stocking
E. Start warfarin therapy
F. Vena cava filter
G. Reassure and discharge
H. Embolectomy
I. Observation in hospital
J. Intravenous heparin
A

G. Reassure and discharge - A popliteal cyst is an accumulation of synovial fluid which in this case has resulted from this woman’s arthritis. This is an accumulation of synovial fluid behind the knee, usually in response to injury or inflammation. It will self-resolve but the underlying cause should be addressed i.e. arthritis. First line treatment for grade 1 or 2 injuries is with RICE: rest, ice, compression and elevation followed by gentle mobilisation. Adjunctive analgesia can be offered with paracetamol. Treatment is conservative, particularly if asymptomatic. Surgery is only indicated in those with extensive symptoms where conservative and percutaneous treatments have failed. Corticosteroid injections (intra-articular) can also be considered.

487
Q

You are asked to see a patient with acute chest pain 5 days after total hip replacement. BP 120/80, HR 93. A PE is confirmed. The patient has a previous history of heparin-induced thrombocytopenia.

A. Check INR and continue warfarin
B. Fondaparinux (FXa inhibitor)
C. Subcutaneous low molecular weight heparin
D. Antiembolism stocking
E. Start warfarin therapy
F. Vena cava filter
G. Reassure and discharge
H. Embolectomy
I. Observation in hospital
J. Intravenous heparin
A

B. Fondapariunux - A factor Xa antagonist is preferred if the patient has or has had heparin-induced thrombocytopenia. If the patient has a low BP then systemic thrombolysis would be indicated to prevent possible cardiac arrest.

488
Q

A woman who is on warfarin for a confirmed right calf DVT develops increasing pain and swelling of that leg. This is the third time this has happened. Repeat imaging shows thrombus limited to the calf.

A. Check INR and continue warfarin
B. Fondaparinux (FXa inhibitor)
C. Subcutaneous low molecular weight heparin
D. Antiembolism stocking
E. Start warfarin therapy
F. Vena cava filter
G. Reassure and discharge
H. Embolectomy
I. Observation in hospital
J. Intravenous heparin
A

C. Subcutaneous low molecular weight heparin - Patients with recurrent thromboembolism despite on warfarin should be given heparin or LMWH. LMWH is again the primary option for reasons discussed. They should be given for at least 5 days until INR is between 2 and 3 (the target INR). Fondaparinux would be used instead if there was a high chance of delayed HIT. Warfarin is continued and efforts must be made to work out how this patient has developed a DVT despite on warfarin therapy. There may be subtherapeutic dosing, the presence of a malignancy or antiphospholipid syndrome. If there is documented thrombosis progression despite adequate anticoagulation, without HIT and other causes are excluded, an IVC filtre may be indicated but evidence of its efficacy have been debated by recent studies.

489
Q

A 40 year old lady with multiple painful lumps in her breast, which are painful & tender premenstrually

A. Carcinoma of the breast
B. Sebaceous cyst
C. Duct Ectasia
D. Fibroadenosis
E. Breast Cyst
F. Gynaecomastia
G. Fibroadenoma
H. Breast Abscess
I. Lipoma
A

D. Fibroadenosis - Fibrocystic breasts are characterised by ‘lumpy’ breasts associated with pain which fluctuates with the menstrual cycle (it is worse during the luteal phase of menses). Risk factors include obesity, nulliparity, HRT and late onset menopause and first childbirth. It is a diagnosis of exclusion, and is considered to be an exaggerated physiological phenomenon rather than a disease (54% of clinically normal breasts are found on autopsy to have fibrocystic changes). Symptoms typically arise between the 3rd and 4th decases of life. There may also be a nipple discharge, which can be suspicious if bloody or profuse etc and may indicate the presence of an intraductal papilloma, cancer, or duct ectasia. Cysts can be aspirated if symptomatic (asymptomatic or small ones do not require intervention). If the aspirate is straw coloured and completely aspirated, there is no need for cytology, but if the aspirate is bloody, cytology or biopsy is needed to exclude cancer. There is improvement of mastalgia and cysts at menopause and until then it runs a chronic relapsing course.

490
Q

A 25 year old lady with a discrete, non-tender, mobile lump in one breast.

A. Carcinoma of the breast
B. Sebaceous cyst
C. Duct Ectasia
D. Fibroadenosis
E. Breast Cyst
F. Gynaecomastia
G. Fibroadenoma
H. Breast Abscess
I. Lipoma
A

G. Fibroadenoma - This is a fibroadenoma which tends to be asymptomatic and found incidentally, typically in a patient

491
Q

A 35 year old lady is generally unwell with a tachycardia & a fever. A segment of the right breast is painful, tender, red & warm

A. Carcinoma of the breast
B. Sebaceous cyst
C. Duct Ectasia
D. Fibroadenosis
E. Breast Cyst
F. Gynaecomastia
G. Fibroadenoma
H. Breast Abscess
I. Lipoma
A

H. Breast abscess - Breast abscess presents with mastalgia and fever. Breast infection typically affects women who are lactating and the most commonly implicated pathogen is staphylococcus aureus. The painful, hard and red lump indicates the development of an abscess. Antibiotic therapy is indicated with surgical intervention such as aspiration and drainage with possible duct excision. Prompt management of mastitis when it presents will usually lead to a good timely resolution and prevent the development of complications such as an abscess. An USS can help to identify the underlying abscess which usually forms a hypoechoic lesion. Needle aspiration can be used both therapeutically and diagnostically and can be guided by ultrasound.

492
Q

A 14 year old boy with bilateral breast enlargement.

A. Carcinoma of the breast
B. Sebaceous cyst
C. Duct Ectasia
D. Fibroadenosis
E. Breast Cyst
F. Gynaecomastia
G. Fibroadenoma
H. Breast Abscess
I. Lipoma
A

F. Gynaecomastia - This is a boy who has enlarged breasts. Normal to see gynaecomastia in puberty. Other causes include liver disease and as a side effect of drugs such as digoxin, spironolactone and cimetidine.

493
Q

A 40 year old lady with a green nipple discharge & tender lumpiness beneath the areola

A. Carcinoma of the breast
B. Sebaceous cyst
C. Duct Ectasia
D. Fibroadenosis
E. Breast Cyst
F. Gynaecomastia
G. Fibroadenoma
H. Breast Abscess
I. Lipoma
A

C. Duct ectasia - Duct ectasia happens because the lactiferous duct gets blocked. Ectasia means widening. It can mimic breast cancer as the discharge can be bloody sometimes and signs can include nipple inversion. The green nipple discharge is typical in EMQs. It is a self limiting condition. 1) Fibrocystic breasts are characterised by ‘lumpy’ breasts associated with pain which fluctuates with the menstrual cycle (it is worse during the luteal phase of menses). Risk factors include obesity, nulliparity, HRT and late onset menopause and first childbirth. It is a diagnosis of exclusion, and is considered to be an exaggerated physiological phenomenon rather than a disease (54% of clinically normal breasts are found on autopsy to have fibrocystic changes). Symptoms typically arise between the 3rd and 4th decases of life. There may also be a nipple discharge, which can be suspicious if bloody or profuse etc and may indicate the presence of an intraductal papilloma, cancer, or duct ectasia. Cysts can be aspirated if symptomatic (asymptomatic or small ones do not require intervention). If the aspirate is straw coloured and completely aspirated, there is no need for cytology, but if the aspirate is bloody, cytology or biopsy is needed to exclude cancer. There is improvement of mastalgia and cysts at menopause and until then it runs a chronic relapsing course.

494
Q

A 45 year old man with a long history of excess alcohol consumption presents with haematemesis. On examination he is clubbed & has spider naevi.

A. Echocardiogram
B. Abdominal ultrasound
C. Bronchoscopy
D. Chest x-ray
E. Lung funtion tests
F. Sputum culture
G. Colonoscopy
H. Stool culture
A

B. Abdominal ultrasound - This is clubbing due to cirrhosis as a result of chronic alcohol excess. Ultrasound here is the only feasible option on the list and can detect advanced cirrhosis and possible signs of portal hypertension, such as ascites, splenomegaly and increased portal vein diameter. The ultrasound may show a nodular liver surface, the liver may itself be shrunk due to cirrhosis and the left hand side of the liver may be hypertrophied. USS findings with a good clinical suspicion is enough for diagnosis.

495
Q

A 60 year old man with a history of occupational exposure in building & demolition industry presents with shortness of breath. On examination there are signs of a pleural effusion and the patient is clubbed.

A. Echocardiogram
B. Abdominal ultrasound
C. Bronchoscopy
D. Chest x-ray
E. Lung funtion tests
F. Sputum culture
G. Colonoscopy
H. Stool culture
A

D. Chest x-ray - Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis (previously known as Cryptogenic fibrosing alveolitis) progresses over several years and is characterised by pulmonary scar tissue formation and dyspnoea. Patients complain of a non-productive cough and typically reproducible and predictable SOB on exertion. This man’s work means he comes into contact with small organic or inorganic dust particles which is thought to be implicated in the cascade of events leading to IPF. Another risk factor is cigarette smoking which significantly increases the risk of IPF. The mean age of diagnosis is 60-70. CXR here will show reticular opacities. A high resolution CT scan can also be done if it was an option on this list.

496
Q

A 19 year old woman with a past history of cardiac surgery in infancy presents with symptoms of decreasing exercise tolerance. On examination there is cyanosis & clubbing.

A. Echocardiogram
B. Abdominal ultrasound
C. Bronchoscopy
D. Chest x-ray
E. Lung funtion tests
F. Sputum culture
G. Colonoscopy
H. Stool culture
A

A. Echocardiogram - The only cardiac investigation here is an echocardiogram. Cardiovascular causes of clubbing include cyanotic congenital heart disease, infective endocarditis and atrial myxoma. This could well be Eisenmenger’s syndrome caused by shunt reversal.

497
Q

A 35 year old woman with history of recurrent lower abdominal pain, bloody diarrhoea & passing mucus PR. On examination there is lower abdominal tenderness & clubbing.

A. Echocardiogram
B. Abdominal ultrasound
C. Bronchoscopy
D. Chest x-ray
E. Lung funtion tests
F. Sputum culture
G. Colonoscopy
H. Stool culture
A

G. Colonoscopy - This woman has inflammatory bowel disease (which is a cause of clubbing), which by the history is more likely to be UC than CD, whereby the mainstay of treatment is with 5-ASA. A colonoscopy is required to assess the extent of disease and for a definitive diagnosis. Biopsy in CD will show transmural granulomatous inflammation. CD can affect the whole GIT but favours the TI and proximal colon and is macroscopically characterised by skip lesions. UC on the other hand is characterised by the presence of crypt abscesses, which is pathognomic. CD risk is increased 3-4 fold by smoking whereas smoking seems protective in UC. The mainstay of treatment in CD is with steroids and azathioprine to revent relapses and for those suffering side effects of steroid treatment. TNF-alpha inhibitors also have a role. Surgery in CD is only indicated in a small number of patients who bleed, for bowel perforation and cases of complete obstruction. The aim is to rest distal disease by temporarily diverting faecal flow.While a stool culture may be useful in ruling out infectious gastroenteritis it will not provide the diagnosis here.

498
Q

A 50 year old woman who is a heavy smoker presents with shortness of breath & weight loss. On examination she is clubbed. The chest x-ray shows a perihilar shadow.

A. Echocardiogram
B. Abdominal ultrasound
C. Bronchoscopy
D. Chest x-ray
E. Lung funtion tests
F. Sputum culture
G. Colonoscopy
H. Stool culture
A

C. Bronchoscopy - The history of smoking and weight loss point to a bronchial carcinoma. Whilst the initial investigation is with a CXR, diagnosis relies on pathological confirmation from a tissue sample, often obtained from bronchoscopy. Non-small cell lung cancer is more often associated with clubbing.

499
Q

A 37 year old Somali doctor with a history of coughing up about half a cup of fresh blood on 4-5 occasions over the period of 2 months. He had lost 5kg in weight and had drenching night sweats almost daily. Chest x-ray shows a large cavitating nodule in the left upper zone.

A. Sickle cell crisis
B. Arterio-venous malformation
C. Tuberculosis
D. Inhaled foreign body
E. Acute left ventricular failure
F. Bronchiectasis
G. Pulmonary aspergillosis
H. Asthma
I. Pulmonary embolus
J. Carcinoma of bronchus
K. Thrombocytopenia
A

C. Tuberculosis - This patient has pulmonary TB. Risk factors include HIV infection, exposure to infection and returning from or being born in a high risk region such as Somalia, or other areas of Africa, Asia and Latin America. The night sweats here, weight loss and haemoptysis are all suggestive. The CXR finding of a cavitating lesion and upper zone changes are also consistent with TB. If TB is suspected, the patient should be placed in isolation and 3 sputum samples cultured for AFB being the gold standard of diagnosis. Culture takes several weeks so sputum smears will be done before culture results are known. Interferon-gamma release assays (IGRAs) are now used by some hospitals to rapidly determine a patient’s TB status. All patients who have TB should be tested for HIV within 2 months of diagnosis.

500
Q

A 55 year old lorry driver, a ‘fit’ smoker of 20-30 cigarettes a day, presents to his GP with a history of coughing up 2 streaks of blood on separate mornings in the previous week. He has had a morning cough with small amounts of sputum over the previous 10 years and admits on questioning that he may have lost weight and has had to tighten his trouser belt. The ESR was 75 and chest x-ray showed collapse of the right middle lobe.

A. Sickle cell crisis
B. Arterio-venous malformation
C. Tuberculosis
D. Inhaled foreign body
E. Acute left ventricular failure
F. Bronchiectasis
G. Pulmonary aspergillosis
H. Asthma
I. Pulmonary embolus
J. Carcinoma of bronchus
K. Thrombocytopenia
A

J. Carcinoma of bronchus - The weight loss, respiratory symptoms of haemoptysis and the history of smoking makes this likely to be bronchial carcinoma. Lobar collapse here may be a consequence of obstruction. First line treatment aims at surgical resection if possible. Small cell lung cancer is treated with chemotherapy and is associated with SIADH and ectopic ACTH. Non-small cell lung cancer is more often associated with clubbing. Squamous cell carcinoma is associated with PTHrp release and is treated with radiotherapy. Adenocarcinomas are usually located peripherally in the lung and are more common in non-smokers although most cases are still associated with smoking. The paraneoplastic syndromes may include Lambert-Eaton myasthenic syndrome.

501
Q

A 50 year old cleaner, with a history of pertussis as a child, had a fever and increasing shortness of breath with sweating on exertion. She has had a cough productive of yellow sputum for 25 years but this is recently blood stained. She is a non-smoker. She has come to her GP for a further course of antibiotics and he refers her for a chest X-ray because he thinks she is clubbed.

A. Sickle cell crisis
B. Arterio-venous malformation
C. Tuberculosis
D. Inhaled foreign body
E. Acute left ventricular failure
F. Bronchiectasis
G. Pulmonary aspergillosis
H. Asthma
I. Pulmonary embolus
J. Carcinoma of bronchus
K. Thrombocytopenia
A

F. Bronchiectasis - Bronchiectasis is permanent bronchi dilatation due to bronchial wall damage and loss of elasticity. It is often as a consequence of recurrent/severe infections and most present with chronic productive mucopurulent cough. The most common identifiable cause is CF but this history here of pertussis is responsible in this instance. Chest CT is the diagnostic test. Diagnosis is aided by sputum analysis. Not only should the GP have this diagnosis in mind but should know whether the patient is actually clubbed, instead of ‘thinking’ she is clubbed. Bronchiectasis is a cause of clubbing.

502
Q

A 25 year old public relations executive has gained weight on the combined oral contraceptive and is reluctant to give up smoking 10-15 cigarettes a day. She presents at an A&E department with acute left sided pleuritic chest pain, slight shortness of breath and a cough with a little sputum containing smears of blood. Chest X-ray is unremarkable.

A. Sickle cell crisis
B. Arterio-venous malformation
C. Tuberculosis
D. Inhaled foreign body
E. Acute left ventricular failure
F. Bronchiectasis
G. Pulmonary aspergillosis
H. Asthma
I. Pulmonary embolus
J. Carcinoma of bronchus
K. Thrombocytopenia
A

I. Pulmonary embolism - The underlying pathophysiology of PE is based on Virchow’s triad. SOB is a common symptom and there may also be pleuritic chest pain and haemoptysis. Strong risk factors include recent surgery, DVT, obesity, prolonged bed rest, malignancy, previous VTE, pregnancy and the thrombophilias such as factor V Leiden. The oral contraceptive pill is associated with an increased risk of VTE but is a weak risk factor. However, the rest of this history still makes the diagnosis in this case. CXR may be normal like in this case or may have findings suggestive of PE such as band atelectasis, hemidiaphragm elevation, Fleischner’s sign, Westermark’s sign and Hampton hump. ECG may be normal, or may show tachycardia, new RAD, new RBBB or the classical S wave in I, Q wave with T inversion in III. Various clinical probability scores exist for PE and D-dimer can be used to exclude PE as a diagnosis.

503
Q

A 45 year old woman who is HIV positive reports easy bruising, frequent nose bleeds and coughing up small streaks of blood. She is otherwise well at present. Chest X-ray shows no abnormality. A full blood count shows Hb of 10.5g/dl, WBC 5.0 x 109/l and platelet count 28 x 109/l.

A. Sickle cell crisis
B. Arterio-venous malformation
C. Tuberculosis
D. Inhaled foreign body
E. Acute left ventricular failure
F. Bronchiectasis
G. Pulmonary aspergillosis
H. Asthma
I. Pulmonary embolus
J. Carcinoma of bronchus
K. Thrombocytopenia
A

K. Thrombocytopenia - HIV is implicated in idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura, which is a condition of abnormally low platelet count of unknown cause. This question makes this dead easy by giving you the platelet count as 28 x109/L and all you need to do is to appreciate that a count under 150 x109/L is defined as thrombocytopenia. As well as the count, the patient has obvious symptoms of thrombocytopenia here with bruising, haemoptysis and epistaxis.

504
Q

A 30 year old man appears jaundiced. FBC and peripheral blood smear is reported as normal. INR is normal. LFTs show elevated unconjugated bilirubin. Liver enzymes are normal.

A. Autoimmune haemolytic anaemia
B. Paracetamol poisoning
C. Alcoholic cirrhosis
D. Primary biliary cirrhosis
E. Carcinoma of head of pancreas
F. Viral hepatitis A
G. Cholelithiasis
H. Gilbert’s syndrome
I. Liver secondaries
A

H. Gilbert’s syndrome - Gilbert’s occurs in an asymptomatic patient, often as an incidental finding or mild jaundice occuring in adolescence/young adult age. There is elevated unconjugated BR with other liver tests being normal. The blood smear is also normal with normal reticulocyte count, and normal Hb indicating that this is not due to haemolysis. It is a common syndrome and is not really a disease, more a physiological variant. No treatment is needed and this condition is due to decreased UDPGT activity leading to decreased conjugation of unconjugated bilirubin, leading to elevated levels.

505
Q

A 20 year old woman complains of breathlessness and appears pale. Hb 7.3 g/dl, WBC 7.0 x 109/L, Platelets 100 x 109/l. Unconjugated bilirubin is elevated. Direct antiglobulin test is positive.

A. Autoimmune haemolytic anaemia
B. Paracetamol poisoning
C. Alcoholic cirrhosis
D. Primary biliary cirrhosis
E. Carcinoma of head of pancreas
F. Viral hepatitis A
G. Cholelithiasis
H. Gilbert’s syndrome
I. Liver secondaries
A

A. Autoimmune haemolytic anaemia - This woman is complaining of symptoms of anaemia with SOB and pallor. Haemolytic anaemia can be either hereditary or acquired. Hereditary can be divided into 3 broad groups – either inherited defects in the membrane such as hereditary spherocytosis, enzyme deficiencies such as G6PDH deficiency or abnormal Hb production such as that seen in sickle cell anaemia and thalassaemia. Acquired can be either immune or non-immune in cause. Autoimmune HA here is due to autoantibodies, which occurs most often as part of another autoimmune process like SLE or RA or related to a lymphoproliferative disorder such as CLL. FBC here shows a low Hb consistent with the diagnosis, though it is important here to also request MCHC and reticulocyte count. Both of these would be increased in haemolytic anaemia. Increased breakdown of haem leads to an unconjugated hyperbilirubinaemia, though not >70-85, which would indicate some degree of liver impairment as well. LDH would also be raised, which can be helpful if there is no concurrent tissue damage. Haptoglobin (which binds free Hb) will also be low, and these two markers combined is 90% specific for HA. The giveaway for AIHA here is the positive DAT or Coombs’ test. This test detects IgG or complement bound to RBCs (hence a positive result suggests an immune cause of HA). The patient’s RBCs are washed and mixed with antiserum for IgG and C3d. The presence of IgG often indicates the presence of a warm antibody, whereas C3d suggests a cold antibody.

506
Q

A 55 year old man complains of abdominal distension. Hb 10.0 g/dl, WBC 7.0 x 109/l, Platelets 100 x 109/l. The patient is hyponatraemic and hypokalaemic. Urea and creatinine are normal. Serum albumin is low. AST is elevated at 250 and ALT is elevated to 125. ALP and GGT are also elevated.

A. Autoimmune haemolytic anaemia
B. Paracetamol poisoning
C. Alcoholic cirrhosis
D. Primary biliary cirrhosis
E. Carcinoma of head of pancreas
F. Viral hepatitis A
G. Cholelithiasis
H. Gilbert’s syndrome
I. Liver secondaries
A

C. Alcoholic cirrhosis - This is a case of alcoholic cirrhosis. AST and ALT are elevated in all forms of alcoholic liver disease, both to 2, which is seen in about 70% of cases, and AST is usually above ALT level. The elevated ALP here may represent cholestasis. GGT is a more sensitive marker than AST or ALT for heavy alcohol use and elevation here suggests the cause is alcohol. The anaemia here in alcoholic liver disease can be due to many causes like iron deficiency, folate deficiency and hypersplenism. Thrombocytopenia may be secondary to alcohol induced BM suppression, folate deficiency or hypersplenism. Those with advanced cirrhosis frequently are also hyponatraemic and hypokalaemia is also seen. Urea and creatinine is normal in this patient but elevation may suggest the presence of hepatorenal syndrome. Cirrhosis is the end stage of chronic liver disease and the abdominal distension may be a sign of ascites.

507
Q

A 30 year old man who has returned from a month-long business trip to India has been complaining of abdominal pain and nausea for a week. He has also vomitied and remembers having a meal of shellfish from a street vendor. He woke up this morning and noticed he was going yellow. His ALT is 5000 and total bilirubin 139.

A. Autoimmune haemolytic anaemia
B. Paracetamol poisoning
C. Alcoholic cirrhosis
D. Primary biliary cirrhosis
E. Carcinoma of head of pancreas
F. Viral hepatitis A
G. Cholelithiasis
H. Gilbert’s syndrome
I. Liver secondaries
A

F. Viral hepatitis A - Hepatitis A is primarily transmitted via the faecal-oral route. After the virus is consumed and absorbed, it replicates in the liver and is excreted in the bile (to be re-transmitted). Transmission usually precedes symptoms by about 2 weeks and patients are non-infectious 1 week after onset of jaundice. The history can reveal risk factors such as living in an endemic area, contact with an infected person, homosexual sex or a known food-borne outbreak. This is classically, in EMQs, associated with shellfish which is harvested from sewage contaminated water. If the patient has other liver diseases such as HBV or HCV or cirrhosis then there is a higher risk of fulminant HAV infection. The clinical course of HAV consists of a pre-icteric phase, lasting 5-7 days, consisting characteristically of N&V, abdominal pain, fever, malaise and headache. Rarer symptoms may be present such as arthralgias and even severe thrombocytopenia and signs that may be found include splenomegaly, RUQ tenderness and tender hepatomegaly as well as bradycardia. The icteric phase is characterised by dark urine, pale stools, jaundice and pruritis. When jaundice comes on, the pre-icteric phase symptoms usually diminish, and jaundice typically peaks at 2 weeks. However, a fulminant course runs in

508
Q

A 45 year old obese woman complains of intermittent abdominal pain with jaundice. Hb 13.1 g/dl, WBC 8.3 x 109/l, Platelets 200 x 109/l, Na 140, K 4.1, Urea 5.2, Creatinine 88, ALP 580, Bilirubin 264, ALT 70

A. Autoimmune haemolytic anaemia
B. Paracetamol poisoning
C. Alcoholic cirrhosis
D. Primary biliary cirrhosis
E. Carcinoma of head of pancreas
F. Viral hepatitis A
G. Cholelithiasis
H. Gilbert’s syndrome
I. Liver secondaries
A

G. Cholelithiasis - Gallstones, or cholelithiasis, is highly prevalent but most are asymptomatic. Symptoms occur when the cystic or bile duct get obstructed or when the gallstones erode through the gallbladder. The biliary pain here is caused by transient cystic duct obstruction or passage/obstruction through the bile duct. The typical presentation is of RUQ or epigastric pain often after food which increases in intensity and lasts for several hours. The jaundice here suggests choledocholithiasis (the presence of at least one gallstone in the CBD). Gallstones in EMQs classically involves the Fs (Fat, Forty, Female, Fertile, Fair) which reflects the risk factors such as older age, female sex, obesity, rapid weight loss, pregnancy and drugs. USS is the definitive initial investigation. HIDA scanning and MRI may help if the diagnosis remains unclear. Definitive treatment is with laparoscopic cholecystectomy for those with symptoms. Complications of gallstones include cholecystitis, cholangitis and pancreatitis and symptoms may indeed overlap between these conditions.

509
Q
A 47-year-old man was brought into A&E having fainted in a wine bar at 6pm. His Glasgow Coma Score was 3. He was pale, sweaty and looked grey. He normally took no alcohol but had been celebrating his promotion at work by holding a champagne party.
A. Pancreatitis
B. Wernicke's encephalopathy
C. Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome
D. Hyperglycaemia
E. Atrial fibrillation
F. Convulsions
G. Subdural haematoma
H. Acute gastritis
I. Hypertension
J. Anxiety attack
K. Delirium tremens
L. Hypoglycaemia
M. Pulmonary fibrosis
N. Oesophageal varices
A

L. Hypoglycaemia - Heavy alcohol consumption decreases hepatic production of glucose, putting this person at risk of hypoglycaemia. This patient is suffering from hypoglycaemia which is present when glucose drops

510
Q

A 35-year-old overweight woman complained of severe abdominal pain and vomiting. She had had a previous attack when on holiday and had had to be flown home as a medical emergency. She looks jaundiced and in distress.

A. Pancreatitis
B. Wernicke's encephalopathy
C. Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome
D. Hyperglycaemia
E. Atrial fibrillation
F. Convulsions
G. Subdural haematoma
H. Acute gastritis
I. Hypertension
J. Anxiety attack
K. Delirium tremens
L. Hypoglycaemia
M. Pulmonary fibrosis
N. Oesophageal varices
A

A. Pancreatitis - This patient has acute pancreatitis. She has vomited and is describing likely epigastric pain. This classically radiates around to the back which is relieved in the fetal position and is worse with movement. This patient is likely to have gallstones as the underlying cause, which is also causing an obstructive jaundice and her previous episode. Complicated haemorrhagic pancreatitis may exhibit Cullen’s sign, Grey-Turner’s sign and Fox’s sign. Make sure you know what these are and you are familiar with the other causes of acute pancreatitis. Those caused by hypocalcaemia may display Chvostek’s sign and Trousseau’s sign. Key to diagnosis is serum amylase or lipase levels which are massively elevated. Prognostic criteria are outlined in Ranson’s criteria applied on admission and after 48 hours, or the modified Glasgow score which you can find in your Oxford Handbook. An abdominal CT is however the most sensitive and specific study and findings may include enlargement of the pancreas with irregular contours, necrosis, pseudocysts and peripancreatic fat obliteration. For interest, urinary trypsinogen-2 is now considered a better screening test than amylase but is not currently clinically used.

511
Q

A 47-year-old male policeman was brought to A&E having become SOB suddenly. He now complains of palpitations, which he has never experienced before. Heart sounds are irregular but no murmurs are audible. He is a diabetic with hypertension.

A. Pancreatitis
B. Wernicke's encephalopathy
C. Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome
D. Hyperglycaemia
E. Atrial fibrillation
F. Convulsions
G. Subdural haematoma
H. Acute gastritis
I. Hypertension
J. Anxiety attack
K. Delirium tremens
L. Hypoglycaemia
M. Pulmonary fibrosis
N. Oesophageal varices
A

E. Atrial fibrillation - Atrial fibrillation is an irregular atrial arrhythmia with a broad list of risk factors such as coronary artery disease, heart failure, hypertension, DM and thyroid disorders. This patient has two of these risk factors. AF affects some 5% of those older than 69 years old. The presentation of SOB and palpitations is consistent with the diagnosis and the irregular heart sounds suggests AF as the cause. ECG would show absent P waves, a fibrillatory baseline and irregularly irregular complexes. Most that present with acute AF do not need immediate treatment, unless they have developed haemodynamic compromise, which requires immediate DC cardioversion. Most will require medical therapy with drugs to control the ventricular rate, restore and maintain sinus rhythm and prevent the occurence of thromboembolic events. Do you know which drugs are used and are you familiar with treatment guidelines for this common condition?

512
Q

A young man involved in a RTA is brought into A&E with multiple injuries to his face. On examination, his eyes do not open to pain. He withdraws his left side to pain but his right side does not move at all. His right pupil is fixed, dilated and non-reactive.

A. Pancreatitis
B. Wernicke's encephalopathy
C. Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome
D. Hyperglycaemia
E. Atrial fibrillation
F. Convulsions
G. Subdural haematoma
H. Acute gastritis
I. Hypertension
J. Anxiety attack
K. Delirium tremens
L. Hypoglycaemia
M. Pulmonary fibrosis
N. Oesophageal varices
A

G. - Subdural haematoma - A subdural occurs due to blood collecting between the dura mater and the arachnoid mater surrounding the brain. It may be arterial or venous although is most often venous. The disease runs a varied course and the presentation occurs on a spectrum from asymptomatic to herniation syndromes. There is neurological deficit evident so surgery will be indicated here. The cause is trauma and this man will have suffered a head injury due to his RTA. It is important in the examination to look for signs of trauma such as scalp abrasions and bruises. Surgical options include twist-drill craniotomy with drainage (a bedside procedure where a hand drill is used to gain access to the subdural space and then a catheter is placed to act as a drain). Standard craniotomy is also an option, as is the creation of a burr hole. Remember that extradural haematomas classically have a ‘lucid interval’ and occur in younger patients, usually with an associated skull fracture, and CT of the haematoma does not cross suture lines.

513
Q

A 35-year-old man was brought to A&E having vomited fresh blood ‘covering the floor’ of his hostel. His computer details demonstrated that he has cirrhosis of the liver.

A. Pancreatitis
B. Wernicke's encephalopathy
C. Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome
D. Hyperglycaemia
E. Atrial fibrillation
F. Convulsions
G. Subdural haematoma
H. Acute gastritis
I. Hypertension
J. Anxiety attack
K. Delirium tremens
L. Hypoglycaemia
M. Pulmonary fibrosis
N. Oesophageal varices
A

N. Oesophageal varices - Oesophageal varices occurs as a result of portal hypertension which is a complication of cirrhosis which this patient has. Signs of chronic liver disease may be present such as spider naevi, ascites, caput medusa (vascular collaterals in the abdominal wall), jaundice etc. Splenomegaly is also commonly found and hence patents often have thrombocytopenia and anaemia as a result. The bleeding carries a significant morbidity and mortality, and beta-blockers and/or endoscopic ligation can prevent variceal bleeding prophylactically (though beta blockers are not be used in the acute setting of a variceal bleed – do not get confused here!). Oesophageal varices are basically dilated veins and these can be seen on OGD. Worldwide, HBV and HCV are also major causes of cirrhosis, leading to varices and HIV co-infection can rapidly speed up the progression to cirrhosis in chronic liver failure. The size of the varices is the key predictor of haemorrhage. Acute bleed can be managed with resuscitation, terlipression (DDAVP)/somatostatin analogues/endoscopic ligation. Additionally, a shunt can be deployed and antibiotic prophylaxis started.

514
Q

A 22-year-old who takes the combined oral contraceptive has become very scared because she found a lump in her left breast last night. She does not think it was there last month. You find a discrete slightly irregular painless, firm one-cm diameter lump that is quite mobile. There is no lymphadenopathy.

A. Basal cell carcinoma
B. Adenoma
C. Sebaceous cyst
D. Fat necrosis
E. Carcinoma of the breast
F. Intraductal papilloma
G. Lipoma
H. Radial scar
I. Breast bud
J. Fibroadenosis
K. Phylloides tumour
L. Breast abscess
M. Fibroadenoma
A

M. Fibroadenoma - This sounds like a fibroadenoma which tends to be asymptomatic and found incidentally, typically in a patient

515
Q

Mrs Loren, 26, gave birth to a healthy boy a week ago. She is attempting to breast feed but is having some difficulty. Over the past 24 hours, she felt like she had influenza coming on. She has a 5cm, very tender mass in her right breast and there is erythematous skin overlying this.

A. Basal cell carcinoma
B. Adenoma
C. Sebaceous cyst
D. Fat necrosis
E. Carcinoma of the breast
F. Intraductal papilloma
G. Lipoma
H. Radial scar
I. Breast bud
J. Fibroadenosis
K. Phylloides tumour
L. Breast abscess
M. Fibroadenoma
A

L. Breast abscess - Breast abscess presents with mastalgia and fever. Breast infection typically affects women who are lactating and the most commonly implicated pathogen is staphylococcus aureus. The painful red mass indicates the development of an abscess. Antibiotic therapy is indicated with surgical intervention such as aspiration and drainage with possible duct excision. Prompt management of mastitis when it presents will usually lead to a good timely resolution and prevent the development of complications such as an abscess. An USS can help to identify the underlying abscess which usually forms a hypoechoic lesion. Needle aspiration can be used both therapeutically and diagnostically and can be guided by ultrasound.

516
Q

A 68-year-old woman presents with a painless, hard lump, 6cms in diameter just underneath the skin of her right breast lateral to her nipple. The overlying skin is slightly pitted and there is no lymphadenopathy.

A. Basal cell carcinoma
B. Adenoma
C. Sebaceous cyst
D. Fat necrosis
E. Carcinoma of the breast
F. Intraductal papilloma
G. Lipoma
H. Radial scar
I. Breast bud
J. Fibroadenosis
K. Phylloides tumour
L. Breast abscess
M. Fibroadenoma
A

E. Carcinoma of the breast - Patient’s wth breast cancer, on examination tend to demonstrate a firm hard lump which may be associated with axillary lymphadenopathy, skin changes such as the orange peel (peau d’orange), dimpling seen here and nipple changes/discharge. Skin changes are associated with locally advanced cancer. Many breast cancers are also diagnosed on routine mammography which can show microcalcifications, in the absence of a palpable mass. MRI is more sensitive but less specific so is recommended only in patients who are at high risk, such as BRCA1/2 mutation, history of chest radiation or certain syndromes like Cowden’s or Li-Fraumeni. FNA is also useful in rapid diagnosis, although is operator dependent when it comes to how sensitive and specific it is, and a core biopsy is preferred in most cases for diagnosis as it can differentiate pre-invasive and invasive disease. Treatment is MDT involving surgeons, oncologists, radiation oncologists etc.

517
Q

A 35-year-old woman has noticed some changes in her right breast that are worse before her periods. You find a tender, diffuse, lumpy area in the upper outer quadrant about 10cms by 5cms with no lymphadenopathy.

A. Basal cell carcinoma
B. Adenoma
C. Sebaceous cyst
D. Fat necrosis
E. Carcinoma of the breast
F. Intraductal papilloma
G. Lipoma
H. Radial scar
I. Breast bud
J. Fibroadenosis
K. Phylloides tumour
L. Breast abscess
M. Fibroadenoma
A

J. Fibroadenosis - Fibrocystic breasts are characterised by ‘lumpy’ breasts associated with pain which fluctuates with the menstrual cycle (it is worse during the luteal phase of menses). Risk factors include obesity, nulliparity, HRT and late onset menopause and first childbirth. It is a diagnosis of exclusion, and is considered to be an exaggerated physiological phenomenon rather than a disease (54% of clinically normal breasts are found on autopsy to have fibrocystic changes). Symptoms typically arise between the 3rd and 4th decases of life. There may also be a nipple discharge, which can be suspicious if bloody or profuse etc and may indicate the presence of an intraductal papilloma, cancer, or duct ectasia. Cysts can be aspirated if symptomatic (asymptomatic or small ones do not require intervention). If the aspirate is straw coloured and completely aspirated, there is no need for cytology, but if the aspirate is bloody, cytology or biopsy is needed to exclude cancer. There is improvement of mastalgia and cysts at menopause and until then it runs a chronic relapsing course.

518
Q

A 45-year-old woman who has a firm, slightly tender, 2cm diameter smooth lump just below and attached to the skin of the upper part of her right breast. It has been growing slowly over the past year and there is a punctum in the centre. She has come to see you because yesterday she noticed that when she pressed the lump, a stream of a rather smelly, jelly-like substance came out.

A. Basal cell carcinoma
B. Adenoma
C. Sebaceous cyst
D. Fat necrosis
E. Carcinoma of the breast
F. Intraductal papilloma
G. Lipoma
H. Radial scar
I. Breast bud
J. Fibroadenosis
K. Phylloides tumour
L. Breast abscess
M. Fibroadenoma
A

C. Sebaceous cyst - The central punctum makes this diagnosis. This has become inflamed in this case ad is expressing a foul-smelling keratinised discharge as it has become infected. They can be caused by blockage of sebaceous glands.

519
Q

A 62-year-old man 3 months after an acute MI, taking aspirin, atenolol and simvastatin, whose echocardiogram shows worsening left ventricular function.(Body Mass Index) 30 Obese

A. Aspirin therapy
B. Antihypertensive drugs
C. Weight reduction and metformin therapy
D. Angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitor therapy
E. Stop smoking
F. Weight reduction and increased physical activity
G. Cholesterol loweing therapy with a statin
H. Reduced alcohol intake

A

D. Angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitor therapy - This patient has worsening LV function in line with heart failure. First line treatment is with an ACE inhibitor which reduces morbidity and mortality associated with the condition. All patients with LV dysfunction should receive ACE inhibitors, whether symptomatic or not. Caution should be taken if the patient has renal impairment, cardiogenic shock or hyperkalaemia. All patients with chronic heart failure will also receive a beta blocker such as carvedilol.

520
Q

A 46-year-old woman, normal blood pressure, cholesterol and blood sugar, body mass index 32.(Body Mass Index) 30 Obese

A. Aspirin therapy
B. Antihypertensive drugs
C. Weight reduction and metformin therapy
D. Angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitor therapy
E. Stop smoking
F. Weight reduction and increased physical activity
G. Cholesterol lowering therapy with a statin
H. Reduced alcohol intake

A

F. Weight reduction and increased physical activity - This woman is obese (BMI greater than or equal to 30) and needs to lose weight. Central obesity has a greater correlation with co-morbidities than peripheral obesity so arguably waist circumference is a better indicator of risk than body mass index. The mainstay of treatment is with diet and exercise. This patient is obese and drug therapy can be considered as an adjunct. This is primarily with orlistat which inhibits fat absorption by inhibiting lipases. For weight loss, the recommended intake is 1200-1500 kcal/day for men and 1000-1200kcal/day for women, producing a 500-1000kcal/day deficit.

521
Q

A 77-year-old man, normal blood pressure, not diabetic, who has had 3 episodes of transient left sided weakness in the last month.(Body Mass Index) 30 Obese

A. Aspirin therapy
B. Antihypertensive drugs
C. Weight reduction and metformin therapy
D. Angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitor therapy
E. Stop smoking
F. Weight reduction and increased physical activity
G. Cholesterol loweing therapy with a statin
H. Reduced alcohol intake

A

A. Aspirin therapy - A TIA is colloquially called a ‘mini stroke’ with symptoms typically lasting under an hour. An antiplatelet drug such as aspirin is effective secondary prevention if the patient is not already anticoagulated. The patient will be anticoagulated if they have a likely or known cardioembolic source such as AF. Clopidogrel is an alternative in those who do not tolerate aspirin.

522
Q

A 54-year-old man, normal blood pressure, normal lipid profile, BMI 28, random blood sugar 15 mmol/l, fasting blood sugar 8.5 mmol/l.(Body Mass Index) 30 Obese

A. Aspirin therapy
B. Antihypertensive drugs
C. Weight reduction and metformin therapy
D. Angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitor therapy
E. Stop smoking
F. Weight reduction and increased physical activity
G. Cholesterol loweing therapy with a statin
H. Reduced alcohol intake

A

C. Weight reduction and metformin - This patient has DM. Symptomatic patients need a single random blood glucose of >11.1 or single fasting glucose of >7. Asymptomatic patients need two separate elevated readings for a diagnosis. Alternatively if there are borderline results, an OGTT can be conducted to see if plasma glucose is raised >11.1 two hours after an oral glucose load of 75g. A patient is said to have impaired fasting glucose if fasting glucose falls between 6.1-6.9. Impaired glucose tolerance is present if plasma glucose 2 hours after oral glucose load in OGTT falls between 7.8-11.0. First line intervention in this situation is diet and lifestyle advice and changes. Metformin will be added if there is no adequate response. In terms of this question, this option will reduce cardiovascular risk the most for this patient. Metformin is a biguanide and suppresses hepatic glucose production.

523
Q

A 56-year-old lady with a long history of asthma develops bruising.

A. Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura
B. Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome
C. Hepatic cirrhosis
D. Haemophilia
E. Skull fracture
F. Spontaneous
G. Disulfiram
H. Aplastic anaemia
I. HIV
J. Corticosteroids
K. Diuretics
L. Clopidogrel
A

J. Corticosteroids - Side effects of corticosteroids are due to exaggerated normal physiological actions. This lady with a long history of asthma is likely either taking inhaled corticosteroids or on oral therapy. An inhaled corticosteroid is used if a patient requires their reliever more than twice a week. Smoking, current or previous, reduces the effectiveness of inhaled corticosteroids so higher doses may be needed. In asthma, they reduce airway inflammation and reduce oedema and mucus secretion into the airway. Bruising is a documented side effect. Other side effects include adrenal suppression with prolonged use of inhaled therapy, LRTIs, predisposition to osteoporosis, anxiety, depression, hyperglycaemia and cataracts. Can you classifiy the wide range of side effects of steroids?

524
Q

A 48-year-old man developed bruising a week after he had a period in hospital following an episode of severe chest pain.

A. Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura
B. Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome
C. Hepatic cirrhosis
D. Haemophilia
E. Skull fracture
F. Spontaneous
G. Disulfiram
H. Aplastic anaemia
I. HIV
J. Corticosteroids
K. Diuretics
L. Clopidogrel
A

L. Clopidogrel - Clopidogrel is used to prevent atherothrombotic events in patients sensitive to aspirin. This patient has had an MI. It is an antiplatelet drug which inhibits fibrinogen binding to glycoprotein IIb/IIIa receptors. It is given orally but effects are not seen until 4 days after the first dose. Use with aspirin further increases the risk of bleeding. Clopidogrel can also rarely cause a neutropenia.

525
Q

A 48 year old male stripper presents with bruising, infections and fatigue. Lab findings indicate a pancytopenia with low reticulocyte count. Bone marrow biopsy is done on which a definitive diagnosis is made.

A. Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura
B. Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome
C. Hepatic cirrhosis
D. Haemophilia
E. Skull fracture
F. Spontaneous
G. Disulfiram
H. Aplastic anaemia
I. HIV
J. Corticosteroids
K. Diuretics
L. Clopidogrel
A

H. Aplastic anaemia - This is aplastic anaemia characterised here with the pancytopenia (which is common, but diagnosis requires 2 cytopenias out of 3) and the presentation with infections (neutropenia), fatigue (anaemia) and bruising (thrombocytopenia). Risk factors include paroxysmal noctural haemoglobinuria, hepatitis and NSAIDs. If macrocytosis is seen, this may suggest an inherited syndrome such as Fanconi’s anaemia. The reticulocyte count here rules out haemolytic anaemia, which isn’t even an option on the list. The definitive diagnosis is made on biopsy of bone marrow which shows a hypocellular marrow with no abnormal cell populations and no fibrosis. Which conditions would there be abnormal cell populations or fibrosis on bone marrow biopsy?

526
Q

A 62-year-old man with a history of alcohol abuse presents with bilateral parotid hypertrophy, gynaecomastia, testicular atrophy and easy bruising.

A. Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura
B. Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome
C. Hepatic cirrhosis
D. Haemophilia
E. Skull fracture
F. Spontaneous
G. Disulfiram
H. Aplastic anaemia
I. HIV
J. Corticosteroids
K. Diuretics
L. Clopidogrel
A

C. Hepatic cirrhosis - Cirrhosis is the end-stage of chronic liver disease, in this case due to alcoholic liver disease. Cirrhosis results in hepatic insufficiency and portal hypertension. The bruising here is due to thrombocytopenia secondary to portal hypertension with resulting hypersplenism and sequestration. Complications of chronic liver disease include ascites, variceal bleeds, jaundice, hepatic encephalopathy, hepatorenal syndrome and the development of HCC. Signs include spider naevi, palmar erythema, telangiectasia, bruising, gynaecomastia, Dupuytren’s contracture, parotid swelling and a red tongue.

527
Q

An 8 year old boy is brought into A&E after falling from a tree while trying to retrieve his cat. The boy is crying and has periorbital bruising around his right eye and a small amount of blood in the right ear canal. His GCS is 15.

A. Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura
B. Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome
C. Hepatic cirrhosis
D. Haemophilia
E. Skull fracture
F. Spontaneous
G. Disulfiram
H. Aplastic anaemia
I. HIV
J. Corticosteroids
K. Diuretics
L. Clopidogrel
A

E. Skull fracture - This is a basilar skull fracture and a CT scan (superior to MRI), in this case with 3D reconstructions, will be useful. This patient has had a fall and clearly hit his head. Basilar skyll fractures have specific clinical features. Blood pooling from these fractures can cause periorbital bruising (raccoon eyes), brusing over the mastoid area (Battle’s sign) and bloody otorrhoea. There may also be CSF leak resulting in CSF otorrhoea or rhinorrhoea. A unilateral raccoon eye has an 85% positive predictive value for this diagnosis.

528
Q

A 34-year-old woman presents with irregular periods and weight gain. She had been on anti-depressants for six months and she had been complaining of tiredness. Pulse rate is 46/minute and regular. This is confirmed on ECG, which also shows low voltage.

A. Addison’s disease
B. Cushing's syndrome
C. Pregnancy
D. Salt-wasting nephropathy
E. Heart failure
F. Metabolic syndrome
G. Comfort eating
H. Renal failure
I. Reduced activity
J. Portal hypertension
K. Polycystic ovary syndrome
L. Amyloidosis
M. Hypothyroidism
A

M. Hypothyroidism - This patient has hypothyroidism. Worldwide, the most common cause is iodine deficiency. Other causes include Hashimoto’s or secondary and tertiary hypothyroidism. It can also result from viral de Quervain’s thyroiditis or postpartum thyroiditis. Symptoms include those mentioned (depression, fatigue, weight gain, bradycardia and menstrual problems) as well as others such as slow-relaxing reflexes on examination, constipation, cold intolerance, dry skin and muscle cramps. Diagnosis is based on measurement of TSH and thyroid hormones. Treatment is by replacement of T4 with or without T3 in combination. If the patient has normal T3 and T4 but mildly elevated TSH, this is described as subclinical hypothyroidism.

529
Q

A 52-year-old woman with known ischaemic heart disease and shortness of breath on exercise. At regular clinic review, it is noted that her weight has increased by 4kg over 6 months. There is no change in dietary intake or medication. O/E, chest is clear and there is minimal ankle oedema. JVP was normal.

A. Addison’s disease
B. Cushing's syndrome
C. Pregnancy
D. Salt-wasting nephropathy
E. Heart failure
F. Metabolic syndrome
G. Comfort eating
H. Renal failure
I. Reduced activity
J. Portal hypertension
K. Polycystic ovary syndrome
L. Amyloidosis
M. Hypothyroidism
A

I. Reduced activity - The examination here is unremarkable and there is no change in diet or medication. This patient has reduced exercise capacity with SOB on exertion, which has resulting in reduced mobility, accounting for her weight gain as less energy is being expended despite consuming the same amount.

530
Q

A 22-year-old woman, on treatment for nephrotic syndrome due to minimal change glomerulonephritis. She is concerned by increasing weight gain and easy bruising. Blood tests show plasma creatinine 65 μmol/L and albumin 31 g/L.

A. Addison’s disease
B. Cushing's syndrome
C. Pregnancy
D. Salt-wasting nephropathy
E. Heart failure
F. Metabolic syndrome
G. Comfort eating
H. Renal failure
I. Reduced activity
J. Portal hypertension
K. Polycystic ovary syndrome
L. Amyloidosis
M. Hypothyroidism
A

B. Cushing’s syndrome - Corticosteroids remain the mainstay of treatment for minimal change disease and is given to all patients. Minimal change disease is the most common form of nephrotic syndrome in children and it is so named as there are minimal histological changes in renal tissue. 90% are idiopathic. Long term coricosteroid treatment here has induced iatrogenic Cushing’s syndrome with associated signs of hypercorticalism (weight gain and easy bruising). Corticosteroid-sparing therapies can be added here.

531
Q

A 29-year-old woman presents primarily concerned about her hirsuitism. She needs to wax her face three times a week and also a hairly back and abdomen. She is depressed. On further questioning, there is amenorrhoea over six months and weight gain. BP was 110/70.

A. Addison’s disease
B. Cushing's syndrome
C. Pregnancy
D. Salt-wasting nephropathy
E. Heart failure
F. Metabolic syndrome
G. Comfort eating
H. Renal failure
I. Reduced activity
J. Portal hypertension
K. Polycystic ovary syndrome
L. Amyloidosis
M. Hypothyroidism
A

K. Polycystic ovary syndrome - This patient’s presentation makes you think of PCOS. There is hirsutisim, amenorrhoea (or irregular and infrequent periods too) and weight gain, which are all features. Other features include acne, scalp hair loss and infertility. Hypertension is sometimes associated with this syndrome. On examination, sweaty/oily skin may be found and acanthosis nigricans may also be seen. An ultrasound is by no means the first test to order, as 1/4 of normal women and women with other problems like hyperprolactinaemia may also have polycystic ovaries, and they are present in 3/4 of those with PCOS. Serum androgens can be measured or the diagnosis can be made clinically.

532
Q

A 45-year-old HCV positive Egyptian journalist presents with acute renal failure. He is complaining of increasing abdominal distension, pruritis, ankle oedema and weight gain. Serum albumin is low and there is hyponatraemia and thrombocytopenia.

A. Addison’s disease
B. Cushing's syndrome
C. Pregnancy
D. Salt-wasting nephropathy
E. Heart failure
F. Metabolic syndrome
G. Comfort eating
H. Renal failure
I. Reduced activity
J. Portal hypertension
K. Polycystic ovary syndrome
L. Amyloidosis
M. Hypothyroidism
A

J. Portal hypertension - HCV in this patient is causing hepatic cirrhosis which has decompensated resulting in ascites, secondary to portal hypertension. The hypoalbuminaemia is a sign of decreased hepatic synthetic function. Hyponatraemia is a common finding associated with ascites. It arises due to reduced protein synthesis and therefore a loss of colloid osmotic pressure and increased fluid loss from the intravascular compartment, stimulating ADH secretion. There is peripheral oedema here which is due to low albumin. The pruritis is due to reduced hepatic excretion of conjugated bilirubin and there may be accompanying jaundice too. The cause of his renal failure may well be hepatorenal syndrome in the context of his severe liver disease. His prognosis is poor.

533
Q

An 85-year-old who is known to be hypertensive and has mild impaired renal function presents with signs of dehydration and undergoes a laparotomy for small bowel obstruction.Which drug should NOT be given

A. Diclofenac
B. Epidural bupivacaine and fentanyl
C. Codydramol
D. Paracetamol
E. Morphine
F. Tramadol
A

A. Diclofenac - NSAIDS may impair renal function and provoke renal failure, especially in patients with pre-existing impairment. NSAIDs should be avoided if possible in these patients or used with caution at the lowest effective dose for the shortest possible time. The mechanism of damage involves reducing creatinine clearance. NSAIDs are also contraindicated in asthmatics as it causes bronchospasm due to the accumulation of leukotrienes.

534
Q

A 60-year-old man with diabetes is transferred from another hospital for urgent femoral-distal bypass surgery and arrives with a heparin infusion in situ. His APTT is 2.4.Which drug should NOT be given

A. Diclofenac
B. Epidural bupivacaine and fentanyl
C. Codydramol
D. Paracetamol
E. Morphine
F. Tramadol
A

B. Epidural bupivavaine and fentanyl - Epidurals are relatively contraindicated in anticoagulated patients. Insertion of the epidural needle may lead traumatic bleeding into the epidural space and with clotting abnormalities, the development of a haematoma which can lead to spinal cord compression. Coagulopathy, raised ICP and infection at the injection site are absolute contraindications. Relative contraindications include anticoagulated patients and those with anatomical abnormalities of the vertebral column. NSAIDs do not increase the risk of epidural haematoma.

535
Q

A 62-year-old man who requires a knee replacement gives a history of allergy to dihydrocodeine.Which drug should NOT be given

A. Diclofenac
B. Epidural bupivacaine and fentanyl
C. Codydramol
D. Paracetamol
E. Morphine
F. Tramadol
A

C. Codydramol - Co-dydramol is a combination of dihydrocodeine and paracetamol and the patient is known to be allergic to dihydrocodeine.

536
Q

A 65-year-old man with a history of peptic ulceration requires an aortic aneurysm repair electively.Which drug should NOT be given

A. Diclofenac
B. Epidural bupivacaine and fentanyl
C. Codydramol
D. Paracetamol
E. Morphine
F. Tramadol
A

A. Dicolfenac - NSAIDs inhibit COX which has the effect of reducing PGE2 levels. PGE2 plays a role in gastric cytoprotection by downregulating HCl production and increasing mucus and the production of bicarbonate. This leads to gastric irritation and ulceration. A PPI can be prescribed alongside NSAIDs or misoprostol can be used, which is a stable PGE1 analogue which mimics local PG to maintain the gastroduodenal mucosal barrier.

537
Q

A 45-year-old woman complains of abdominal pain for several months. On examination she is jaundiced with a distended abdomen and skin telangiectasia.

A. Depression
B. Fatty liver
C. Rhabdomyolysis
D. Cirrhosis
E. Macrocytosis
F. Fibromyalgia
G. Malnutrition
H. Wernicke’s encephalopathy
I. Chronic subdural haematoma
J. Peptic ulceration
K. Acute intoxication
L. Delirium tremens
A

D. Cirrhosis - Cirrhosis is the end stage of chronic liver disease which results in hepatic insufficiency and portal hypertension, causing this patient’s jaundice, a sign a decompensation. Jaundice is also seen here reflecting reduced hepatic excretion of conjugated bilirubin and there may be associated pruritis. Telangiectasia is a sign of chronic liver disease. Risk factors for cirrhosis include alcohol, IVDU, unprotected sex and blood transfusion. This gives us an insight into the causes which include chronic viral hepatitis (C, B with or without D) and alcoholic liver disease. Other causes include conditions such as Wilson’s disease, NAFLD, haemochromatosis, Budd-Chiari syndrome and drug induced such as amiodarone and methotrexate.

538
Q

A 55-year-old motor dealer’s wife has threatened to leave him unless he stops drinking. He presents with a short history of acute anxiety and visual hallucinations.

A. Depression
B. Fatty liver
C. Rhabdomyolysis
D. Cirrhosis
E. Macrocytosis
F. Fibromyalgia
G. Malnutrition
H. Wernicke’s encephalopathy
I. Chronic subdural haematoma
J. Peptic ulceration
K. Acute intoxication
L. Delirium tremens
A

L. Delerium tremens - This patient has delirium tremens from alcohol withdrawal. Delirium is an acute fluctuating change in mental status. It is worth noting that alcohol excess can also cause delirium secondary to alcoholic ketoacidosis and can also be seen in Wernicke’s or Korsakoff’s. DT is associated with hallucinations (clasically tactile and visual of insects crawling on the person), delusions and tremor. First line treatment is with chlordiazepoxide (or lorazepam if the patient has liver failure).Vitamin supplementation will also be indicated.

539
Q

A middle-aged tramp presents in A&E intoxicated and confused. He has a half-finished bottle of vodka in his pocket. Additionally there is horizontal gaze palsy and severe ataxia with vertigo and headache.

A. Depression
B. Fatty liver
C. Rhabdomyolysis
D. Cirrhosis
E. Macrocytosis
F. Fibromyalgia
G. Malnutrition
H. Wernicke’s encephalopathy
I. Chronic subdural haematoma
J. Peptic ulceration
K. Acute intoxication
L. Delirium tremens
A

H. Wernicke’s encephalopathy - Wernicke’s is due to acute thiamine deficiency, which is a problem in alcoholics. Others at risk include those with AIDS, cancer and treatment with chemotherapy, malnutrition and GIT surgery, especially bariatric procedures. It is a clinically under-diagnosed condition. The classic EMQ triad is of mental change, ophthalmoplegia and gait dysfunction, which is actually only seen in 10% of cases. In reality, the manifestations are varied and a high index of suspicion is needed. Despite there, the manifestiations typically include altered consciousness, gait disorders and eye movement abnormalities. This is an emergency and treatment is with parenteral replacement of thiamine. This avoids permanent neurological damage including later development of Korsakoff’s psychosis, which is irreversible. Note that thiamine should be given before dextrose! Magnesium deficiency also needs to be corrected as it is a co-factor in the functioning of thiamine dependent enzymes.

540
Q

A 24-year-old man is found in the toilet of his girlfriend’s flat slumped on the floor the morning after his stag night. He is taken to A&E where he is found to have a serum creatinine level of 350 μmol/l.

A. Depression
B. Fatty liver
C. Rhabdomyolysis
D. Cirrhosis
E. Macrocytosis
F. Fibromyalgia
G. Malnutrition
H. Wernicke’s encephalopathy
I. Chronic subdural haematoma
J. Peptic ulceration
K. Acute intoxication
L. Delirium tremens
A

C. Rhabdomyolysis - Rhabdomyolysis is basically myocyte lysis. It may present obviously with a patient having been ‘crushed’ in some way, or may be insidious in onset and not very obvious. This patient has had too much alcohol, or drugs, and has been immobilised in one position for a long period of time. This makes a crush injury more likely to occur and indeed, alcohol abuse is the most common cause in itself, by being directly toxic to myocyte membranes, inhibiting calcium uptake and disrupting the sodium-potassium pump. Illicit drugs may cause a hyperdynamic muscle state. Other risk factors include diuretics, which can deplete potassium to such a degree as to cause this condition, toxins, statins and salicylates. This condition has also been documented in unconditioned athletes. Historically, it was those crushed during the WWII bombings of London who were affected by this condition and experience during the war has also changed the way it is now treated with regard to acid-base abnormalities. If you free someone who has been crushed for a very long time, there will be a sudden release of potassium which is life-threatening. You therefore need to take measures to protect against this, such as bicarbonate therapy beforehand. Muscle pain and discomfort is a common presentation, although this person does not appear to be conscious. The diagnosis here is confirmed by the elevated serum CK level which will be increased to at least 5 times normal. Levels correlate with severity. Expect to also see raised potassium, magnesium and phosphate, and low calcium, with elevated urea and creatinine. Mainstay of treatment is with fluid resuscitation.

541
Q
A 55-year-old woman has been drinking heavily for 3 months since her husband left her. Her son is concerned that she rarely goes out and often does not get dressed.
A. Depression
B. Fatty liver
C. Rhabdomyolysis
D. Cirrhosis
E. Macrocytosis
F. Fibromyalgia
G. Malnutrition
H. Wernicke’s encephalopathy
I. Chronic subdural haematoma
J. Peptic ulceration
K. Acute intoxication
L. Delirium tremens
A

A. Depression - Depression is characterised by low mood, loss of interest and reduced energy persistently over a long period of time. It is a common condition and there is an obvious recent stress here as her husband has left her. Patients tend to respond well to CBT, antidepressants or both. Suicidal ideation should be assessed for. There is a high lifetime chance of recurrence.

542
Q

A 55-year-old Asian man complaining of nocturia. Random blood glucose 10.2 mmol/L. He was overweight.

A. Oral glucose or sugar
B. Bed rest
C. Blood pressure control
D. Laser treatment
E. Intravenous dextrose
F. Oral hypoglycaemic drug
G. Dietary advice alone
H. Statin
I. Insulin
A

G. Dietary advice alone - This patient is symptomatic and has a random blood glucose of 10.2. This patient does not quite meet the diagnostic criteria for DM. Symptomatic patients need a single random blood glucose of >11.1 or single fasting glucose of >7. Asymptomatic patients need two separate elevated readings for a diagnosis. Alternatively if there are borderline results, an OGTT can be conducted to see if plasma glucose is raised >11.1 two hours after an oral glucose load of 75g. A patient is said to have impaired fasting glucose if fasting glucose falls between 6.1-6.9. Impaired glucose tolerance is present if plasma glucose 2 hours after oral glucose load in OGTT falls between 7.8-11.0. First line intervention in this situation, and in newly diagnosed DM is diet and lifestyle advice and changes.

543
Q

A 47-year-old man with diabetes for 10 years. At review, his BP was 130/80, a glycosylated haemoglobin was 8.2% (normal

A

F. Oral hypoglycaemic drug - Careful dietary intervention has failed to keep HbA1c in check so the patient will need to be started on an oral hypoglycaemic drug. First line is metformin. It is worth noting that HbA1c values, since June 2011, are no longer expressed as a percentage and are now given in mmol/mol. HbA1c is glycated Hb and provides an estimation of glycaemic control over the life span of red blood cells (around 60 days). Fructosamine is measured instead if there is a Hb disorder or RBC life span is decreased as HbA1c is only reliable if normal Hb is present with normal RBC life spans. Fructosamine is a glycated plasma protein which provides information on glucose levels over the previous 1-3 weeks.

544
Q

A 52-year-old man with diabetes for 15 years was recently found to have microalbuminuria. His glycosylated Hb was 7.2%. BP 150/85. Cholesterol was 5.2 mmol/L.

A. Oral glucose or sugar
B. Bed rest
C. Blood pressure control
D. Laser treatment
E. Intravenous dextrose
F. Oral hypoglycaemic drug
G. Dietary advice alone
H. Statin
I. Insulin
A

C. Blood pressure control - BP control with an ACE inhibitor is necessary to reduce progression of diabetic nephropathy. Microalbuminuria is the earliest detectable sign and indicates trace amounts of albumin not detectable with standard urinalysis. If untreated, microalbuminuria will progress to intermittent albuminuria and then to persistent albuminuria which is 5-10 years away from ESRF. The main contributor to the development of diabetic nephropathy is hypertension. Other contributors include poor glycaemic control and renovascular disease such as renal artery stenosis. It is important to test kidney function and urine regularly.

545
Q

A 55-year-old woman who has been waiting in diabetic clinic for two hours starts feeling sweaty and weak.

A. Oral glucose or sugar
B. Bed rest
C. Blood pressure control
D. Laser treatment
E. Intravenous dextrose
F. Oral hypoglycaemic drug
G. Dietary advice alone
H. Statin
I. Insulin
A

A. Oral glucose or sugar - This patient has symptoms of hypoglycaemia, present when glucose drops

546
Q

A 22-year-old medical student notices that he is thirsty and drinking 3-4 litres of fluid a day while studying for finals. He tests his urine and finds glucose 3+ and ketones 2+.

A. Oral glucose or sugar
B. Bed rest
C. Blood pressure control
D. Laser treatment
E. Intravenous dextrose
F. Oral hypoglycaemic drug
G. Dietary advice alone
H. Statin
I. Insulin
A

I. Insulin - This young person has presented with T1DM, a condition characterised by absolute insulin deficiency. As a result, insulin treatment is required to prevent DKA and chronic complications of hyperglycaemia. The presentation is most often with polyuria, polydipsia, weight loss and weakness. Ketonuria in the presence of hyperglycaemia suggests T1DM. Ketonuria occurs due to the fact the body has no insulin to drive glucose into the cells and hence ketone bodies are utilised by the brain (fatty acids cannot cross the BBB). Diet, exercise and insulin therapy is crucial in T1DM.

547
Q

34-year-old male with Crohn’s disease has had no bowel motions for 4 days and has been vomiting for 24 hours. Examination reveals a distended abdomen and tinkling bowel sounds.

A. Intussusception
B. Pancreatitis
C. Oesophageal cancer
D. Uraemia
E. Gastric cancer
F. Pyloric stenosis
G. Salmonella
H. Bowel obstruction
I. Appendicitis
J. Combined oral contraceptive pill
K. Viral gastroenteritis
L. Bulimia
M. Peptic ulcer disease
A

H. Bowel obstruction - Bowel obstruction has several causes such as adhesions or cancer. The lack of bowel motions, vomiting, distended abdomen and tinkling bowel signs are all indicative. The proximal segment of bowel dilates and distal bowel collapses. Completely obstructed patients generally require surgery. If, on AXR, air is seen to be seeping past the obstruction then the obstruction is partial. As a standard, all patients should be made NBM and given supplemental oxygen, IV fluids and NG decompression (to reduce flow/gastric contents/air towards the obstruction), unless they are rushed off for an emergency laparotomy because, for example, they have complete SBO and are peritonitic.

548
Q

83-year-old man with longstanding heart failure for which he takes Digoxin and diuretics. For the last 24 hours he has been vomiting and has passed very little urine. On examination he is pale and mildly dehydrated; examination of the abdomen is normal.

A. Intussusception
B. Pancreatitis
C. Oesophageal cancer
D. Uraemia
E. Gastric cancer
F. Pyloric stenosis
G. Salmonella
H. Bowel obstruction
I. Appendicitis
J. Combined oral contraceptive pill
K. Viral gastroenteritis
L. Bulimia
M. Peptic ulcer disease
A

D. Uraemia - This patient has developed acute renal failure, probably associated with the longstanding CCF. Advanced heart failure will lead to depressed renal perfusion and ARF. The decreased urine output is a symptom and the vomiting here is caused by uraemia or a general build up of waste products. An acute increase in creatinine will be seen, commonly with hyperkalaemia, hyperphosphataemia and a metabolic acidosis. There may also be respiratory compensation for this. Treatment is largely supportive, managing, in this case, the heart failure, and correcting abnormalities like volume status and the metabolic acidosis. Dialysis may be required.

549
Q

54-year-old publican has a 48 hour history of severe epigastric pain vomiting. On examination he is unwell. Pulse rate is 110/min, BP 130/90, temperature 38˚C. Upper abdomen is very tender. Amylase 1000U/L.

A. Intussusception
B. Pancreatitis
C. Oesophageal cancer
D. Uraemia
E. Gastric cancer
F. Pyloric stenosis
G. Salmonella
H. Bowel obstruction
I. Appendicitis
J. Combined oral contraceptive pill
K. Viral gastroenteritis
L. Bulimia
M. Peptic ulcer disease
A

B. Pancreatitis - This patient has acute pancreatitis. He has vomited and is describing mid-epigastric pain radiating around to the back. This patient can also have nausea and vomiting too, with agitation and confusion. A pleural effusion is seen in half of patients with acute pancreatitis. Complicated haemorrhagic pancreatitis may exhibit Cullen’s sign, Grey-Turner’s sign and Fox’s sign. Make sure you know what these are and you are familiar with the causes of acute pancreatitis (GET SMASHED). Those caused by hypocalcaemia may display Chvostek’s sign and Trousseau’s sign. Key to diagnosis is serum amylase or lipase levels which are massively elevated. Prognostic criteria are outlined in Ranson’s criteria applied on admission and after 48 hours, or the modified Glasgow score which you can find in your Oxford Handbook. An abdominal CT is however the most sensitive and specific study and findings may include enlargement of the pancreas with irregular contours, necrosis, pseudocysts and peripancreatic fat obliteration. For interest, urinary trypsinogen-2 is now considered a better screening test than amylase but is not currently clinically used.

550
Q

34-year-old man has had vomiting 2-3 times a day for 3 days. He complains of severe crampy abdominal pain and blood stained watery diarrhea. On examination temperature 37.7˚C. Abdomen soft, complains of generalised tenderness. No masses/rebound/guarding.

A. Intussusception
B. Pancreatitis
C. Oesophageal cancer
D. Uraemia
E. Gastric cancer
F. Pyloric stenosis
G. Salmonella
H. Bowel obstruction
I. Appendicitis
J. Combined oral contraceptive pill
K. Viral gastroenteritis
L. Bulimia
M. Peptic ulcer disease
A

G. Salmonella - The only option on the list which fits is Salmonella. This could obviously be E coli or Campylobacter too, for instance. This is infectious gastroenteritis and Salmonella is a common cause, pretty much able to contaminate any food. It is commonly linked to poultry, dairy items and undercooked eggs. It is self-limiting and diagnosis is on isolating the organism from a stool culture. Treatment is supportive with fluid and electrolyte replacement and antibiotics are generally used only for patients with risk factors for severe disease or those with extra-GI complications. This is not viral gastroenteritis for the reasons below:

551
Q

A 25-year-old traveling salesman is awoken in his hotel with crampy abdominal pain, feeling very ill and vomits three times over the next half an hour. He asks the receptionist to call a doctor.

A. Intussusception
B. Pancreatitis
C. Oesophageal cancer
D. Uraemia
E. Gastric cancer
F. Pyloric stenosis
G. Salmonella
H. Bowel obstruction
I. Appendicitis
J. Combined oral contraceptive pill
K. Viral gastroenteritis
L. Bulimia
M. Peptic ulcer disease
A

K. Viral gastroenteritis - Viral gastroenteritis often presents with mainly UGI symptoms like N&V more so than diarrhoea. It is on this basis that this is likely to be viral gastroenteritis caused by organisms such as rotavirus, norovirus and adenovirus. Staphylococcus aureus and Bacillus cereus also tend to cause mostly UGI symptoms and acts by preformed toxins, though these are not on the list of available options. The differentiation is made on studying the stool and identifying the organism.

552
Q

A 25-year-old man presents with a 6 month history of painless enlargement of the left hemiscrotum. The swelling is fluctuant, translucent, confined to the scrotum, and the testis cannot be felt separately.

A. Epididymal cyst
B. Testicular torsion
C. Hydrocele
D. Varicocele
E. Squamous cell carcinoma
F. Testicular malignancy
G. Epididymo-orchitis
H. Testicular TB
I. Hernia
J. Heart failure
K. Undescended testicle
A

C. Hydrocele - A hydrocele is a collection of serous fluid between the layers of the tunica vaginalis. Patients mainly present with a painless swollen scrotum (which can be on one or both sides) which feels like a water-filled balloon. Surgery is only performed if the hydrocele is problematic. As a result of the fluid, most hydroceles can be transilluminated. On examination, the hydrocele cannot be differentiated from the testicle. The mass can also increase in size with increased intra-abdominal pressure (such as coughing, crying or raising the arms) which causes peritoneal fluid to move into the scrotal sac. This causes the mass to vary in size during the day (smaller after lying down).

553
Q

A 17-year-old man presents with a 6 hour history of sudden onset of severe left scrotal pains. The scrotum is red and swollen, the testis and epididymis are very tender.

A. Epididymal cyst
B. Testicular torsion
C. Hydrocoele
D. Varicocele
E. Squamous cell carcinoma
F. Testicular malignancy
G. Epididymo-orchitis
H. Testicular TB
I. Hernia
J. Heart failure
K. Undescended testicle
A

B. Testicular torsion - This is a urological emergency caused by twisting of the testicle on the spermatic cord which if not fixed will lead to ischaemia and necrosis of testicular tissue. The main differential is epididymo-orchitis but a high index of suspicion is necessary and if there is any doubt then surgical exploration is indicated. Boys aged 12-18 are at greater risk. There is usually sudden-onset very severe scrotal pain with N&V. There may be spontaneous de-torsion hence a history of previous episodes of pain. A history of undescended testes is a major risk factor as is the bell clapper deformity. During exploration, the contralateral testis is also fixed to the posterior wall.

554
Q

A 30-year-old man presents with an intermittent swelling in the right scrotum. Examination demonstrates a soft, compressible lump in the scrotum, the upper limit of which cannot be palpated.

A. Epididymal cyst
B. Testicular torsion
C. Hydrocoele
D. Varicocele
E. Squamous cell carcinoma
F. Testicular malignancy
G. Epididymo-orchitis
H. Testicular TB
I. Hernia
J. Heart failure
K. Undescended testicle
A

I. Hernia - This is an inguinal hernia. It is where the abdominal contents along with its layers of peritoneum and fascia protrude through the inguinal canal. Remember that on examination, a direct hernia cannot be controlled by pressure at the midpoint of the inguinal ligament whereas an indirect hernia can be controlled by occlusive pressure in this manner. Remember also, your anatomy of the region. The hernial sac of a direct hernia lies medial to the inferior epigastric artery whereas the hernial sac of an indirect hernia lies lateral to the artery. The hernia itself can be either reducible or irreducible and may additionally be obstructed, strangulated or incarcerated.

555
Q

A 23 year old man has a dull ache in the left scrotum. He has noticed a firm, 2cm, non-tender lump at the front of the testicle. He has palpable supraclavicular lymph nodes.

A. Epididymal cyst
B. Testicular torsion
C. Hydrocoele
D. Varicocele
E. Squamous cell carcinoma
F. Testicular malignancy
G. Epididymo-orchitis
H. Testicular TB
I. Hernia
J. Heart failure
K. Undescended testicle
A

F. Testicular malignancy - Testicular cancer commonly presents as a hard and painless lump on one testis although the lump can be painful and 10% present with acute pain associated with haemorrhage or infection. The supraclavicular lymph nodes here are an extratesticular manifestation – others include bone pain from metastasis, swelling of the lower extremities due to venous occlusion and gynaecomastia. Key risk factors include cryptorchidism and FH. White men have the highest incidence. The principal investigation is an ultrasound of the testis and testicular examination is vital in detecting this condition early on. Beta-hCG is raised in seminomas and teratomas however only AFP is raised in teratomas. Placental ALP can be raised in advanced disease. It is diagnostic if AFP, beta hCG and LDH are elevated. Teratomas are more common in the 20-30 age group whereas seminomas are more common after 30 and this is why the better option for this question would be a seminoma. In reality, you cannot tell from the age. Radical orchidectomy and histology is the initial treatment in most cases.

556
Q

A 70-year-old man present with mild dysuria, urinary hesitancy and terminal dribbling. He also has bilateral testicular pain, swelling and tenderness of both testes and epididymis. His temperature is 37.5ºC.

A. Epididymal cyst
B. Testicular torsion
C. Hydrocoele
D. Varicocele
E. Squamous cell carcinoma
F. Testicular malignancy
G. Epididymo-orchitis
H. Testicular TB
I. Hernia
J. Heart failure
K. Undescended testicle
A

G. Epididymo-orchitis - Generally speaking, younger males are more likely to have an STI whereas older men are more likely to have an infection with enteric organisms such as ESBL. He is mildly febrile with tenderness on-top of urinary symptoms which points towards epididymo-orchitis. A urethral swab should be sent for Gram stain and culture of secretions. A urine dipstick is also necessary combined with urine MC+S. Treatment involves bed rest, scrotal elevation, analgesia and antibiotics if indicated.

557
Q

A 25-year-old single mother of three children presents in respiratory distress. There is progressively worsening SOB, wheezing and cough over the last 2 days. When you examine her, there are faint breath sounds, HR 120, RR 30. She gives a 6 month history of cough and SOB which has every now and then woken her up from sleep.

A. Pneumothorax
B. Left ventricular failure
C. COPD
D. Inhaled foreign body
E. Anaphylaxis
F. Influenza
G. Pleural effusion
H. Bronchial adenoma
I. Allergic alveolitis
J. Bronchial asthma
K. Fibrosing alveolitis
L. Cystic fibrosis
A

J. Bronchial asthma - Progressively worsening SOB and the wheeze, which may like this case wake the patient from sleep combined with the long duration of symptions suggests asthma. This patient is having an acute exacerbation and needs to be treated for this, before commencing the appropriate stepwise chronic treatment on the BTS ladder. Whether this exacerbation is mild, moderate or severe is based on the patient’s % predicted PEFR. Examination can show an expiratory wheeze and in severe exacerbations, the chest may be silent. Night symptoms occur in more severe asthma and symptoms can be exacerbated by exercise. Diagnosis is supported by PEFR variation of at least 20% over 3 days in a week over several weeks or an increase of at least 20% to treatment. Stepwise treatment is outlined below. Look up the BTS guidelines for more information. Step 1: SABA PRN, Step 2: Plus low-dose inhaled corticosteroids (ICS) , Step 3: Plus LABA, Step 4: Increase dose of ICS or add LTRA, SR theophylline or beta agonist tablet, Step 5: Daily steroid tablet and maintain ICS with specialist care.

558
Q

A 19-year-old tall (6ft 4in) man presents with sudden onset of right sided chest pain which occurred after an episode of wheezing. This pain persisted despite inhaling his bronchodilators. Examination reveals absent breath sounds with a hyperresonant percussion note over the right hemithorax.

A. Pneumothorax
B. Left ventricular failure
C. COPD
D. Inhaled foreign body
E. Anaphylaxis
F. Influenza
G. Pleural effusion
H. Bronchial adenoma
I. Allergic alveolitis
J. Bronchial asthma
K. Fibrosing alveolitis
L. Cystic fibrosis
A

A. Pneumothorax - This is a primary pneumothorax which occurs in young people without any known lung conditions. Having a tall and slender build like this patient is a recognised risk factor. Other risks include smoking, FH, Marfan’s, young age, male and conditions like CF and TB. The examination findings of absent breath sounds and hyperresonance point to this diagnosis. The main investigation is a CXR and pneumothoraces are classified by the BTS as large (>2cm visible rim between the lung margin and the chest wall) or small (

559
Q

An 80-year-old woman is admitted from a residential home with a two week history of purulent sputum and pyrexia (38ºC). Examination reveals a constant wheezing in inspiration and expiration localised over the right lung base.

A. Pneumothorax
B. Left ventricular failure
C. COPD
D. Inhaled foreign body
E. Anaphylaxis
F. Influenza
G. Pleural effusion
H. Bronchial adenoma
I. Allergic alveolitis
J. Bronchial asthma
K. Fibrosing alveolitis
L. Cystic fibrosis
A

D. Inhaled foreign body - This is aspiration pneumonia. There are symptoms of pneumoia with pyrexia and purulent sputum, along with risk factors for aspiration in this elderly person who may have difficulties swallowing or altered mental status from, for example, dementia. The location of the wheeze is also consistent with this diagnosis as the RLL is the most common site due to the anatomy of the bronchial tree. Complications include abscess and empyema. Treatment is predominantly with antibiotics and supportive care.

560
Q

A 64-year-old diabetic man presents with sudden onset of severe SOB and cough productive of frothy sputum. Examination reveals BP 70/50 mmHg; P 90/min, faint wheeze and scattered fine rales.

A. Pneumothorax
B. Left ventricular failure
C. COPD
D. Inhaled foreign body
E. Anaphylaxis
F. Influenza
G. Pleural effusion
H. Bronchial adenoma
I. Allergic alveolitis
J. Bronchial asthma
K. Fibrosing alveolitis
L. Cystic fibrosis
A

B. Left ventricular failure - DM is a cardiovascular risk factor. There are no expressed signs or symptoms of RVF here such as peripheral oedema, ascites, elevated JVP and hepatomegaly. Nocturia may be a symptom as fluid returns from the legs when the patient lies down flat. RVF leads to a backlog of blood and congestion of the systemic capillaries. LVF, on the other hand, causes congestion in the pulmonary circulation so the symptoms are respiratory. As seen in this patient, there is SOB and the classic cough productive of frothy sputum – a sign of pulmonary oedema. On respiratory examination, pulmonary oedema due to LVF may give audible fine late inspiratory crepitations at the bases. There may also be orthopnoea. This is why you can ask patients in a cardiac history how many pillows they sleep with. PND can also occur as well as ‘cardiac asthma’. Initial investigations should include ECG, CXR, TTE and bloods including BNP levels. First line treatment is with an ACE inhibitor which reduces morbidity and mortality. Salt and fluid restriction is also beneficial. All patients with chronic heart failure will also receive a beta blocker such as carvedilol. Other adjuncts include spironolactone, diuretics, hydralazine and a nitrate, and digoxin. The NYHA classification criteria can be used based on symptoms to describe functional limitations and ranges from Class I to Class IV with symptoms occuring at rest. Many patients are asymptomatic for long periods of time because mild cardiac impairment is balanced by compensation.

561
Q
A 20-year-old man has been trying for a baby for the last 4 years, but to no success. He is found to be infertile. On questioning, there is a history of cough with mucopurulent sputum since childhood. On examination, he was clubbed.
A. Pneumothorax
B. Left ventricular failure
C. COPD
D. Inhaled foreign body
E. Anaphylaxis
F. Influenza
G. Pleural effusion
H. Bronchial adenoma
I. Allergic alveolitis
J. Bronchial asthma
K. Fibrosing alveolitis
L. Cystic fibrosis
A

L. Cystic fibrosis - This man has presented with cystic fibrosis which is an autosomal recessive condition characterised by a mutation in the CFTR gene on chromosome 7 (delta-F508). CF is a genetic condition with abnormal salt and water transport due to mutations in the CFTR (an apical anion channel). Heterozygotes generally do not demonstrate disease. The age of symptom onset varies though screening newborns allows this condition to be detected early on. Serum IRT from a heel prict blood spot allows screening of newborns. This patient complains of predominantly lung disease, from a cycle of mucus retention, infection and airway inflammation. This can be treated with mucus thinners, clearance of the airway with, for instance, physiotherapy and use of antibiotics. Additionally there is infertility, which may be a presenting complaint. This is due to bilateral abscence of the vas deferens which may be obvious on examination of the patient’s scrotum. This patient is also clubbed. The most conclusive diagnostic test is the sweat test which is positive if sweat chloride is >60mmol/L. The life expectancy now is around 38 years old.

562
Q

A 30-year-old man attends for a routine pre-employment medical. On examination of the cardiovascular system, the doctor finds a soft (grade 2/6) ejection systolic murmur at the apex. He has no previous cardiac or respiratory problems and has a normal pulse and BP.

A. Atrial septal defect
B. Mixed mitral valve disease
C. Ventricular septal defect
D. Aortic regurgitation
E. Infective endocarditis
F. Aortic stenosis
G. Innocent murmur
H. Mixed aortic valve disease
I. Mitral valve prolapse 
J. Hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy
K. Mitral stenosis
L. Mitral regurgitation
M. Mixed mitral and aortic valve disease
A

G. Innocent murmur - This is a functional murmur which is not caused by a structural cardiac defect. Functional murmurs tend to be systolic, occuring in an otherwise healthy individual with no symptoms. They are also characteristically position dependent and soft in nature. Ones that occur in children tend to disappear as the child grows. Benign paediatric murmurs include Still’s murmur.

563
Q

A 60-year-old Irish woman comes to see you with a progressive one year history of shortness of breath and recent onset of PND. She has been previously well apart from Sydenham’s chorea as a child. She had 6 normal pregnancies. On examination she has plethoric cheeks, the pulse is rapid (110/min), irregular and small volume. BP 128/80 JVP normal. The apex is in the 5th intercostal space in the mid-clavicular line and tapping in nature. The 1st heart sound is loud and P2 accentuated. A low pitched mid-diastolic murmur is heard at the apex.

A. Atrial septal defect
B. Mixed mitral valve disease
C. Ventricular septal defect
D. Aortic regurgitation
E. Infective endocarditis
F. Aortic stenosis
G. Innocent murmur
H. Mixed aortic valve disease
I. Mitral valve prolapse 
J. Hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy
K. Mitral stenosis
L. Mitral regurgitation
M. Mixed mitral and aortic valve disease
A

K. Mitral stenosis - Sydenham’s chorea (St Vitus Dance) are dancelike movements seen in rheumatic fever. The major criteria for rheumatic fever can be remember by CASES: carditis, arthritis, Sydenham’s chorea, erythema marginatum and subcutaneous nodules. Practically every single case of mitral stenosis is caused by rheumatic heart disease. The process tends to also cause regurgitation. This is characteristically a grade 1-2 low pitch murmur heard in mid-diastole which has a rumbling nature and there is no radiation. There can be an associated malar flush, tapping apex beat and a diastolic thrill palpable at the apex, in the 5th intercostal space in the MCL. The first heart sound is also characteristically loud and often this is the most striking feature on ascultation. It is a difficult murmur to pick up so if you are ever asked at this stage to spot this murmur, it will most likely be based on the loud S1.

564
Q

50 yr old man attends A&E with SOB, fever and hyperdynamic regular pulse of 100. BP 160/60 mmHg. He has a murmur at the left sternal edge. On further enquiry it is found he attended for a routine dental procedure 2 months ago.

A. Atrial septal defect
B. Mixed mitral valve disease
C. Ventricular septal defect
D. Aortic regurgitation
E. Infective endocarditis
F. Aortic stenosis
G. Innocent murmur
H. Mixed aortic valve disease
I. Mitral valve prolapse 
J. Hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy
K. Mitral stenosis
L. Mitral regurgitation
M. Mixed mitral and aortic valve disease
A

E. Infective endocarditis - Any patient presenting with fever and a new murmur should always make you think of bacterial endocarditis. The classic new or worsening murmur is actually rare. As are splinter haemorrhages, which this patient has. Other uncommon signs you may find include Janeway lesions (painless macular haemorrhagic plaques on the palms and soles) and Osler nodes (painful nodules on the pads of the fingers and toes). Roth spots may also be seen on fundoscopy. Three sets of bood cultures are required and this patient will have to go for an echocardiogram.The Duke criteria is used for diagnosis.

565
Q

An 80-year-old woman presents with recent onset of effort-related chest pain. On examination of the cardiovascular system she is found to have a loud ejection systolic murmur and a low pulse pressure with a slow rising pulse.

A. Atrial septal defect
B. Mixed mitral valve disease
C. Ventricular septal defect
D. Aortic regurgitation
E. Infective endocarditis
F. Aortic stenosis
G. Innocent murmur
H. Mixed aortic valve disease
I. Mitral valve prolapse 
J. Hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy
K. Mitral stenosis
L. Mitral regurgitation
M. Mixed mitral and aortic valve disease
A

F. Aortic stenosis - Aortic stenosis can present with chest pain, dyspnoea and syncope. It is characterised by a harsh ejection systolic murmur heard loudest at the right upper sternal edge at end expiration, which radiates up towards the carotids. The pulse pressure is narrow and there may be an associated slow-rising and plateau pulse. Doppler echo is vital for diagnosis and shows a pressure gradient across the narrowed valve orifice. 20% of cases are due to a congenital bicuspid valve. The most common cause of aortic stenosis in adults is calcification of normal trileaflet valves. Clinically stable patients may be considered for surgical repair or TAVR.

566
Q

A 65-year-old man had an inferior myocardial infarct 10days ago. His initial course was uncomplicated. He suddenly deteriorates with acute left ventricular failure. On examination the pulse is regular 100/min and normal volume and character. BP 110/60. The apex beat is dynamic. There is a loud grade 3/6, apical pansystolic murmur which radiates to the axilla.

A. Atrial septal defect
B. Mixed mitral valve disease
C. Ventricular septal defect
D. Aortic regurgitation
E. Infective endocarditis
F. Aortic stenosis
G. Innocent murmur
H. Mixed aortic valve disease
I. Mitral valve prolapse 
J. Hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy
K. Mitral stenosis
L. Mitral regurgitation
M. Mixed mitral and aortic valve disease
A

L. Mitral regurgitation - MR is loudest at the apex and radiates to the axilla and tends to be around grade 4. It is associated with a systolic thrill at the apex. TTE is the investigation of choice for diagnosis. Chronic MR is associated with a laterally displaced apex beat with LV dilatation. Mitral valve prolapse is a strong risk factor for development of MR.

567
Q

A 75-year-old woman was admitted to Care of the Elderly ward having had a couple of falls at home. No other medical problems are found. She lives on her own in a ground floor flat and has home help once a week.

A. Dietician
B. Hospital doctor
C. General practitioner
D. Social worker
E. Macmillan nurse
F. Speech and language therapist
G. Ward nurse
H. Occupational therapist
I. Physiotherapist
J. District nurse
A

H. Occupational therapist - Occupational therapists will visit the patient’s home and help determine tools and facilities the patient can benefit from for their day to day life e.g. stair-lifts, bath rails

568
Q

A 78-year-old woman was admitted six weeks ago with a fractured neck of femur. She lives with her husband in a first-floor flat with no lift. The nurses are worried how she is going to manage at home because she is not mobilising in the ward.

A. Dietician
B. Hospital doctor
C. General practitioner
D. Social worker
E. Macmillan nurse
F. Speech and language therapist
G. Ward nurse
H. Occupational therapist
I. Physiotherapist
J. District nurse
A

I. Physiotherapists - Physiotherapists work with patients who have physical difficulties to identify and improve movement and function. This will involve, for example, encouraging movement and exercise using a range of techniques.

569
Q

A 65-year-old man with a long history of hypertension. He is admitted with sudden loss of speech. He is found to be aphasic and has minimal right-sided weakness. He is keen to go home.

A. Dietician
B. Hospital doctor
C. General practitioner
D. Social worker
E. Macmillan nurse
F. Speech and language therapist
G. Ward nurse
H. Occupational therapist
I. Physiotherapist
J. District nurse
A

F. Speech and language therapist - Would you discharge this patient in their present state? This patient needs a swallowing assessment and speech therapy from a SALT. SALTs deal with disorders of speech, communication, language and swallowing. They are particularly useful after neurological impairments and conditions including stroke, head injury, Parkinson’s and dementia. In the film ‘The King’s Speech’ starring acclaimed actor and heartthrob Colin Firth, George VI gets help with his stammer from Logue who is a speech and language therapist.

570
Q

A 56-year-old man is admitted with chest pain. Exercise ECG is normal but his random blood sugar on admission was 23 mmol/l. He is overweight and being referred to the diabetic clinic as an outpatient.

A. Dietician
B. Hospital doctor
C. General practitioner
D. Social worker
E. Macmillan nurse
F. Speech and language therapist
G. Ward nurse
H. Occupational therapist
I. Physiotherapist
J. District nurse
A

A. Dietician - This patient has possible DM (needs a second test result to be diagnostic or needs to be symptomatic). The first line intervention is dietary and lifestyle changes. The most useful person this patient will benefit from is a dietician who will be able to give him advice on his eating habits – a diet high in fibre and low in fat is recommended and to also cut, to a degree, carbohydrate intake or at least resort to carbohydrates with a high glycaemic index such as lentils and sweet potato. The GI measures the effect carbohydrates have on blood sugar levels – a lower GI has more of an impact on blood sugar levels in a shorter amount of time. Advice will also be given on how to deal with hypoglycaemic episodes if the patient is being treated with medication which predisposes to this risk, such as insulin.

571
Q

A 68-year-old diabetic woman with venous ulcers was admitted with cellulites. The acute infection has now cleared but she needs regular compression dressings to help the ulcers heal.

A. Dietician
B. Hospital doctor
C. General practitioner
D. Social worker
E. Macmillan nurse
F. Speech and language therapist
G. Ward nurse
H. Occupational therapist
I. Physiotherapist
J. District nurse
A

J. District nurse - District nurses visit people in their homes or in care homes and provide care in that context. They also provide teaching in the community.Always remember that an MDT ethos is needed for most cases. This is especially true for stroke patients.

572
Q

A 35-year-old woman has a 10-year history of low retrosternal dysphagia and painless regurgitation of food in the mouth.

A. Cerebrovascular accident
B. Pharyngeal pouch
C. Hiatus hernia
D. Pneumonia
E. Myasthenia gravis
F. Carcinoma of oesophagus
G. Achalasia
H. Carcinoma of bronchus
I. Plummer-Vinson syndrome
J. Gastric volvulus
K. Thyroid goitre
A

C. Hiatus hernia - A hiatus hernia is where intraabdominal contents protrude through the oesophageal hiatus of the diaphragm. Risk factors inclyde obesity and high intra-abdominal pressure. The condition may be asymptomatic, or it may present with symptoms (which are non-specific) such as heartburn, dysphagia, pain on swallowing, wheezing, hoarseness and chest pain. A CXR is the first test done and may show an air bubble in the wrong place but barium studies are diagnostic and treatment depends on the symptoms and anatomy of the hernia. Hernias can be sliding or rolling (or mixed, or giant), uncomplicated or complicated by, for instance, obstruction and bleeding. Do you know the difference between a sliding and a rolling hiatal hernia?

573
Q

A 65-year-old woman has progressive, low retrosternal dysphagia, initially to solids, but now also to liquids. It has come on over the last four months. There has also been loss of appetite and 3kg weight loss.

A. Cerebrovascular accident
B. Pharyngeal pouch
C. Hiatus hernia
D. Pneumonia
E. Myasthenia gravis
F. Carcinoma of oesophagus
G. Achalasia
H. Carcinoma of bronchus
I. Plummer-Vinson syndrome
J. Gastric volvulus
K. Thyroid goitre
A

F. Carcinoma of oesophagus - Dysphagia (in this progressive pattern) coupled with weight loss points to malignancy. Dysphagia occurs when there is obstruction of more than 2/3 of the lumen and presence indicates locally advanced disease. There may additionally be odynophagia. Men are twice as likely to develop oesophageal cancer. GORD, Barrett’s oesophagus, FH, tobacco and alcohol are all risk factors. The two main types are squamous cell carcinoma and adenocarcinoma. Tumours in the upper 2/3 of the oesophagus are SCC whereas those that lie in the lower 1/3 are adenocarcinomas. The main test to order is an OGD with biopsy. Treatment is either surgical resection or with chemo or radiotherapy alongside endoscopic ablation with or without stenting and brachytherapy.

574
Q

A 45-year-old lady presents with retrosternal dysphagia. She has spoon-shaped nails and is noted to be pale.

A. Cerebrovascular accident
B. Pharyngeal pouch
C. Hiatus hernia
D. Pneumonia
E. Myasthenia gravis
F. Carcinoma of oesophagus
G. Achalasia
H. Carcinoma of bronchus
I. Plummer-Vinson syndrome
J. Gastric volvulus
K. Thyroid goitre
A

I. Plummer-Vinson syndrome - Plummer-Vinson syndrome is the association of chronic IDA (shown here by the koilonychia and paleness on examination) with dysphagia due to a post cricoid web. Roughly 7% of those with IDA may complain of gradual onset dysphagia with the discomfort found in the area of the cricoid cartilage. Invasive procedures may be needed for management such as endoscopic dilation of the web but treatment is largely aimed at correcting the IDA.

575
Q

A 40-year-old man presents with dysphagia that worsens as he eats. He has droopy eyelids and sometimes has difficulty speaking.

A. Cerebrovascular accident
B. Pharyngeal pouch
C. Hiatus hernia
D. Pneumonia
E. Myasthenia gravis
F. Carcinoma of oesophagus
G. Achalasia
H. Carcinoma of bronchus
I. Plummer-Vinson syndrome
J. Gastric volvulus
K. Thyroid goitre
A

E. Myasthenia gravis - Myasthenia gravis is an autoimmune condition with antibodies affecting the NMJ, mostly the nAChR at the post-synaptic muscle membrane. Although some have antibodies against MuSK, and there are other proteins involved. MG is characterised by muscle weakness which increases with exercise (fatigue, demonstrated here as the dysphagia gets worse as he eats, unlike Lambert-Eaton myasthenic syndrome). Commonly, presentations include diplopia and drooping eyelids like this patient, and there may also be SOB, proximal limb weakness, facial paresis and oropharyngeal weakness. MG is associated with thymic hyperplasia in 70% or thymoma in 10%, and these associations can also crop up in EMQs. There will be elevated serum AChR receptor antibody titres or MuSK antibodies. Electrophysiology will demonstrate a decremental response on repetitive nerve stimulation. Treatment includes anticholinesterases (pyridostigmine, and immunotherapy. Patients may also require a thymectomy. Some 15-20% may experience a myasthenic crisis (which needs mechanical ventilation). Do you know what the Tensilon test is and why edrophonium is given in this test?

576
Q

A 50 year old describes a 5 month history of heartburn and cramp-like chest pain relived by drinking cold water, both unrelated to food. There has also been intermittent dysphagia to both liquids and solids, regurgitation and weight loss of 2kg.

A. Cerebrovascular accident
B. Pharyngeal pouch
C. Hiatus hernia
D. Pneumonia
E. Myasthenia gravis
F. Carcinoma of oesophagus
G. Achalasia
H. Carcinoma of bronchus
I. Plummer-Vinson syndrome
J. Gastric volvulus
K. Thyroid goitre
A

G. Achalasia - This is achalasia which is a motility disorder with loss of peristalsis in the distal oesophagus and failure of the LOS to relax in response to swallowing. This presents commonly with dysphagia to both liquids and solids, regurgitation and retrosternal chest pain, which can be slowly progressive over time. In structural obstruction such as cancer, dysphagia to liquids is uncommon unless the disease is very advanced. Retrosternal pressure experienced can be precipitated by drinking liquids but is eased by continuing to drink, and the pain may be relieved by cold water. This may wake the individual from sleep. A UGI endoscopy is needed to exclude malignancy as a cause of dysphagia. The diagnosis is established on manometry or barium studies. Treatment is symptomatic.

577
Q
A 40-year-old man returned from India 4 days ago and came down with fever. He went to his GP and got some paracetamol. His fever persisted, and he had a few bouts of diarrhoea and cough. He started getting drowsy and was admitted from casualty where his blood culture was taken. The next day the lab reported Gram negative bacilli seen on blood culture.
A. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
B. Neisseria meningitidis type B
C. Entamoeba histolytica
D. Lassa fever
E. Dengue virus
F. Salmonella typhi
G. Falciparum malaria
H. Legionella pneumophila
I. Influenza
J. Streptococcus pneumoniae
A

F. Salmonella typhi - Typhoid (or enteric fever) is a faecal-oral illness caused by Salmonella enterica, serotype S typhi, Salmonella enterica and S paratyphi. There are over 2500 serovars for S enterica. In this country, it is mainly from people who have returned from a country where it is endemic – India, for example, which has the highest incidence of this disease. Mexico should also ring alarm bells. The water supplies are not treated and sanitary conditions are dire which prompts transmission of this infection. Humans are the only known reservoir. The vaccine only offers moderate protection and does not protect against paratyphoid infection. This person has a high fever which is a hallmark of infection (sometimes in a step-wise manner) which is not responding to paracetamol (it persists) and blood culture (you need a big sample of blood for testing as count is usually low) shows a gram negative bacilli, and he has returned from an endemic region. The fever of typhoid classically increases incrementally until a persistent fever with temperature 39-41 is established. There are also typically flu like symptoms after onset of fever and cough. Remember that characteristic findings such as bradycardia and rose spots may not be present and indeed rose spots may not be easy to spot in those with dark skin. Rose spots are blanching red lesions reported in 5-30% of cases usually occuring on the chest or abdomen. This patient needs antibiotics though the temperature will fall over about week. A third generation cephalosporin is indicated due to resistance to fluoroquinolones in the Indian sub-continent. If the sensitivity panel returns and shows that this organism is sensitive to all antibiotics then ciprofloxacin should be given.

578
Q

A 50-year-old man went for Hajj. He was vaccinated against hepatitis and Group C meningococci. He came back with a high fever and was admitted with neck stiffness and drowsiness. He had a lumbar puncture and blood cultures. Gram stain of cerebrospinal fluid showed Gram negative diplococci.

A. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
B. Neisseria meningitidis type B
C. Entamoeba histolytica
D. Lassa fever
E. Dengue virus
F. Salmonella typhi
G. Falciparum malaria
H. Legionella pneumophila
I. Influenza
J. Streptococcus pneumoniae
A

B. Neisseria meningitidis type B - This patient has meningitis. A big risk factor is crowding which occurs during Hajj. Commonly there will be a headache, fever and nuchal rigidity. There may also be an altered mental status, confusion, photophobia and vomiting. Kernig’s sign is uncommon but is positive when attempts to extend the leg are met with resistance when the patient is supine with the thigh flexed to 90 degrees. Another uncommon sign is Brudzinski’s sign and a petechial/purpuric rash, typically associated with meningococcal meningitis. CT head should be considered before LP if there is any evidence of raised ICP. A LP will confirm the diagnosis with bacterial meningitis showing a low CSF glucose, elevated CSF protein and positive CSF culture/gram stain or meningococcal antigen. The CSF gram stain showing a gram negative diplococci here gives the organism away. If you know your gram stains etc you can get this one from just reading the last line.

579
Q

A 40-year-old social worker lived in India and the Far East for the last 2 years. He came back with an intermittent fever of 2 months duration. On examination, the GP noted tenderness and swelling of the right hypochondrium. He was sent to the hospital where on ultrasound a liver abscess was found.

A. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
B. Neisseria meningitidis type B
C. Entamoeba histolytica
D. Lassa fever
E. Dengue virus
F. Salmonella typhi
G. Falciparum malaria
H. Legionella pneumophila
I. Influenza
J. Streptococcus pneumoniae
A

C. Entamoeba histolytica - This is amoebiasis caused by E. histolytica. Again, there is history of travel to an endemic area. Additional risk factors include being male and male-male sex, both oral and anal. Diagnosis would be confirmed by the detection of antigen in stool samples, serology or PCR. As neither of these methods are 100% sensitive, it is normally good to use more than 1 test in diagnosis. The presentation is normally with diarrhoea, without blood or mucus, present for several days or longer, indicating intestinal infection. Half also report weight loss. This patient, has however got the fever more associated with hepatic infection. There may also be jaundice here and hepatomegaly on examination. The RUQ tenderness found here is indicative of hepatic infection and the mass here is likely a hepatic abscess, which itself may extend into the pleural or pericardial cavities in rare cases, causing effusions. Splenic abscesses and even brain abscesses with neurological abnormalities can also rarely occur. Treatment is with nitroimidazoles followed by agents like paromomycin.

580
Q

A 30-year-old stone mason came from India to work on a temple being constructed. He presented to the GP with a history of fever, night sweats and cough of 3 months duration. Chest x-ray showed a cavitating shadow.

A. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
B. Neisseria meningitidis type B
C. Entamoeba histolytica
D. Lassa fever
E. Dengue virus
F. Salmonella typhi
G. Falciparum malaria
H. Legionella pneumophila
I. Influenza
J. Streptococcus pneumoniae
A

A. Mycobacterium tuberculosis - It is important to have a high level of suspicion when evaluating patients with risk factors who present with suggestive symptoms. Night sweats, fever, malaise, cough, haemoptysis and erythema nodosum are all suggestive. In the first half of the 20th century, tuberculosis accounted for over 90% of cases of erythema nodosum. Other key risk factors for pulmonary TB include exposure to infection and returning from or being born in a high-risk region such as Asia, Africa and Latin America. If TB is suspected, the patient should be placed in isolation and a CXR obtained with 3 sputum samples cultured for AFB being the gold standard of diagnosis. Cavitating lesions like the one this patient has can be seen on CXR but is non-specific for TB. Culture takes several weeks so sputum smears will be done before culture results are known. Interferon-gamma release assays (IGRAs) are now used by some hospitals to rapidly determine a patient’s TB status. All patients who have TB should be tested for HIV within 2 months of diagnosis.

581
Q

A 22-year-old student went to Thailand on holiday. A week following his return, he presented to his GP with a flu like illness and high fever. His GP presumed it was flu and told him to go home. Two days later, he re-presented to A&E, this time vomiting.

A. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
B. Neisseria meningitidis type B
C. Entamoeba histolytica
D. Lassa fever
E. Dengue virus
F. Salmonella typhi
G. Falciparum malaria
H. Legionella pneumophila
I. Influenza
J. Streptococcus pneumoniae
A

G. Falciparum malaria - In the Western world, almost all cases of malaria occurs in travellers so an adequate travel history is crucial or the diagnosis may be missed. Patients typically present with non-specific symptoms such as a fever, sweats, chills and myalgia. This student has just returned from an endemic area. Sometimes EMQs will describe patterns of fevers occuring at regular intervals of 48-72 hours associated with P. vivax, P. ovale and P. malariae infections but in most patients there is no specific pattern. Hepatosplenomegaly is a common presenting sign although not common at presentation in a first world setting. Thrombocytopenia is common with falciparum infection and a mild degree of anaemia are commonly seen. WCC can be high, low or normal. Pregnant women affected by P. falciparum are susceptible to the complications of pregnancy due to placental parasite sequestration. Treatment of malaria in pregnancy must be managed with an ID specialist and should be treated with IV antimalarial therapy. The test of choice is Giesma-stained thick and thin blood smears. Thick films sensitively detect parasites whereas thin films allow species identification and calculation of parasitaemia to guide treatment. Studies have shown that for P falciparum, the most effective treatment is artesunate which is more effective than quinine without the risk of cinchonism. Numerous studies such as the AQUAMAT study in The Lancet showing that quinine should no longer be the established treatment of choice. Dengue presents abruptly with typically headache and retrobulbar pain worsening with eye movement. There may also be a rash and leukopenia and thrombocytopenia are common.

582
Q

A 80-year-old woman is admitted with vomiting. Her blood pressure is 120/80 mmHg, pulse rate 90/min, with warm peripheries. Plasma urea is 25 mmol/l, and creatinine 120 μmol/l.

A. IV saline
B. Administer diuretics
C. Colloid
D. Blood transfusions
E. IV dextrose
F. IV dextrose/saline
G. IV sodium bicarbonate
H. Measure urea and electrolytes
I. IV plasma
J. Measure blood gases
A

Fluid replacement therapy aims to maintain physiological parameters. Systolic BP >90 is required for adequate organ perfusion. IV 0.9% saline is the first line treatment for volume depletion in almost all situations. It is worth noting that normal saline in large amounts carries a risk of inducing a metabolic acidosis due to the high chloride content. 5% dextrose is equivalent to water when given, and is not approriate for volume resuscitation since it will distribute throughout the total body water. Only 1/12 will remain in the intravascular space. 5% dextrose may be used, however, in resuscitation or replacement in diabetics on an insulin drip to prevent hypoglycaemia. The insulin and dextrose infusion should go in the same cannula so there is no risk of giving unopposed insulin. For example, if the arm you are giving the dextrose infusion were to clog up, or more likely, if the patient bends their arm if the cannula is sited in the antecubital fossa. Sodium bicarbonate solution can be used acutely to treat severe metabolic acidosis. Lactated Ringer’s solution may also be helpful, but may contribute to hyperkalaemia in the setting of renal failure. IV colloids are less preferred. These include albumin, starches, dextrans and gelatins. Colloids are used when there is a risk of tissue oedema as there is a reduced proportion of administered fluid lost into the interstitial space. However, they are expensive and have not shown to benefit mortality in many studies, and indeed a systematic review in the BMJ of 37 RCTs has shown a 4% increase in absolute mortality. Crystalloids remain first choice for fluid resuscitation in the first instance. Blood is the best intravascular volume expander (replacing like for like), especially if the patient is anaemic or is actively bleeding. It is usually given as packed red cells with saline. Mild volume depletion can be managed by ORT. Glucose is typically added to promote the sodium/glucose co-transporter. Depending on the site of loss, antiemetics and antidiarrhoeals (in non-infectious diarrhoea) may be indicated. Vasopressors are often needed in sepsis. So, having said all of this… A. IV saline - This patient is very dehydrated

583
Q
A 70-year-old man after a laparotomy has been given 4L of dextrose/saline IV in 24hrs.  He is tachypnoeic, with BP 130/90, pulse 120/min and has bilateral basal crepitations.
A. IV saline
B. Administer diuretics
C. Colloid
D. Blood transfusions
E. IV dextrose
F. IV dextrose/saline
G. IV sodium bicarbonate
H. Measure urea and electrolytes
I. IV plasma
J. Measure blood gases
A

Fluid replacement therapy aims to maintain physiological parameters. Systolic BP >90 is required for adequate organ perfusion. IV 0.9% saline is the first line treatment for volume depletion in almost all situations. It is worth noting that normal saline in large amounts carries a risk of inducing a metabolic acidosis due to the high chloride content. 5% dextrose is equivalent to water when given, and is not approriate for volume resuscitation since it will distribute throughout the total body water. Only 1/12 will remain in the intravascular space. 5% dextrose may be used, however, in resuscitation or replacement in diabetics on an insulin drip to prevent hypoglycaemia. The insulin and dextrose infusion should go in the same cannula so there is no risk of giving unopposed insulin. For example, if the arm you are giving the dextrose infusion were to clog up, or more likely, if the patient bends their arm if the cannula is sited in the antecubital fossa. Sodium bicarbonate solution can be used acutely to treat severe metabolic acidosis. Lactated Ringer’s solution may also be helpful, but may contribute to hyperkalaemia in the setting of renal failure. IV colloids are less preferred. These include albumin, starches, dextrans and gelatins. Colloids are used when there is a risk of tissue oedema as there is a reduced proportion of administered fluid lost into the interstitial space. However, they are expensive and have not shown to benefit mortality in many studies, and indeed a systematic review in the BMJ of 37 RCTs has shown a 4% increase in absolute mortality. Crystalloids remain first choice for fluid resuscitation in the first instance. Blood is the best intravascular volume expander (replacing like for like), especially if the patient is anaemic or is actively bleeding. It is usually given as packed red cells with saline. Mild volume depletion can be managed by ORT. Glucose is typically added to promote the sodium/glucose co-transporter. Depending on the site of loss, antiemetics and antidiarrhoeals (in non-infectious diarrhoea) may be indicated. Vasopressors are often needed in sepsis. So, having said all of this…

B. Administer diuretics - This patient has developed pulmonary oedema. This patient should be positioned upright and given diuretics (frusemide).

584
Q

A 20-year-old man has been involved in a road traffic accident and the ambulance has just arrived. He has severe left upper abdominal tenderness, blood pressure 80/60 and pulse 140/min.

A. IV saline
B. Administer diuretics
C. Colloid
D. Blood transfusions
E. IV dextrose
F. IV dextrose/saline
G. IV sodium bicarbonate
H. Measure urea and electrolytes
I. IV plasma
J. Measure blood gases
A

Fluid replacement therapy aims to maintain physiological parameters. Systolic BP >90 is required for adequate organ perfusion. IV 0.9% saline is the first line treatment for volume depletion in almost all situations. It is worth noting that normal saline in large amounts carries a risk of inducing a metabolic acidosis due to the high chloride content. 5% dextrose is equivalent to water when given, and is not approriate for volume resuscitation since it will distribute throughout the total body water. Only 1/12 will remain in the intravascular space. 5% dextrose may be used, however, in resuscitation or replacement in diabetics on an insulin drip to prevent hypoglycaemia. The insulin and dextrose infusion should go in the same cannula so there is no risk of giving unopposed insulin. For example, if the arm you are giving the dextrose infusion were to clog up, or more likely, if the patient bends their arm if the cannula is sited in the antecubital fossa. Sodium bicarbonate solution can be used acutely to treat severe metabolic acidosis. Lactated Ringer’s solution may also be helpful, but may contribute to hyperkalaemia in the setting of renal failure. IV colloids are less preferred. These include albumin, starches, dextrans and gelatins. Colloids are used when there is a risk of tissue oedema as there is a reduced proportion of administered fluid lost into the interstitial space. However, they are expensive and have not shown to benefit mortality in many studies, and indeed a systematic review in the BMJ of 37 RCTs has shown a 4% increase in absolute mortality. Crystalloids remain first choice for fluid resuscitation in the first instance. Blood is the best intravascular volume expander (replacing like for like), especially if the patient is anaemic or is actively bleeding. It is usually given as packed red cells with saline. Mild volume depletion can be managed by ORT. Glucose is typically added to promote the sodium/glucose co-transporter. Depending on the site of loss, antiemetics and antidiarrhoeals (in non-infectious diarrhoea) may be indicated. Vasopressors are often needed in sepsis. So, having said all of this…

C. Colloid - As mentioned, first line fluid resuscitation is with 0.9% saline.

585
Q

A 25-year-old woman is admitted semi-comatose. She has been complaining of increasing thirst and lethargy over the previous few weeks. BM stick result is 36 mmol/l. Blood pH is 7.10 with a HCO3- of 15 mmol/l.

A. IV saline
B. Administer diuretics
C. Colloid
D. Blood transfusions
E. IV dextrose
F. IV dextrose/saline
G. IV sodium bicarbonate
H. Measure urea and electrolytes
I. IV plasma
J. Measure blood gases
A

A. IV saline - Initial treatment of DKA aims at correcting severe volume depletion (the main problem), again with IV saline infusion at a rate of 1-1.5L for the first hour. When glucose reaches 11.1mmol, fluid should be changed to 5% dextrose to prevent hypoglycaemia.

586
Q

A 75-year-old man underwent an anterior resection for rectal cancer 48 hours ago. He now has a urine output of 25mls/hr, BP 110/80, pulse 90/min. His Hb is 7.9g/dl.

A. IV saline
B. Administer diuretics
C. Colloid
D. Blood transfusions
E. IV dextrose
F. IV dextrose/saline
G. IV sodium bicarbonate
H. Measure urea and electrolytes
I. IV plasma
J. Measure blood gases
A

D. Blood transfusion - This patient has been given IV saline already as the initial choice for volume expansion. His anaemia and clinical state warrants a blood transfusion. 1 unit of blood raises the Hb concentration by 1g/dL. Commonly, transfusion begins with 2 units of packed RBCs and the patient reponse is monitored.

587
Q

A 50-year-old man is assaulted by being hit in the face and around the head with a club. He now has bilateral bruising around the eyes and over the mastoid process.

A. Subdural haematoma
B. Concussion
C. Extradural haematoma 
D. Base of skull fracture
E. Diffuse axonal injury
F. Cerebral contusion
G. Depressed skull fracture
H. Cerebral haematoma
A

D. Base of skull fracture - This is a basilar skull fracture and a CT scan (superior to MRI), in this case with 3D reconstructions, will be useful. These patients have hit their head head. Basilar skull fractures have specific clinical features. Blood pooling from these fractures can cause periorbital bruising (raccoon eyes), brusing over the mastoid area (Battle’s sign) and bloody otorrhoea. There may also be CSF leak resulting in CSF otorrhoea or rhinorrhoea. A unilateral raccoon eye has an 85% positive predictive value for this diagnosis. Base of skull fractures can also affect cranial nerves leading to hearing impairment (due either to SN as a result of VII injury or conductive due to haemotympanum) and facial numbness or paralysis. These patients also need to have their GCS calculated. Treatment is primarily conservative although surgical intervention may be needed if there is associated CSF leak, intracranial pathology or CN deficit. RTAs are the second most common cause of skull fractures, the first being a fall from a height. There may also, like the first case, be a history of assault resulting in head trauma or even a gunshot to the head.

588
Q

A 69-year-old alcoholic man collapsed after an alcoholic binge and struck his head on the pavement. He now has a deteriorating Glasgow Coma Scale.

A. Subdural haematoma
B. Concussion
C. Extradural haematoma 
D. Base of skull fracture
E. Diffuse axonal injury
F. Cerebral contusion
G. Depressed skull fracture
H. Cerebral haematoma
A

A. Subdural haematoma - Blood collects between the dura and arachnoid mater in a subdural haematoma. This condition can run a variable disease course. This man is at risk because he is an alcoholic and this question tells you he has fallen over and hit his head on the pavement. It is important in the examination to look for signs of trauma such as scalp abrasions and bruises. It is also important in the work up to calculate this patient’s admission GCS, which is deteriorating, possibly as a result of raised intracranial pressure from the SOL. A CT scan will also be indicated. A surgical opinion is indicated. Treatment includes twist-drill craniotomy with drainage (a bedside procedure where a hand drill is used to gain access to the subdural space and then a catheter is placed to act as a drain). Standard craniotomy is also an option, as is the creation of a burr hole. Unlike an extradural there is no ‘lucid interval’. Also extradurals tend to occur in younger patients, usually with an associated skull fracture, and CT of the haematoma does not cross suture lines. In diffuse axonal injury, there will be a history of trauma involving shear or acceleration/deceleration force.

589
Q

A 20-year-old woman is assaulted in a nightclub. She suffered a short episode of loss of consciousness, double vision and has vomited once. She now has a headache.

A. Subdural haematoma
B. Concussion
C. Extradural haematoma 
D. Base of skull fracture
E. Diffuse axonal injury
F. Cerebral contusion
G. Depressed skull fracture
H. Cerebral haematoma
A

B. Concussion - Concussion is a closed head injury due a blow to the head. This woman has been assaulted, which is a common cause. Typical symptoms include headache (which tends to be cause the most problems in management), mental slowness, memory difficulties, N&V and LOC, though LOC is not necessary for the diagnosis. Symptoms typically go after a week to a month but can fluctuate. CT and MRI are typically normal. For uncomplicated cases, resting is sufficient and no intervention is needed.

590
Q

A 35-year-old man is struck around the head, lost consciousness transiently and then recovered. He now is unconscious again with a Glasgow Coma Scale of 4.

A. Subdural haematoma
B. Concussion
C. Extradural haematoma 
D. Base of skull fracture
E. Diffuse axonal injury
F. Cerebral contusion
G. Depressed skull fracture
H. Cerebral haematoma
A

C. Extradural haematoma - Here we have the ‘lucid interval’ classically associated with an extradural haematoma. There is blood buildup this time between the dura mater and the skull. Compressive signs may also be present such as the down and out pupil due to CN III compression. The bleed here is usually from arteries, under high pressure, causing raised intracranial pressure. In this case, there is a chance the brain stem has been compressed causing his LOC and GCS

591
Q

A 21-year-old man who has been involved in a road traffic accident develops a continuous blood-stained discharge from the nose and describes an altered sensation of smell.

A. Subdural haematoma
B. Concussion
C. Extradural haematoma 
D. Base of skull fracture
E. Diffuse axonal injury
F. Cerebral contusion
G. Depressed skull fracture
H. Cerebral haematoma
A

D. Base of skull fracture - This is a basilar skull fracture and a CT scan (superior to MRI), in this case with 3D reconstructions, will be useful. These patients have hit their head head. Basilar skull fractures have specific clinical features. Blood pooling from these fractures can cause periorbital bruising (raccoon eyes), brusing over the mastoid area (Battle’s sign) and bloody otorrhoea. There may also be CSF leak resulting in CSF otorrhoea or rhinorrhoea. A unilateral raccoon eye has an 85% positive predictive value for this diagnosis. Base of skull fractures can also affect cranial nerves leading to hearing impairment (due either to SN as a result of VII injury or conductive due to haemotympanum) and facial numbness or paralysis. These patients also need to have their GCS calculated. Treatment is primarily conservative although surgical intervention may be needed if there is associated CSF leak, intracranial pathology or CN deficit. RTAs are the second most common cause of skull fractures, the first being a fall from a height. There may also, like the first case, be a history of assault resulting in head trauma or even a gunshot to the head.

592
Q

The immediate management of an acute deep vein thrombosis in someone who is at a high risk of bleeding.

A. Aspirin
B. Unfractionated heparin
C. Warfarin
D. Vitamin K
E. Fresh frozen plasma
F. Low molecular weight heparin
G. Protein S concentrate
H. Platelet concentrates
I. Thrombin infusion
J. Fibrinogen
K. Platelet concentrates plus fresh frozen plasma
L. Fondaparinux (FXa inhibitor)
M. Vitamin E
A

B. Unfractionated heparin - The mainstay of treatment for acute DVT is anticoagulation. This can be either unfractionated heparin, a LMWH or a factor Xa inhitor like fondaparinux. Fondaparinux has a higher half life than LMWH and there is no effective way of reversing it. LMWH have a shorter half life and some of it can be removed with protamine. Heparin though can be reversed quickly with protamine. Hence, if the patient is at a high risk of bleeding, they should be treated with unfractionated heparin and you should avoid fondaparinux. If they start bleeding you can just chuck them protamine. This however requires monitoring of APTT and platelet counts. If the patient has heparin-induced thrombocytopenia, you can try using fondaparinux. LMWH is recommended in those with active cancer and preferred in pragnancy, and consideration needs to be given in those with renal impairment.

593
Q

Recurrent transient ischaemic attacks.

A. Aspirin
B. Unfractionated heparin
C. Warfarin
D. Vitamin K
E. Fresh frozen plasma
F. Low molecular weight heparin
G. Protein S concentrate
H. Platelet concentrates
I. Thrombin infusion
J. Fibrinogen
K. Platelet concentrates plus fresh frozen plasma
L. Fondaparinux (FXa inhibitor)
M. Vitamin E
A

A. Aspirin - The only antiplatelet drug here is aspirin. In those sensitive to aspirin, clopidogrel can be used instead. Aspirin irreversibly inhibits COX1 by acetylating the active site and inhibits platelet TXA2. This reduces the risk of future embolic events. A TIA is colloquially called a ‘mini stroke’ with symptoms typically lasting under an hour. An antiplatelet drug such as aspirin is effective secondary prevention if the patient is not already anticoagulated. The patient will be anticoagulated if they have a likely or known cardioembolic source such as AF.

594
Q

INR of 10.2 in a warfarinised patient who is not at present bleeding.

A. Aspirin
B. Unfractionated heparin
C. Warfarin
D. Vitamin K
E. Fresh frozen plasma
F. Low molecular weight heparin
G. Protein S concentrate
H. Platelet concentrates
I. Thrombin infusion
J. Fibrinogen
K. Platelet concentrates plus fresh frozen plasma
L. Fondaparinux (FXa inhibitor)
M. Vitamin E
A

D. Vitamin K - This patient has clearly been ‘over-warfarinised’. The guidelines are as follows: If there is no bleeding and INR is 6 you need to give PO vitamin K as well. If there is severe bleeding and the INR is high, then you need to stop warfarin and give parenteral vitamin K and PCC (octreotide/octaplex). PCC (prothrombin complex concentrate) is better than FFP in these situations. Remember that warfarin prevents the activation of vitamin K which is a cofactor in the synthesis of factors 2, 7, 9 and 10.

595
Q

Mitral valve replacement plus atrial fibrillation.

A. Aspirin
B. Unfractionated heparin
C. Warfarin
D. Vitamin K
E. Fresh frozen plasma
F. Low molecular weight heparin
G. Protein S concentrate
H. Platelet concentrates
I. Thrombin infusion
J. Fibrinogen
K. Platelet concentrates plus fresh frozen plasma
L. Fondaparinux (FXa inhibitor)
M. Vitamin E
A

C. Warfarin - This patient here has two risk factors for thromboembolism – AF and valve replacement. This patient will need to be warfarinised to an appropriate INR for anticoagulation. As mentioned above, warfarin acts to inhibit synthesis of the vitamin K dependent clotting factors.

596
Q

Disseminated intravascular coagulation.

A. Aspirin
B. Unfractionated heparin
C. Warfarin
D. Vitamin K
E. Fresh frozen plasma
F. Low molecular weight heparin
G. Protein S concentrate
H. Platelet concentrates
I. Thrombin infusion
J. Fibrinogen
K. Platelet concentrates plus fresh frozen plasma
L. Fondaparinux (FXa inhibitor)
M. Vitamin E
A

K. Platelet concentrates plus fresh frozen plasma - DIC is a syndrome where coagulation pathways activate resulting in intravascular thrombosis, platelet and clotting factor depletion. The underlying disorder needs to be treated and FFP with platelet concentrate needs to be given. A platelet infusion should be considered and FFP is preferred for replacement of clotting factors and clotting inhibitors. Complications of DIC include life-threatening bleed, ARF and gangrene.

597
Q

A 40-year-old female has a routine blood test showing serum calcium 2.85 mmol/l (corrected). She takes no medications. PTH is also elevated and ALP is mildly raised. She is depressed.

A. Myeloma
B. Medullary cell carcinoma of the thyroid
C. Sarcoidosis
D. Paget’s disease
E. Thiazide diuretics
F. Vitamin D intoxication
G. Hypervitaminosis A
H. Tuberculosis
I. Immobility
J. Milk-alkali syndrome
K. Primary hyperparathyroidism
L. Metastatic breast carcinoma
M. Secondary hyperparathyroidism
N. Pseudohypercalcaemia
A

K. Primary hyperparathyroidism - This is the most common cause of hypercalcaemia. 85% are due to a single adenoma in one of the glands while most of the rest are due to 4 gland disease. The range of disease is from very mild/asymptomatic through to severe disease with bone loss, fractures and osteitis fibrosa cystica. There is autonomous PTH production in primary HPT which causes deranged calcium metabolism. Biochemistry will show elevated serum calcium and inappropriate elevation of PTH. Depression, cognitive changes, change in sleep (possibly due to change in circadian rhythm) and myalgia are all common complaints. Osteoporosis may occur due to excess PTH causing bone resorption (osteoclasts are stimulated). Hypercalciuria may cause renal stones and nocturia. The only definitive cure is a parathyroidectomy although complications of this procedure include hypocalcaemia, injury to the recurrent laryngeal nerve, bleeding and a pneumothorax.

598
Q

A 60-year-old life-long non-smoker with a 6-month history of lower back pain has an ESR of 105 and a serum calcium of 3.0.

A. Myeloma
B. Medullary cell carcinoma of the thyroid
C. Sarcoidosis
D. Paget’s disease
E. Thiazide diuretics
F. Vitamin D intoxication
G. Hypervitaminosis A
H. Tuberculosis
I. Immobility
J. Milk-alkali syndrome
K. Primary hyperparathyroidism
L. Metastatic breast carcinoma
M. Secondary hyperparathyroidism
N. Pseudohypercalcaemia
A

A. Myeloma - This patient has multiple myeloma. This is characteristed by clonal proliferation of plasma cells in BM and commonly presents with bony pain and symptoms of anaemia. There may also be infections present in 10%. Elevated ESR agrees with this diagnosis. The diagnostic test is serum or urine electrophoresis looking for a paraprotein spike of IgG or IgA and light chain urinary excretion (Bence Jones proteins). Bone marrow examination and skeletal survey will also need to be conducted. Bone marrow analysis will help differentiate this from MGUS and solitary plasmacytoma. Bone changes include osteopenia, osteolytic lesions and fractures. Younger patients may be candidates for high-dose chemotherapy and autologous transplantation.

599
Q

A 39-year-old Afro-Caribbean male with SOB and painful red skin lesions on the anterior surface of both lower legs. There is hypercalcaemia.

A. Myeloma
B. Medullary cell carcinoma of the thyroid
C. Sarcoidosis
D. Paget’s disease
E. Thiazide diuretics
F. Vitamin D intoxication
G. Hypervitaminosis A
H. Tuberculosis
I. Immobility
J. Milk-alkali syndrome
K. Primary hyperparathyroidism
L. Metastatic breast carcinoma
M. Secondary hyperparathyroidism
N. Pseudohypercalcaemia
A

C. Sarcoidosis - Sarcoidosis is a chronic multisystem disease with an unknown aetiology but pulmonary involvement usually dominates. Hypercalcaemia occurs in these granulomatous conditions (also including TB and leprosy) as a result of tissue being able to 1-alpha-hydroxylate 25(OH) D leading to vitamin D (the 1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D3) excess. Erythema nodosum, tender erythematous nodules and lupus pernio, indurated plaques with discoloration on the face, are typical skin manifestations of sarcoidosis. CXR will typically show bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy and CXR findings are used in the staging of disease. Additionally, serum calcium and ACE levels may be raised. A transbronchial biopsy is essential for diagnosis in most cases and shows the presence of non-caseating granulomas. Black people have a higher lifetime risk of sarcoidosis, as do those of Scandinavian origin. The mainstay of treatment for severe disease involves systemic corticosteroids.

600
Q

A 55-year-old lady with a family history (mother) of death following hip fracture is obsessed with the risk of osteoporosis and has been purchasing large quantities of OTC medication. There is hypercalcaemia.

A. Myeloma
B. Medullary cell carcinoma of the thyroid
C. Sarcoidosis
D. Paget’s disease
E. Thiazide diuretics
F. Vitamin D intoxication
G. Hypervitaminosis A
H. Tuberculosis
I. Immobility
J. Milk-alkali syndrome
K. Primary hyperparathyroidism
L. Metastatic breast carcinoma
M. Secondary hyperparathyroidism
N. Pseudohypercalcaemia
A

F. Vitamin D intoxication - This silly lady has self-over-dosed on vitamin D. This is a fat soluble vitamin which can be toxic when taken in excess over time. OD of alfacalciol or calcitriol can easily cause hypercalcaemia and this needs to be avoided. So why is this not milk-alkali syndrome? Milk-alkali syndrome is caused by excess milk, as the name suggests, or alkali, for example due to dyspepsia. Excess intake, or calcium supplementation OTC can lead to hypercalcaemia, so granted if she is buying lots and lots of chewable calcium carbonate or something this is possible, but it is more likely in post-menopausal women on supplementation - just think about what is more likely here. Also, the patient is not completely stupid and will not be OD on vitamin A, even though is a cause of hypercalcaemia.

601
Q

The world’s fattest teenager hasn’t been able to move out of her bed for the past 6 months. She is tired all the time. Blood test reveals hyperlipidaemia and hypercalcaemia.

A. Myeloma
B. Medullary cell carcinoma of the thyroid
C. Sarcoidosis
D. Paget’s disease
E. Thiazide diuretics
F. Vitamin D intoxication
G. Hypervitaminosis A
H. Tuberculosis
I. Immobility
J. Milk-alkali syndrome
K. Primary hyperparathyroidism
L. Metastatic breast carcinoma
M. Secondary hyperparathyroidism
N. Pseudohypercalcaemia
A

I. Immobility - Well this one is dead easy. In young people, immobilisation causes bone to demineralise causing hypercalcaemia. This is more common in young people due to larger mobile calcium pools to sustain the rise in calcium levels.

602
Q

A 44-year-old man, BP 175/110 mmHg plasma 2.2 mmol/L.

A. Renovascular disease
B. Primary hyperaldosteronism (Conn’s syndrome)
C. 'Essential’ hypertension
D. Phaeochromocytoma
E. Isolated systolic hypertension
F. Metabolic syndrome (Insulin resistance/syndrome X)
G. Cushing's syndrome
H. Coarctation of the aorta
A

B. Primary hyperaldosteronism - The normal range for potassium 3.5-5mmol/l. You should really know the normal ranges for common values like sodium, potassium and urea by this stage. In Conn’s, potassium is normal or low. It is important when drawing blood to avoid haemolysing the sample, which will cause a falsely elevated potassium level. It is important for screening to calculate the aldosterone/renin ratio, with >30 being suggestive of Conn’s. In Conn’s, aldosterone is raised and renin is low due to negative feedback. This is in contrast to renal artery stenosis where both aldosterone and renin will be raised. It is important to discontinue diuretics and other interfering medications for at least 6 weeks prior to measuring the ratio. The most reliable diagnostic test is a fludrocortisone suppression test. Treatment can be surgical with excision of the adenoma (if aldosterone production is lateralised to one side) or medical with spironolactone and amiloride. There are also familial forms of primary hyperaldosteronism which show an autosomal dominant mode of inheritance. Spironolactone is an aldosterone receptor antagonist. Amiloride inhibits aldosterone-sensitive sodium channels. They are both examples of potassium sparing diuretics acting on the DCT.

603
Q

A 52-year-old woman with recurrent episodes of severe anxiety, when her family note that she becomes very pale. BP up to 220/124 mmHg during an attack, 150/90 mmHg otherwise. Her pulse rate does not increase significantly during attacks.

A. Renovascular disease
B. Primary hyperaldosteronism (Conn’s syndrome)
C. 'Essential’ hypertension
D. Phaeochromocytoma
E. Isolated systolic hypertension
F. Metabolic syndrome (Insulin resistance/syndrome X)
G. Cushing's syndrome
H. Coarctation of the aorta
A

D. Pheochromocytoma - Phaeochromocytomas presents with paroxysmal episodes of palpitations, anxiety, excessive sweating, pallor and hypertension. It can be inherited in MEN2, von Hippel-Lindau syndrome and NF1. Diagnosis is based on raised urinary and serum catecholamines, metanephrines and normetanephrines. 24 hour urinary VMA will be elevated. CT is used to localise the tumour. Treatment includes medical with the use of phenoxybenzamine, phentolamine and surgical options. Surgical excision is carried out under alpha and beta blockade to protect against the release of catecholamines into circulation when the tumour is being manipulated. The 10% rule is often quoted: 10% are bilateral, 10% malignant, 10% extraadrenal and 10% hereditary.

604
Q

A 59-year-old man, body mass index 29, random blood sugar 12.5 mmol/L, total cholesterol 5.2 mmol/L, HDL cholesterol 0.75 mmol/L, BP 162/105 mmHg.A. Renovascular diseaseB. Primary hyperaldosteronism (Conn’s syndrome)C. ‘Essential’ hypertensionD. PhaeochromocytomaE. Isolated systolic hypertensionF. Metabolic syndrome (Insulin resistance/syndrome X)G. Cushing’s syndromeH. Coarctation of the aorta

A

F. Metabolic syndrome (Insulin resistance/syndrome X) - Metabolic syndrome incorporates insulin resistance, IGT, central obesity, dyslipidaemia and hypertension. Multiple criteria exist to define this syndrome. This is sometimes called Reaven’s syndrome. Treatment aims at lifestyle interventions with statins if these do not achieve desired LDL cholesterol levels. Other lipid-lowering drugs such a fibrates can also be considered. The risk of developing T2DM is up to 5 times higher in those with metabolic syndrome. Low dose aspirin may be indicated, particularly for those at a higher risk, due to the prothombotic state of metabolic syndrome. Other treatments that can be considered include orlistat and bariatric surgery. Those with insulin resistance may benefit from metformin, which will reduce the progression to T2DM in patients with IGT.

605
Q

A 60-year-old woman, body mass index 22, normal sugar, lipids and electrolytes, BP 165/102 mmHg.

A. Renovascular disease
B. Primary hyperaldosteronism (Conn’s syndrome)
C. 'Essential’ hypertension
D. Phaeochromocytoma
E. Isolated systolic hypertension
F. Metabolic syndrome (Insulin resistance/syndrome X)
G. Cushing's syndrome
H. Coarctation of the aorta
A

C. ‘Essential’ hypertension - Defined as BP >140/90 or >130/80 in those with renal disease. Typically diagnosed in screening asymptomatic patients. Treatment aims at modifying lifestyle (reducing salt intake to 160/100). Treatment differs for the stages and depends on whether there are any co-morbidities. For example, if there is AF the first choice is a beta blocker and if there is BPH the first choice agent is an alpha blocker.

606
Q

An 81-year-old woman, well apart from mild osteoporosis, no metabolic abnormalities, BP 185/78 mmHg.

A. Renovascular disease
B. Primary hyperaldosteronism (Conn’s syndrome)
C. 'Essential’ hypertension
D. Phaeochromocytoma
E. Isolated systolic hypertension
F. Metabolic syndrome (Insulin resistance/syndrome X)
G. Cushing's syndrome
H. Coarctation of the aorta
A

E. Isolated systolic hypertension - Isolated systolic hypertension occurs more commonly in the elderly. It is characterised by a raised SBP >140 but a normal diastolic BP

607
Q

33-year-old woman complains of giddiness on standing and can no longer cross a road on her own as she is worried that she may pass out. She developed diabetes when aged 12 and had laser treatment to her eyes 2 years ago.

A. Pulmonary embolus
B. Arrhythmia
C. Blood loss
D. Autonomic neuropathy
E. Septicaemia
F. Hyperadrenalism
G. Cardiogenic shock
H. Drug induced
I. Volume depletion
A

D. Autonomic neuropathy - Autonomic neuropathy is a complication of diabetic neuropathy. Symptoms of autonomic neuropathy include… resting tachycardia (late findings due to vagal impairment), impaired HR variation, erectile dysfunction (affects many diabetic men though is not solely due to autonomic neuropathy), decreased libido and dyspareunia, orthostatic hypotension (measure BP supine and then standing after 1, 2, 3 and sometimes 5 minutes – an abnormal drop when standing is indicative) and urinary symptoms of frequency, urgency, incontinence, nocturia, weak stream and retention. Other symptoms include constipation, faecal incontinence and sweating dysfunction. Fludrocortisone may be helpful in this woman.

608
Q

76-year-old woman was admitted with confusion. She had been increasingly unable to care for herself. On admission, she was found to have cool peripheries and her blood pressure was 100/70. Blood results showed plasma urea 25 mmol/L and plasma creatinine 120 μmol/L.

A. Pulmonary embolus
B. Arrhythmia
C. Blood loss
D. Autonomic neuropathy
E. Septicaemia
F. Hyperadrenalism
G. Cardiogenic shock
H. Drug induced
I. Volume depletion
A

I. Volume depletion - Volume depletion is a reduction in ECF volume due to salt and fluid losses which exceed intake. Causes include vomiting, bleeding, diarrhoea, diuresis and third space losses. Symptoms do not occur until large losses have alrady occured. Cool peripheries are a sign of peripheral shut down. Confusion may reflect poor cerebral flow or uraemia.Volume depletion has led to the low BP. Other symptoms include postural hypotension and tachycardia, weight loss and signs of shock. Serum urea and creatinine is elevated (you need to eyeball the patient when looking at creatinine – a very big body builder will have a much higher creatinine), indicating poor renal blood flow. This patient needs IV saline fluid replacement.

609
Q

22-year-old man presented with vomiting. He had not been feeling himself for some weeks. On examination, the skin creases of his hands were dark. Blood results showed plasma urea 8.5mmol/L, sodium 121 mmol/L and potassium 5.1 mmol/L.

A. Pulmonary embolus
B. Arrhythmia
C. Blood loss
D. Autonomic neuropathy
E. Septicaemia
F. Hyperadrenalism
G. Cardiogenic shock
H. Drug induced
I. Volume depletion
A

F. Hyperaldosteronism - Hyperpigmentation in the palmar creases points towards Addison’s disease. Hyperpigmentation due to excess ACTH production can be mucosal or cutaneous and is more pronounced in the palms, knuckles and around scars. MSH is a byproduct of the production of ACTH from the cleavage of POMC. Sodium is low and potassium elevated. Vomiting is present in 75% of patients and nausea is a common finding. Additionally, postural hypotension may be present. The presence of other autoimmune diseases is also a risk factor for the development of Addison’s.

610
Q

45-year-old man presented with severe chest pain radiating down his left arm. He was pale, cold and sweaty. BP was 80/50 mmHg, pulse rate was 100 and regular. JVP was raised by 3cm and auscultation of his chest revealed basal creps. Over the next few hours, he became progressively short of breath despite being given IV diuretics. Chest x-ray showed signs of pulmonary congestion.

A. Pulmonary embolus
B. Arrhythmia
C. Blood loss
D. Autonomic neuropathy
E. Septicaemia
F. Hyperadrenalism
G. Cardiogenic shock
H. Drug induced
I. Volume depletion
A

G. Cardiogenic shock - Cardiogenic shock is pump dysfunction. This may occur, like in this case, after MI (shock complicates just under 10% of MIs) or may be due to cardiomyopathy, valve dysfunction or arrhythmias. This cause of shock in this patient is obviously apparent. Clinical signs of shock include stress responses of tachycardia and tachypnoea, hypotension (

611
Q

67-year-old man was observed to be very drowsy 12 hours after an aortic aneurysm repair. There had been considerable blood loss and he had been given 4 units of blood during surgery. He had been written up for pethidine 50-100 mg 3 hourly postoperatively and had had 3 doses. BP had been 150/80 post-op and was now 100/60 with a pulse rate of 75/min. O2 saturation was low at 85%.

A. Pulmonary embolus
B. Arrhythmia
C. Blood loss
D. Autonomic neuropathy
E. Septicaemia
F. Hyperadrenalism
G. Cardiogenic shock
H. Drug induced
I. Volume depletion
A

H. Drug induced - Opioid OD symptoms include CNS depression (drowsiness, sleepiness), respiratory depression and relative bradycardia. This patient needs ventilation prior to the administration of naloxone, titrated to patient response.

612
Q

Drug interactions

A. Cocherane database
B. Medline
C. National institute for clinical excellence (NICE) website
D. British national formulary
E. BMA website
F. Evidence based medicine website
G. BMJ website
A

D. BNF - The BNF will tell you about indications and contraindications for drugs

613
Q

Systematic reviews of literature

A. Cocherane database
B. Medline
C. National institute for clinical excellence (NICE) website
D. British national formulary
E. BMA website
F. Evidence based medicine website
G. BMJ website
A

A. Cocherane database - The Cochrane database was established by the NHS with the aim of being a place to review existing literature on a subject matter.

614
Q

Original research article

A. Cocherane database
B. Medline
C. National institute for clinical excellence (NICE) website
D. British national formulary
E. BMA website
F. Evidence based medicine website
G. BMJ website
A

B. Medline - Medline, or pubmed, is run by the US Government and will help you search through many journals with keywords to look for new and older research on a matter

615
Q

Disease management guidelines

A. Cocherane database
B. Medline
C. National institute for clinical excellence (NICE) website
D. British national formulary
E. BMA website
F. Evidence based medicine website
G. BMJ website
A

C. NICE - In the UK, NICE currently analyses the medical and cost-effectiveness of various treatment options and publishes guidelines based upon this

616
Q

Drug use in the lactating mother

A. Cocherane database
B. Medline
C. National institute for clinical excellence (NICE) website
D. British national formulary
E. BMA website
F. Evidence based medicine website
G. BMJ website
A

D. BNF - The BNF will tell you about indications and contraindications for drugs

617
Q

choose the SINGLE test from the list above that would be of most help in establishing the diagnosis

Aortic dissection

A. CT chest, abdomen and pelvis
B. Ventilation-perfusion scan
C. Duplex ultrasound
D. Trans-thoracic echocardiography
E. Upper GI endoscopy
F. D-dimer
G. Renal function tests
H. Barium swallow
I. Barium enema
J. MRI head
K.CT head
A

A. CT chest, abdomen and pelvis - Dissecting aneurysms are either type A, which involves the ascending aorta, or type B. Type A dissections require urgent surgery whereas type B can be managed medically if it is not complicated by end organ ischaemia. A CT scan is indicated as soon as a diagnosis of aortic dissection is suspected and should be from the chest to the pelvis to see the full extent of the dissecting aneurysm. What you will see is the intimal flap. MRI is more sensitive and specific but is more difficult to obtain acutely.

618
Q

choose the SINGLE test from the list above that would be of most help in establishing the diagnosis

Pituitary tumour

A. CT chest, abdomen and pelvis
B. Ventilation-perfusion scan
C. Duplex ultrasound
D. Trans-thoracic echocardiography
E. Upper GI endoscopy
F. D-dimer
G. Renal function tests
H. Barium swallow
I. Barium enema
J. MRI head
K.CT head
A

J. MRI head - Pituitary MRI is preferred over CT and you will be able to see if the tumour has invaded, for example, the sphenoid sinus and cavernous sinuses or any compression of the optic chiasma. MRI is contra-indictaed in some cases such as those with a permanent pacemaker or those with ESRF on dialysis – in which case you would perform a CT. Both are done with contrast enhancement. A sellar mass will be seen.

619
Q

choose the SINGLE test from the list above that would be of most help in establishing the diagnosis

Renal artery stenosis

A. CT chest, abdomen and pelvis
B. Ventilation-perfusion scan
C. Duplex ultrasound
D. Trans-thoracic echocardiography
E. Upper GI endoscopy
F. D-dimer
G. Renal function tests
H. Barium swallow
I. Barium enema
J. MRI head
K.CT head
A

C. Duplex ultrasound - Renal artery stenosis is basically narrowing of the renal artery. There may not be any clinical consequences of this – just because someone’s renal arteries are narrowed does not mean they are suffering worsening kidney function, although this may be the case, especially after blockade of the renin-angiotensin system, and patients may have difficult to control and accelerated hypertension. A definitive diagnosis is made on imaging, where there is some controversy on what is most appropriate to use. USS is safe and non-invasive but the sensitivity and specificity is low. CT/MR angiography has the risk of contrast nephropathy and nephrogenic systemic fibrosis. Conventional angiography (the best test available) has the risk of bleeding and emboli as well as contrast related risks already mentioned. Generally, the recommendation is to start with renal duplex ultrasound. This would not be an unreasonable approach. This can be followed by further tests. Although, in some centres in the country, the first line is CT or MR angiography and duplex USS is only done if there is a contra-indication to CT/MR angiography. However, the only reasonable option on this list is duplex USS.

620
Q

choose the SINGLE test from the list above that would be of most help in establishing the diagnosis

Achalasia

A. CT chest, abdomen and pelvis
B. Ventilation-perfusion scan
C. Duplex ultrasound
D. Trans-thoracic echocardiography
E. Upper GI endoscopy
F. D-dimer
G. Renal function tests
H. Barium swallow
I. Barium enema
J. MRI head
K.CT head
A

I. Barium swallow - A barium swallow is the test you should do here. It is often done with fluoroscopy and may be normal in early disease. What will be seen is a loss of peristalsis and delayed emptying of the oesophagus. The oesophagus will be dilated proximally, and tapers distally into a ‘bird’s beak’ shape narrowing at the gastro-oesophageal junction.UGI endoscopy has a low sensitivity and is only done to exclude malignancy. However, it is an essential first line test for this very reason to evaluate the presentation of dysphagia.

621
Q

choose the SINGLE test from the list above that would be of most help in establishing the diagnosis

Pulmonary embolism

A. CT chest, abdomen and pelvis
B. Ventilation-perfusion scan
C. Duplex ultrasound
D. Trans-thoracic echocardiography
E. Upper GI endoscopy
F. D-dimer
G. Renal function tests
H. Barium swallow
I. Barium enema
J. MRI head
K.CT head
A

B. Ventilation-perfusion scan - The first line recommended initial imaging test is a CT chest to directly visualise the thrombus in a pulmonary artery, which would show as a filling defect. However this option is not given in this list and the test to pick here is a V/Q scan, which offers a similarly high level of sensitivity and specificity. In a PE the area affected will be ventilated but not perfused.

622
Q

A 58 year old man who is recently diagnosed with lung cancer has started chemotherapy and radiotherapy. He complains of a fever, weight loss and fatigue. There are swollen lymph nodes and tetany. Serum potassium is elevated and calcium is low.

A. Cushing's syndrome
B. Rhabdomyolysis
C. Drug side effect
D. Acute kidney failure
E. Addison’s disease
F. Congenital adrenal hyperplasia
G. Hyperglycaemia
H. DKA
I. Chronic kidney disease
J. Infection
K. Tumour lysis syndrome
L. Pseudohyperkalaemia
A

K. Tumour lysis syndrome - There is recent diagnosis of malignancy here combined with the recent start of both chemotherapy and radiotherapy. This is tumour lysis syndrome which encompasses metabolic and electrolyte abnormalities, like hyperkalaemia, occuring after cytotoxic treatment in a patient with cancer. There is excessive cell lysis and the release of intracellular contents into the bloodstream leads to elevated levels of serum urate, potassium, phosphate and a reduction in calcium level.

623
Q

A 72 year old woman is being treated for a diabetic foot ulcer and is afraid she may need an amputation. Serum potassium today is markedly elevated. Results over the past week have been normal. You find out the 2nd year medical student had some difficulty drawing the blood.

A. Cushing's syndrome
B. Rhabdomyolysis
C. Drug side effect
D. Acute kidney failure
E. Addison’s disease
F. Congenital adrenal hyperplasia
G. Hyperglycaemia
H. DKA
I. Chronic kidney disease
J. Infection
K. Tumour lysis syndrome
L. Pseudohyperkalaemia
A

L. Pseudohyperkalaemia -This is pseudohyperkalaemia caused by haemolysis of the sample. The medical student who has had some difficulty drawing the blood has haemolysed the sample. Potassium in serum will in this case exceed the plasma value by >0.5 mmol/L and the pink tinge when centrifuging the sample will also give this away.

624
Q

A 23 year old male was upset England lost a penalty shoot-out and decided to kick a wall in a construction site on the way home. The wall fell on him and he was crushed. It took paramedics a long time to retrieve him from the rubble. His leg is swollen and tender. Urine specimen has a dark red appearance.

A. Cushing's syndrome
B. Rhabdomyolysis
C. Drug side effect
D. Acute kidney failure
E. Addison’s disease
F. Congenital adrenal hyperplasia
G. Hyperglycaemia
H. DKA
I. Chronic kidney disease
J. Infection
K. Tumour lysis syndrome
L. Pseudohyperkalaemia
A

B. Rhabdomyolysis - This is a crush injury that has caused myocyte lysis – rhabdomyolysis. The diagnosis would be confirmed by raised CK. The swelling and pain in his leg muscle is a further give away. The dark urine here is caused by urinary myoglobin. The long time it took for him to be retrieved is also an indication of this diagnosis. The mainstay of treatment is with fluid hydration.

625
Q

A 28 year old male presents with increased skin pigmentation, vitiligo, postural hypotension and raised potassium. Urine potassium is low. He has also lost some weight.

A. Cushing's syndrome
B. Rhabdomyolysis
C. Drug side effect
D. Acute kidney failure
E. Addison’s disease
F. Congenital adrenal hyperplasia
G. Hyperglycaemia
H. DKA
I. Chronic kidney disease
J. Infection
K. Tumour lysis syndrome
L. Pseudohyperkalaemia
A

E. Addison’s disease - Hyperpigmentation is due to excess ACTH production and can be mucosal or cutaneous and is more pronounced in the palms, knuckles and around scars. MSH is a byproduct of the production of ACTH from the cleavage of POMC. Sodium is low and potassium elevated in this condition. Additionally, postural hypotension may be present. The presence of other autoimmune diseases is a risk factor for the development of Addison’s, such as this man’s vitiligo. Diagnosis of Addison’s can be made on an ACTH stimulation test (synacthen test) whereby serum cortisol remains low despite the administration of synthetic ACTH. In an emergency, treatment should not be delayed by diagnostic testing.

626
Q

A 16 year old diabetic has been trying to lose weight. She presents at with a vomiting, postural hypotension and abdominal pain. She insists she has been taking her insulin regularly and does not use illicit drugs. Serum potassium is elevated.

A. Cushing's syndrome
B. Rhabdomyolysis
C. Drug side effect
D. Acute kidney failure
E. Addison’s disease
F. Congenital adrenal hyperplasia
G. Hyperglycaemia
H. DKA
I. Chronic kidney disease
J. Infection
K. Tumour lysis syndrome
L. Pseudohyperkalaemia
A

H. DKA - This is DKA. This girl is simply lying about her insulin and has been skipping insulin doses in order to lose weight. This is known as ‘diabulimia’. The main thing that needs to be corrected is the severe intravascular volume depletion and to restore tissue perfusion with IV saline. Insulin will of course also be needed. When glucose reaches 11.1mmol, fluid should be changed to 5% dextrose to prevent hypoglycaemia. Insulin should be held until potassium is at least 3.3 mmol/L (remember insulin moves potassium into cells) and a continuous infusion is recommended (with new DKA treatment guidelines, the ‘sliding scale’ is now a thing of the past). If interested, look up the latest DKA treatment guidelines for more information.

627
Q

A 65-year-old man with a six-month history of ischaemic heart disease on Aspirin presents with a one-month history of epigastric pain and two days of dark stools. He has vomited a ‘cupful’ of fresh blood this morning.

A. Clotting profile
B. Chest x-ray
C. Upper GI endoscopy
D. H.pylori breath test
E. Colonoscopy
F. CT scan abdomen
G. Liver biopsy
H. Barium swallow
I. Liver function test
J. Upper GI endoscopy
K. Full blood count
A

J. Upper GI endoscopy - NSAID use is a key risk factor for a peptic ulcer. Other key risks include H. pylori infection, smoking and FH of PUD. Zollinger-Ellison syndrome should be considered if there are multiple ulcers or ulcers refractory to treatment. The epigastric pain and symptoms of dark stools are consistent with a bleeding peptic ulcer. The most specific and sensitive test is an upper GI endoscopy which also allows management of the bleed. A biopsy may also be done to rule out malignant transformation. Gastric ulcers require a compulsory biopsy but duodenal ulcers rarely undergo malignant change. Management here can be aimed at discontinuing NSAIDs which are the cause in this case.

628
Q

A 32-year-old man attends your surgery saying he brought up blood every morning for the last week. He is unsure whether he is vomiting or coughing it up. His haemoglobin (done yesterday) is 14 g/dL.

A. Clotting profile
B. Chest x-ray
C. Upper GI endoscopy
D. H.pylori breath test
E. Colonoscopy
F. CT scan abdomen
G. Liver biopsy
H. Barium swallow
I. Liver function test
J. Upper GI endoscopy
K. Full blood count
A

B. Chest X-ray - The blood being brought up here occurs at a fixed time period every day and he is not anaemic. This makes you suspect a respiratory cause of his haemoptysis such as pneumonia – particularly TB, cancer, vasculitis like Wegener’s, bronchiectasis and bronchitis.

629
Q

A 55- year-old lady on Warfarin for recurrent pulmonary emboli presents having vomited a small amount of blood that morning. She has been on antibiotics for a presumed chest infection for the last week.

A. Clotting profile
B. Chest x-ray
C. Upper GI endoscopy
D. H.pylori breath test
E. Colonoscopy
F. CT scan abdomen
G. Liver biopsy
H. Barium swallow
I. Liver function test
J. Upper GI endoscopy
K. Full blood count
A

A. Clotting profile - This woman is on prophylactic warfarin anticoagulation. There is an interaction here with the antibiotics this woman is taking which has resulting in enhanced anticoagulation effects of warfarin, causing her to bring up the blood. Cepahalosporins, chloramphenicol, ciprofloxacin, clarithryomycin, erythromycin and metronidazole are all examples which increase the effect of warfarin. Any P450 inducer will have this effect as warfarin is a drug metabolised by cytochrome P450 enzymes. Antibiotics can also upset the gut flora which reduces vitamin K levels.

630
Q

A 22-year-old medical student has several episodes of vomiting blood after a period of forceful retching. He had been binge drinking for the last 3 days after failing his OSCE.

A. Clotting profile
B. Chest x-ray
C. Upper GI endoscopy
D. H.pylori breath test
E. Colonoscopy
F. CT scan abdomen
G. Liver biopsy
H. Barium swallow
I. Liver function test
J. Upper GI endoscopy
K. Full blood count
A

C. Upper GI endoscopy - The definitive diagnosis for a Mallory-Weiss tear is made by OGD. This tear in the oesophageal mucosa occurs after a rise in abdominal pressure, causing subsequent GI bleeding. It commonly presents with haematemesis after an episode of retching/vomiting/coughing/straining. Hence, risk factors include anything which can cause vomiting like heavy alcohol use, which is commonly the case in EMQs. Also, other conditions would include food poisoning, bowel obstruction, hyperemesis gravidarum, bulimia, the chronic cough of COPD, meningitis etc… you name it really. Classically, MWT presents with a small self limiting episode of haematemesis. Treatment is supportive because most cases are self limiting and emergency treatment is not offered unless the patient is showing signs of clinical instability. If the patient is actively bleeding, treatment will be with therapeutic endoscopy in most cases, and very very few cases will require more intervention such as angiography with embolisation.

631
Q

A 72-year-old man, admitted to hospital with a single large haematemesis and continuing abdominal pain. Upper and lower GI endoscopy were reported as ‘unremarkable’

A. Clotting profile
B. Chest x-ray
C. Upper GI endoscopy
D. H.pylori breath test
E. Colonoscopy
F. CT scan abdomen
G. Liver biopsy
H. Barium swallow
I. Liver function test
J. Upper GI endoscopy
K. Full blood count
A

F. CT scan abdomen - The cause here could be an aortoenteric fistula or AVM. You have to assume with endoscopy here that upper and lower GI endoscopy were unremarkable. The next step on this list would be a CT scan with contrast to detect the GI bleed. You would expect to see the active bleeding with contrast leaking into the bowel lumen.

632
Q

A 46-year-old woman complains of right loin pain. Her mother had been on dialysis in Australia for 10 years. Plasma creatinine 180 μmol/l. No abnormalities were detected on urinalysis.

A. Renal ultrasound
B. CVP measurement  
C. Renal biopsy
D. Plasma electrophoretic strip
E. Intravenous pyelogram
F. Renal arteriogram
G. HIV test
H. Anti-neutrophil cytoplasm antibodies
I. Anti-glomerular basement membrane antibody
J. Captopril renogram
A

A. Renal ultrasound - A dominantly inherited cause of renal failure is likely to be polycystic kidney disease which is best noted on ultrasound

633
Q

A 28-year-old woman with a carcinoma of the cervix was admitted with plasma creatinine of 250μmol/l. BP was 130/80. Urinalysis was negative

A. Renal ultrasound
B. CVP measurement  
C. Renal biopsy
D. Plasma electrophoretic strip
E. Intravenous pyelogram
F. Renal arteriogram
G. HIV test
H. Anti-neutrophil cytoplasm antibodies
I. Anti-glomerular basement membrane antibody
J. Captopril renogram
A

A. Renal ultrasound - A patient with cervical carcinoma is at risk of ureteric obstruction and then hydronephrosis. Again ultrasound is the test of choice

634
Q

An 82-year-old man admitted through A&E with confusion. BP 90/60. JVP not seen. His hands and feet were cool. Plasma creatinine 420 μmol/l, urea 55 mmol/l. After catheterisation, 200mls mucky urine was drained from his bladder.

A. Renal ultrasound
B. CVP measurement  
C. Renal biopsy
D. Plasma electrophoretic strip
E. Intravenous pyelogram
F. Renal arteriogram
G. HIV test
H. Anti-neutrophil cytoplasm antibodies
I. Anti-glomerular basement membrane antibody
J. Captopril renogram
A

B. CVP measurement - A confused hypotensive shocked patient might be hypotensive because of cardiac disease (which will cause a raised JVP) or due to sepsis (which will cause a low JVP). If you can’t see the JVP, then you should put in a central line to measure the CVP accurately to tell you if the cause of the low blood pressure here is sepsis or cardiac failure

635
Q

A 32-year-old man presents with oedema. Plasma creatinine 150 μmol/l, urea 15 mmol/l, albumin 15 g/l. Urine protein excretion 8.5 gm/24 hour. Routine immunescreen (antinuclear antibody, complement levels, CRP) is normal

A. Renal ultrasound
B. CVP measurement  
C. Renal biopsy
D. Plasma electrophoretic strip
E. Intravenous pyelogram
F. Renal arteriogram
G. HIV test
H. Anti-neutrophil cytoplasm antibodies
I. Anti-glomerular basement membrane antibody
J. Captopril renogram
A

C. Renal biopsy - When the cause of renal failure might be nephritis (as in nephrotic syndrome) a renal biopsy will be needed to make the diagnosis. Occasionally this is urgent, so that potent immunosuppresives can be administered

636
Q

A 76-year-old man presents with lethargy and back pain. Plasma creatinine 220 μmol/l, urea 18 mmol/l, calcium 2.9 mmol/l (2.2 – 2.6), albumin 29 g/l. Urine protein excretion 1.5 gm/24 hours.

A. Renal ultrasound
B. CVP measurement  
C. Renal biopsy
D. Plasma electrophoretic strip
E. Intravenous pyelogram
F. Renal arteriogram
G. HIV test
H. Anti-neutrophil cytoplasm antibodies
I. Anti-glomerular basement membrane antibody
J. Captopril renogram
A

D. Plasma electrophoretic strip - Renal impairment in myeloma results from a combination of factors: deposition of light chains, hypercalcaemia, hyperuricaemia and (rarely) in patients who have had the disease for some time, deposition of amyloid. Serum protein electrophoresis characteristically shows a monoclonal band.

637
Q

A 65 year old obese man presents with gradual worsening dysphagia for solids, which had initially been intermittent. He has had GORD for many years but is poorly compliant with medication.

A. Diffuse oesophageal spasm
B. Eosinophilic oesophagitis
C. Upper oesophageal web
D. Globus hystericus
E. Benign oesophageal stricture
F. Oesophageal diverticulum
G. Candidal oesophagitis
H. Scleroderma
I. Parkinson’s disease
J. Achalasia
K. Oesophageal cancer
L. Stroke
A

E. Benign oesphageal stricture - Healing of oesophageal damage inflicted in GORD involves the deposition of collagen. This causes contraction of the distal oesophagus which causes the formation of strictures. This is often associated with dysphagia for solids. Other complications of GORD include oesophageal ulcer, haemorrhage or perforation, Barrett’s oesophagus and oesophageal adenocarcinoma.

638
Q

A 30 year old woman presents with aspiration pnuemonia. She has a long history of intermittent mild dysphagia for both liquids & solids and often suffers from severe retrosternal chest pain. Occasionally she gets food stuck but overcomes this by drinking vast amounts of water.

A. Diffuse oesophageal spasm
B. Eosinophilic oesophagitis
C. Upper oesophageal web
D. Globus hystericus
E. Benign oesophageal stricture
F. Oesophageal diverticulum
G. Candidal oesophagitis
H. Scleroderma
I. Parkinson’s disease
J. Achalasia
K. Oesophageal cancer
L. Stroke
A

J. Achalasia - This is achalasia which is a motility disorder with loss of peristalsis in the distal oesophagus and failure of the LOS to relax in response to swallowing. This presents commonly with dysphagia to both liquids and solids, regurgitation and retrosternal chest pain, which can be slowly progressive over time. In structural obstruction such as cancer, dysphagia to liquids is uncommon unless the disease is very advanced. Retrosternal pressure experienced can be precipitated by drinking liquids but is eased by continuing to drink, and the pain may be relieved by cold water. This may wake the individual from sleep. A UGI endoscopy is needed to exclude malignancy as a cause of dysphagia. The diagnosis is established on manometry or barium studies. Treatment is symptomatic.

639
Q

A 75 year old male smoker presents with a 3 month history of dysphagia for solids. He has lost 8kg in weight over the last 5 months. O/E he has lymphadenopathy.

A. Diffuse oesophageal spasm
B. Eosinophilic oesophagitis
C. Upper oesophageal web
D. Globus hystericus
E. Benign oesophageal stricture
F. Oesophageal diverticulum
G. Candidal oesophagitis
H. Scleroderma
I. Parkinson’s disease
J. Achalasia
K. Oesophageal cancer
L. Stroke
A

K. Oesophageal cancer - Dysphagia (normally in a progressive pattern) coupled with weight loss points to malignancy. Dysphagia occurs when there is obstruction of more than 2/3 of the lumen and presence indicates locally advanced disease. There may additionally be odynophagia. Lymphadenopathy is a sign of metastatic disease here. Men are twice as likely to develop oesophageal cancer. GORD, Barrett’s oesophagus, FH, tobacco and alcohol are all risk factors. The two main types are squamous cell carcinoma and adenocarcinoma. Tumours in the upper 2/3 of the oesophagus are SCC whereas those that lie in the lower 1/3 are adenocarcinomas. The main test to order is an OGD with biopsy. Treatment is either surgical resection or with chemo or radiotherapy alongside endoscopic ablation with or without stenting and brachytherapy.

640
Q

A 33 year old presented with retrosternal discomfort on swallowing but without any real difficulty swallowing. O/E he was found to have creamy plaques in his mouth and later admitted to having AIDS.

A. Diffuse oesophageal spasm
B. Eosinophilic oesophagitis
C. Upper oesophageal web
D. Globus hystericus
E. Benign oesophageal stricture
F. Oesophageal diverticulum
G. Candidal oesophagitis
H. Scleroderma
I. Parkinson’s disease
J. Achalasia
K. Oesophageal cancer
L. Stroke
A

G. Candidal oesophagitis - This is really odynophagia rather than true dysphagia. Whenever a patient complains of ‘difficulty swallowing’, you should always take a good history and explain what the patient actually means by this. Does the patient mean that there is true difficulty swallowing, or just that it is painful to swallow, or is there a feeling of a lump in the throat (globus). The white plaques here give alongside discomfort away the diagnosis. The patient also has AIDS and is therefore immunocompromised. Candidiasis here is an opportunistic infection in an immunocompromised host and is a mucosal infection caused in most cases by Candida albicans (and occasionally by other species). Patients may present like this, or with oral or vaginal infection. Oral thrush may be seen (pseudomembranous candidiasis) with altered taste sensation or indeed dysphagia, as well as odynophagia in oesophageal disease. In vaginal infection, there is erythema with a white discharge and pruritis. This patient should be started on an empirical trial of antifungals. A systemic azole can be used such as fluconazole or itraconazole.

641
Q

A 45 year old female with a history of psychological problems presented with difficulty swallowing which had been getting progressively worse over the last 6 months. She described a sensation of a lump in the throat but after examinations and an endoscopy, no cause could be found.

A. Diffuse oesophageal spasm
B. Eosinophilic oesophagitis
C. Upper oesophageal web
D. Globus hystericus
E. Benign oesophageal stricture
F. Oesophageal diverticulum
G. Candidal oesophagitis
H. Scleroderma
I. Parkinson’s disease
J. Achalasia
K. Oesophageal cancer
L. Stroke
A

D. Globus hystericus - Globus hystericus is a sensation of fullness or a lump in the neck or difficulty swallowing which is not a true case of dysphagia. Swallowing can be performed normally and there is no real lump or obstruction in the throat. In some cases the cause is unknown and is believed to be psychogenic in cause and is associated with anxiety disorders. In other cases throat inflammation can cause this sensation. The normal examination and endoscopy here in a patient with a psychiatric history is diagnostic.

642
Q

An adult male with hypogonadism, small testicles and gynaecomastia is found to be infertile.

A. Edwards syndrome
B. Tuberous sclerosis
C. Fragile X syndrome
D. Klinefelter's syndrome
E. Turner's syndrome 
F. Down's syndrome
G. DiGeorge syndrome 
H. Patau's syndrome 
I. William’s syndrome
J. Prader-Willi syndrome
K. Angelman syndrome
A
In terms of karyotype analysis, the following are some conditions to be aware of:
Trisomy 21: Down’s; 
Trisomy 18: Edwards’; 
Trisomy 13: Patau’s; 
45 XO: Turner’s, 
47 XXY: Klinefelter’s; 
47 XXX: Triple X syndrome; 
Microdeletion at 22q11: DiGeorge; 
Microdeletion at 7q11: William’s; 
5p-: Cri-du-chat 

D. Klinefelter’s syndrome - Klinefelter’s syndrome is the presence of an extra X chromosome in a male to give 47, XXY. Hypogonadism is a principle feature of this condition and there is reduced fertility. Hypogonadism itself does not mean ‘small testicles’ but XXY men do also have small testicles. They will also often have low testosterone levels but high LH and FSH levels due to primary hypogonadism. The only reliable method of diagnosis is with karyotype analysis and the degree to which XXY males are affected varies from person to person. Gynaecomastia is to some extent present in around a third of individuals affected by this condition. 1 in 10 will choose cosmetic surgery to fix this.

643
Q

A child with severe learning difficulties, cleft lip & palate, polydactyly and multiple heart defects. Karyotype analysis shows trisomy 18.

A. Edwards syndrome
B. Tuberous sclerosis
C. Fragile X syndrome
D. Klinefelter's syndrome
E. Turner's syndrome 
F. Down's syndrome
G. DiGeorge syndrome 
H. Patau's syndrome 
I. William’s syndrome
J. Prader-Willi syndrome
K. Angelman syndrome
A
In terms of karyotype analysis, the following are some conditions to be aware of:
Trisomy 21: Down’s; 
Trisomy 18: Edwards’; 
Trisomy 13: Patau’s; 
45 XO: Turner’s, 
47 XXY: Klinefelter’s; 
47 XXX: Triple X syndrome; 
Microdeletion at 22q11: DiGeorge; 
Microdeletion at 7q11: William’s; 
5p-: Cri-du-chat 

A. Edwards syndrome - Edwards syndrome is trisomy 18 and is phenotypically similar to Patau’s. Most affected are females and most die before birth. The incidence, as with most trisomies, increases with advanced maternal age. The rate of survival is low due to cardiac abnormalities, renal malformations and other visceral disorders. Signs and symptoms include those mentioned and a whole host of other signs of this phenotype such as a small head, small jaw, widely spaced eyes and ptosis. The cardiac defects seen include VSD, ASD and PDA (all the lovely 3 letter acronyms). Classic EMQ signs include webbing of the second and third toes and the Rocker bottom feet characterised by calcaneal prominence and a convex rounded bottom to the foot, which is associated with both trisomy 13 and 18.

644
Q

A male child is found to have moderate learning difficulties and behavioural problems. There is a family history of learning difficulties. On examination he has large testicles, epicanthic folds and large ears. DNA testing reveals trinucleotide repeat expansion (CGG).

A. Edwards syndrome
B. Tuberous sclerosis
C. Fragile X syndrome
D. Klinefelter's syndrome
E. Turner's syndrome 
F. Down's syndrome
G. DiGeorge syndrome 
H. Patau's syndrome 
I. William’s syndrome
J. Prader-Willi syndrome
K. Angelman syndrome
A

C. Fragile X syndrome - This is fragile X syndrome. History includes learning difficulties, which can range from mild to severe, social communication difficulties (patients may be autistic), hyperactivity and attention deficit and motor co-ordination difficulties. There may be a FH of learning difficulties too. Examination may reveal macrocephaly, low muscle tone, long face, high arched palate, prominent jaw, big testicles (macro-orchidism), large ears and strabismus. DNA testing is diagnostic and reveals a fragile site on Xp27.3 (FRM1 gene position). This is characterised by trinucleotide repeat expansion (CGG) to more than 200 copies.

645
Q

A child with moderate learning difficulties, round face, small head, slanting eyes and a single palmar crease.

A. Edwards syndrome
B. Tuberous sclerosis
C. Fragile X syndrome
D. Klinefelter's syndrome
E. Turner's syndrome 
F. Down's syndrome
G. DiGeorge syndrome 
H. Patau's syndrome 
I. William’s syndrome
J. Prader-Willi syndrome
K. Angelman syndrome
A

F. Downs syndrome - This is the one you need to be really aware of. Down’s syndrome is trisomy 21 and the diagnosis is one which is made antenatally or perinatally. You will never have a patient with Down’s who gets diagnosed as a child unless you are in a country which is very deprived of any medical personnel and your patient was born in a rural farm away from civilisation. The patient may have a history of delayed development, congenital cardiac anomalies, epilepsy as a child, atlanto-occipital instability, GI or hearing problems and there may also be associated autism. Examination may display dysmorphism, oblique palpebral fissures, epicanthic folds, low nasal bridge and low set ears, characteristic central iris Brushfield spots, short curved 5th finger, single palmar crease and may also have cardiac murmurs. Karyotype analysis will reveal trisomy 21, robertsonian translocation, or mosaicism.

646
Q

Adult female with short stature, amenorrhoea, webbed neck and widely spaced nipples. She is found infertile although there is no cognitive impairment.

A. Edwards syndrome
B. Tuberous sclerosis
C. Fragile X syndrome
D. Klinefelter's syndrome
E. Turner's syndrome 
F. Down's syndrome
G. DiGeorge syndrome 
H. Patau's syndrome 
I. William’s syndrome
J. Prader-Willi syndrome
K. Angelman syndrome
A

E. Turners syndrome - Turner’s syndrome is characterised on diagnostic karyotype analysis by 45 XO (complete or partial absence of the second sex chromosome occuring in 1 in 2500 liver female births). This may be diagnosed antenatally by amniocentesis, which is an invasive test performed after 15 weeks gestation. The patient will be phenotypically female and may give a history of amenorrhoea, infertility, visual problems and hearing loss. Specific learning difficulties are normal but there is no cognitive impairment and intelligence is normal. Examination may reveal short stature, low-set ears, webbed neck, low hairline and cubitus valgus. Obvious stigmata though such as webbed neck only affects 20-30% of patients.
I wouldn’t worry too much about most of these syndromes. A brief overview of the rest for those who are interested: Prader-Willi is characterised by 15q11-13 deletion and patients can have a short stature, small hands and feet, and dysmorphism. The classic association is with hyperphagia and obesity from 3 years of age. Angelman’s is characterised by 15q11-12 deletion and there is severe general developmental delay and cognitive impairment. William’s is characterised by deletion of 7q11.23 and has classic phenotypic features. DiGeorge classically presents with a triad of cardiac abnormalities, hypoplastic thymus and hypocalcaemia but manifestations are highly variable. Tuberous sclerosis is characterised by seizures in infants and children, variable cognitive impairment and examination may reveal ash leaf patches of hypomelanotic macules. There is either mutation of TS1 or TS2 on DNA analysis.

647
Q

A 31 year old woman is brought into A&E by her boyfriend who claimed she may have had too many ‘sleeping pills’ after he tried to break up with her. Prior to this she had drank two bottles of wine and consumed three chocolate cakes. She is ataxic with slurred speech with a GCS of 10. Her medical file shows she is taking medication for panic attacks.

A. Salicylates
B. Benzodiazepines
C. Insulin
D. Volatile solvents
E. Tricyclic antidepressants
F. Anthrax
G. Opiate analgesics
H. Carbon monoxide
I. Ecstasy
J. Methanol
K. Alcohol intoxication
L. Ethylene glycol
M. Sympathomimetics
A

B. Benzodiazepines - This woman here who is clearly distraught after her breakup has overdosed on benzodiazepines. The clue here is given when it says she is taking medication for panic attacks at the moment. BZDs are the most commonly prescribedmedication for anxiety disorders, sedation and sleep. Patients may present like this and may be intentional or accidental in nature, and may be in combination with other CNS depressants such as alcohol and opioids in older people. Occasionally overdose is due to medication error. The key feature of overdose is excessive sedation and anterograde amnesia. Vital signs are unremarkable. Larger doses can lead to coma and respiratory depression. Treatment is symptomatic and may include assisted ventilation and haemodynamic support and death is uncommon and often due to mixed overdoses with other depressants such as alcohol. Flumazenil is a BZD antagonist that can be used in first time or infrequent users to reverse CNS depression but it is contraindicated in those who are long-term of frequent users (like this patient) due to the risk of provoking seizures, which outweights the benefits.

648
Q

A 29 year old man presents to A&E with agitation, tremor, dilated pupils, tachycardia, arrhythmias, convulsions after ingesting an overdose of an unknown substance.

A. Salicylates
B. Benzodiazepines
C. Insulin
D. Volatile solvents
E. Tricyclic antidepressants
F. Anthrax
G. Opiate analgesics
H. Carbon monoxide
I. Ecstasy
J. Methanol
K. Alcohol intoxication
L. Ethylene glycol
M. Sympathomimetics
A

M. Sympathomimetics - The symptoms described here are those of sympathetic activation and the overdose here is of sympathomimetics. This group of drugs mimic the effects of transmitter substances of the sympathetic nervous system such as adrenaline, dopamine and noradrenaline.

649
Q

A 23 year old man who has taken an overdose of an unknown drug after getting dumped by his pregnant girlfriend (he is not the father) was admitted to A&E. He is slightly tachycardic, complains of tinnitus and has high blood pressure at first but 30 minutes later, starts seizing and is intubated. There is a wide anion-gap metabolic acidosis.

A. Salicylates
B. Benzodiazepines
C. Insulin
D. Volatile solvents
E. Tricyclic antidepressants
F. Anthrax
G. Opiate analgesics
H. Carbon monoxide
I. Ecstasy
J. Methanol
K. Alcohol intoxication
L. Ethylene glycol
M. Sympathomimetics
A

A. Salicyclates - This is salicylate overdose which is potentially fatal and can present either acutely or indolently with more chronic exposure. It is a relatively common overdose so really with anyone presenting with an unknown overdose it should be considered along with paracetamol. The unexplained acid-base disturbance should make you suspicious of this diagnosis. Tinnitis is common in the early stages of acute salicylate poisoning and reflects CNS toxicity. There may also be deafness and both are reversible. Seizures are common especially in patients with salicylate levels >80mg/dL. An ABG is also indicated in this patient which during the course of salicylate poisoning would initiually show a respiratory alkalosis and later a concomitant metabolic acidosis, potentially with a wide anion gap. GIT decontamination should be considered as an adjunct on arrival to A&E and activated charcoal can be given. The mainstay of treatment is alkaline diuresis induced by an infusion of sodium bicarbonate. In cases of severe poisoning, it is still started as a bridge to haemodialysis.

650
Q

Inebriation, coma, reduced reflexes, tachycardia, pulmonary oedema, shock, metabolic acidosis.

A. Salicylates
B. Benzodiazepines
C. Insulin
D. Volatile solvents
E. Tricyclic antidepressants
F. Anthrax
G. Opiate analgesics
H. Carbon monoxide
I. Ecstasy
J. Methanol
K. Alcohol intoxication
L. Ethylene glycol
M. Sympathomimetics
A

H. Carbon monoxide - This man who works in a petrol refinery is suffering from carbon monoxide poisoning and his co-worker who has found him lying on the ground is starting to suffer from similar symptoms due also to CO exposure. CO is a colourless and odourless gas so patients may not initially be aware of the poisoning which can cause hypoxia, cell damage and death (in approximately 1/3). CO can come from fire or non-fire sources and early symptoms are non-specific and include the symptoms seen here: headache, dizziness and nausea. Increasing exposure leads to cardiovascular effects like myocardial ischaemia, infarction and possible arrest. Neurological symptoms include the confusion seen here and may lead eventually to coma and syncope. Diagnosis is based on carboxyhaemoglobin levels and the clinical picture here is very suggestive. It is worth noting that in severe CO poisoning, pulse oximetry readings may be falsely raised. Key in treatment is the use of high-flow oxygen, hyperbaric oxygen and supportive care. Hyperbaric treatment entails complications such as barotrauma, oxygen toxicity and pulmonary oedema.

651
Q

A pregnant 17 year old woman who has been recently abandoned by her boyfriend is brought into hospital with altered mental status by her mother, who reported that she had a brief seizure beforehand. She is tachycardic with low BP and appears flushed. She responds to pain only and her skin feels warm and dry. Pupils are poorly reactive to light and dilated.

A. Salicylates
B. Benzodiazepines
C. Insulin
D. Volatile solvents
E. Tricyclic antidepressants
F. Anthrax
G. Opiate analgesics
H. Carbon monoxide
I. Ecstasy
J. Methanol
K. Alcohol intoxication
L. Ethylene glycol
M. Sympathomimetics
A

E. Tricyclic antidepressants - This is an overdose of tricyclic antidepressants which are a class of drugs with a narrow therapeutic index and therefore become potent toxins in moderate doses to both the CNS and cardiovascular system. This patient has reason to be depressed and is therefore on these pills. There is a sudden deterioration of mental status here and the diagnosis here is clinical. The main aim in treatment is to provide respiratory and cardiovascular support until the medicine has been fully metabolised and eliminated. The warm, dry and flushed skin is part of the anticholinergic effects (physostigmine should NOT be used to reverse this as it has been in rare cases been associated with asystole – would you rather have a patient who is flushed or flatlined?). Other anticholinergic effects include dilated pupils, urinary retention, decreased or absent bowel sounds and changes in mental status. Hypotension is common and is due to alpha 1 antagonism. Classic ECG changes are of sinus tachycardia progressing to wide complex tachycardia and ventricular arrhythmias (with increasing severity and intoxication). Condution problems and hypotension is improved with hypertonic sodium bicarbonate and if arrhythmias are present, treatment of these involves correcting the acidosis, hypoxia and electrolyte abnormalities. Anti-arrhythmics are generally avoided. If hypotension is refractory then a vasopressor can be used. BZDs can be used for any seizures.

652
Q

A 66 year old woman admitted with diarrhoea and weight loss. O/E she has a fine tremor and has rapid atrial fibrillation. FBC, ESR and CRP are normal.

A. Bacterial gastroenteritis
B. Crohn's disease
C. Cancer of the rectum
D. Diverticular disease
E. Thyrotoxicosis
F. Drug induced
G. Cancer of the colon
H. Irritable bowel syndrome
I. Amoebic dysentery
J. Ulcerative colitis
K. Malabsorption
L. Clostridium difficile
A

E. Thyrotoxicosis - This woman has symptoms and signs of hyperthyroidism (diarrhoea, weight loss, AF and a fine tremor). In countries where sufficient iodine intake is not an issue, Graves’ disease is the most common cause of hyperthyroidism. Peripheral manifestations such as ophthalmopathy, pretibial myxoedema and hyperthyroid acropachy do not occur with other causes of hyperthyroidism. Acropachy manifests as clubbing with soft tissue swelling. Pretibial myxoedema is almost always associated with ophthalmopathy. Treatment aims to normalise thyroid function and is achieved by radioactive iodine, antithyroid medications or with surgery. They are all effective and relatively safe options. Symptomatic therapy is given with beta blockers such as propranolol.

653
Q

A 30 year old city banker comes to the GP with symptoms of abdominal bloating, intermittent constipation and diarrhoea with occasional nausea. This started about 6 months ago but she has not lost any weight or found any blood in her stools.

A. Bacterial gastroenteritis
B. Crohn's disease
C. Cancer of the rectum
D. Diverticular disease
E. Thyrotoxicosis
F. Drug induced
G. Cancer of the colon
H. Irritable bowel syndrome
I. Amoebic dysentery
J. Ulcerative colitis
K. Malabsorption
L. Clostridium difficile
A

H. Irritable bowel syndrome - The intermittent diarrhoea and constipation, with bloating, without symptoms suggestive of IBD make IBS a more likely diagnosis. IBS is a chronic condition with abdominal pain associated with bowel dysfunction and is a diagnosis of exclusion. The pain or discomfort may be relieved by defecation. Examination is usually unremarkable and the diagnosis is based on the patient’s history in line with the Rome Criteria. If the patient presents with any worrying symptoms, then these will warrant a more thorough investigation. Treatment depends on the patient’s predominant symptoms. Antispasmodics relieve abdominal pain or discomfort but do not affect bowel habit. Examples include peppermint oil and dicycloverine. Laxatives can also be used such as lactulose. Lifestyle and dietary modifications combined with reassurance remain the 1st line intervention for functional bowel disease. IBS is linked with stressful jobs such as working as a banker in the city and there is a female/male ratio of 2:1.

654
Q

An 18 year old student attends A&E at 2am with acute onset of vomiting, diarrhoea and abdominal cramps. There is some blood in the stool and he has a high fever. He hasn’t been abroad recently. His FBC had a normal Hb but raised neutrophils.

A. Bacterial gastroenteritis
B. Crohn's disease
C. Cancer of the rectum
D. Diverticular disease
E. Thyrotoxicosis
F. Drug induced
G. Cancer of the colon
H. Irritable bowel syndrome
I. Amoebic dysentery
J. Ulcerative colitis
K. Malabsorption
L. Clostridium difficile
A

A. Bacterial gastroenteritis - This acute presentation in a previous fit and healthy individual and the raised neutrophils on FBCand a fever indicate an infective cause for his GI symptoms. It is self-limiting and diagnosis is on isolating the organism from a stool culture (if needed). Blood in the stool allows you to narrow down the list of potential causative organisms. Treatment is supportive with fluid and electrolyte replacement and antibiotics are generally used only for patients with risk factors for severe disease or those with extra-GI complications. It is worth noting that viral gastroenteritis often presents with mainly UGI symptoms like N&V more so than diarrhoea.

655
Q

A 76 year old woman admitted with a chest infection develops non-bloody diarrhoea on the ward. She was on cefuroxime and erythromycin for her chest. She appears unwell and there is a fever. CRP is elevated.

A. Bacterial gastroenteritis
B. Crohn's disease
C. Cancer of the rectum
D. Diverticular disease
E. Thyrotoxicosis
F. Drug induced
G. Cancer of the colon
H. Irritable bowel syndrome
I. Amoebic dysentery
J. Ulcerative colitis
K. Malabsorption
L. Clostridium difficile
A

L. Clostridium difficile - This is infection with clostridium difficile with the major risk factor here of antibiotic exposure due to the recent chest infection. The most common ones implicated are ampicillin, second and third generation cephalosporins, clindamycin and fluoroquinolones, especially if used in the preceding 3 months (though most manifestations occur on days 4 through to 9 of antibiotic therapy). Diarrhoea may range from a few loose stools to severe diarrhoea, though absence could be related to toxic megacolon to paralytic ileus. Abdominal pain is also common as is fever. C. difficile produces 2 exotoxins which are responsible for its pathogenicity. These are called toxin A and toxin B (A is thought to be more important than B) which lead to an inflammatory response in the large bowel, increased vascular permeability and the formation of pseudomembranes. Colonic pseudomembranes look like raised yellow and white plaques against an inflamed mucosa and are composed of neutrophils, fibrin, mucin and cellular debris. The diagnostic standard is with cytotoxic tissue culture assay. Treatment involves discontinuing the implicated antibiotic and beginning oral metronidazole or vancomycin. 5-20% will have a recurrence on discontinuing treatment and will need a second course.

656
Q

A 30 year old female presents with a 3 month history of bloody diarrhoea and vague lower abdominal cramps. She gave up smoking a few months ago. The doctor feels that this could have contributed to her condition.

A. Bacterial gastroenteritis
B. Crohn's disease
C. Cancer of the rectum
D. Diverticular disease
E. Thyrotoxicosis
F. Drug induced
G. Cancer of the colon
H. Irritable bowel syndrome
I. Amoebic dysentery
J. Ulcerative colitis
K. Malabsorption
L. Clostridium difficile
A

J. Ulcerative colitis - While this could be Crohn’s disease, bloody diarrhoea is more commonly a presentation of UC than Crohn’s. UC is characterised by diffuse mucosal inflammation running a relapsing and remitting course. Bloody diarrhoea is commonly experienced by patients who may also complain of other symptoms such as (lower) abdominal pain, faecal urgency and the host of extra-intestinal manifestations associated with UC. These include erythema nodosum, pyoderma gangrenosum, sacroiliitis, ankylosing spondylitis, PSC, aphthous ulcers, episcleritis, peripheral arthropathy and anterior uveitis. Another clue in this question which makes you pick UC instead of Crohn’s is the fact the patient has given up smoking. While I remain convinced this link as a risk factor is a weak one, you should try to think like an EMQ when answering EMQs (generally the information is there for a reason). There is a weak risk of UC development in non-smokers and those who were a former smoker (though it is an established link). This is based on a review paper published by some German medics in an exciting journal named ‘Inflammatory Bowel Diseases’. Should be you interested you can check it out: Inflammatory Bowel Diseases. 10(6):848-859, November 2004 (just read the abstract if you want)
Diagnosis of UC requires endoscopy with biopsy and a negative stool culture to rule out infectious gastroenteritis. Flare ups are usually linked to pathogens so a stool culture will always be needed in these cases. Toxic megacolon is a complication which is associated with a risk of perforation. UC is also linked with bowel adenocarinoma and PSC. Treatment involves mesalazine (5-ASA) used to induce and maintain remission.

657
Q

An 18 year old girl has felt unwell with myalgia and general malaise for a week develops sharp chest pains which are worse when she lies flat. The pain is constant and unrelated to exertion. There have also been fevers.

A. Tuberculosis
B.  Mitral stenosis
C. Atrial septal defect
D. Conduction system disease
E. Hypertensive cardiomyopathy
F. Pericardial effusion
G. Aortic valve disease
H. Mitral regurgitation
I. Dilated cardiomyopathy
J. Infective endocarditits
K. Pulmonary fibrosis
L. Pericarditis
A

L. Pericarditis - This patient has presented with pericarditis – most likely viral following a viral infection (as suggested by the prodrome and fever). Symptoms include a sharp and severe chest pain retrosternally which is worse on inspiration and when supine, relieved by sitting forwards. The classical finding on examination is a friction rub which is said to sound like ‘walking on snow’ – a monophasic, biphasic or triphasic friction rib is pathognomic with close to 100% specificity. There may be diffuse ST elevations on ECG, an effusion on echocardiography and blood results suggesting inflammation. Complications include tamponade and constrictive pericarditis. Prior viral infection is a risk factor with the most common pericardial infection being viral. Bacterial purulent pericarditis also occurs. The inflammation is due either to direct viral attack or immune mediated damage. Other risk factors include male gender, post-MI (both ‘early’ and Dressler’s), post-pericardiotomy syndrome, neoplasm from local tumour invasion, uraemia and autoimmune conditions such as RA and SLE.

658
Q

During the month following his acute MI, a 56 year old man has become progressively more breathless. O/E he has a loud pan-systolic murmur

A. Tuberculosis
B.  Mitral stenosis
C. Atrial septal defect
D. Conduction system disease
E. Hypertensive cardiomyopathy
F. Pericardial effusion
G. Aortic valve disease
H. Mitral regurgitation
I. Dilated cardiomyopathy
J. Infective endocarditits
K. Pulmonary fibrosis
L. Pericarditis
A

H. Mitral regurgitation - MR can occur as a complication of MI which may cause structural damage to the mitral valve apparatus. MR is loudest at the apex and radiates to the axilla and tends to be around grade 4. It is associated with a systolic thrill at the apex. TTE is the investigation of choice for diagnosis. Chronic MR is associated with a laterally displaced apex beat with LV dilatation. This case of acute MR in the setting of an acute MI is very serious can lead to high LA pressure and pulmonary oedema secondary to reduced LA compliance. Occasionally no murmur is heard. Note that while a VSD also gives a pansystolic murmur, which is generally easily heard, and is loudest at the left parasternal region, with no axillary radiation.

659
Q

A 24 year old Asian male chef is referred by his GP after a 2 month history of cough, fever, night sweats and weight loss. The GP has prescribed anti-biotics with no improvement. He is admitted with SOB and haemoptysis. His CXR shows a normal heart size.

A. Tuberculosis
B.  Mitral stenosis
C. Atrial septal defect
D. Conduction system disease
E. Hypertensive cardiomyopathy
F. Pericardial effusion
G. Aortic valve disease
H. Mitral regurgitation
I. Dilated cardiomyopathy
J. Infective endocarditits
K. Pulmonary fibrosis
L. Pericarditis
A

A. Tuberculosis - It is important to have a high level of suspicion when evaluating patients with risk factors who present with suggestive symptoms. Night sweats, fever, weight loss, malaise, cough, haemoptysis and erythema nodosum are all suggestive. In the first half of the 20th century, tuberculosis accounted for over 90% of cases of erythema nodosum. Other key risk factors for pulmonary TB include exposure to infection and returning from or being born in a high-risk region such as Asia, Africa and Latin America (highly possible in this case). If TB is suspected, the patient should be placed in isolation and a CXR obtained with 3 sputum samples cultured for AFB being the gold standard of diagnosis. Culture takes several weeks so sputum smears will be done before culture results are known. Interferon-gamma release assays (IGRAs) are now used by some hospitals to rapidly determine a patient’s TB status. All patients who have TB should be tested for HIV within 2 months of diagnosis. Specific anti-TB medication is required, not standard antibiotics for community-acquired pneumonia.
The CXR in pulmonary TB is almost always abnormal in patients who are not immunocompromised. Patients with, for instance, advanced HIV, may have a normal CXR. Primary disease common presents as middle and lower zone infiltrates and ipsilateral adenopathy, atelectasis from airway compression and pleural effusion can be seen. Post-primary classically involves apical changes, spreading to other lobes/segments as the disease progresses. The CXR may be normal in normal individuals but it is rare and it is likely only part of this patient’s CXR is reported here so as not to completely give the game away in this EMQ. Or whoever was interpreted it should not have been allowed to pass finals, which is also possible.

660
Q

A 42 year old alcoholic is admitted with SOB. He has no murmurs but the apex is laterally displaced and there are crackles at the lung bases with raised JVP. There is also hepatomegaly, clubbing and multiple spider naevi.

A. Tuberculosis
B.  Mitral stenosis
C. Atrial septal defect
D. Conduction system disease
E. Hypertensive cardiomyopathy
F. Pericardial effusion
G. Aortic valve disease
H. Mitral regurgitation
I. Dilated cardiomyopathy
J. Infective endocarditits
K. Pulmonary fibrosis
L. Pericarditis
A

I. Dilated cardiomyopathy - It is worth noting that ventricular hypertrophy due to hypertension causes concentric hypertrophy i.e. the wall of the ventricle gets thicker inwards. Hence the apex beat is not displaced unlike in DCM. DCM is characterised by LV dilation and systolic dysfunction without significant coronary artery disease or abnormal loading conditions. RV dilation is often also present. 25-35% are familial (there may be FH of sudden death). Causes are extensive and include post-myocarditis, alcohol, chemotherapy agents, haemochromatosis, AI conditions and acromegaly. This case is alcohol related DCM with a history of alcohol excess, signs of chronic liver disease on examination and signs of systolic dusfunction on examination (crackles at lung bases, JVP distension and there may also be peripheral oedema). ECG may show non-specific ST-T changes, CXR can show an enlarged cardiac shadow and echo also give consistent results (wall thickness, LV dilation). LFTs, serum albumin and clotting profile may all be abnormal here too, and GGT would especially be expected to be elevated due to alcohol abuse.

661
Q

A 55 year old man with known carcinoma of the lungs, develops SOB over a few days. He has a large cardiac silhouette on his CXR but no pulmonary oedema.

A. Tuberculosis
B.  Mitral stenosis
C. Atrial septal defect
D. Conduction system disease
E. Hypertensive cardiomyopathy
F. Pericardial effusion
G. Aortic valve disease
H. Mitral regurgitation
I. Dilated cardiomyopathy
J. Infective endocarditits
K. Pulmonary fibrosis
L. Pericarditis
A

F. Pericardial effusion - This is a malignant effusion (one of the most likely to lead to tamponade) caused by lung cancer. Other prevalent malignant causes include breats cancer, lymphomas and leukaemias. This may also be the first sign of metastatic disease. The history of lung cancer here should make you suspicious. Other causes of a pericardial effusion include hypothyroidism (high protein content and accumulate very slowly due to capillary leak), cardiac causes such as CHF and dissection of the proximal aorta, trauma, radiation-related, uraemia, immune-mediated such as SLE, Dressler’s, amyloidosis and Wegener’s, infectious or idiopathic (which is generally assumed to be viral). Symptoms may coexist with those of pericarditis sometimes. ECG and CXR are indicated here. Most patients also get an echocardiogram whic is the preferred test to establish the diagnosis. On ECG there may be diffuse ST elevation and PR depression with epicardial inflammation. If the effusion is large enough there may be electrical alternans, which is beat-to-beat variation of the ventricular axis (find an image of this to cement it in your memory). The cardiac shadow on CXR is said to be ‘water-bottle shaped’. Pericardiocentesis may be necessary depending on the clinical case.

662
Q

A 40 year old female who had been taking ibuprofen for pain relief when she gets headaches, presents to A&E with a history of weight loss and melaena with pain in her epigastric region. The pain gets worse with eating.

A. Duodenal ulcer
B. Crohn's disease
C. Meckel's diverticulum
D. Oesophageal varices
E. Gastric ulcer
F. Mallory-Weiss tear
G. Ulcerative colitis
H. Oesophageal malignancy
I. Oesophagitis
A

E. Gastric ulcer - The patient has a bleeding peptic ulcer (the black tarry stools from the UGI bleed). Epigastric pain and tenderness related to eating a meal is typical of a peptic ulcer. 80% are duodenal and 20% are gastric. Ulcers may cause iron deficiency anaemia and associated symptoms may feature. Key risk factors are NSAID use, like in this patient, H. pylori infection, smoking and a family history of PUD. Zollinger-Ellison syndrome should be considered if there are multiple ulcers or ulcers refractory to treatment.
Gastric ulcers classically cause pain which is exacerbated by eating and immediately relieved on vomiting. There is usually also weight loss due to a fear of food and its association with pain. Duodenal ulcers are classically made worse by hunger and are relieved by eating and the patient may wake at night with the pain. As a result, weight gain is typically a feature. In reality, it is difficult to differentiate the site of the ulcer based on these features.
The most specific and sensitive test is an upper GI endoscopy which is initially ordered if the patient has ‘red flag’ symptoms, is >55 years of age or fails to respond to treatment. Duodenal ulcers rarely undergo malignant transformation so do not require a compulsory biopsy but gastric ulcers require biopsies to rule this out. In patients who are 55 or younger without ‘red flags’, testing for Helicobacter pylori (breath testing with radiolabelled urea or stool antigen testing) is necessary. Management is aimed at correcting the underlying cause such as discontinuing NSAIDs. H. pylori eradication should be started if the organism is present with triple therapy. Otherwise, a PPI is indicated.

663
Q

A 25 year old Jewish man presents to A&E with some abdominal discomfort, weight loss with associated loss of appetite. His history revealed loose and bloody stools. Examination reveals tenderness in the RLQ. He is booked in for endoscopy.

A. Duodenal ulcer
B. Crohn's disease
C. Meckel's diverticulum
D. Oesophageal varices
E. Gastric ulcer
F. Mallory-Weiss tear
G. Ulcerative colitis
H. Oesophageal malignancy
I. Oesophagitis
A

B. Chrones disease - This patient gives a history of IBD. This could well be UC where the mainstay of treatment is with 5-ASA. A colonoscopy is required to assess the extent of disease and for a definitive diagnosis. Biopsy in CD will show transmural granulomatous inflammation. CD can affect the whole GIT but favours the TI (RLQ pain) and proximal colon and is macroscopically characterised by skip lesions. UC on the other hand is characterised by the presence of crypt abscesses, which is pathognomic. CD risk is increased 3-4 fold by smoking whereas smoking seems protective in UC. The mainstay of treatment in CD is with steroids and azathioprine to revent relapses and for those suffering side effects of steroid treatment. TNF-alpha inhibitors also have a role. Surgery in CD is only indicated in a small number of patients who bleed, for bowel perforation and cases of complete obstruction. The aim is to rest distal disease by temporarily diverting faecal flow.

664
Q

A 36 year old gentleman presents with a 36 hour history of diarrhoea and vomiting following a takeaway meal the night before. In the last few hours he has increasing amounts of bright red blood in his vomit.

A. Duodenal ulcer
B. Crohn's disease
C. Meckel's diverticulum
D. Oesophageal varices
E. Gastric ulcer
F. Mallory-Weiss tear
G. Ulcerative colitis
H. Oesophageal malignancy
I. Oesophagitis
A

F. Mallory-Weiss tear - This occurs after a rise in abdominal pressure which induces a tear in the oesophageal mucosa, causing subsequent GI bleeding. It commonly presents with haematemesis after an episode of retching/vomiting/coughing/straining. Hence, risk factors include anything which can cause vomiting like heavy alcohol use, which is commonly the case in EMQs. Also, other conditions would include food poisoning like in this case, bowel obstruction, hyperemesis gravidarum, bulimia, the chronic cough of COPD, meningitis etc… you name it really. Classically, MWT presents with a small self limiting episode of haematemesis. Definitive diagnosis is made by OGD. Treatment is supportive because most cases are self limiting and emergency treatment is not offered unless the patient is showing signs of clinical instability. If the patient is actively bleeding, treatment will be with therapeutic endoscopy in most cases, and very very few cases will require more intervention such as angiography with embolisation.

665
Q

An 80 year old man presents with a 6 month history of increasing weakness and 8kg weight loss. He also has some vague abdominal pain and a few episodes of black stools. He is a long term smoker.

A. Duodenal ulcer
B. Crohn's disease
C. Meckel's diverticulum
D. Oesophageal varices
E. Gastric ulcer
F. Mallory-Weiss tear
G. Ulcerative colitis
H. Oesophageal malignancy
I. Oesophagitis
A

H. Oesophageal malignancy - Such levels of extreme weight loss over a short period of time with GI symptoms here points to GI malignancy which is bleeding. The only option on the list is oesophageal. EMQs normally mention dysphagia, which occurs when there is obstruction of more than 2/3 of the lumen and presence indicates locally advanced disease however this is absent here. There may additionally be odynophagia. Men are twice as likely to develop oesophageal cancer. GORD, Barrett’s oesophagus, FH, tobacco and alcohol are all risk factors. The two main types are squamous cell carcinoma and adenocarcinoma. Tumours in the upper 2/3 of the oesophagus are SCC whereas those that lie in the lower 1/3 are adenocarcinomas. The main test to order is an OGD with biopsy. Treatment is either surgical resection or with chemo or radiotherapy alongside endoscopic ablation with or without stenting and brachytherapy.

666
Q

A 38 year old man presents with a 2 month history of intermitted pain in the upper abdomen which he describes as dull in nature. It sometimes wakes him up at night and is relieved by food and particularly when he has a glass of milk. He has had a similar episode before where he remembers the doctor prescribed him some pills, which helped. Examination reveals mild epigastric tenderness.

A. Duodenal ulcer
B. Crohn's disease
C. Meckel's diverticulum
D. Oesophageal varices
E. Gastric ulcer
F. Mallory-Weiss tear
G. Ulcerative colitis
H. Oesophageal malignancy
I. Oesophagitis
A

A. Duodenal ulcer - The patient has a duodenal ulcer (the black tarry stools from the UGI bleed). Epigastric pain and tenderness related to eating a meal is typical of a peptic ulcer. 80% are duodenal and 20% are gastric. Ulcers may cause iron deficiency anaemia and associated symptoms may feature. Key risk factors are NSAID use, like in this patient, H. pylori infection, smoking and a family history of PUD. Zollinger-Ellison syndrome should be considered if there are multiple ulcers or ulcers refractory to treatment.
Gastric ulcers classically cause pain which is exacerbated by eating and immediately relieved on vomiting. There is usually also weight loss due to a fear of food and its association with pain. Duodenal ulcers are classically made worse by hunger and are relieved by eating and the patient may wake at night with the pain. As a result, weight gain is typically a feature. In reality, it is difficult to differentiate the site of the ulcer based on these features.
The most specific and sensitive test is an upper GI endoscopy which is initially ordered if the patient has ‘red flag’ symptoms, is >55 years of age or fails to respond to treatment. Duodenal ulcers rarely undergo malignant transformation so do not require a compulsory biopsy but gastric ulcers require biopsies to rule this out. In patients who are 55 or younger without ‘red flags’, testing for Helicobacter pylori (breath testing with radiolabelled urea or stool antigen testing) is necessary. Management is aimed at correcting the underlying cause such as discontinuing NSAIDs. H. pylori eradication should be started if the organism is present with triple therapy. Otherwise, a PPI is indicated.

667
Q

A 21 year old male has a 3 day history of hoarseness. He has pain in his throat which is worse on talking and eating. O/E his throat appears normal.

A. Laryngeal nerve palsy
B. Hypothyroidism
C. Vocal cord nodules
D. Wegener's syndrome
E. Angioedema
F. Foreign body
G. Carcinoma of the larynx
H. Laryngitis
I. Sjogren's syndrome
J. Acromegaly
A

H. Laryngitis - Laryngitis, as the name would suggest, is inflammation of the larynx, which can lead to oedema of the true vocal folds. It has both infectious and noninfectious causes such as vocal strain. Symptoms of acute disease are most commonly hoarseness, generally over a period of less than a week, usually preceded by viral URTI and usually self limiting. The pain on swallowing and sore throat is common of URTIs. An exudate or cervical lymphadenitis would suggest bacterial infection instead. Treatment begins, as always, with ABC and airway assessment. Chronic laryngitis presents with hoarseness lasting more than 3 weeks and this needs investigating due to the fact that symptoms may be similar to cancer of larynx. Antibiotics are given in bacterial cases or otherwise voice rest and hydration is sufficient.

668
Q

A 25 year old man suddenly developed hoarseness, wheeze and stridor whilst eating peanuts in a bar. Looking in his mouth you notice a swollen tongue.

A. Laryngeal nerve palsy
B. Hypothyroidism
C. Vocal cord nodules
D. Wegener's syndrome
E. Angioedema
F. Foreign body
G. Carcinoma of the larynx
H. Laryngitis
I. Sjogren's syndrome
J. Acromegaly
A

E. Angioedema - Angio-oedema is swelling involving the deeper layers of the subdermis (occuring in association with urticaria in around 40% of cases). In this case it involves the face/neck and is dangerous – the risk being airway compromise and this requires rapid treatment with adrenaline. The food trigger here is obvious – this person has just consumed peanuts and this is allergic in nature, causing an IgE mediated reaction. Common triggers aside from nuts include eggs and shellfish although any food can be implicated. As mentioned, airway management and adrenaline is crucial here and you would also give antihistamines, IV corticosteroids and tell the patient to avoid the trigger.

669
Q

A 55 year old woman develops hoarseness 2 days after a partial thyroidectomy for thyrotoxicosis

A. Laryngeal nerve palsy
B. Hypothyroidism
C. Vocal cord nodules
D. Wegener's syndrome
E. Angioedema
F. Foreign body
G. Carcinoma of the larynx
H. Laryngitis
I. Sjogren's syndrome
J. Acromegaly
A

A. Laryngeal nerve palsy - This patient has just had neck surgery and the hoarseness here results from damage to the recurrent laryngeal nerve, which is a branch of the vagus nerve which supplies motor function and sensation to the larynx. This nerve runs posterior to the thyroid and results in hoarseness when damaged. Bilateral damage is even worse and the patient could have difficulty breathing and the complete inability to speak. The right recurrent laryngeal is more prone to damage as it is located relatively more medial than the left.

670
Q

A 58 year old male smoker has a 2 month history of progressive persistent hoarseness and pain in his left ear on swallowing. He has enlarged left cervical lymph nodes.

A. Laryngeal nerve palsy
B. Hypothyroidism
C. Vocal cord nodules
D. Wegener's syndrome
E. Angioedema
F. Foreign body
G. Carcinoma of the larynx
H. Laryngitis
I. Sjogren's syndrome
J. Acromegaly
A

G. Carcinoma of the larynx - Laryngeal cancer is frequently associated with two big risk factors: smoking and alcohol use. Major signs are persistent (>3 weeks) of hoarseness, dysphonia, sore throat, dysphagia, referred otalgia (seen here) and neck masses/adenopathy. These patients need to be evaluated by a specialist and as mentioned this can resemble chronic laryngitis in presentation. An MDT approach is taken to try and preserve the organ as much as possible, with salvage surgical resection offered in advanced disease.

671
Q

A 40 year old woman develops a progressively hoarse voice over 6 months. She has also gained 8kg in weight and complains of constipation.

A. Laryngeal nerve palsy
B. Hypothyroidism
C. Vocal cord nodules
D. Wegener's syndrome
E. Angioedema
F. Foreign body
G. Carcinoma of the larynx
H. Laryngitis
I. Sjogren's syndrome
J. Acromegaly
A

B. Hypothyroidism - This woman is in a hypothyroid state. The hoarseness may be a symptom of a goitre (enlarged thyroid). Worldwide, the most common cause is iodine deficiency. Other causes include Hashimoto’s or secondary and tertiary hypothyroidism. It can also result from viral de Quervain’s thyroiditis or postpartum thyroiditis. Symptoms include those mentioned as well as depression, bradycardia, sluggish reflexes, cold intolerance and muscle cramps. Diagnosis is based on measurement of TSH and thyroid hormones. Treatment is by replacement of T4 with or without T3 in combination. If the patient has normal T3 and T4 but mildly elevated TSH, this is described as subclinical hypothyroidism.

672
Q

A 50 year old woman has developed weight loss and passes loose pale stools. She has mouth ulcers and is anaemic. She is taking thyroxine for myxoedema.

A. Abdominal X-ray
B. Sweat test
C. Thyroid function
D. ERCP
E. Immunoglobulin
F. Skin biopsy
G. Hydrogen breath test
H. Colonoscopy
I. Faecal elastase-1
J. Liver function tests
K. HIV test
L. Endomysial antibodies
M. Abdominal ultrasound
A

L. Endomysial antibodies - This is a common condition in the US and Europe. Coeliac disease most commonly presents with IDA, although it can also lead to a macrocytic anaemia with mainly folate deficiency (though B12 is also affected but hepatic stores last several years). The mouth ulcers are a sign of this. There are also GI symptoms resulting from malabsorption. It is an autoimmune condition (the presence of another autoimmune condition here is a risk factor) triggered by gluten peptides found in wheat, rye and barley. The ultimate best test is duodenal biopsy and histology to show intra-epithelial lymphocytes, villous atrophy and crypt hyperplasia. Macroscopic changes may be present but endoscopy is generally unhelpful. The test of choice before performing such an invasive confirmatory test is to look for elevated anti-gliadin antibodies. Anti-tissue transglutaminase is less accurate and endomysial antibody is more expensive and has lower sensitivity, though is the only option on this list specific for coeliac.
It is worth knowing about the Schilling test as it is frequently examined. However, it is no longer routinely done in clinical practice. In this test, IM vitamin B12 is given to saturate stores. Then oral radiolabelled B12 is given and urine is collected over 24 hours. The amount excreted is lower in B12 malabsorption. If this is not corrected by IF the problem is with the ileum and not inadequate IF.

673
Q

A 35 year old man presents with weight loss, diarrhoea and pain on swallowing. O/E he has oral candidiasis & molluscum contagiosum.

A. Abdominal X-ray
B. Sweat test
C. Thyroid function
D. ERCP
E. Immunoglobulin
F. Skin biopsy
G. Hydrogen breath test
H. Colonoscopy
I. Faecal elastase-1
J. Liver function tests
K. HIV test
L. Endomysial antibodies
M. Abdominal ultrasound
A

K. HIV test - Molluscum contagiosum is an umbilicated, pearl like, smooth papules and at least a third of patients will also develop symptoms of local erythema, swelling or pruritis. HIV is a strong risk factor for MC. It is transmitted skin-to-skin or fomite in children and sexually transmitted in adulthood. Oral candidiasis is also an opportunistic infection associated with the immunocompromised state of HIV. Weight loss is also seen in HIV and may result from malnutrition, TB or HIV wasting syndrome. Diarrhoea is also common. An HIV test is needed in this patient and contact tracing will be necessary.

674
Q

A 10 year old girl with a history of recurrent chest infections has developed pale floating stools and weight loss.

A. Abdominal X-ray
B. Sweat test
C. Thyroid function
D. ERCP
E. Immunoglobulin
F. Skin biopsy
G. Hydrogen breath test
H. Colonoscopy
I. Faecal elastase-1
J. Liver function tests
K. HIV test
L. Endomysial antibodies
M. Abdominal ultrasound
A

B. Sweat test - CF is autosomal recessive and the mean age of death is around 40. There is currently no cure for this condition. The reccurent chest infections and greasy stools (fat malabsorption due to pancreatic insufficiency) should make you think of CF. A persistent cough which is productive would also raise suspicions. Additionally, you may find nasal polyps and hepatomegaly and/or splenomegaly and a congenital absence of the vas deferens in males. There may also be failure to thrive in infants. The most conclusive diagnostic test is the sweat test which is positive if sweat chloride is >60mmol/L. Serum IRT from a heel prict blood spot allows screening of newborns. CF is a genetic condition with abnormal salt and water transport due to mutations in the CFTR (an apical anion channel). Heterozygotes generally do not demonstrate disease.

675
Q

A 45 year old man has recurrent epigastric pain, weight loss and steatorrhoea. He has a previous history of alcoholism.

A. Abdominal X-ray
B. Sweat test
C. Thyroid function
D. ERCP
E. Immunoglobulin
F. Skin biopsy
G. Hydrogen breath test
H. Colonoscopy
I. Faecal elastase-1
J. Liver function tests
K. HIV test
L. Endomysial antibodies
M. Abdominal ultrasound
A

D. ERCP - This is chronic pancreatitis which is most commonly associated with chronic alcohol abuse. Features include the epigastric pain here, which classically radiates to the back, and steatorrhoea from malabsorption (pale, foul-smelling and difficult to flush stools). There may additionally be DM due to pancreatic failure and the patient may be malnourished. The diagnosis is based on findings and imaging – your options are USS which is less sensitive, or CT, which is more sensitive but involves radiation exposure. AXR is not a sensitive enough test. However, this question is looking for the best test which is ERCP, commonly considered the most accurate test with high sensitivity and specificity. It is limited in use though due to cost and the risk to the patient. Characteristically ERCP would show beading of the main pancreatic duct as well as irregularities in the side branches. Faecal elastase-1 is inaccurate for diagnosing mild to moderate pancreatic insufficiency, and anyway has unacceptably low sensitivity.
There is no real definitive treatment, which is mainly symptomatic and the underlying and precipitating factors are treated – in this case, this man’s alcohol excess. Complications of chronic pancreatic imflammation include the development of pseudocysts, calficiation, DM and malabsorption.

676
Q

A 20 year old man has a 4 month history of diarrhoea & weight loss. He is pale, has mouth ulcers and clubbing.

A. Abdominal X-ray
B. Sweat test
C. Thyroid function
D. ERCP
E. Immunoglobulin
F. Skin biopsy
G. Hydrogen breath test
H. Colonoscopy
I. Faecal elastase-1
J. Liver function tests
K. HIV test
L. Endomysial antibodies
M. Abdominal ultrasound
A

H. Colonoscopy - This is a history of inflammatory bowel disease. A colonoscopy is required to assess the extent of disease and for a definitive diagnosis. Biopsy in CD will show transmural granulomatous inflammation. CD can affect the whole GIT but favours the TI (RLQ pain) and proximal colon and is macroscopically characterised by skip lesions. UC on the other hand is characterised by the presence of crypt abscesses, which is pathognomic.

677
Q

A 50 year old housewife presents with pruritis and jaundice with pale stools, dark urine and steatorrhea, pigmentation and xanthelasma. Examination reveals splenomegaly. Anti-mitochondrial antibodies are present.

A. Dubin-Johnson syndrome
B. Gilbert's syndrome
C. Carcinoma of the pancreas
D. Gall stones
E. Primary sclerosing cholangitis
F. Hepatitis
G. Haemolytic anaemia
H. Primary biliary cirrhosis
A

H. Primary biliary cirrhosis - Primary biliary cirrhosis (PBC) is a chronic condition where the intrahepatic small bile ducts are progressively damaged (and eventually lost) occuring on a background of portal tract inflammation. Fibrosis develops, ultimately leading to cirrhosis (which is defined as fibrosis with nodular regeneration). It is widely believed to be autoimmune in aetiology as almost all patients have AMA (present here). The pointers in this question which would raise your suspicion, is xanthelasma around the eyes, pruritis in the absence of an obvious dermatological cause, fatigue and the features of liver disease typical of cirrhosis (obstructive jaundice) and splenomegaly as a feature of portal hypertension.

678
Q

A 25 year old man presents to you with an incidental finding of a raised bilirubin (31 umol). No other signs of liver disease are present. Further investigations show a raised unconjugated bilirubin. When asked he tells you that other family members have suffered from jaundice.

A. Dubin-Johnson syndrome
B. Gilbert's syndrome
C. Carcinoma of the pancreas
D. Gall stones
E. Primary sclerosing cholangitis
F. Hepatitis
G. Haemolytic anaemia
H. Primary biliary cirrhosis
A

B. Gilbert’s syndrome - Gilbert’s occurs in an asymptomatic patient, often as an incidental finding or mild jaundice occuring in adolescence/young adult age. There is elevated unconjugated BR with other liver tests being normal. The blood smear is also normal with normal reticulocyte count, and normal Hb indicating that this is not due to haemolysis. It is a common syndrome and is not really a disease, more a physiological variant. No treatment is needed and this condition is due to decreased UDPGT activity leading to decreased conjugation of unconjugated bilirubin, leading to elevated levels. Positive FH is common as this condition is most likely transmitted in an autosomal recessive pattern.

679
Q

A 65 year old ex-smoker is deeply jaundiced. He has epigastric pain radiating to his back. A dilated gall bladder is palpable and there is hepatomegaly. He has lost about 5kg in weight.

A. Dubin-Johnson syndrome
B. Gilbert's syndrome
C. Carcinoma of the pancreas
D. Gall stones
E. Primary sclerosing cholangitis
F. Hepatitis
G. Haemolytic anaemia
H. Primary biliary cirrhosis
A

C. Cancer of the pancreas - Pancreatic cancer (of the head) typically presents with painless obstructive jaundice and weight loss and generally presents late. There is however epigastric pain in this case, which is a possible presentation. Whipple’s procedure or Traverso-Longmire procedure (pancreaticoduodenectomy) offers the only hope of a cure but only a small minority are elegible for these procedures. The first tests to order are an abdominal USS and LFTs. Note Courvoisier’s law: Jaundice and a palpable painless gallbladder is unlikely to be caused by gallstones. The tumour marker for pancreatic cancer is CA19-9 which is useful in preoperative staging.

680
Q

A 22 year old man comes to see you on his return from a holiday in Spain. He has a 3-4 day history of fever, malaise, nausea, vomiting and abdominal discomfort. He is noticeably jaundiced with dark urine and pale stools. There is also tender hepatomegaly on examination. He wonders if this is related to his meal of shellfish from a street vendor.

A. Dubin-Johnson syndrome
B. Gilbert's syndrome
C. Carcinoma of the pancreas
D. Gall stones
E. Primary sclerosing cholangitis
F. Hepatitis
G. Haemolytic anaemia
H. Primary biliary cirrhosis
A

F. Hepatitis - This is likely hepatitis A which is primarily transmitted via the faecal-oral route. After the virus is consumed and absorbed, it replicates in the liver and is excreted in the bile (to be re-transmitted). Transmission usually precedes symptoms by about 2 weeks and patients are non-infectious 1 week after onset of jaundice. The history can reveal risk factors such as living in an endemic area, contact with an infected person, homosexual sex or a known food-borne outbreak. This is classically, in EMQs, associated with shellfish which is harvested from sewage contaminated water. If the patient has other liver diseases such as HBV or HCV or cirrhosis then there is a higher risk of fulminant HAV infection. The clinical course of HAV consists of a pre-icteric phase, lasting 5-7 days, consisting characteristically of N&V, abdominal pain, fever, malaise and headache. Rarer symptoms may be present such as arthralgias and even severe thrombocytopenia and signs that may be found include splenomegaly, RUQ tenderness and tender hepatomegaly as well as bradycardia. The icteric phase is characterised by dark urine, pale stools, jaundice and pruritis. When jaundice comes on, the pre-icteric phase symptoms usually diminish, and jaundice typically peaks at 2 weeks. However, a fulminant course runs in

681
Q

A 6 year old presents with mild jaundice and some pain and swelling of his fingers. O/E you note splenomegaly.

A. Dubin-Johnson syndrome
B. Gilbert's syndrome
C. Carcinoma of the pancreas
D. Gall stones
E. Primary sclerosing cholangitis
F. Hepatitis
G. Haemolytic anaemia
H. Primary biliary cirrhosis
A

G. Haemolytic anaemia - Africans have higher incidence of sickle cell anaemia. This is a presentation of bone pain here with dactylitis, consistent with hand-foot syndrome which can be what young infants and children present with (it is often a child’s first presentation of disease). The jaundice here is due to haemolysis and so while this is sickle cell anaemia, the options are trying to get you to think a bit about the best fit here which would be haemolytic anaemia. About 8% of black people carry the gene and the prevalence is high in sub-Saharan Africa. The condition is autosomal recessive and therefore occurs in 1 in 4 pregnancies where both parents carry the sickle gene. Sickling occurs when RBCs containing HbS become distorted into a crescent shape. Patients with sickle cell anaemia have no HbA at all. If both parents carry the sickle cell gene, there is a 1 in 4 chance of giving birth to a child with sickle cell anaemia. Sickle cell disease also includes other conditions such as HbS from one parent with another abnormal Hb or beta thalassaemia from the other parent such as HbS-Beta thal and HbSC. Treatment goals here include fluid replacement therapy, pain management and symptomatic control.

682
Q

A 25 year old female with recent onset of depression takes 50 paracetamol capsules, each containing 500mg of active drug. In several days her liver is most likely to show what?

A. Hepatitis B
B. Extensive necrosis
C. Hypervascularity
D. Extensive cirrhosis
E. Cholecystitis
F. Pancreatic carcinoma
G. Pancreatic pseudocyst
H. Hepatitis C
I. Enlarged right lobe
J. Portal chronic inflammation
K. Arterio-venous malformations
L. Hepatocellular carcinoma
A

B. Extensive necrosis - Paracetamol OD can occur after a single large OD or repeated ODs. Often, the patient is asymptomatic at initial presentation but if untreated may cause liver injury over the 2-4 days after ingestion, including fulminant liver failure. Massive hepatic necrosis will occur and will be the cause of fulminant liver failure. Paracetamol is the most frequent intentional OD drug in this country. The risk of liver damage is increased after taking drugs which induce CYP 450. Inducers include St John’s wort, barbiturates, phenytoin, tetracycline, chronic alcohol use and carbamazepine. A serum paracetamol level is important to order as early as possible, but at the earliest 4 hours post-ingestion.Treatment if indicated is with N-acetylcysteine with the level based on a paracetamol treatment graph.

683
Q

A 40 year old male has a long history of alcoholism. His liver is firm on palpation. You finally convince him to stop drinking and join Alcoholics Anonymous. Despite abstinence he remains at risk for developing which disease?

A. Hepatitis B
B. Extensive necrosis
C. Hypervascularity
D. Extensive cirrhosis
E. Cholecystitis
F. Pancreatic carcinoma
G. Pancreatic pseudocyst
H. Hepatitis C
I. Enlarged right lobe
J. Portal chronic inflammation
K. Arterio-venous malformations
L. Hepatocellular carcinoma
A

L. Hepatocellular carcinoma - Patients with cirrhosis, especially those with alcoholic liver disease, are at a high risk of developing HCC. Cirrhosis is irreversible so despite stopping drinking, he is still at risk of HCC (hepatoma). Patients with cirrhosis should be screened for HCC with serum AFP and USS at 6 month intervals.

684
Q

A 40-year-old female, rather overweight, has episodes of right upper quadrant pain and fever.

A. Hepatitis B
B. Extensive necrosis
C. Hypervascularity
D. Extensive cirrhosis
E. Cholecystitis
F. Pancreatic carcinoma
G. Pancreatic pseudocyst
H. Hepatitis C
I. Enlarged right lobe
J. Portal chronic inflammation
K. Arterio-venous malformations
L. Hepatocellular carcinoma
A

E. Cholecystitis - Cholecystitis is acute GB inflammation caused by an obstruction at the cystic duct. It occurs as a major complication of gallstones and classically presents with RUQ pain and fever. Gallstones in EMQs classically involves the Fs (Fat, Forty, Female, Fertile, Fair). USS is the definitive initial investigation. HIDA scanning and MRI may help if the diagnosis remains unclear. Treatment is with cholecystectomy.

685
Q

A 60 year old alcoholic is hospitalised after an episode of haematemesis. He is about to undergo endoscopy. What would his liver biopsy likely low evidence of?

A. Hepatitis B
B. Extensive necrosis
C. Hypervascularity
D. Extensive cirrhosis
E. Cholecystitis
F. Pancreatic carcinoma
G. Pancreatic pseudocyst
H. Hepatitis C
I. Enlarged right lobe
J. Portal chronic inflammation
K. Arterio-venous malformations
L. Hepatocellular carcinoma
A

B. Extensive necrosis - This is a case of haematemesis secondary to oesophageal varices. Oesophageal varices are a direct result of portal hypertension, which occurs as a progressive complication of cirrhosis, which is what liver biopsy will show. Diagnosis and surveillance by endoscopy is an important part of management of this condition and in terms of prophylaxis against variceal bleeding before it has occured, non-selective beta blockers and/or endoscopic ligation can be used.

686
Q

On liver biopsy a moderate chronic inflammation is observed. Special stains identify antigens from a double stranded DNA virus within the cytoplasm of hepatocytes.

A. Hepatitis B
B. Extensive necrosis
C. Hypervascularity
D. Extensive cirrhosis
E. Cholecystitis
F. Pancreatic carcinoma
G. Pancreatic pseudocyst
H. Hepatitis C
I. Enlarged right lobe
J. Portal chronic inflammation
K. Arterio-venous malformations
L. Hepatocellular carcinoma
A

A. Hepatitis B - Hepatitis B is a DNA virus which is transmitted percutaneously and permucosally. It is also a STI. HCV is an RNA virus and RNA-PCR will be positive. A brief bit about hepatitis B markers: HBsAb appears several weeks after HBsAg disappears and in most patients suggests a resolved infection and life-long immunity (it is also detectable and titres are measured in those immunised with the HBV vaccine). HBsAg on the other hand appears 2-10 weeks after exposure to HBV and usually, in self-limiting acute cases, becomes undetectable after 4-6 months of infection. Persistence for >6 months implies chronic infection. Core antibody (IgM) appears within weeks of acute infection and remains detectable for 4-8 months and can be the only way to diagnose acute infection during the period when surface antigen disappears but before surface antibody has appeared. Chronic infection is indicated by IgG core antibody. The best single test to screen household contacts of infected individuals to determine the need to vaccinate is still HBcAb. E antigen is a soluble viral protein in serum which is part of the early acute infection and disappears soon after peak ALT levels. Presence >3 months indicates chronic infection is likely. E antigen being present in those with surface antigen indicates greater infectivity and a high level of viral activity and replication.

687
Q

A 50 year old man took an overdose of his antidepressants one hour ago. He has a dry mouth and dilated pupils but is not drowsy.

A. Haemodialysis
B. Oral methionine
C. Hyperbaric oxygen
D. Activated charcoal
E. IV-naloxone
F. Forced alkaline diuresis
G. Gastric lavage
H. Forced emesis
I. IV-ethanol
J. IV-glucagon
K. N-acetlycysteine
A
D. Activated charcoal - This is an overdose of tricyclic antidepressants which are a class of drugs with a narrow therapeutic index and therefore become potent toxins in moderate doses to both the CNS and cardiovascular system. The main aim in treatment is to provide respiratory and cardiovascular support until the medicine has been fully metabolised and eliminated. GI decontamination should be considered in those presenting with early overdose (under 2 hours after ingestion) provided that the airway can be protected. There is no shown clear benefit to repeated doses of activated charcoal.
The warm, dry skin is part of the anticholinergic effects (physostigmine should NOT be used to reverse this as it has been in rare cases been associated with asystole – would you rather have a patient who is flushed or flatlined?). Other anticholinergic effects include dilated pupils, urinary retention, decreased or absent bowel sounds and changes in mental status. Hypotension is common and is due to alpha 1 antagonism. Classic ECG changes are of sinus tachycardia progressing to wide complex tachycardia and ventricular arrhythmias (with increasing severity and intoxication). Condution problems and hypotension is improved with hypertonic sodium bicarbonate and if arrhythmias are present, treatment of these involves correcting the acidosis, hypoxia and electrolyte abnormalities. Anti-arrhythmics are generally avoided. If hypotension is refractory then a vasopressor can be used. BZDs can be used for any seizures.
688
Q

A 30 year old woman with toothache has taken 50 paracetamol 500mg tablets in the last 24 hours. She feels nauseated and still has toothache but is otherwise well.

A. Haemodialysis
B. Oral methionine
C. Hyperbaric oxygen
D. Activated charcoal
E. IV-naloxone
F. Forced alkaline diuresis
G. Gastric lavage
H. Forced emesis
I. IV-ethanol
J. IV-glucagon
K. N-acetlycysteine
A

K. N-acetylcysteine - Paracetamol OD can occur after a single large OD or repeated ODs. Often, the patient is asymptomatic at initial presentation but if untreated may cause liver injury over the 2-4 days after ingestion, including fulminant liver failure. Paracetamol is the most frequent intentional OD drug in this country. The risk of liver damage is increased after taking drugs which induce CYP 450. Inducers include St John’s wort, barbiturates, phenytoin, tetracycline, chronic alcohol use and carbamazepine. A serum paracetamol level is important to order as early as possible, but at the earliest 4 hours post-ingestion.Treatment if indicated is with N-acetylcysteine with the level based on a paracetamol treatment graph.

689
Q

A 20 year old heroin addict arrives in casualty, unconscious and cyanosed. His resp rate is 6/min and he has pin-point pupils.

A. Haemodialysis
B. Oral methionine
C. Hyperbaric oxygen
D. Activated charcoal
E. IV-naloxone
F. Forced alkaline diuresis
G. Gastric lavage
H. Forced emesis
I. IV-ethanol
J. IV-glucagon
K. N-acetlycysteine
A

E. IV nalaxone - Signs of opiate OD include CNS depression, miosis (pinpoint pupils) and apnoea. Naloxone is indicated both therapeutically and diagnostically. If there is a response, then it is diagnostic. Another diagnosis should be sought if the patient is unresponsive. IV is the preferred route of administration although naloxone can be given IM or SC if IV access cannot be established. Ventilatory support is key with 100% oxygen.

690
Q

A 40 year old woman with a history of hypertension was brought in to casualty two hours ago having taken a whole bottle of her medication in an attempt to commit suicide. She suddenly collapses with a pulse of 30bpm and a BP of 70/30.

A. Haemodialysis
B. Oral methionine
C. Hyperbaric oxygen
D. Activated charcoal
E. IV-naloxone
F. Forced alkaline diuresis
G. Gastric lavage
H. Forced emesis
I. IV-ethanol
J. IV-glucagon
K. N-acetlycysteine
A

J. IV glucagon - Glucagon stimulates adenyl cyclase which acts to increase intracellular cAMP and to therefore increase cytosolic calcium and cardiac contractility. Hypotension and bradyarrhythmias are the most common initial findings of beta blocker toxicity. If IV glucogon is not available then high-dose insulin can be used instead with co-administration of dextrose to maintain blood glucose levels.

691
Q

A 45 year old homeless man complains of headache, abdominal pain, nausea and dizziness. He admits to having drunk anti-freeze on the previous night. He is hyperventilating and slightly drowsy.

A. Haemodialysis
B. Oral methionine
C. Hyperbaric oxygen
D. Activated charcoal
E. IV-naloxone
F. Forced alkaline diuresis
G. Gastric lavage
H. Forced emesis
I. IV-ethanol
J. IV-glucagon
K. N-acetlycysteine
A

I. IV ethanol - Antifreeze is ethylene glycol. It is a sweet-tasting, odourless and colourless liquid and the substance itself is non-toxic and initially causes inebriation. Toxicity appears within 12-24 hours and is due to metabolic acidosis and the formation of calcium oxalate from one of the metabolites. Oxalate deposits in the lungs, myocardium and kidneys leading to organ damage and renal failure, and hypocalcaemia may also occur due to the consumption of circulating calcium. Ethylene glycol is not absorbed by activated charcoal and gastric decontamination is pointless regardless of time since consumption. The first line treatment is fomepizole (4-methylpyrazole) which is a competitive inhibitor of alcohol dehydrogenase, an enzyme involved in catalysing the initial steps in metabolism of ethylene glycol and methanol into toxic metabolites. However, this is not on the list, and oral ethanol (loading dose or infusion) can be used in this case (have a think about why ethanol would work as an antidote, if you think back to how ethanol is metabolised). Dialysis may well be required.
Other specific antidotes to be aware of (check out TOXBASE if interested):
• Calcium channel blocker OD can be treated with calcium chloride. Glucagon can be tried if calcium replacement alone is insufficient.
• Sodium channel blocker toxicity can be treated with sodium bicarbonate depending on the QRS length.
• Salicylate or phenobarbital OD can be treated with urine alkalinisation with IV sodium bicarbonate. Phenobarbital responds well to multidose charcoal.
• Cholinesterase toxicity can be treated with IV atropine if there is symptomatic bradycardia. Severe cases can benefit also from IV pralidoxime.
• Cyanide toxicity can be treated with hydroxocobalamin.
• Warfarin toxicity can be treated with FFP/PCC and vitamin K.
• Digoxin toxicity is treated with digoxin-specific antibody fragments (digoxin immune Fab).
• Sulphonylurea OD can be treated with glucose infusions in combination with IV octreotide if hypoglycaemia is problematic.
• Heavy metal toxicity can be treated with the appropriate chelating agent.

692
Q

A 23 year old woman presents with a 24 hour history of right iliac fossa pain. There is tenderness & guarding in the right iliac fossa. There are no menstrual symptoms. Abdominal & pelvic ultrasound is normal.

A. Ultrasound scan
B. AXR
C. CT scan
D. Diagnostic laparotomy
E. Oral antibiotics
F. Endoscopy
G. Laxatives
H. Palliative care
I.  CXR
J. ECG
K. Acute pancreatitis
L. PR exam
A

D. Diagnostic laprotomy - An abdominal and pelvic CT scan would normally be ordered in situations like this, with possible appendicitis, but it is assumed here that the doctors were thinking of pregnancy as a possibility so a sonogram was done instead, which turns out to be inconclusive. Now, in this situation, you could do an abdominal MRI (especially in early pregnancy) or go ahead with a CT scan anyway, but a diagnostic laparotomy is the best option here to diagnose and treat at the same time. The main differential here is either obstetric, such as a ruptured ectopic pregnancy, or acute appendicitis. You would have imagined they would have done the usual important tests like FBC and a urinary pregnancy test… but these results are not available, nor are they an option, but a prudent doctor would have ordered them in the diagnostic work up. However, given USS does not show a mass in the fallopian tubes, this may push you away from an ectopic pregnancy… however, USS is operator dependent, this is a female of childbearing age (this age is getting lower and lower in the UK) and the doctor has failed to obtain either serum or urine HCG levels or asked about any missed menstrual periods.
This patient, should be made NBM with maintenance IV fluids like lactated Ringer’s, and have a laparotomy which can be both diagnostic and therapeutic. You can take the appendix out if this is the problem or deal with the ectopic, if that is the problem, or deal with whatever it could be.. say for instance, a rare Meckel’s diverticulitis.

693
Q

A 30 year old man presents with severe left loin pain, colicky in nature. It radiates towards the left groin.

A. Ultrasound scan
B. AXR
C. CT scan
D. Diagnostic laparotomy
E. Oral antibiotics
F. Endoscopy
G. Laxatives
H. Palliative care
I.  CXR
J. ECG
K. Acute pancreatitis
L. PR exam
A

C. CT scan - This patient has renal colic which classically presents with severe flank pain radiating to the groin. Infection may complicate renal calculi. Microscopic haematuria is present in up to 90% of cases. Up to 85% of stones are visible on a plain KUB although urate stones are radiolucent. If the stone is radio-opaque, calcification will be seen within the urinary tract. In pregnancy though, a renal USS is first line. The IVP has now been replaced by the CT scan which is the new diagnostic standard. A non-contrast helical (or spiral) CT is preferred due to high sensitivity and specificity and acurately determines presence, site and size of stones. Stones are analysed after they are extracted or when they are expelled to check their composition.
In reality the first test to order is urinalysis – it is quick and simple. You’d also always exclude ectopic pregnancy with a urine pregnancy test if this were a female of childbearing age, look for hypercalcaemia and hyperuricaemia and perform a FBC to look for infection.

694
Q

A 77 year old woman presents with a 3 day history of constant left iliac fossa pain. She has a temp of 38oC and O/E is tender with guarding in the left iliac fossa. CT scan demonstrates an inflamed sigmoid colon with numerous diverticulae.

A. Ultrasound scan
B. AXR
C. CT scan
D. Diagnostic laparotomy
E. Oral antibiotics
F. Endoscopy
G. Laxatives
H. Palliative care
I.  CXR
J. ECG
K. Acute pancreatitis
L. PR exam
A

E. Oral antibiotics - This patient obviously has diverticulitis and does not need further investigation. Symptomatic diverticulitis presents with fever, high WCC and LLQ pain. Risk factors for diverticular disease include low dietary fibre and advanced age. Oral antibiotic therapy and analgesia is indicated. If there is no improvement in 72 hours after oral antibiotics then IV antibiotics are indicated. Make sure you understand the differences in the terms: diverticulosis, diverticulitis and diverticular disease.

695
Q

A 48 year old woman presents with a 1 day history of constant right upper quadrant pain radiating round the right side of her chest. She says her urine may be darker than usual. Her GP started her on oral antibiotics. Amylase has already been ordered.

A. Ultrasound scan
B. AXR
C. CT scan
D. Diagnostic laparotomy
E. Oral antibiotics
F. Endoscopy
G. Laxatives
H. Palliative care
I.  CXR
J. ECG
K. Acute pancreatitis
L. PR exam
A

A. Ultrasound scan - Abdominal ultrasound is ordered when a patient presents with biliary pain and is the single best test for cholelithiasis (though has a low sensitivity for choledocholithiasis). Note that cholelithiasis refers to stones in the gallbladder and choledocholithiasis refers to stones in the bile duct. If stones are found then this would give weight to a diagnosis of acute cholecystitis. There are symptoms here of obstructive jaundice due to gallstone obstruction of bile outflow. Serum amylase would also be ordered in any patient presenting with pain located in the epigastric region, to rule out acute pancreatitis. This has been done here. In this patient you would also order LFTs, FBC looking for evidence of inflammation. MRCP, ERCP and EUS can be considered if necessary.

696
Q

A 30 year old male is brought into A&E having been found unrousable by his partner on the floor. He is breathing very occasionally and has small pupils. He has track marks in his antecubital fossa.

A. CPR
B. IV diazepam
C. Urgent CT scan
D. Phenytoin infusion
E. IV lorazepam
F. IM adrenaline
G. IV carbamazepine
H. IV adrenaline
I.  IV midazolam
J. Elevate legs
K.  IV dextrose
L.  IV propofol
M. IM benzylpenicillin
N. IV naloxone
A

N. IV naloxone - Signs of opiate OD include CNS depression, miosis (pinpoint pupils) and apnoea. Naloxone is indicated both therapeutically and diagnostically. If there is a response, then it is diagnostic. Another diagnosis should be sought if the patient is unresponsive. IV is the preferred route of administration although naloxone can be given IM or SC if IV access cannot be established. Ventilatory support is key with 100% oxygen.

697
Q

A 50 year old male collapses in hospital while you are taking a history from the patient next to him. After 10 seconds, he is rapidly jerking his head with tonic stiffening arms quickly followed by clonic jerking. He becomes incontinent of urine and unresponsive.

A. CPR
B. IV diazepam
C. Urgent CT scan
D. Phenytoin infusion
E. IV lorazepam
F. IM adrenaline
G. IV carbamazepine
H. IV adrenaline
I.  IV midazolam
J. Elevate legs
K.  IV dextrose
L.  IV propofol
M. IM benzylpenicillin
N. IV naloxone
A

E. IV lorazepam - This is a tonic-clonic, generalised seizure. It is characterised by LOC and widespread motor tonic contractions followed by clonic jerking movements. There will characteristically be a suppressed level of arousal following the event. This may either reflect a primary generalised episode or a focal seizure with secondary generalisation. The main aim of acute treatment is to terminate the seizure and to protect the airway. Management always starts with basic life-support (like every acute emergency) and your ABCs. IV access needs to be established (bloods sent to the lab too and serum glucose measured to test for reversable causes of seizure activity – thiamine should also be given to the patient if there is any concern about deficiency and hypoglycaemia, for instance in alcohol abuse). The following are needed: ECG, pulse oximetry, ABG. IV lorazepam is the preferred initial therapy, though rectal diazepam can be used if there is no IV access. If BZDs fail to stop the seizure then phenytoin or fosphenytoin can be tried.
After the episode, MRI and EEG are essential in diagnosing an epilepsy syndrome. During the episode of generalised tonic-clonic activity, the EEG will show bilateral synchrony in the epileptiform activity. If this is a one-off seizure in which a provoking factor, such as electrolyte disturbance or hypoglycaemia, has been identified then there is no need for therapy for epilepsy. In unprovoked cases, this depends on history, examination, EEG and MRI. Treatment may not be needed the first time but after a second unprovoked instance, therapy is generally recommended.

698
Q

An 18 year old man attends his GP to have a routine blood test. He has no significant past medical history. While having the blood test he becomes pale, clammy and says he feels sick. He subsequently becomes unresponsive.

A. CPR
B. IV diazepam
C. Urgent CT scan
D. Phenytoin infusion
E. IV lorazepam
F. IM adrenaline
G. IV carbamazepine
H. IV adrenaline
I.  IV midazolam
J. Elevate legs
K.  IV dextrose
L.  IV propofol
M. IM benzylpenicillin
N. IV naloxone
A

J. Elevate legs - This is a case of vasovagal syncope. Elevation of the legs will help move blood towards the head. The other options on the list are not necessary.

699
Q

A 13-year-old boy collapses at the playground. He has recurrent seizures for over 30 minutes. It seems he has not regained consciousness in between the seizures.

A. CPR
B. IV diazepam
C. Urgent CT scan
D. Phenytoin infusion
E. IV lorazepam
F. IM adrenaline
G. IV carbamazepine
H. IV adrenaline
I.  IV midazolam
J. Elevate legs
K.  IV dextrose
L.  IV propofol
M. IM benzylpenicillin
N. IV naloxone
A

E. IV lorazepam - This patient is in status epilepticus defined by 30 minutes or more of continuous seizure activity, or repetitive seizures with no intervening recovery of consciousness. SE can be either generalised convulsive or non-convulsive (simple or complex partial). In children, seizures of a shorter duration may also be considered to be status epilepticus. The initial treatment is as 2) and should start with BLS measures, continuous monitoring and benzodiazepines as first line therapy – with IV lorazepam. Securing the patient’s airwar may prove difficult due to the convulsions and neuromuscular blockade with a short-acting drug such as vecuronium may be necessary.
Unresponsive cases can get anticonvulsants or phenobarbitone. It is worth noting that phenytoin infusions may lead to venous irritation and tissue damage if the undiluted drug is given through a small bore cannula. If SE persists, the next step to take is to intubate and start general anaesthesia. The best initial agents to use are midazolam and propofol though other options include pentobarbital and thiopental, the former being an active metabolite of the latter. GA should be tapered off after a minimum of 12 hours, and if the seziure recurs then the infusion should be restarted for another 12-24 hours.

700
Q

A 22-year-old student collapses in her room. She is febrile and you notice a rash over her body.

A. CPR
B. IV diazepam
C. Urgent CT scan
D. Phenytoin infusion
E. IV lorazepam
F. IM adrenaline
G. IV carbamazepine
H. IV adrenaline
I.  IV midazolam
J. Elevate legs
K.  IV dextrose
L.  IV propofol
M. IM benzylpenicillin
N. IV naloxone
A

M. IM benzylpenicillin - This is suspected bacterial meningitis and in the community setting the patient should receive immediate IM benzylpenicillin before being transferred to hospital as an emergency case.

701
Q

Chose choose the most likely mode of inheritance.

Duchenne’s muscular dystrophy

A. None/unknown
B. Autosomal recessive
C. Autosomal dominant
D.  X-linked dominant
E. Chromosomal abnormality
F. X-linked recessive
G. Mitochondrial inheritance
A

F. X-linked recessive

Here is a list of the important conditions you should be aware of:

Autosomal dominant: Achrondroplasia, APKD, dystrophia myotonica, familial hypercholesterolaemia, Huntington’s, Marfan’s, NF, tuberous sclerosis, osteogenesis imperfecta

Autosomal recessive: CF, hereditary haemochromatosis, sickle cell disease, Wilson’s, Friedreich’s ataxia, CAH

X-linked recessive: DMD, Fragile X syndrome, Haemophilia A and B, G6PDH deficiency, Alport’s

You should be aware that Down’s is trisomy 21, Edwards’ is trisomy 18 and Patau’s is trisomy 13.

702
Q

Chose choose the most likely mode of inheritance.

Cystic fibrosis

A. None/unknown
B. Autosomal recessive
C. Autosomal dominant
D.  X-linked dominant
E. Chromosomal abnormality
F. X-linked recessive
G. Mitochondrial inheritance
A

C. Autosomal recessive -

Here is a list of the important conditions you should be aware of:

Autosomal dominant: Achrondroplasia, APKD, dystrophia myotonica, familial hypercholesterolaemia, Huntington’s, Marfan’s, NF, tuberous sclerosis, osteogenesis imperfecta

Autosomal recessive: CF, hereditary haemochromatosis, sickle cell disease, Wilson’s, Friedreich’s ataxia, CAH

X-linked recessive: DMD, Fragile X syndrome, Haemophilia A and B, G6PDH deficiency, Alport’s

You should be aware that Down’s is trisomy 21, Edwards’ is trisomy 18 and Patau’s is trisomy 13.

703
Q

Chose choose the most likely mode of inheritance.

Achondroplasia

A. None/unknown
B. Autosomal recessive
C. Autosomal dominant
D.  X-linked dominant
E. Chromosomal abnormality
F. X-linked recessive
G. Mitochondrial inheritance
A

C. Autosomal dominant-

Autosomal dominant: Achrondroplasia, APKD, dystrophia myotonica, familial hypercholesterolaemia, Huntington’s, Marfan’s, NF, tuberous sclerosis, osteogenesis imperfecta

Autosomal recessive: CF, hereditary haemochromatosis, sickle cell disease, Wilson’s, Friedreich’s ataxia, CAH

X-linked recessive: DMD, Fragile X syndrome, Haemophilia A and B, G6PDH deficiency, Alport’s

You should be aware that Down’s is trisomy 21, Edwards’ is trisomy 18 and Patau’s is trisomy 13.

704
Q

Chose choose the most likely mode of inheritance.

Down’s syndrome

A. None/unknown
B. Autosomal recessive
C. Autosomal dominant
D.  X-linked dominant
E. Chromosomal abnormality
F. X-linked recessive
G. Mitochondrial inheritance
A

E. Chromosomal abnormality -

Here is a list of the important conditions you should be aware of:

Autosomal dominant: Achrondroplasia, APKD, dystrophia myotonica, familial hypercholesterolaemia, Huntington’s, Marfan’s, NF, tuberous sclerosis, osteogenesis imperfecta

Autosomal recessive: CF, hereditary haemochromatosis, sickle cell disease, Wilson’s, Friedreich’s ataxia, CAH

X-linked recessive: DMD, Fragile X syndrome, Haemophilia A and B, G6PDH deficiency, Alport’s

You should be aware that Down’s is trisomy 21, Edwards’ is trisomy 18 and Patau’s is trisomy 13.

705
Q

Chose choose the most likely mode of inheritance.

Multiple sclerosis

A. None/unknown
B. Autosomal recessive
C. Autosomal dominant
D.  X-linked dominant
E. Chromosomal abnormality
F. X-linked recessive
G. Mitochondrial inheritance
A

A. None/unknown -

Here is a list of the important conditions you should be aware of:

Autosomal dominant: Achrondroplasia, APKD, dystrophia myotonica, familial hypercholesterolaemia, Huntington’s, Marfan’s, NF, tuberous sclerosis, osteogenesis imperfecta

Autosomal recessive: CF, hereditary haemochromatosis, sickle cell disease, Wilson’s, Friedreich’s ataxia, CAH

X-linked recessive: DMD, Fragile X syndrome, Haemophilia A and B, G6PDH deficiency, Alport’s

You should be aware that Down’s is trisomy 21, Edwards’ is trisomy 18 and Patau’s is trisomy 13.

706
Q

A 60 year old man on anti-cholinergic drugs presents with supra-pubic pain. He complains that he has not passed any urine in 3 days. O/E he has a distended bladder.

A. Endometriosis
B. Pyelonephritis
C. Labour
D. Bladder cancer
E. Urinary tract stones: ureteric colic/stricture
F. Urinary tract infection
G.  Polycystic kidney disease
H. Urinary tract stones: bladder outflow obstruction
I. Ovarian cyst
J. Colorectal cancer
K. Acute urinary retention
A

K. Acute urinary retention - This is acute urinary retention caused by anticholinergics. Unwanted effects of this class of drugs include urinary retention, constipation, erectile dysfunction, CNS disturbance, cycloplegia, dry mouth and decreased sweating. Poisoning in severe cases can be treated with anticholinesterases such as physostigmine. This man will need to be catheterised first to relieve the urinary retention and prevent any further complications from occuring.

707
Q

An overweight 30 year old lady presents to A&E with an intense, colicky abdominal pain and vomiting which started last night. She says she has noticed weight gain and pelvic pain for a few months. She has also had vaginal discharge. On examination there is gross swelling of the abdomen.

A. Endometriosis
B. Pyelonephritis
C. Labour
D. Bladder cancer
E. Urinary tract stones: ureteric colic/stricture
F. Urinary tract infection
G.  Polycystic kidney disease
H. Urinary tract stones: bladder outflow obstruction
I. Ovarian cyst
J. Colorectal cancer
K. Acute urinary retention
A

C. Labour - Abdominal pain throughout pregnancy is common although reproductive organs share the name visceral innvervations as the lower ileum, sigmoid colon and rectum so it may be difficult to differentiate GI pain from gynaecological pain. This acute abdomen would require some consideration as the clinical picture may be distorted by the fact that pregnancy stretches the anterior abdominal wall so peritoneal signs are often different due to a lack of contact with the underlying inflammation, if an inflammatory process were to be present. The case described here could well be labour and the already overweight woman has simply been unaware of the fact she is pregnant (which although uncommon, can occur). The gross abdominal distension (which she may not attribute to anything abnormal if she is already fat) and symptoms are pointing to labour and there may also be uterine contractions. Blood or mucus on vaginal examination may be seen and you would expect the cervix to be soft, effaced and possibly dilated. However, this could be another complication of pregnancy or even a non-gynaecological condition and these need to also be considered during the diagnostic work-up. An ultrasound scan, which is safe to use in pregnancy, should be done here.

708
Q

A 45 year old smoker presents with painful haematuria. He has a history of recurrent UTI’s. He tells you that he is now a taxi driver but he used to work in the rubber industry.

A. Endometriosis
B. Pyelonephritis
C. Labour
D. Bladder cancer
E. Urinary tract stones: ureteric colic/stricture
F. Urinary tract infection
G.  Polycystic kidney disease
H. Urinary tract stones: bladder outflow obstruction
I. Ovarian cyst
J. Colorectal cancer
K. Acute urinary retention
A

D. Bladder cancer - Gross haematuria is the primary symptom of bladder cancer. Over 80% present with haematuria which is the primary presenting complaint in this condition. The gross haematuria is classically painless and present throughout the entire urinary stream, however while painful the rest of the symptoms fit. It is also worth noting that carcinoma in situ commonly presents with dysuria and frequency and can easily be confused with prostatitis. Risk factors include smoking, exposure to carcinogens such as the aromatic amines used in rubber and dye industries, age >55, pelvic radiation and Schistosomiasis resulting in SCC (related to chronic inflammation – so other risks also include UTI, stones etc). Bladder cancer is the most common cancer in Egypt, for the latter reason. Cystoscopy and urinary cytology are key in diagnosis. Low grade tumours are papillary and easy to see on cystoscopy whereas high grade tumours and carcinoma in situ are often difficult to visualise. Resection provides diagnosis and primary treatment in one step.

709
Q

A 23 year old woman presents with increasing frequency of passing urine. She complains that it is painful and smelly. O/E she has suprapubic pain and tenderness. She has just recovered from a chest infection which was quickly treated.

A. Endometriosis
B. Pyelonephritis
C. Labour
D. Bladder cancer
E. Urinary tract stones: ureteric colic/stricture
F. Urinary tract infection
G.  Polycystic kidney disease
H. Urinary tract stones: bladder outflow obstruction
I. Ovarian cyst
J. Colorectal cancer
K. Acute urinary retention
A

F. Urinary tract infection - This young woman has presented with a UTI (dysuria, frequency, and foul smelling urine). Sexual activity the strongest risk factor for UTIs in women. It is diagnosed with a urine dipstick and microscopic analysis for bacteria, WBC and RBC and urine culture and antibiotic sensitivities. Antibiotic selection should be based on local guidelines or known sensitivities. Uncomplicated UTIs with no known antibiotic resistance can be treated with co-trimoxazole or nitrofurantoin. If there is resistance, a quinolone can be considered such as ciprofloxacin.

710
Q

A 50 year old lady presents to A&E in excruciating pain. It radiates from the flank to the iliac fossa and labium. She can not lie still and is pale, sweating and vomiting.

A. Endometriosis
B. Pyelonephritis
C. Labour
D. Bladder cancer
E. Urinary tract stones: ureteric colic/stricture
F. Urinary tract infection
G.  Polycystic kidney disease
H. Urinary tract stones: bladder outflow obstruction
I. Ovarian cyst
J. Colorectal cancer
K. Acute urinary retention
A

E. Urinary tract stones: ureteric colic/stricture - This patient has renal colic which classically presents with severe flank pain radiating to the groin. Microscopic haematuria is present in up to 90% of cases. Up to 85% of stones are visible on a plain KUB although urate stones are radiolucent. If the stone is radio-opaque, calcification will be seen within the urinary tract. In pregnancy, a renal USS is first line. The IVP has now been replaced by the CT scan which is the new diagnostic standard otherwise. A non-contrast helical (or spiral) CT is preferred due to high sensitivity and specificity and acurately determines presence, site and size of stones. Stones are analysed after they are extracted or when they are expelled to check their composition. It is worth noting that in all females of child bearing age, a urine pregnancy test is necessary to exclude an ectopic pregnancy.

711
Q

A 33 year old lady with no children has been suffering worsening pelvic pain particularly prior to menstruation and is now complaining of deep dysareunia.

A. Endometriosis
B. Retroverted uterus
C. Pelvic inflammatory disease
D. Ectopic pregnancy
E. Fibroids
F. Endometrial cancer
G. Adenomyosis
A

A. Endometriosis - Endometriosis is a chronic inflammatory condition defined by endometrial stroma and glands located outside of the uterine cavity – the most common sites being the pelvic peritoneum and ovaries. It may present as an incidental finding in asymptomatic patients but more commonly it presents in women of reproductive age with chronic pelvic pain and/or subfertility. This woman has symptoms which make this diagnosis likely. There is dyspareunia which is pain during sexual intercourse, particularly on deep penetration, and may be caused by a distortion in the pelvic anatomy and rectovaginal involvement. There is also well documented genetic predisposition so a positive FH may be found. Additionally, nulliparous women are more likely to be diagnosed with endometriosis than parous women. The diagnosis can be confirmed on visualising the ectopic tissue directly and focused biopsies during laparoscopy but this is not generally necessary as clinical suspicion is enough to start treatment. Options for treatment include NSAIDs, COCPs, GnRH agonists, danazol or related androgens and surgical destruction of lesions. Those who present with subfertility may be considered for ovarian hyperstimulation and IVF.

712
Q

A 55 year old lady on HRT, complains of non-specific pelvic pain and occasional spotting of blood prioir to her withdrawal bleed on HRT.

A. Endometriosis
B. Retroverted uterus
C. Pelvic inflammatory disease
D. Ectopic pregnancy
E. Fibroids
F. Endometrial cancer
G. Adenomyosis
A

F. Endometrial cancer - This is a common malignancy and is usually an adenocarcinoma. Obesity is associated with an increased incidence of endometrial cancer and also poorer outcome. Risk factors to consider aside from obesity include HRT, tamoxifen use, age over 50, unopposed oestrogen and radiotherapy. FH and a history of other cancers are also risks. A good history is important to establish that PV bleeding does not have another obvious cause such as intercourse or that associated with HRT, and that is is unlikely to be related to another malignancy like cervical cancer. Examination tends to be challenging due to the prevalence of obesity in those with endometrial cancer. The presentation is typically with post-menopausal bleeding PV and often the disease is surgically curable. Diagnosis will need to be confirmed by biopsy and histology with histopathology showing adenocarcinoma.

713
Q

A 35-year-old lady suffers of severe menorrhagia and pelvic pain. O/E she has tender, enlarged uterus. She underwent a total hysterectomy, pathology report confirmed diffuse fibromyomatous reaction with endometrial tissue within the myometrium.

A. Endometriosis
B. Retroverted uterus
C. Pelvic inflammatory disease
D. Ectopic pregnancy
E. Fibroids
F. Endometrial cancer
G. Adenomyosis
A

G. Adenomyosis - Adenomyosis, as you can probably figure out from the name, is the presence of ectopic glandular tissue in muscle. The first test to order is a pelvic USS which shows a normal or enlarged uterus. It is of minimal diagnostic value, especially if the clinical history and examination findings are suggestive, but can be used to rule out endometriosis, where the USS may show the presence of ovarian endometriomas. Examination may reveal an enlarged globular uterus and uterine tenderness on palpation, particularly during the menses. The history is usually of a parous woman, symptoms commonly occuring after childbirth, with heavy menstrual flow or an abnormal bleeding pattern being seen. Adenomyosis is a condition which can be diagnosed clinically, although if a costly MRI pelvis is done, then abnormal signal intensities within the myometrium can be seen.

714
Q

A 29-year-old lady presents to A&E with severe RIF pain and vaginal bleeding. She says she takes her OCP regulary so there is no chance of her being pregnant. B-HCG test is positive.

A. Endometriosis
B. Retroverted uterus
C. Pelvic inflammatory disease
D. Ectopic pregnancy
E. Fibroids
F. Endometrial cancer
G. Adenomyosis
A

D. Ectopic pregnancy - Ectopic pregnancy usually presents between 6-8 weeks after the last normal menstrual period but it can present later on. The risk increases if the woman has had a previous ectopic, surgery on the tubes, genital infections, smokes or uses an IUD. The classic symptoms and signs are pain, vaginal bleeding and amenorrhoea. If the patient is haemodynamically unstable or there is cervical motion tenderness, this may indicate that a rupture has occured or is imminent. Rupture, which is a complication, can present with shock from blood loss and with unusual patterns of referred pain from the presence of intraperitoneal blood. The positive urine pregnancy test here confirms pregnancy. Once the patient is confirmed to be pregnant, a transvaginal USS is used to determine the location of the pregnancy. If an intrauterine gestation is visible on USS regardless of whether it is viable, then the chances of having an ectopic pregnancy are incredibly low. Occasionally, an ectopic pregnancy itself can be seen, either as a ‘doughnut sign’ (adnexal mass separate from two clearly seen ovaries) or ‘ring of fire’ (increased blood flood to the ectopic seen on colour Doppler). A transabdominal ultrasound is less sensitive than a TVUS. Treatment approaches can include expactant, medical (methotrexate) or surgical (salpingectomy, salpingostomy).

715
Q

A 22-year-old woman with Hx of chlamydial urethritis complains of pelvic pain and painful periods. You order an endocervical smear which confirms the presence of Chlamydia trachomatis.

A. Endometriosis
B. Retroverted uterus
C. Pelvic inflammatory disease
D. Ectopic pregnancy
E. Fibroids
F. Endometrial cancer
G. Adenomyosis
A

C. Pelvic inflammatory disease - Pelvic inflammatory disease is an acute ascending infection of the female tract that is often associated with Neisseria gonorrhoeae or Chlamydia trachomatis. Key risk factors include prior infection with chlamydia or gonorrhoea or PID, young age of onset of sexual activity, unprotected sex with multiple partners and IUD use. Signs and symptoms vary and can include tenderness of the lower abdomen, adnexal tenderness and cervical motion tenderness. Fever and cervical or vaginal discharge may also be present. Complications include tubo-ovarian abscess and subsequent infertility or ectopic pregnancy due to scarred or obstructed fallopian tubes.

716
Q

A 60 year old woman presents with a poor appetite, weight loss, tiredness & right iliac fossa intermittent discomfort for the last 6 weeks.

A. Anal fissure
B. Caecal carcinoma
C. Meckel's diverticulitis
D. Haemorrhoids
E. Infective diarrhoea
F. Irritable bowel syndrome
G. Duodenal ulcer
H. Inflammatory bowel disease
I. Perianal fissure
J. Carcinoma of the rectum
A

B. Caecal carcinoma - The weight loss, fatigue and RIF discomfort point to caecal carcinoma. Right sided colorectal cancer tends to present with anaemic symptoms. Almost 90% are anaemic at diagnosis.

717
Q

A 30 year old man presents with painless fresh rectal bleeding which appears on the stool, on the paper and in the toilet bowl.

A. Anal fissure
B. Caecal carcinoma
C. Meckel's diverticulitis
D. Haemorrhoids
E. Infective diarrhoea
F. Irritable bowel syndrome
G. Duodenal ulcer
H. Inflammatory bowel disease
I. Perianal fissure
J. Carcinoma of the rectum
A

D. Haemorrhoids - Haemorrhoids are vascular rich cushions in the anal canal and presents, typically, as painless bright PR bleeding or with sudden onset pain in the area associated with a palpable mass. Pruritus ani is common and there is often perianal pain or discomfort. Diagnosis is made visually. Grade 1 is limited to within the anal canal. Grade 2 protrudes but spontaneously reduces when the patient stops straining. Grade 3 protrudes and reduces fully on manual pressure. Grade 4 is irreducible. Treatment includes fibre, ligation, photocoagulation, sclerotherapy or surgical haemorrhoidectomy. Haemorrhoidectomy is the treatment of choice of choice for patients with grade 4 haemorrhoids or for any patient who has failed with more conservative treatment such as sclerotherapy.

718
Q

A 47 year old man with a 5 year history of dyspepsia, collapse in the pub. He notices that his stools have become black over the last few days.

A. Anal fissure
B. Caecal carcinoma
C. Meckel's diverticulitis
D. Haemorrhoids
E. Infective diarrhoea
F. Irritable bowel syndrome
G. Duodenal ulcer
H. Inflammatory bowel disease
I. Perianal fissure
J. Carcinoma of the rectum
A

G. Duodenal ulcer - There is no reason why this cannot be a gastric ulcer but it is not an option on the list. The history of dyspepsia and black tarry stools over the past few days suggests a bleeding peptic ulcer. The dyspepsia is often centred in the upper abdomen and is related to eating. Contrary to popular lay health beliefs there is no good evidence of alcohol as an important risk factor. Key risk factors are NSAID use, H. pylori, smoking and FH of PUD. The most specific and sensitive test is an upper GI endoscopy which will also allow intervention to stop the bleeding ulcer from bleeding. Duodenal ulcers rarely undergo malignant transformation so do not require a compulsory biopsy but gastric ulcers require biopsies to rule this out. Management is aimed at correcting the underlying cause such as discontinuing NSAIDs. H. pylori eradication should be started if the organism is present with triple therapy. Otherwise, a PPI is indicated.

719
Q

A 59 year old man presents with 1 month history of constipation, tenesmus and fresh rectal bleeding. He also notes some weight loss recently.

A. Anal fissure
B. Caecal carcinoma
C. Meckel's diverticulitis
D. Haemorrhoids
E. Infective diarrhoea
F. Irritable bowel syndrome
G. Duodenal ulcer
H. Inflammatory bowel disease
I. Perianal fissure
J. Carcinoma of the rectum
A

J. Carcinoma of the rectum - This a rectal carcinoma. Tenesmus, blood PR alongside weight loss are all highly suggestive. Treatment of rectal carcinoma involves surgical excision where possible. This can either be an anterior resection (tumours in the upper 1/3 of the rectum) or an abdominoperineal resection (if the tumour lies lower down). APER involves the formation of a permanent colostomy and has a high incidence of sexual and urinary dysfunction. Anterior resection involves a colo-anal anastamosis.

720
Q

A 25 year old woman presents with a 4 month history of diarrhoea, altered blood and mucus per rectum.

A. Anal fissure
B. Caecal carcinoma
C. Meckel's diverticulitis
D. Haemorrhoids
E. Infective diarrhoea
F. Irritable bowel syndrome
G. Duodenal ulcer
H. Inflammatory bowel disease
I. Perianal fissure
J. Carcinoma of the rectum
A

H. Inflammatory bowel disease - This woman has inflammatory bowel disease, which by the history is probably more likely to be UC than CD, whereby the mainstay of treatment is with 5-ASA. A colonoscopy is required to assess the extent of disease and for a definitive diagnosis. Biopsy in CD will show transmural granulomatous inflammation. CD can affect the whole GIT but favours the TI and proximal colon and is macroscopically characterised by skip lesions. UC on the other hand is characterised by the presence of crypt abscesses, which is pathognomic. CD risk is increased 3-4 fold by smoking whereas smoking seems protective in UC. The mainstay of treatment in CD is with steroids and azathioprine to prevent relapses and for those suffering side effects of steroid treatment. TNF-alpha inhibitors also have a role. Surgery in CD is only indicated in a small number of patients who bleed, for bowel perforation and cases of complete obstruction. The aim is to rest distal disease by temporarily diverting faecal flow.

721
Q

A 50 year old man who feels tired all the time, has recently noticed pigmentation of his skin and has lost some weight.

A. Glandular fever
B. Hyperthyroidism
C. Anaemia
D. Psychological distress
E. SIADH
F. AIDS
G. Colorectal carcinoma
H. Diabetes mellitus
I. Hypothyroidism
J. Addison's disease
K. Chronic renal failure
A

J. Addison’s disease - Hyperpigmentation in the palmar creases points towards Addison’s disease. Hyperpigmentation due to excess ACTH production can be mucosal or cutaneous and is more pronounced in the palms, knuckles and around scars. MSH is a byproduct of the production of ACTH from the cleavage of POMC. Anorexia, fatigue and weight loss is observed in all patients. Sodium is low and potassium elevated. Vomiting is present in 75% of patients and nausea is a common finding. Additionally, postural hypotension may be present. The presence of other autoimmune diseases is a risk factor for the development of Addison’s. Diagnosis of Addison’s can be made on an ACTH stimulation test (synacthen test) whereby serum cortisol remains low despite the administration of synthetic ACTH. In an emergency, treatment should not be delayed by diagnostic testing.

722
Q

A 16 year old girl who feels tired all the time. She had a sore throat prior to this. She is concerned because she is unable to study for her exams. Her boyfriend has had similar symptoms.

A. Glandular fever
B. Hyperthyroidism
C. Anaemia
D. Psychological distress
E. SIADH
F. AIDS
G. Colorectal carcinoma
H. Diabetes mellitus
I. Hypothyroidism
J. Addison's disease
K. Chronic renal failure
A

A. Gladular fever - This is infectious mononucleosis or glandular fever and is caused by EBV. It is characterised by fever, pharyngitis and lymphadenopathy. Enlargement of the spleen begins in the first week and lasts 3-4 weeks, occuring in half of all cases. Risk factors for EBV transmission include kissing and sex. The fact her boyfriend has had similar symptoms should raise your suspicion. A FBC will show an atypical lymphocytosis. Confirmation of IM involves detection of the existence of heterophile antibodies using the Paul Bunnell monospot. A more accurate test is a serological test detecting EBV specific antibodies. Treatment is usually symptomatic but IM can carry rare but potentially life threatening complications.

723
Q

A 15 year old boy is tired all the time. He is also suffering from polyuria, nocturia and polydipsia.

A. Glandular fever
B. Hyperthyroidism
C. Anaemia
D. Psychological distress
E. SIADH
F. AIDS
G. Colorectal carcinoma
H. Diabetes mellitus
I. Hypothyroidism
J. Addison's disease
K. Chronic renal failure
A

H. Diabetes mellitus - Polyuria, polydipsia, nocturia in a boy who is tired all the time should make you think of T1DM. Insulin is needed alongside dietary changes and exercise. Insulin regimes aim to mimic physiological insulin release with a basal-bolus dosing. There is an option between using a pump and having multiple daily injections. It is worth noting that there is a high incidence of diabulimia among young people with T1DM who give themselves less insulin than they need in order to lose weight (they lose weight, ‘look good’ but trash their bodies).

724
Q

A 32 year old homosexual man is tired all the time. He also complains of weight loss and purple lesions on his skin.

A. Glandular fever
B. Hyperthyroidism
C. Anaemia
D. Psychological distress
E. SIADH
F. AIDS
G. Colorectal carcinoma
H. Diabetes mellitus
I. Hypothyroidism
J. Addison's disease
K. Chronic renal failure
A

F. AIDS - AIDS (acquired immunodeficiency syndrome) is caused by HIV, which is a retrovirus. To give you an indication of risk here, there is a risk of 50 infections per 10,000 exposed to an infected source in unprotected receptive anal intercourse. The risk with receptive vaginal intercourse is 10 infections per 10,000 exposures. Obviously, people have sex more often than the one off, as is human nature, so what seems like a small risk per sexual encounter adds up. IVDU needle sharing has a risk of 67 per 10,000, a needle-stick is 30 per 10,000 (equal to having receptive vaginal intercourse 3 times with an HIV positive man, so be careful on the wards, though this statistic does depend on factors like the size of the needle) and the risk associated with vertical transmission is associated with maternal viral load (the risk goes if you can suppress the viral load with anti-retrovirals). The thing to note is that the association with homosexuality is based on the increased risk of transmission from receptive anal compared to receptive vaginal, and if you happen to be a homosexual male and contract HIV, you’re unlikely to pass it on with vaginal intercourse. There should not be negative stigma attached to HIV.
There are two types, HIV 1 which is the main virus responsible and HIV 2 which is restricted to parts of West Africa. Weight loss is common in HIV and if more than 10% body weight is lost or BMI reduces to 18.5, this is an indication of more severe immunocompromise. Weight loss in HIV may result from malnutrition, co-existent TB infection or HIV wasting syndrome, the latter being an AIDS defining illness. The purple lesions seen here are due to Kaposi’s sarcoma, which is a neoplasm derived from mesenchymal tissue, associated with HHV-8 infection. This is an AIDS defining infection.
There are WHO (stage 1-4) and CDC criteria used in clinical staging of HIV. This patient needs to have a CD4 count, HBV and HCV screen, VDRL (syphilis), tuberculin skin test (TB) and CXR. HIV viral load will also be assessed. Prophylaxis and immunisations should be considered against infections such as hepatitis, influenza, PCP and TB. HAART needds to be initiated as he has developed AIDS. Classes of antiretrovirals include NRTIs, NNRTIs, protease inhibitors, fusion inhibitors and integrase inhibitors.

725
Q

A 22 year old lady complains of being tired all the time. She has also gained a large amount of weight, feels constipated and cold all the time. Her HR ~ 45 bpm.

A. Glandular fever
B. Hyperthyroidism
C. Anaemia
D. Psychological distress
E. SIADH
F. AIDS
G. Colorectal carcinoma
H. Diabetes mellitus
I. Hypothyroidism
J. Addison's disease
K. Chronic renal failure
A

I. Hypothyroidism - There is weight gain, cold intolerance, fatigue and constipation as well as bradycardia which all point to hypothyroidism. Worldwide, the most common cause is iodine deficiency. Other causes include Hashimoto’s or secondary and tertiary hypothyroidism. It can also result from viral de Quervain’s thyroiditis or postpartum thyroiditis. Symptoms include those mentioned as well as depression, bradycardia, sluggish reflexes, constipation, cold intolerance and muscle cramps. Diagnosis is based on measurement of TSH and thyroid hormones. Treatment is by replacement of T4 with or without T3 in combination. If the patient has normal T3 and T4 but mildly elevated TSH, this is described as subclinical hypothyroidism.

726
Q

A 10 year old African boy who has been in the UK since birth, presents with mild jaundice. O/E his spleen is slightly enlarged. Blood investigation show raised levels of unconjugated bilirubin. Other liver function tests are unremarkable.

A. Dubin-Johnson syndrome
B. Hepatitis C
C. Malaria
D. Gall stones
E. Gilbert's syndrome
F. Crigler-Najjar syndrome
G. Hepatitis B
H. Hepatitis A
I. Carcinoma of head of the pancreas
J. Primary sclerosing cholangitis
K. Primary biliary cirrhosis
L. Cholangiocarcinoma
M. Sickle cell anaemia
A

M. Sickle cell anaemia - Africans have higher incidence of sickle cell anaemia. The jaundice here is due to haemolysis and accounts for the raised unconjugated bilirubin. The splenomegaly here is further suggestive. About 8% of black people carry the gene and the prevalence is high in sub-Saharan Africa. The condition is autosomal recessive and therefore occurs in 1 in 4 pregnancies where both parents carry the sickle gene. Sickling occurs when RBCs containing HbS become distorted into a crescent shape. Patients with sickle cell anaemia have no HbA at all. If both parents carry the sickle cell gene, there is a 1 in 4 chance of giving birth to a child with sickle cell anaemia. Sickle cell disease also includes other conditions such as HbS from one parent with another abnormal Hb or beta thalassaemia from the other parent such as HbS-Beta thal and HbSC. Treatment goals include fluid replacement therapy, pain management where necessary and symptomatic control.

727
Q

A patient presents with a cold and mild jaundice. Blood tests show a raised unconjugated bilirubin, normal ALP and ALT. His brother has had episodes of jaundice too.

A. Dubin-Johnson syndrome
B. Hepatitis C
C. Malaria
D. Gall stones
E. Gilbert's syndrome
F. Crigler-Najjar syndrome
G. Hepatitis B
H. Hepatitis A
I. Carcinoma of head of the pancreas
J. Primary sclerosing cholangitis
K. Primary biliary cirrhosis
L. Cholangiocarcinoma
M. Sickle cell anaemia
A

E. Gilbert’s syndrome - Gilbert’s occurs in an asymptomatic patient, often as an incidental finding or mild jaundice occuring in adolescence/young adult age, or during times of physiological stress (this patient has a cold). There is elevated unconjugated BR with other liver tests being normal. The blood smear is also normal with normal reticulocyte count, and normal Hb indicating that this is not due to haemolysis. It is a common syndrome and is not really a disease, more a physiological variant. No treatment is needed and this condition is due to decreased UDPGT activity leading to decreased conjugation of unconjugated bilirubin, leading to elevated levels. Positive FH is common as this condition is most likely transmitted in an autosomal recessive pattern.

728
Q

An 18 year old student has just returned from holiday in Africa. He is jaundiced and has moderate hepatomegaly. His blood tests reveal increased serum transaminases and elevated bilirubin. He also has specific IgM antibodies.

A. Dubin-Johnson syndrome
B. Hepatitis C
C. Malaria
D. Gall stones
E. Gilbert's syndrome
F. Crigler-Najjar syndrome
G. Hepatitis B
H. Hepatitis A
I. Carcinoma of head of the pancreas
J. Primary sclerosing cholangitis
K. Primary biliary cirrhosis
L. Cholangiocarcinoma
M. Sickle cell anaemia
A

H. Hepatitis A - IgM anti-hepatitis A virus is positive here which is highly sensitive and specific combined with the typical symptoms this student displays. IgM antibodies are detectable typically 5-10 days before symptom onset and remain raised for 4-6 months. It can be ordered alongside IgG anti-HAV and is a cheap and simple test. IgG rises soon after IgM and stays elevated for life so a positive IgG can mean prior infection or recent disease. Again, a cheap and simple to carry out test.
Hepatitis A is primarily transmitted via the faecal-oral route. After the virus is consumed and absorbed, it replicates in the liver and is excreted in the bile (to be re-transmitted). Transmission usually precedes symptoms by about 2 weeks and patients are non-infectious 1 week after onset of jaundice. The history can reveal risk factors such as living in an endemic area, contact with an infected person, homosexual sex or a known food-borne outbreak. This is classically, in EMQs, associated with shellfish which is harvested from sewage contaminated water. If the patient has other liver diseases such as HBV or HCV or cirrhosis then there is a higher risk of fulminant HAV infection. The clinical course of HAV consists of a pre-icteric phase, lasting 5-7 days, consisting characteristically of N&V, abdominal pain, fever, malaise and headache. Rarer symptoms may be present such as arthralgias and even severe thrombocytopenia and signs that may be found include splenomegaly, RUQ tenderness and tender hepatomegaly as well as bradycardia. The icteric phase is characterised by dark urine, pale stools, jaundice and pruritis. When jaundice comes on, the pre-icteric phase symptoms usually diminish, and jaundice typically peaks at 2 weeks. However, a fulminant course runs in

729
Q

A 32 year old woman with ulcerative colitis presents with jaundice, pruritis, RUQ pain and splenomegaly. On direct questioning she admits to having dark urine and pale stools. Her ALP and her conjugated bilirubin is raised.

A. Dubin-Johnson syndrome
B. Hepatitis C
C. Malaria
D. Gall stones
E. Gilbert's syndrome
F. Crigler-Najjar syndrome
G. Hepatitis B
H. Hepatitis A
I. Carcinoma of head of the pancreas
J. Primary sclerosing cholangitis
K. Primary biliary cirrhosis
L. Cholangiocarcinoma
M. Sickle cell anaemia
A

J. Primary sclerosing cholangitis - Primary sclerosing cholangitis is a cholestatic liver disease which causes bile duct destruction, cirrhosis and end-stage liver disease. It predominantly affects young and middle-aged men, often with underlying inflammatory bowel disease. There is an association of PSC with UC (typically) and IBD diagnosis tends to precede that of PSC with a mean time from onset of IBD to PSC of 9 years. This patient has evidence of obstructive jaundice and pruritis. The diagnosis involves laboratory tests in combination with cholangiography. There are no specific auto-antibodies specific to or diagnostic of PSC but a number of serum autoantibodies such as ANCA are often present in PSC patients. There is currently no effectively medical therapy and the only treatment option in those with advanced disease is to have a liver transplant. The leading cause of death in these patients is liver failure and cholangiocarcinoma. The latter is a relatively common complication and should be suspected in patients who present with rapidly progressing jaundice, weight loss or abdominal pain on a background of PSC.

730
Q

A 60 year old woman presents with intractable gnawing epigastric pain, weight loss and dyspepsia. O/E she is jaundiced, cachectic, feverish and has an enlarged gall bladder. Blood tests show an increased conjugated bilirubin and increased alkaline phosphatase.

A. Dubin-Johnson syndrome
B. Hepatitis C
C. Malaria
D. Gall stones
E. Gilbert's syndrome
F. Crigler-Najjar syndrome
G. Hepatitis B
H. Hepatitis A
I. Carcinoma of head of the pancreas
J. Primary sclerosing cholangitis
K. Primary biliary cirrhosis
L. Cholangiocarcinoma
M. Sickle cell anaemia
A

I. Carcinoma of head of the pancreas - Pancreatic cancer (of the head) typically presents with painless obstructive jaundice and weight loss and generally presents late. Whipple’s procedure or Traverso-Longmire procedure (pancreaticoduodenectomy) offers the only hope of a cure but only a small minority are elegible for these procedures. The first tests to order are an abdominal USS and LFTs. Note Courvoisier’s law: Jaundice and a palpable painless gallbladder is unlikely to be caused by gallstones. The tumour marker for pancreatic cancer is CA19-9 which is useful in preoperative staging.

731
Q

A 23 year old woman presents with a cough and SOB for 24 hours. O/E she is distressed tahycardicc and resp raet of 25/min. She has a widespread bilateral expiratory wheeze.

A. Cough syrup
B. Fluids, bed rest
C. Salbutamol inhaler
D. Oral penicillin
E. Opiate
F. Oral clarithromycin
G. Nebulised salbutamol
H. IM adrenaline
I. Diuretic
J. IV cefuroxime
A

G. Nebulised salbutamol - This patient is having an asthma attack. The best option here is nebulised salbutamol initially. Early systemic corticosteroids and supplemental oxygen should be considered and the patient’s status needs to be monitored regularly.

732
Q

A 30 year old teacher presents to her GP with a couch and SOB worsening over 24 hours. O/E she is pyrexial with no abnormal breath sounds. Her CXr shows bilateral shadowing. Her WCC is normal but she has abnormal liver function tests.

A. Cough syrup
B. Fluids, bed rest
C. Salbutamol inhaler
D. Oral penicillin
E. Opiate
F. Oral clarithromycin
G. Nebulised salbutamol
H. IM adrenaline
I. Diuretic
J. IV cefuroxime
A

F. Oral clarithromyin - This is a CAP which is confirmed by CXR shadowing, which would show airspace shadowing with air bronchograms. The history is also consistent with respiratory symptoms and pyrexia. The most sensitive test for CAP is a CXR. The treatment is initially empirical with antibiotics and management would be guided by this patient’s CURB-65 score. A macrolide is the first choice in adults with no contra-indications without a recent cours eof antibiotics or risk of drug resistance, but always check local prescribing policies. Azithromycin, clarithromycin or erythromycin are all valid choices here.

733
Q

A 39 year old male smoker has had a cough productive of A 40-year-old male smoker with COPD is in hospital with a 2 week cough productive of green sputum with SOB for 24 hours. Temperature is 39.3ºC, RR 35/min, and HR 120/min. There is dullness to percussion and reduced breath sounds at the left base. He is given nebulised salbutamol and systemic corticosteroids.green sputum for 2 weeks and has been pyrexial and breathless for 24 hours. O/E his temperature is 39.3oC, resp rate 35/min, pulse 120/min. There is dullness to percussion and reduced breath sounds at the left base.

A. Cough syrup
B. Fluids, bed rest
C. Salbutamol inhaler
D. Oral penicillin
E. Opiate
F. Oral clarithromycin
G. Nebulised salbutamol
H. IM adrenaline
I. Diuretic
J. IV cefuroxime
A

J. IV cefuroxime - This is an acute infective exacerbation of COPD and the patient has already received nebulised salbutamol and corticosteroids. The next important thing to do is to give IV antibiotics. Inpatient therapy for severe infections can be with IV ceftriaxone with azithromycin. High risk patients should receive piperacillin and tazobactam, or meropenem, to cover for pseudomonas.

734
Q

An 80 year old man presents with a nocturnal cough & white sputum for 2 weeks. There are bilateral basal crepitations on chest examination. The CXR shows an enlarged heart and a small right pleural effusion.

A. Cough syrup
B. Fluids, bed rest
C. Salbutamol inhaler
D. Oral penicillin
E. Opiate
F. Oral clarithromycin
G. Nebulised salbutamol
H. IM adrenaline
I. Diuretic
J. IV cefuroxime
A

I. Diuretic - This patient has developed pulmonary oedema which accounts for the history and examination findings. The CXR indicates the cause is heart failure. He will require diuretics and fluid restriction to deal with his overloaded state. Patients need to be sat upright to improve the SOB and IV access needs to be established. Oxygen, morphine, diuretics (frusemide or another loop diuretic) and nitrates will be given. Once stable, medical treatment of heart failure should be started which involves in the first instance, an ACE inhibitor followed by beta blockade.

735
Q

A 60 year old man has been diagnosed as having bronchial carcinoma with secondaries. He is distressed by chronic coughing.

A. Cough syrup
B. Fluids, bed rest
C. Salbutamol inhaler
D. Oral penicillin
E. Opiate
F. Oral clarithromycin
G. Nebulised salbutamol
H. IM adrenaline
I. Diuretic
J. IV cefuroxime
A

E. Opiates - Opiates are commonly prescribed for analgesia and can also be used as an anti-tussive in this case (suppresses ACh and NK release needed for cough activation and inteferes with serotonin receptors in the DRN). They are also abused for their euphoric effects mediated by their action on dopamine release at the nucleus accumbens. They have a host of side effects: GI effects (receptors present on the myenteric and submucosal plexus) of decreased gastric motility, emptying and increased gut water reabsorption… in short, constipation; Respiratory depression (desensitises central chemoreceptors to lessen the response to PaCO2); N&V by stimulating the CTZ; Pupillary constriction via the Edinger-Westphal nucleus; And causes symptoms like pruritis, urticaria, hypotension through histamine release via a direct effect on mast cells.

736
Q

A 32 year old man with a 10 year history of heroin addiction and a string of convictions for theft. He is at risk of HIV and other transmissible diseases due to needle sharing. He wants to stabilise his lifestyle but doesn’t feel ready to give up opiates.

A. Treatment under Section 3, Mental Health Act 1984
B. Methadone programme
C. Naloxone
D. Physician advice
E. Disulfiram
F. Alcoholics anonymous
G. Token economy
H. Inpatient detoxification with chlordiazepoxide
I. Antipsychotic medication
J. Controlled drinking
K. Aversion treatment
L. Motivational interviewing
A

B. Methadone programme - This patient is a regular recreational opiate user and should be educated about the dangers, particularly of overdose. Needle sharing puts the patient at risk of infections such as HIV and HCV and advice should also be given on the use of clean needles or techniques on how to clean needles. This patient should be commended on wanting to take part in a detoxification programme for his chronic problem. Methadone is a drug which is used in opioid dependence as substitution therapy. Buprenorphine is another drug which can be used for this purpose and both are recommended in NICE guidelines. This medication can be started with a short period of stabilisation followed by either a withdrawal regimen or maintenance treatment, which reduces drug use and crime and improves health.
Methadone is a long-acting opioid agonist, usually given as a single daily oral solution. It has a long half life and takes 3-10 days for plasma levels to reach a steady state. Buprenorphine is a partial opioid receptor agonist (i.e. it has both opioid agonist and antagonist properties) and some patients may prefer this drug as it is less sedating than methadone so may be more suitable for people who drive around, for instance. Adjunctive therapy may be needed to manage withdrawal symptoms. Loperamide can be used for diarrhoea, mebeverine for stomach cramps, paracetamol and NSAIDs for muscular pains and headaches, and metaclopramide or prochlorperazine for N&V. Lofexidine is an alpha-2 agonist which can be used to alleviate physical symptoms of opioid withdrawal. Remember that naloxone is an opioid-receptor antagonist used to reverse opioid overdose (those dependent can be given a supply in case they ‘accidentally’ overdose) and naltrexone is prescribed to prevent relapse in formerly dependent patients.

737
Q

A 43 year old businessman, who has a history of alcohol dependence but has managed to stop drinking. He is afraid of relapsing during a forthcoming business trip and wants help to remain abstinent from alcohol.

A. Treatment under Section 3, Mental Health Act 1984
B. Methadone programme
C. Naloxone
D. Physician advice
E. Disulfiram
F. Alcoholics anonymous
G. Token economy
H. Inpatient detoxification with chlordiazepoxide
I. Antipsychotic medication
J. Controlled drinking
K. Aversion treatment
L. Motivational interviewing
A

E. Disulfiram - Disulfiram is used as an adjunct in the treatment of alcohol dependence. It leads to an unpleasant systemic reaction after taking even the smallest amount of alcohol as it causes acetaldehyde to accumulate in the body. Disulfiram blocks the metabolism of alcohol. It is only effective if taken daily and symptoms can occur within 10 minutes of ingesting any alcohol and include facial flushing, throbbing headache, palpitations, tachycardia, N&V and possible arrhythmias, hypotension and collapse with large doses of alcohol. These reactions can last several hours. Even the smallest amounts of alcohol in medications and even mouthwash can lead to a reaction. After stopping treatment, alcohol still should be avoided for at least a week. Other medications that can be used to prevent relapse and support abstinence include acamprosate (which stabilises glutamate and GABA systems) and naltrexone which is an opioid antagonist.

738
Q

A 25 year old male student drinks about 4 pints of beer a day, every day. He has no symptoms of alcohol dependency or physical problems. He is concerned his level of drinking may be harmful.

A. Treatment under Section 3, Mental Health Act 1984
B. Methadone programme
C. Naloxone
D. Physician advice
E. Disulfiram
F. Alcoholics anonymous
G. Token economy
H. Inpatient detoxification with chlordiazepoxide
I. Antipsychotic medication
J. Controlled drinking
K. Aversion treatment
L. Motivational interviewing
A

D. Physician advice - This (likely medical) student is not dependent nor does he have any physical symptoms but is concerned and aware that his drinking is harmful. At this stage he needs advice on the dangers of excessive alcohol consumption which is the first line intervention for those with patterns of problematic alcohol use but are not dependent (as well as those with mild dependence). The consultations can consist of one or more sessions with a doctor during which feedback can be given about the patient’s alcohol use and the consequences in a supportive and empathic manner. The doctor and patient can work together to develop an action plan for cutting down or eliminating alcohol use and then assessing how effective this is with subsequent visits. Motivational interviewing is a technique which can also be deployed in this situation.

739
Q

A 33 year old homeless man drinks a bottle of whisky per day. He has begun to have episodes of amnesia. He wants to stop drinking. When he last tried to give up drinking, he suffered a grand mal convulsion.

A. Treatment under Section 3, Mental Health Act 1984
B. Methadone programme
C. Naloxone
D. Physician advice
E. Disulfiram
F. Alcoholics anonymous
G. Token economy
H. Inpatient detoxification with chlordiazepoxide
I. Antipsychotic medication
J. Controlled drinking
K. Aversion treatment
L. Motivational interviewing
A

H. Inpatient detoxification with chlordiazepoxide - Chlordiazepoxide is a long-acting benzodiazepine which is used to attenuate alcohol withdrawal symptoms. People with severe dependence should undergo withdrawal in an inpatient setting – withdrawal in those who are severely dependent without medical support can lead to seizures, DT and death. A symptom triggered flexible regimen is typically used in hospital and continued assessment and monitoring is carried out for 24-48 hours, usually followed by a 5 day reducing dose schedule. When BZDs are contraindicated, carbamazepine can be used as an alternative. Clomethiazole can also be used in the acute withdrawal setting although BZDs are preferred. Patients with marked agitation or hallucinations, and those at risk of DT can be given antipsychotic drugs such as haloperidol as an adjunct. This patient should also be given parenteral thiamine (as Pabrinex) due to the risk of developing Wernicke’s encephalopathy from chronic alcohol abuse.

740
Q

A 45 year old man would like to have support to give up drinking.

A. Treatment under Section 3, Mental Health Act 1984
B. Methadone programme
C. Naloxone
D. Physician advice
E. Disulfiram
F. Alcoholics anonymous
G. Token economy
H. Inpatient detoxification with chlordiazepoxide
I. Antipsychotic medication
J. Controlled drinking
K. Aversion treatment
L. Motivational interviewing
A

F. Alcoholics anonymous - Alcoholics Anonymous is a help group where people share their experiences and help each other recover from alcoholism. http://www.alcoholics-anonymous.org.uk

741
Q

A 19 year old student complaining of amenorrhoea for 9 months. Weight loss, generalised weakness and depression. She has started a vegan diet a year ago. Her BMI is 16.

A. Renal failure
B. HIV
C. Tuberculosis
D. Depression
E. Malabsorption
F. Addison's disease
G. Hyperthyroidism
H. Diabetes mellitus
I. Liver failure
J. Malignancy
K. EBV
L. Anorexia nervosa
M. Cardiac failure
A

L. Anorexia nervosa - Anorexia nervosa often occurs in women which is a key risk factor. Puberty/adolescence and obsessive personality traits are additional risks. There is a higher incidence reported in western cultures (presumably skinny models on TV, adverts etc…) and studies on immigrants moving to a western culture exhibited a higher incidence. There is also postulated to be a genetic contribution from twin studies.Those who in higher socioeconomic classes are more affected. BMI is usually

742
Q

A 45 year old woman complains of hand tremors, loose stools and is very anxious.

A. Renal failure
B. HIV
C. Tuberculosis
D. Depression
E. Malabsorption
F. Addison's disease
G. Hyperthyroidism
H. Diabetes mellitus
I. Liver failure
J. Malignancy
K. EBV
L. Anorexia nervosa
M. Cardiac failure
A

G. Hyperthyroidism - TSH is the initial screening test and if supressed, T4/T3 levels are measured. Treatment aims to normalise thyroid function and is achieved by radioactive iodine, antithyroid medications or with surgery. They are all effective and relatively safe options. Symptomatic therapy is given with beta blockers such as propranolol.

743
Q

A 40 year old unmarried actor has noticed recent weight loss. Although he attributed this to stress you are concerned when you detect generalised lymphandenopathy. Blood count shows neutropenia and thrombocytopenia.

A. Renal failure
B. HIV
C. Tuberculosis
D. Depression
E. Malabsorption
F. Addison's disease
G. Hyperthyroidism
H. Diabetes mellitus
I. Liver failure
J. Malignancy
K. EBV
L. Anorexia nervosa
M. Cardiac failure
A

B. HIV - HIV is a retrovirus and there are two types, HIV 1 which is the main virus responsible and HIV 2 which is restricted to parts of West Africa. Weight loss is common in HIV and if more than 10% body weight is lost of BMI reduces to 18.5, this is an indication of more severe immunocompromise. Weight loss in HIV may result from malnutrition, co-existent TB infection or HIV wasting syndrome, the latter being an AIDS defining illness. Generalised lymphadenopathy is also common and is characterised by the painless enlargement of 2 more more non-contiguous sites of >1cm for >3 months. Neutropenia is also seen due to CD4 deficiency and thrombocytopenia may also be seen along with an anaemic picture.
There are WHO (stage 1-4) and CDC criteria used in clinical staging. This patient needs to have a CD4 count, HBV and HCV screen, VDRL (syphilis), tuberculin skin test (TB) and CXR. HIV viral load will also be assessed. Prophylaxis and immunisations should be considered against infections such as hepatitis, influenza, PCP and TB. When to initiate HAART depends on the clinical stage, CD4 and co-morbidities. This patient will need to be started on HAART. Classes of antiretrovirals include NRTIs, NNRTIs, protease inhibitors, fusion inhibitors and integrase inhibitors.

744
Q

A 70 year old man with a history of 10kg weight loss over the previous 3 months. More recently he developed acute lower back pain. Presents to A&E with coughing & sputum. CXR shows left lower lobe pneumonia.

A. Renal failure
B. HIV
C. Tuberculosis
D. Depression
E. Malabsorption
F. Addison's disease
G. Hyperthyroidism
H. Diabetes mellitus
I. Liver failure
J. Malignancy
K. EBV
L. Anorexia nervosa
M. Cardiac failure
A

J. Malignancy - This person likely has lung cancer which has resulted in the significant weight loss of 10kg. This is post-obstructive pneumonia which is common in lung cancer patients and is caused, most of the time, by a large and centrally obstructing tumour. It is essential to relieve this obstruction in this case and many techniques can be tried. There is also bone pain here in the lower spinal column which is due to metastases. The prognosis here is not good.

745
Q

A 25 year old woman with fatigue & weight loss. She gives a history of frequent loose stools with abdominal pain. Full blood count revealed iron deficiency anaemia.

A. Renal failure
B. HIV
C. Tuberculosis
D. Depression
E. Malabsorption
F. Addison's disease
G. Hyperthyroidism
H. Diabetes mellitus
I. Liver failure
J. Malignancy
K. EBV
L. Anorexia nervosa
M. Cardiac failure
A

E. Malabsorption - There is frequent loose stools here and abdominal pain. Combined with the IDA, this points to malabsorption. This could well be a presentation of coeliac disease – IDA is one of the most common clinical presentations and abdominal pain and diarrhoea are common. Coeliac disease is a systemic autoimmune condition triggered by dietary gluten peptides found in grains. It is a relatively common condition. The only treatment is a strict gluten-free diet for life.

746
Q

A 45-year old lady with a tremor of the wrist (when extended). Other findings on examination include jaundice, spider naevi, ascites.

A. Parkinson's Disease
B. Exaggerated physiological tremor
C. Cerebellar tremor
D. Dystonia
E. Sydenham's chorea
F. Brain tumour
G. Alcohol withdrawal
H. MS
I. Asterixis
A

I. Asterixis - Asterixis is a flapping tremor, or a liver flap, which is a coarse tremor of the hand when the wrist is held extended. It is caused in this case by liver failure and can be a sign of hepatic encephalopathy. The signs found on examination point to decompensated chronic liver disease.

747
Q

A 17-year-old girl with joint pain, fever, skin rash developed bilateral involuntary jerky movements.

A. Parkinson's Disease
B. Exaggerated physiological tremor
C. Cerebellar tremor
D. Dystonia
E. Sydenham's chorea
F. Brain tumour
G. Alcohol withdrawal
H. MS
I. Asterixis
A

E. Sydenham’s chorea - Chorea features as part of the acute presentation in 5-10% of patients with rheumatic fever. It can also occur as an isolated event up to 6 months after the initial GABHS infection. It is named Sydenham chorea after the doctor who described St Vitus Dance in the 17th century. Choreiform movements can affect the whole body or just one side of the body, in which case it is referred to as hemi-chorea. The head is often involved with erratic facial movements that resemble grimaces, grins and growns, and the tongue may be affected to resemble a bag of worms when protruded, and protrusion cannot be maintained. In severe cases the patient may have an impaired ability to eat. Chorea disappears with sleep and is made worse by purposeful movements. When the patient is asked to grip the doctor’s hand, the patient will be unable to maintain grip and rhythmic squeezing occurs. There are two signs to look out for in these patients. The first is the spooning sign, which is a flexion at the wrist with finger extension when the hand is held extended. The pronator sign is the second which is when the palms turn outwards when held above the head. Both are consistent with chorea.
Remember that the 5 major manifestations of acute rheumatic fever are carditis, polyarthritis, chorea, erythema marginatum and SC nodules – the most common of which are carditis and polyarthritis. Primary episodes occur mainly in children aged 5-14 and are rare in those over 30. The greatest burden of disease remains in the developing countries and in populations of people living in poverty.

748
Q

A young lady with thyrotoxicosis displays a hand tremor.

A. Parkinson's Disease
B. Exaggerated physiological tremor
C. Cerebellar tremor
D. Dystonia
E. Sydenham's chorea
F. Brain tumour
G. Alcohol withdrawal
H. MS
I. Asterixis
A

B. Exaggerated physiological tremor - The tremor seen in hyperthyroidism is usually fine and is a exaggerated physiological phenomenon. Treatment aims to normalise thyroid function and is achieved by radioactive iodine, antithyroid medications or with surgery. They are all effective and relatively safe options. Symptomatic therapy is given with beta blockers such as propranolol.

749
Q

A 60-year-old with lung cancer finds it difficult to stand upright and walk. He has ataxia.

A. Parkinson's Disease
B. Exaggerated physiological tremor
C. Cerebellar tremor
D. Dystonia
E. Sydenham's chorea
F. Brain tumour
G. Alcohol withdrawal
H. MS
I. Asterixis
A

C. Cerebellar tremor - A cerebellar tremor can be seen in MS, trauma or stroke. The history may feature complaints of incoordination and imbalance, a possible FH of cerebellar ataxia or PMH of MS, head trauma, stroke or cerebellar haemorrhage. The tremor itself is a coarse and irregular kinetic tremor which is generated proximally. There may also be abnormal finger-to-nose testing and heel-to-shin testing, dysdiadochokinesia, wide-based ataxic gait (like the patient is drunk) as well as dysarthria (speech problems). The first test to order is an MRI of the patient’s head which may show signs of cerebellar atrophy or may suggest changes of demyelination seen in MS or changes of stroke, trauma or haemorrhage. You may also want to perform other tests such as thyroid function tests to exclude hyperthyroidism.

750
Q

A 40-year-old lady presents with parasthaesia in the left lower limb and displays an intention tremor. She recalls that 6 months prior to this, she had an episode of temporary visual loss which she found frightening.

A. Parkinson's Disease
B. Exaggerated physiological tremor
C. Cerebellar tremor
D. Dystonia
E. Sydenham's chorea
F. Brain tumour
G. Alcohol withdrawal
H. MS
I. Asterixis
A

H. MS - MS is a demyelinating CNS condition which is characterised by 2 or more episodes of neurological dysfunction which are separated in both time and space. MS classically presents in white women aged 20-40 with temporary visual/sensory loss although any presentation can occur. MRI is a sensitive test but less specific than spinal MRI, however, spinal MRI is abnormal in fewer cases. Treatment aims at treating the attack, preventing future attacks and symptomatic treatment of problems like bladder dysfunction, pain and fatigue.

751
Q

3 weeks after having an MI, a 65-year-old man presents with sharp chest pain and pyrexia. Blood test reveals anaemia and raised ESR.

A. Aortic dissection
B. MI
C. Right heart failure
D. Pulmonar Embolus
E. Endocarditis
F. Left heart failure
G. Tietze syndrome
H. Rheumatic fever
I. Pericarditis
J. Dressler's syndrome
A

J. Dressler’s syndrome - This is percarditis again, likely to be Dressler’s syndrome. This is believed to be an autoimmune process with myocardial neo-antigens implicated in the aetiology and occurs typically 2-3 weeks post-MI. Typical treatment is with aspirin. It tends to subside in a few days and raised ESR is a lab finding which can be seen. See above for more information on angina.

752
Q

A 79-year-old man complains of increasing breathlessness. On general examination you notice wide pulse pressure and visible carotid pulsation.

A. Aortic regurgitation
B. Aortic stenosis
C. Infective endocarditis
D. Rheumatic fever
E. Innocent murmur
F. Mitral regurgitation
G. Atrial septal defect
H. Tricuspid regurgitation
I. Mitral stenosis
A

A. Aortic regurgitation - Aortic regurgitation is the leakage of blood back into the LV in diastole. The collapsing pulse is also known as a water hammer or Corrigan’s pulse and describes the rapid rise and quick ‘collapse’ of the arterial pulse resulting in a wide pulse pressure. The murmur in AR is early diastolic in mild cases and increases to pansystolic in severe cases. Risk factors include a bicuspid valve, rheumatic fever, endocarditis, anklylosing spondylitis and Marfan’s. Other commonly seen signs in EMQs, although uncommon in clinical practice include Traube’s (pistol shot sounds over the femoral arteries when compressed), Quincke’s (subungal capillary pulsations), Duroziez’s (systolic and diastolic murmurs over the femoral arteries) and de Musset’s (head bobbing with each heart beat) sign. Other equally uncommon signs (there are many for AR) include Muller’s, Mayen’s, Lighthouse, Hill’s, Becker’s, Landolfi’s, Rosenbach’s, Gerhardt’s, Lincoln’s and Sherman’s sign. The visible carotid pulsation here is Corrigan’s sign, with the pulse characteristic as described previously.
Occasionally although uncommon, an Austin Flint murmur may be heard which is a rumbling mid-diastolic murmur best heard at the apex, produced by the regurgitant jet hitting the LV endocardium. Its presence indicates severe AR and the absence of a loud S1 or an opening snap distinguishes this from the murmur of mitral stenosis.

753
Q

A 33-year-old is admitted with right-sided weakness. He admits to fever, SOB. On auscultation there is an early diastolic murmur.

A. Aortic regurgitation
B. Aortic stenosis
C. Infective endocarditis
D. Rheumatic fever
E. Innocent murmur
F. Mitral regurgitation
G. Atrial septal defect
H. Tricuspid regurgitation
I. Mitral stenosis
A

C. Infective endocarditis - Any patient presenting with fever and a new murmur should always make you think of bacterial endocarditis. The weakness here may be consistent with a stroke and systemic emboli may be the cause here. The classic new or worsening murmur is actually rare. As are splinter haemorrhages, which EMQs often mention. Other uncommon signs you may find include Janeway lesions (painless macular haemorrhagic plaques on the palms and soles) and Osler nodes (painful nodules on the pads of the fingers and toes). Roth spots may also be seen on fundoscopy. Three sets of bood cultures are required and this patient will have to go for an echocardiogram.The Duke criteria is used for diagnosis.

754
Q

A 73 year old lady presents with 6-month Hx of chest pain on exertion and 2 episodes of collapse in the last month. O/E the pulse is slow rising.

A. Aortic regurgitation
B. Aortic stenosis
C. Infective endocarditis
D. Rheumatic fever
E. Innocent murmur
F. Mitral regurgitation
G. Atrial septal defect
H. Tricuspid regurgitation
I. Mitral stenosis
A

B. Aortic stenosis - Aortic stenosis can present with chest pain, dyspnoea and syncope. It is characterised by a harsh ejection systolic murmur heard loudest at the right upper sternal edge at end expiration, which radiates up towards the carotids. The pulse pressure is narrow and there may be an associated slow-rising and plateau pulse. Doppler echo is vital for diagnosis and shows a pressure gradient across the narrowed valve orifice. 20% of cases are due to a congenital bicuspid valve. The most common cause of aortic stenosis in adults is calcification of normal trileaflet valves. Clinically stable patients may be considered for surgical repair or TAVR.

755
Q

A pansystolic murmur in a 53-year-old gentleman with a drinking problem. There is a systolic thrill at the apex.

A. Aortic regurgitation
B. Aortic stenosis
C. Infective endocarditis
D. Rheumatic fever
E. Innocent murmur
F. Mitral regurgitation
G. Atrial septal defect
H. Tricuspid regurgitation
I. Mitral stenosis
A

F. Mitral regurgitation - MR is loudest at the apex and radiates to the axilla and tends to be around grade 4. It is associated with a systolic thrill at the apex. TTE is the investigation of choice for diagnosis. Chronic MR is associated with a laterally displaced apex beat with LV dilatation. Mitral valve prolapse is a strong risk factor for development of MR. The alcohol history here is hinting at dilated cardiomyopathy as a possible cause.

756
Q

A pregnant 27-year-old lady is found to have a soft, short systolic murmur at the apex. There are no other signs or symptoms of heart disease.

A. Aortic regurgitation
B. Aortic stenosis
C. Infective endocarditis
D. Rheumatic fever
E. Innocent murmur
F. Mitral regurgitation
G. Atrial septal defect
H. Tricuspid regurgitation
I. Mitral stenosis
A

G. Innocent murmur - This is a functional murmur which is not caused by a structural cardiac defect. They often reflect hyperdynamic states such as that seen in pregnancy. Functional murmurs tend to be systolic, occuring in an otherwise healthy individual with no symptoms. They are also characteristically position dependent and soft in nature. Ones that occur in children tend to disappear as the child grows. Benign paediatric murmurs include Still’s murmur.

757
Q

A 38-year-old woman with known polycystic kidney disease suddenly develops a severe occipital headache. She vomited and then lost consciousness.

A. Wernicke's encephalopathy
B. Normal pressure hydrocephalus
C. Subarachnoid haemorrhage
D. Subdural haemorrhage
E. Extradural haemorrhage
F. Hepatic failure
G. Alcohol withdrawal
H. Stroke
I. Encephalitis
J. Dementia
K. Drug overdose
L. Meningitis
A

D. Subarachnoid haemorrhage - SAH (bleeding into the subarachnoid space) presents with sudden severe headache patients will often describe as the worst headache of their life, and can often be so bad that they feel like they’ve been kicked in the back of the back. Half of all patients lose consciousness and eye pain with exposure to light can also be seen. Altered mental status is common. SAH occurs most commonly in the 50-55 age group and affects women and black people more than men and white people. The most common cause of non-traumatic SAH is an aneurysm which ruptures. Conditions which predispose to aneurysm formation and SAH include adult PKD, Marfan’s, NF1 and Ehlers-Danlos. Cerebral aneurysms arise around the circle of Willis. A CT scan is indicated, and if unrevealing, this should be followed by an LP. Cerebral angiography can confirm the presence of aneurysms. The patient should be stabilised and this followed by surgical clipping or endovascular coil embolisation, the choice is subject to much current controversy sparked by relatively recent research. Complications can commonly occur and include rebleeding, hydrocephalus and vasospasm.

758
Q

A 22-year-old student is found collapsed in her room. She is unrousable and has a purpuric rash. Her temperature is 39oC.

A. Wernicke's encephalopathy
B. Normal pressure hydrocephalus
C. Subarachnoid haemorrhage
D. Subdural haemorrhage
E. Extradural haemorrhage
F. Hepatic failure
G. Alcohol withdrawal
H. Stroke
I. Encephalitis
J. Dementia
K. Drug overdose
L. Meningitis
A

L. Meningitis - This patient has meningitis. Universities are common sites of outbreaks due to crowding. Commonly there will be a headache, fever and nuchal rigidity. There may also be an altered mental status (this patient has LOC), confusion, photophobia and vomiting. Kernig’s sign is uncommon but is positive when attempts to extend the leg are met with resistance when the patient is supine with the thigh flexed to 90 degrees. Another uncommon sign is Brudzinski’s sign and the petechial/purpuric rash seen here, typically associated with meningococcal meningitis.

CT head should be considered before LP if there is any evidence of raised ICP. An LP will confirm the diagnosis with bacterial meningitis showing a low CSF glucose, elevated CSF protein and positive CSF culture/gram stain or meningococcal antigen. Investigations should not delay treatment in this very urgent situation and antibiotics need to be promptly administered. IM benzylpenicillin can be given on the way to the hospital with empirical antibiotic therapy being started on arrival before the causative organism is identified. This can be, for example, with vancomycin and ceftriaxone (or meropenem, cefotaxime, chloramphenicol). Dexamethasone should also be given before the first dose of antibiotics and continued for 4 days as this has been shown to improve outcome and overall mortality in community-acquired bacterial meningitis (though NICE guidelines state it should not be given to those aged

759
Q

A 73-year-old presents with increasing confusion and falls over the last couple of months. On further questioning he admits to urinary incontinence. A CT scan of the head shows dilatation of ventricles.

A. Wernicke's encephalopathy
B. Normal pressure hydrocephalus
C. Subarachnoid haemorrhage
D. Subdural haemorrhage
E. Extradural haemorrhage
F. Hepatic failure
G. Alcohol withdrawal
H. Stroke
I. Encephalitis
J. Dementia
K. Drug overdose
L. Meningitis
A

B. Normal pressure hydrocephalus - This is normal pressure hydrocephalus – a diagnosis you should suspect in any patient who presents with a gait apraxia (the falls here from loss of balance) and cognitive impairment. There may also be urinary symptoms such as urgency, frequency or urge incontinence. These symptoms tend to be insidious in onset over months or years.There is not significantly raised CSF pressure though perhaps this should not be named ‘normal pressure’ as elevated CSF pressure may be seen but just not significantly so. CT head is the first test to order, although MRI head can also be done, and could be normal but could show mild to moderate ventricular enlargement, periventricular leukomalacia, cerebral infarction, relative preservation of the cortical gyri and sulci and reduced diameter of the corpus callosum and widened callosal angle. This diagnosis can be excluded if an obstructive lesion is seen. If you suspect Parkinson’s then a levodopa challenge should be ordered.

760
Q

A 61 year-old homeless man is confused and drowsy. He is ataxic, complains of blurred vision.

A. Wernicke's encephalopathy
B. Normal pressure hydrocephalus
C. Subarachnoid haemorrhage
D. Subdural haemorrhage
E. Extradural haemorrhage
F. Hepatic failure
G. Alcohol withdrawal
H. Stroke
I. Encephalitis
J. Dementia
K. Drug overdose
L. Meningitis
A

A. Wernicke’s encephalopathy - Wernicke’s is due to acute thiamine deficiency, which is a problem in alcoholics. Others at risk include those with AIDS, cancer and treatment with chemotherapy, malnutrition and GIT surgery, especially bariatric procedures. It is a clinically under-diagnosed condition. The classic EMQ triad is of mental change, ophthalmoplegia and gait dysfunction, which is actually only seen in 10% of cases. In reality, the manifestations are varied and a high index of suspicion is needed. Despite there, the manifestiations typically include altered consciousness, gait disorders and eye movement abnormalities. This is an emergency and treatment is with parenteral replacement of thiamine. This avoids permanent neurological damage including later development of Korsakoff’s psychosis, which is irreversible. Note that thiamine should be given before dextrose! Magnesium deficiency also needs to be corrected as it is a co-factor in the functioning of thiamine dependent enzymes.

761
Q

A 55 year old woman is admitted drowsy with slurred speech. You notice yellowing of the sclera and fetor hepaticus.

A. Wernicke's encephalopathy
B. Normal pressure hydrocephalus
C. Subarachnoid haemorrhage
D. Subdural haemorrhage
E. Extradural haemorrhage
F. Hepatic failure
G. Alcohol withdrawal
H. Stroke
I. Encephalitis
J. Dementia
K. Drug overdose
L. Meningitis
A

F. Hepatic failure - This patient has decompensated chronic liver disease (he is in liver failure) which has resulted in neurological symptoms associated with hepatic encephalopathy. The brain is exposed to ammonia which bypasses the liver by portosystemic shunting. It is a diagnosis of exclusion and tests will need to be conducted to rule out other potential causes of confusion. The findings of jaundice and fetor hepaticus (liver failure) are signs of liver disease. Think about the other signs you might see like spider naevi and palmar erythema. This patient may also have asterixis which is a coarse flapping tremor. HE is likely caused by a host of factors. This patient’s LFTs will be abnormal and she is likely to have coagulopathy too (PT will be elevated).

762
Q

A 60 year old man presents with bone pain (back, ribs, femur and humerus affected). Investigations show raised ESR, raised calcium, high urea, high creatinine and punched out lesions on his skeletal x-rays.

A. Megaloblastic Anaemia
B. Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia
C. Sickle cell anaemia
D. Aplastic anaemia
E. Iron defeciency anaemia
F. Chronic myeloid leukaemia
G. Non Hodgkin’s lymphoma
H. Chronic lymphocytic leukaemia
I. Acute myeloid leukaemia
J. Myeloma
K. Thalassaemia
A

J. Myeloma - This patient has multiple myeloma. This is characteristed by clonal proliferation of plasma cells in BM and commonly presents with bony pain and symptoms of anaemia. There may also be infections present in 10%. Elevated ESR agrees with this diagnosis. 30% have hypercalcaemia and half have renal impairment, which is associated with a worse prognosis. This explains the elevated urea and creatinine here. The diagnostic test is serum or urine electrophoresis looking for a paraprotein spike of IgG or IgA and light chain urinary excretion (Bence Jones proteins). Bone marrow examination and skeletal survey will also need to be conducted. Bone marrow analysis will help differentiate this from MGUS and solitary plasmacytoma. Bone changes include osteopenia, osteolytic lesions and fractures which this person’s XR indicates with the punched out lytic lesions. Younger patients may be candidates for high-dose chemotherapy and autologous transplantation.

763
Q

A 48 year old male presents with bruising, infections and fatigue. Lab findings indicate a pancytopenia with low reticulocyte count. Bone marrow biopsy is done on which a definitive diagnosis is made.

A. Megaloblastic Anaemia
B. Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia
C. Sickle cell anaemia
D. Aplastic anaemia
E. Iron defeciency anaemia
F. Chronic myeloid leukaemia
G. Non Hodgkin’s lymphoma
H. Chronic lymphocytic leukaemia
I. Acute myeloid leukaemia
J. Myeloma
K. Thalassaemia
A

D. Aplastic anaemia - This is aplastic anaemia characterised here with the pancytopenia (which is common, but diagnosis requires 2 cytopenias out of 3) and the presentation with infections (neutropenia), fatigue (anaemia) and bruising (thrombocytopenia). Risk factors include paroxysmal noctural haemoglobinuria, hepatitis and NSAIDs. If macrocytosis is seen, this may suggest an inherited syndrome such as Fanconi’s anaemia. The reticulocyte count here rules out haemolytic anaemia. The definitive diagnosis is made on biopsy of bone marrow which shows a hypocellular marrow with no abnormal cell populations and no fibrosis. Which conditions would there be abnormal cell populations or fibrosis on bone marrow biopsy?

764
Q

A 50 year old man presents with weight loss, tiredness, fever, night sweats and abdominal pain. On examination his spleen was palpably enlarged and there were multiple bruises on his body. Investigations showed low Hb, WBC 150 x 109/L.

A. Megaloblastic Anaemia
B. Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia
C. Sickle cell anaemia
D. Aplastic anaemia
E. Iron defeciency anaemia
F. Chronic myeloid leukaemia
G. Non Hodgkin’s lymphoma
H. Chronic lymphocytic leukaemia
I. Acute myeloid leukaemia
J. Myeloma
K. Thalassaemia
A

F. Chronic myeloid leukaemia - This is CML which tends to present in the 30-60 age group. At presentation 1/3 may be asymptomatic though if symptomatic, it presents with symptoms including fever, weight loss and night sweats. There is myeloid stem cell proliferation and presents with raised neutrophils, metamyelocytes and basophils. The patient may also describe LUQ discomfort or fullness due to the feeling of a mass due to splenomegaly. There are also symptoms of anaemia here due to BM infiltration of leukaemic cells. Bruises are common and are either spontaneous or from minor trauma. All patients have raised WCC.
CML is associated with the philadelphia chromosome characterised by t(9;22) of bcr-abl. There tends to be massive splenomegaly which is the most common physical finding on examination. This conditon may transform to AML or ALL in what is known as a ‘blast crisis’. CML responds to imatinib, which is an anti-bcr-abl antibody and gives long term remission in most patients.

765
Q

A 20 year old West Indian lady presents with pain in the chest and hip. She has had episodes of this pain in the past. Investigations showed Hb 6g/dl and reticulocytes 15%

A. Megaloblastic Anaemia
B. Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia
C. Sickle cell anaemia
D. Aplastic anaemia
E. Iron defeciency anaemia
F. Chronic myeloid leukaemia
G. Non Hodgkin’s lymphoma
H. Chronic lymphocytic leukaemia
I. Acute myeloid leukaemia
J. Myeloma
K. Thalassaemia
A

C. Sickle cell anaemia - The reticulocytosis here is as a result of the haemolytic anaemia this patient is suffering due to sickle cell anaemia. The bone pain in the chest and hip is an acute symptom of vaso-occlusive crises. It is generally unusual for someone to reach this age without being aware that they have sickle cell anaemia so in real life, this would be an uncommon way to present. The diagnosis should however be suspected due to the episodes of pain (vaso-occlusive crises) and the findings of anaemia with reticulocytosis.
Sickling occurs when RBCs containing HbS become distorted into a crescent shape. Patients with sickle cell anaemia have no HbA at all. If both parents carry the sickle cell gene, there is a 1 in 4 chance of giving birth to a child with sickle cell anaemia.

766
Q

An 68 year old woman with tierdness, right sided abdominal pain for 2 months. Investigations showed Hb 8 g/dl and MCV 65fl. Colonoscopy shows an ulcerating mass in the ascending colon.

A. Megaloblastic Anaemia
B. Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia
C. Sickle cell anaemia
D. Aplastic anaemia
E. Iron defeciency anaemia
F. Chronic myeloid leukaemia
G. Non Hodgkin’s lymphoma
H. Chronic lymphocytic leukaemia
I. Acute myeloid leukaemia
A

E. Iron deficiency anaemia - IDA is a microcytic hypochromic anaemia characterised by low serum iron, high TIBC and low transferrin saturation and serum ferritin. Bleeding is the principle cause of IDA. IDA is not an end diagnosis and has many causes and this is something that is important to bear in mind at all times. The cause here is from chronic blood loss from what would appear to be possible right sided bowel cancer. Worldwide, the most common cause is hookworm infection, and in the UK, menstrual losses in women. Causes of IDA can be broadly divided into 4 categories: decreased intake, increased loss, increased requirements (such as in pregnancy), and unknown.

767
Q

A 75-year-old gentleman was brought to A&E mildly confused. He has been unwell last couple of days with productive cough, diarrhoea and fever. CXR is shows infiltrates in the RUL and his bloods show hyponatraemia.

A. Salmonella enteritidis
B. Legionella pneumoniae
C. Streptococcus viridans
D. Staphylococcus aureus
E. Campylobacter jejuni
F. Streptococcus pneumoniae
G. Mycoplasma pneumoniae
H. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
I. Shigella flexineri
J. Streptococcus pyogenes
K. Leptospira interrogans
A

B. Legionella pneumoniae - Legionella is a gram negative rod. Legionella infecting the lungs is legionnaires’ disease or Legionella pneumonia whereas non-lung infection is known as Pontiac fever. This bacteria is found in aqueous environments such as lakes and almost all cases are from contaminated water systems, which relates to the risk factors of getting Legionella (recent water exposure like a hot tub). Smoking is also a risk factor. It can cause confusion as well as hyponatraemia, abdominal pain, diarrhoea and bradycardia. Legionella does not grow on routine culture media and diagnosis relies on urine antigen detection, serology or culture on special media.

768
Q

A 65-year-old with CLL develops a respiratory tract infection in hospital after finishing his chemotherapy course. Bacteria grow on MacConkey agar.

A. Salmonella enteritidis
B. Legionella pneumoniae
C. Streptococcus viridans
D. Staphylococcus aureus
E. Campylobacter jejuni
F. Streptococcus pneumoniae
G. Mycoplasma pneumoniae
H. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
I. Shigella flexineri
J. Streptococcus pyogenes
K. Leptospira interrogans
A

H. Pseudomonas aeruginosa - Pseudomonas has virulence factors for lung colonisation and is noted for its type III injection apparatus, which you may remember from your microbiology lectures. This organism is one of the main 5 organisms responsible for hospital acquired (or nosocomial) infections in the UK. Remember that a nosocomial infection is defined as one acquired >48 hours after admission. It is a gram negative bacilli causing hospital acquired pneumonia and UTI. It particularly affects immunocompromised hosts such as those on chemotherapy, those with cystic fibrosis, burns and wounds. Biofilms are antibiotic resistant. Key risks also include urinary catheters and central venous lines etc… I would not worry too much about MacConkey agar as lots of things grow on it. It is a culture medium designed to grow gram negative bacteria, so organisms ranging from E. coli, Klebsiella and Salmonella, to Proteus, Shigella and Enterobacter will all grow on it. This just rules out Streptococcus pneumoniae.
Pseudomonas is also a special little organism which is not sensitive to many antibiotics originally used for gram negatives. You need to prescribe a drug here which has specific anti-pseudomonal activity such as ceftazidime (a third generation cephalosporin), tazocin, ciprofloxacin, imipenem or gentamicin (usually used with one of the others). This organism acquires resistance genes very quickly so two antibiotics are given. It is, as mentioned, inherently resistant to many drug classes. Some are even resistant to all antibiotics.

769
Q

A 15-year-old girl develops high fever with rigors. O/E she has blanching erythematous rash, ‘strawberry’ tongue, and cervical lymphadenopathy.

A. Salmonella enteritidis
B. Legionella pneumoniae
C. Streptococcus viridans
D. Staphylococcus aureus
E. Campylobacter jejuni
F. Streptococcus pneumoniae
G. Mycoplasma pneumoniae
H. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
I. Shigella flexineri
J. Streptococcus pyogenes
K. Leptospira interrogans
A

J. Streptococcus pyogenes - The ‘strawberry’ tongue, or a red swollen tongue, is a sign of Scarlet fever (along with Kawasaki disease and toxic shock syndrome which is caused by bacteria such as staphylococcus aureus). Scarlet fever is caused by an exotoxin released by Streptococcus pyogenes. The history is characteristically a child

770
Q

A 30-year-old man presents jaundiced. He tells you he has recently completed a triathlon. He has been suffering from flu-like symptoms for the last week, he complains of severe headache, myalgia, anorexia. O/E he has tender hepatosplenomegaly and a rash over the lower limbs.

A. Salmonella enteritidis
B. Legionella pneumoniae
C. Streptococcus viridans
D. Staphylococcus aureus
E. Campylobacter jejuni
F. Streptococcus pneumoniae
G. Mycoplasma pneumoniae
H. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
I. Shigella flexineri
J. Streptococcus pyogenes
K. Leptospira interrogans
A

K. Leptospira interrogans - Leptospirosis is a zoonosis, which is transmitted by contact with urine of infected animals (also possible sources include blood and fluids). The history may reveal someone swimming in rat infested canal water, for instance, or in this case, a triathlon – which involves some swimming in perhaps not too clean water. Outbreaks of this are associated with flooding and natural disasters, as can be expected. Affected patients can present with an extensive spectrum of clinical manifestations ranging from subclinical illness in 90% to renal and hepatic failure and pulmonary haemorrhage. The important factor in diagnosis is a high index of suspicion based on epidemiological exposure. There is an acute phase with fever, headaches, myalgia and then an immune phase with additional pulmonary symptoms and potential organ damage (leading to the symptoms seen here such as jaundice). The rash is maculopapular and non-pruritic, lasting 1 or 2 days, present during the acute phase. It is rarely seen. Treatment is with benzylpenicillin or amoxicillion and/or doxycycline and supportive care. Those with severe disease carry a poor prognosis.

771
Q

A 42-year-old presents with crampy abdominal pain, nausea and profuse diarrhoea a couple of days after eating grilled chicken in a newly opened restaurant. A gram stain of the faeces shows Gram-negative, motile, spiral-shaped rods.

A. Salmonella enteritidis
B. Legionella pneumoniae
C. Streptococcus viridans
D. Staphylococcus aureus
E. Campylobacter jejuni
F. Streptococcus pneumoniae
G. Mycoplasma pneumoniae
H. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
I. Shigella flexineri
J. Streptococcus pyogenes
K. Leptospira interrogans
A

E. Campylobacter jejuni - This is what we colloquially refer to as ‘food poisoning’ – infective gastroenteritis. The most common bacterial cause in the UK is Campylobactor jejuni. This organism is also a major cause of traveller’s diarrhoea. The second most common cause of acute enteritis is an organism known as Campylobacter coli. There is also Campylobacter fetus which is a rare cause of extra-intestinal infection mainly in immunocompromised patients. Campylobacters are small, gram negative rods with a curved spiral shape. 11 Campylobacters are pathogenic to humans. Most Campylobacter jejuni infections come from infected poultry. The diarrhoea is usually self limiting and resolves in a week – bacteraemia is very rare. Fluid and electrolyte replacement is essential. Only a small number of patients will benefit from antimicrobials. Note that C. jejuni is a commonly identified organism in the aetiology of Guillain-Barre syndrome.

772
Q

A 27-year-old with severe headaches and hypertension is found to have phaeochromocytoma. Further investigations reveal he has hypercalcaemia secondary to hyperparathyroidism. The alarmed clinician orders a thyroid biopsy which confirms his suspicions.

A. Nelson's syndrome
B. Pseudo-Cushing's syndrome
C. MEN I
D. Simmond’s disease
E. DiGeorge's syndrome
F. Kallmann's syndrome
G. MEN II
H. Cushing's disease
I. Pituitary apoplexy
J. Sheehan's syndrome
A

G. MEN II - MEN (Multiple Endocrine Neoplasia) syndromes are hereditary autosomal dominant tumour syndromes with distinct patterns of organ involvement. At this stage, the purely simplified patterns (classification is actually more complicated) you need to be familiar with are: MEN1 consists of parathyroid adenomas, pancreatic tumours and pituitary adenomas. MEN2A consists of parathyroid, medullary thyroid cancer and phaeochromocytoma. And MEN2B or 3 consists of what is seen in 2A plus the addition of a marfanoid phenotype and ganglioneuromas (intestinal and visceral).
Prophylactic thyroidectomy in childhood is indicated in MEN2. Medical management is aimed at controlling hormone hypersecretion. Surgery is often done on tumours. If you’re really interest, you can look MEN syndromes up in more detail. MEN1 is typically caused by mutations in the MEN1 gene whereas MEN2 is typically caused by mutations in the RET proto-oncogene.

773
Q

A 60-year-old gentleman noticed increasing pigmentation of his skin in the past 5 years. He presents to you with progressive headaches and double vision. He says he was well previously. On further questioning he recalls a surgery to remove his adrenal glands around 30 years ago. MRI demonstrates pituitary tumour.

A. Nelson's syndrome
B. Pseudo-Cushing's syndrome
C. MEN I
D. Simmond’s disease
E. DiGeorge's syndrome
F. Kallmann's syndrome
G. MEN II
H. Cushing's disease
I. Pituitary apoplexy
J. Sheehan's syndrome
A

A. Nelson’s syndrome - Nelson’s syndrome is the enlargement of a pituitary adenoma which occurs after bilateral adrenalectomy. Once you know this fact, the diagnosis is clear. Bilateral adrenalectomy is an operation which can be done for Cushing’s syndrome in order to completely eliminate the production of cortisol. However, this removes cortisol’s negative feedback response which allows any pre-existing pituitary adenoma to grow without negative feedback. As a result, this rapid enlargement of the pituitary adenoma has caused this man’s symptoms of increased pigmentation due to raised MSH (a by product of POMC cleavage to give ACTH), headaches and visual disturbances (due to the space-occupying lesion). This is now rare as the operation is now only used in extreme cases. Sometimes pituitary surgery will be performed.

774
Q

A mother of a 6-month-old boy presents with fatigue and cold intolerance. She said she has not had her periods back and has been unable to breastfeed her baby. She also has reduced libido, depression and weight loss. From the hospital notes you learn that her labour was complicated by significant post-partum haemorrhage. Examination reveals slow relaxing reflexes.

A. Nelson's syndrome
B. Pseudo-Cushing's syndrome
C. MEN I
D. Simmond’s disease
E. DiGeorge's syndrome
F. Kallmann's syndrome
G. MEN II
H. Cushing's disease
I. Pituitary apoplexy
J. Sheehan's syndrome
A

J. Sheehan’s syndrome - Sheehan’s syndrome is panhypopituitarism which occurs due to necrosis of the pituitary gland following post-partum haemorrhage and hypovolaemia. Blood loss leads to a vasoconstrictor spasm of the hypophysial arteries leading to ischaemia and necrosis of the pituitary. This is a rare complication of pregnancy. Symptoms include those seen and are due to deficiency of a host of hormones. Treatment is aimed at replacing the missing hormones (hydrocortisone, thyroxine etc).

775
Q

A 55-year-old lady has centripetal obesity, plethoric moon-shaped face, proximal muscle wasting. Her daughter says she is very lethargic and seems depressed lately. Blood show macrocytosis and raised gamma-GT. The serum cortisol is elevated and fails to suppress on low-dose-dexamethasone test. MRI of the head and CT of the body are normal

A. Nelson's syndrome
B. Pseudo-Cushing's syndrome
C. MEN I
D. Simmond’s disease
E. DiGeorge's syndrome
F. Kallmann's syndrome
G. MEN II
H. Cushing's disease
I. Pituitary apoplexy
J. Sheehan's syndrome
A

B. Pseudo-Cushings syndrome - Pseudo-Cushing’s syndrome is where a patient has all of the signs and symptoms and even abnormal hormone levels seen in Cushing’s syndrome however there is no problem to be found with the hypothalamo-pituitary-adrenal axis. It is hence idiopathic. Whole body CT here is normal so rules out causes from organs such as the lungs (ectopic ACTH), adrenals and MRI has also ruled out a pituitary cause.

776
Q

A 16-year-old girl was born colour-blinded and hyposmic. Now she presents with primary amennorhoea and delayed puberty. She has low levels of LH, FSH and oestriadol.

A. Nelson's syndrome
B. Pseudo-Cushing's syndrome
C. MEN I
D. Simmond’s disease
E. DiGeorge's syndrome
F. Kallmann's syndrome
G. MEN II
H. Cushing's disease
I. Pituitary apoplexy
J. Sheehan's syndrome
A

F. Kallmann’s syndrome - Kallmann’s syndrome (hypogonadotrophic hypogonadism) is a cause of primary amenorrhoea. The history tends to be of delayed development of secondary sexual characterisitcs with anosmia. There is either a missing olfactory bulb or one which is not fully developed (this may be seen on MRI) so there may be a lack of a sense of smell or a sense of smell which is severely reduced (hyposmia seen here). It may be diagnostically challenging as it is difficult to distinguish pathological developmental delay from constitutional delay. Normal but pre-pubertal external and internal genitalia are seen, and normal final adult height if treated. You would expect serum FSH to be low (though FSH assays have very very very wide ranges) and LH if done. Low oestradiol can also be expected.

777
Q

A previously well, 29-year-old man with a 2-week history of flu-like illness complains of increasing weakness and numbness in his lower limbs. O/E he has grade 4/5 distal weakness, diminished reflexes, plantars down-going. Upper limbs and cranial nerves unaffected.

A. Bornholm's disease
B. Milroy's disease
C. Alport's syndrome
D. Meig's syndrome
E. Tietze's Syndrome
F. Osler-Weber-Rendu Syndrome
G. Brown-Sequard Syndrome
H. Felty's Syndrome
I. Peutz-Jegher's Syndrome
J. Gullian-Barre Syndrome
A

J. Guillian-Barre syndrome - This previous history of influenza-like illness weeks before the onset of neurological symptoms indicates Guillain-Barre syndrome which is a demyelinating polyneuropathy. Classic neurology is a progressive symmetrical muscle weakness affecting lower extremities before upper extremities, and proximal muscles before distal muscles, accompanied by paraesthesias in the hands and feet which often precedes onset of weakness. The paralysis is typically flaccid with areflexia and progresses acutely over days, with an ensuing plateau phase followed by recovery. Two thirds of patients have a history of either prior influenza-like illness or gastroenteritis. Weak risks include immunisation, cancer and lymphoma, older age, HIV infection and male gender. Up to 30% will develop respiratory muscle weakness requiring ventilation so spirometry should be carried out at 6 hour intervals initially (and may show reduced vital capacity). AST and ALT may be elevated though the cause is unclear. LP is useful and the classic finding is of elevated CSF protein with normal cell count (known as albuminocytological dissociation). Treatment is with supportive and disease modifying treatment (plasma exchange or high dose Ig).
GBS is classified by symptoms and variants exist such as Miller-Fisher syndrome, which occasionally crop up in EMQ books but will probably never crop up in clinical practice.

778
Q

Previously well, 17-year-old girl presents with 3-months history of swelling of her right leg. There is no pain or other associated features. O/E you confirm pitting oedema of the shin, blood tests normal. Her mother also suffers from swollen legs.

A. Bornholm's disease
B. Milroy's disease
C. Alport's syndrome
D. Meig's syndrome
E. Tietze's Syndrome
F. Osler-Weber-Rendu Syndrome
G. Brown-Sequard Syndrome
H. Felty's Syndrome
I. Peutz-Jegher's Syndrome
J. Gullian-Barre Syndrome
A

D. Milroy’s disease - Milroy’s is primary lymphoedema with a familial autosomal dominant pattern of inheritance. It often presents in infancy. There is unfortunately no cure and treatment involves compression, with surgery reserved for those refractive to conservative measures and/or with major morbidity.

779
Q

A 22-year-old lady presents with discomfort in her chest, especially while breathing. There is localised area of tenderness around the 2nd costal cartilage on the right. O/E you can fell a firm, tender lump in this area. There is no history of trauma.

A. Bornholm's disease
B. Milroy's disease
C. Alport's syndrome
D. Meig's syndrome
E. Tietze's Syndrome
F. Osler-Weber-Rendu Syndrome
G. Brown-Sequard Syndrome
H. Felty's Syndrome
I. Peutz-Jegher's Syndrome
J. Gullian-Barre Syndrome
A

E. Tietze’s syndrome - This is costochondritis, or Tietze’s syndrome (which describes constochondritis accompanied by chest wall swelling), which presents with insidious onset of anterior chest wall pain which is made worse by certain movements of the chest and deep inspiration. The key sign here is that there is pain when palpating the costochondral joints, particularly the 2nd to the 5th and the diagnosis is clinical. Tests are done to exclude other diagnoses here such as breast pathology. First line treatment is with NSAIDs. Oral NSAIDs are preferred in a primary care setting and a beneficial response confirms the diagnosis. If NSAIDs or local corticosteroid injection (usually performed by a specialist) fail to make the symptoms better than you should seek further investigations and consider a wider differential diagnosis which include conditions like pleuritis, ACS, PE, rib fracture and GORD.

780
Q

A 41-year-old lady with long-standing RA presents to his GP with recurrent chest infections. She also lost 4kg in past 3 months. O/E there is splenomegaly. FBC confirms pancytopenia.

A. Bornholm's disease
B. Milroy's disease
C. Alport's syndrome
D. Meig's syndrome
E. Tietze's Syndrome
F. Osler-Weber-Rendu Syndrome
G. Brown-Sequard Syndrome
H. Felty's Syndrome
I. Peutz-Jegher's Syndrome
J. Gullian-Barre Syndrome
A

H. Felty’s syndrome - Felty’s syndrome is a rare extra-articular manifestation of rhematoid arthritis characterised by persistent and idiopathic neutropenia and in some cases splenomegaly. It occurs in

781
Q

A 27-year-old gentleman has a long history of frequent nose-bleeds. O/E of his nose you notice red spots on muous membrane. on his face and skin you can also notice some red spots.

A. Bornholm's disease
B. Milroy's disease
C. Alport's syndrome
D. Meig's syndrome
E. Tietze's Syndrome
F. Osler-Weber-Rendu Syndrome
G. Brown-Sequard Syndrome
H. Felty's Syndrome
I. Peutz-Jegher's Syndrome
J. Gullian-Barre Syndrome
A

F. Osler-Weber Rendu syndrome - This man has the facial telangiectasia of OWR, also called hereditary haemorrhagic telangiectasia. This causes abnormal blod vessels pretty much everywhere which are prone to bleed. It is an autosomal dominant condition so a positive FH can often be found.

782
Q

Previously well, 27-year-old woman developed ‘the worst headache ever’ around 3 hours ago. It was sudden and felt like a clap of thunder. He vomitted twice since and has photophobia. There is no family history of headaches, her mother and grandmother died of kidney disease.

A. Meningitis
B. Tension headache
C. Cluster headache
D. Trigeminal neuralgia
E. Space-occupying lesion
F. Cervical spondylosis
G. Migraine
H. Subarachnoid haemorrhage
I. Temporal arteritis
A

H. Subarachnoid haemorrhage - SAH (bleeding into the subarachnoid space) presents with sudden severe headache patients will often describe as the worst headache of their life, and can often be so bad that they feel like they’ve been kicked in the back of the back. Half of all patients lose consciousness and eye pain with exposure to light can also be seen. Altered mental status is common. SAH occurs most commonly in the 50-55 age group and affects women and black people more than men and white people. The most common cause of non-traumatic SAH is an aneurysm which ruptures. Conditions which predispose to aneurysm formation and SAH include adult PKD, Marfan’s, NF1 and Ehlers-Danlos. Cerebral aneurysms arise around the circle of Willis. The family history of kidney disease here points to adult PKD. A CT scan is indicated, and if unrevealing, this should be followed by an LP. Cerebral angiography can confirm the presence of aneurysms. The patient should be stabilised and this followed by surgical clipping or endovascular coil embolisation, the choice is subject to much current controversy sparked by relatively recent research. Complications can commonly occur and include rebleeding, hydrocephalus and vasospasm.

783
Q

A 29-year-old with ulcerative colitis developed an ulcer on his right shin. He is otherwise well, with ABPI of 1.0.

A. Scleroderma
B. Neuropathic ulcer
C. Lymphoedema
D. Sickle cell anaemia
E. Arterial Ulcer
F. Venous Ulcer
G. Pyoderma gangerosum
H. Gangrene
I. Squamous cell carcinoma
A

G. Pyoderma gangerosum - This is pyoderma gangrenosum, which presents with multiple lesions, most commonly affecting the lower extremity and is linked to UC although it can be seen less commonly in Crohn’s, and is also seen in conditions such as RA and the myeloid dyscrasias. These lesions start as tender papules or vesicles which develop into painful ulcers with a dusky purple edge and surrounding induration and erythema. The base may contain granulation tissue and lesions heal with atrophic scars.

784
Q

A 24-year-old lady from sub-Saharan Africa presents with a painful ulcer over the anterior shin of the left leg. ABPI is normal.

A. Scleroderma
B. Neuropathic ulcer
C. Lymphoedema
D. Sickle cell anaemia
E. Arterial Ulcer
F. Venous Ulcer
G. Pyoderma gangerosum
H. Gangrene
I. Squamous cell carcinoma
A

D. Sickle cell anaemia - Adults with sickle cell anaemia may present with leg ulcers although it has to be said that it is very unusual for a person with sickle cell disease to reach adulthood without being aware of their diagnosis. The adult patient could present with unexplained haemolysis, possible intermittent episodes of pain due to vaso-occlusive crises, avascular necrosis and retinal haemorrhage too. The doppler derived ankle-brachial pressure index is normal here which points away from peripheral arterial disease, which in this relatively young person is unlikely in any case. The typical constellation of findings of venous ulcers are not seen (oedema, lipodermatosclerosis).
In real medicine, as it is rare for sickle cell anaemia to present this late, I would consider other possibilities like pyoderma gangrenosum (which is arguably more likely in this case, given the location of the ulcer and age of the patient, so if this was your answer then you can give yourself a ‘real life medicine’ mark), but this is an EMQ (key point!) and the fact this lady is from the sub-Saharan Africa is a key fact. From an epidemiological perspective, the prevalence is 10-30% in sub-Saharan Africa. Between 25 and 30% of newborns in western Africa are carriers of sickle cell trait. This patient here will need to have their peripheral blood film reviewed following by haemoglobin electrophoresis and HPLC. Sickle solubility is a rapid test which can also be done but will not differentiate sickle trait from sickle disease.

785
Q

A 41-year-old man has a slowly growing circular ulcer over his right shin for a year now. The ulcers edges are raised and there is contact bleeding along one edge.

A. Scleroderma
B. Neuropathic ulcer
C. Lymphoedema
D. Sickle cell anaemia
E. Arterial Ulcer
F. Venous Ulcer
G. Pyoderma gangerosum
H. Gangrene
I. Squamous cell carcinoma
A

I. Squamous cell carcinoma - SCC is a malignant tumour of keratinocytes arising in the epidermis of the skin. Risk factors include UV exposure, older age, immunosuppression, fair skin, HPV and exposure to ionising radiation. The skin changes here are characteristic. Most frequently however, SCC often presents with multiple actinic keratoses, with a change in the lesion such as bleeding, induration, change in size and shape or inflammation. Aks and SCCs lie on a spectrum so it may be difficult to clinically differentiate the two. Skin biopsy will confirm the diagnosis. This can either be a shave biopsy, punch biopsy, incisional biopsy or excisional biopsy depending on the size and location.

786
Q

A 17-year-old girl recently started OCP. She presents with abdominal pain and, vomiting and tachycardia. She has developed left foot drop.

A. Porphyria
B. Beri-beri
C. Alcohol excess
D. Vitamin B12 deficiency
E. Lyme disease
F. Lung carcinoma
G. Charcot-Marie_Tooth Syndrome
H. Diabetic amyotrophy
I. HIV
A

A. Porhyria - There are many types of porphyria. This patient has acute intermittent porphyria, which is characterised by symptoms like the ones this patient describes – abdominal pain, peripheral motor neuropathy, mental symptoms like confusion. These symptoms, certainly in EMQs, can be trigged by the use of certain drugs which are known to provoke AIP attacks. In reality, the list of drugs is pretty vast and include most CYP450 inducers, but in EMQs, alcohol and the OCP are common. It is worth noting that alcohol also induces an enzyme called delta-aminolevulinic acid synthase, which can exacerbate AIP. It is probably not worth learning the pathways unless you plan on sitting USMLE. AIP is a genetic disorder where there is a partial deficiency of PBGD (the third enzyme in the haem biosynthetic pathway). Treatment of acute attacks involves IV haem arginate with adjunctive dextrose IV. The pain is thought to be neuropathic in origin. The patient may complain of red/browny urine due to increased urinary excretion of intermediates in the haem pathway.

787
Q

A disabled 60 year-old lady lives on her own and rarely leaves her flat. She called an ambulance after becoming SOB while walking upstairs to her bedroom. O/E she has peripheral oedema up to the groin. She has painful feet and calves with mixed motor and sensory neuropathy. She is tachycardic, hypotensive, with raised JVP.

A. Porphyria
B. Beri-beri
C. Alcohol excess
D. Vitamin B12 deficiency
E. Lyme disease
F. Lung carcinoma
G. Charcot-Marie_Tooth Syndrome
H. Diabetic amyotrophy
I. HIV
A

B. Beri-beri - Beriberi is vitamin B1 (thaimine) deficiency. Deficiency is the cause of several clinical syndromes including wet and dry beriberi and Wenicke’s encephalopathy. The presentation depends on the chronicity of B1 deficiency. Dry beriberi is a distal peripheral polyneuropathy characterised by parasthesia, reduced knee jerks and other tendon reflexes, and progressive severe weakness with muscle wasting secondary to chronic deficiency. Wet beriberi, which this person also has is secondary to either acute or chronic deficiency and is characterised by high-output heart failure with peripheral vasodilation, peripheral oedema and orthopnoea or low-output heart failure with lactic acidosis and peripheral cyanosis. The latter is also referred to as Shosin beriberi.
Remember that Wernicke’s is an acute neuropsychiatric syndrome which classically presents with the triad of acute confusion, ataxia and ocular abnormalities (such as nystagmus and strabismus) secondary to acute B1 deficiency.

788
Q

A known diabetic with peripheral sensory neuropathy is complaining of pain and weakness in his left tight. He can hardly walk upstairs.

A. Porphyria
B. Beri-beri
C. Alcohol excess
D. Vitamin B12 deficiency
E. Lyme disease
F. Lung carcinoma
G. Charcot-Marie_Tooth Syndrome
H. Diabetic amyotrophy
I. HIV
A

H. Diabetic amyotrophy - Diabetic amyotrophy, more common in T2DM, is an uncommon peripheral diabetic neuropathic complaint. It presents with severe muscle weakness and pain with proximal thigh muscle atrophy. Weak knee flexion and quadriceps wasting is typical of diabetic amyotrophy.

789
Q

A 37-year-old man presents with 4-week history of progressive numbness and pain in his hands. O/E you notice multiple violaceous patches and evidence of peripheral sensory neuropathy.

A. Porphyria
B. Beri-beri
C. Alcohol excess
D. Vitamin B12 deficiency
E. Lyme disease
F. Lung carcinoma
G. Charcot-Marie_Tooth Syndrome
H. Diabetic amyotrophy
I. HIV
A

I. HIV - HIV is a retrovirus and there are two types, HIV 1 which is the main virus responsible and HIV 2 which is restricted to parts of West Africa. Strong risk factors include needle sharing with IVDU, unprotected receptive intercourse, needle stick injury and high maternal viral load (mother to child). Kaposi’s sarcoma may present as a pink or violaceous patch on the skin or in the mouth and it is an AIDS-defining condition. Peripheral neuropathy is common and may be related either to HIV or some other medicine or toxin (some HAART can cause PN).
There are WHO (stage 1-4) and CDC criteria used in clinical staging. This patient needs to have a CD4 count, HBV and HCV screen, VDRL (syphilis), tuberculin skin test (TB) and CXR. HIV viral load will also be assessed. Prophylaxis and immunisations should be considered against infections such as hepatitis, influenza, PCP and TB. When to initiate HAART depends on the clinical stage, CD4 and co-morbidities. This patient will need to be started on HAART if he has not already. Classes of antiretrovirals include NRTIs, NNRTIs, protease inhibitors, fusion inhibitors and integrase inhibitors.

790
Q

An elderly gentleman is lethargic and complains of numbness in his feet. Blood test reveals a Hb 6.0g/dl and MCV 115fl. O/E you observe a peripheral sensory neuropathy in his lower limb. You order a blood film.

A. Porphyria
B. Beri-beri
C. Alcohol excess
D. Vitamin B12 deficiency
E. Lyme disease
F. Lung carcinoma
G. Charcot-Marie_Tooth Syndrome
H. Diabetic amyotrophy
I. HIV
A

D. Vitamin B12 deficiency - This is a macrocytic anaemia with elevated MCV. The classical peripheral blood smear would show megalocytes (RBC precursors whose numbers increase) and hypersegmented polymorphonuclear cells although the film may be normal in early deficiency. You would also want to order a serum B12 level in this patient and would expect the corrected reticulocyte index to be low due to decreased production (opposed to high in haemolytic anaemia due to increased production). This peripheral sensory neuropathy would likely be a loss of proprioception and vibration indicating degeneration of the dorsal column-medial lemniscus pathway. The patient may also have a positive Romberg as a result. Parasthesias are also common in B12 deficiency indicating peripheral neuropathy. Pallor and signs of frank anaemia are late signs. It is important to remember that hepatic B12 stores last for many years so B12 deficiency depends on chronic deficiency over a long period of time. In general, deficiency is caused by decreased intake, decreased gastric breakdown from food or malabsorption from the GIT. Serum B12 is a useful investigation to initially conduct and will guide further investigations and treatment. You should consider an underlying malabsorptive process such as coeliac or Crohn’s as a possible cause.

791
Q

A 31-year-old stuntman sustains a displaced spinal fracture with cord transaction at T12/L1 while performing a new trick. He also broken his left humerus and radius. He is stable but his BP remains 100/60 despite fluid resuscitation and his pulse is 55bpm.

A. Percutaneous gastrostomy
B. Intravenous nutrition
C. Cardiogenic shock
D. Neurogenic shock
E. Haemorrhagic shock
F. Spinal shock
G. Pulmonary oedema
H. Urinary retention
I. Acute renal failure
J. Percutaneous jejunostomy
K. Basal atelectasis
A

D. Neurogenic shock - This is a thoracolumbar spine fracture. Neurogenic shock is not to be confused with spinal shock which is not circulatory in nature (and is characterised by hypotonia or flaccidity that resolves within 24 hours). Neurogenic shock is a form of distributive shock due to spine or braintem injury and there is resulting failure of vasoregulation. As a result there is a fall in systemic vascular resistance with vasodilation, leading to low BP as blood pools in the extremeties where sympathetic tone is low. This is occasionally associated with bradycardia which is due to autonomic disruption.

792
Q

A 72-year-old man underwent hip replacement surgery. 8 hours post-op his urine output has been 30ml, 20ml and 5ml over last 3hours. He is now anuric and seems lethargic. Other vital signs remain normal.

A. Percutaneous gastrostomy
B. Intravenous nutrition
C. Cardiogenic shock
D. Neurogenic shock
E. Haemorrhagic shock
F. Spinal shock
G. Pulmonary oedema
H. Urinary retention
I. Acute renal failure
J. Percutaneous jejunostomy
K. Basal atelectasis
A

H. Urinary retention - This is clearly urinary retention. Urine output is gradually deteriorating in a step-wise manner and he is now anuric

793
Q

A 79-year-old frail lady underwent hip replacement surgery. Post-op she has been prescribed 2L saline 8-hourly. On the second day he becomes short of breath, tachypnoeic. O/E bibasal fine crepitations. ABG confirms Type I respiratory failure.

A. Percutaneous gastrostomy
B. Intravenous nutrition
C. Cardiogenic shock
D. Neurogenic shock
E. Haemorrhagic shock
F. Spinal shock
G. Pulmonary oedema
H. Urinary retention
I. Acute renal failure
J. Percutaneous jejunostomy
K. Basal atelectasis
A

G. Pulmonary oedema - This patient has been fluid overloaded and has pulmonary oedema, causing her dyspnoea. She will require diuretics and fluid restriction to deal with his overloaded state. The findings of bibasal fine creptitions, heard at the end of expiration, is characteristic. Infiltrates may also be seen on CXR. Type 1 respiratory failure is hypoxic respiratory failure, which occurs when PaO2 is low. Type 2 respiratory failure is known also as hypercapnic respiratory failure and occurs when there is hypoxia associated with a high PaCO2.
As a general note for your exams. Common causes of type 1 respiratory failure include pulmonary oedema, pneumonia and PE. Common causes of type 2 include COPD and respiratory muscle weakness.

794
Q

A 66-year old obese, smoker with T2DM presents drowsy to A&E. He has central abdominal pain radiating to the back that started around 5 hours before. He is tachycardic, tacypnoeic and his BP is 90/40 mmHg. Femoral pulses are faintly palpable and you can’t feel any pulses distally. His wife says his pulses are not palpable because of his peripheral vascular disease.

A. Percutaneous gastrostomy
B. Intravenous nutrition
C. Cardiogenic shock
D. Neurogenic shock
E. Haemorrhagic shock
F. Spinal shock
G. Pulmonary oedema
H. Urinary retention
I. Acute renal failure
J. Percutaneous jejunostomy
K. Basal atelectasis
A

E. Haemorrhagic shock - This is a history of a ruptured AAA. He has key risk factors of obesity, smoking and T2DM. There is abdominal pain radiating to the back here and the low BP and compensatory tachycardia is due to the blood loss. This patient is in haemorrhagic shock. As this AAA has ruptured, this man will need urgent surgical repair, with of course standard resuscitation measures. The airway will needed to be managed with supplemental oxygen and ET intubation, a central venous catheter will need to be inserted, an arterial catheter and urinary catheter will also be needed for monitoring, and the target systolic BP is 50-70. Infusing too many gluids may increase the risk of death. The most effective form of surgical repair is an EVAR (endovascular AAA repair), anatomy permitting, otherwise traditional open repair is performed. Open repair has a mortality of 48%. Antibiotics will also be needed to cover bacteria to prevent graft infection. This will be prescribed in line with local protocols.

795
Q

Mr A.L is a 69-year-old who had oesophageal cancer underwent oesophagectomy. What kind of feed does he require?

A. Percutaneous gastrostomy
B. Intravenous nutrition
C. Cardiogenic shock
D. Neurogenic shock
E. Haemorrhagic shock
F. Spinal shock
G. Pulmonary oedema
H. Urinary retention
I. Acute renal failure
J. Percutaneous jejunostomy
K. Basal atelectasis
A

J. Percutaneous jejunostomy - This patient needs nutritional support to prevent malnutrition and starvation. Enteral nutrition here is not possible as a chunk of the oesophagus has just been removed and we have to wait for an intact anastomosis. During surgery, a percutaneous jejunostomy can be placed to provide a temporary route of nutrition until oral feeding can resume. A surgeon at operation cannot place a percutaneous gastrostomy, and it is more suitable for prolonged feeding. Furthermore, in the immediate post-operative period, there may be gastric stasis so it is preferred to deliver the feed via a post-pyloric placement. If you have seen a PEG tube (percutaneous gastrostomy), you will know why it is not preferred. It is not a pleasant sight (and I don’t mean cosmetically – just have a look at the needle). Some younger people may ask for it to be converted to a button gastrostomy for cosmetic reasons. A PEG tube is placed laparoscopically.
A percutaneous jejunostomy is an alternative to parenteral (IV) nutrition in this post-operative patient. Parenteral nutrition is really a last resort and this is not an indication for it. Only when the GIT is either unavailable or function is indequate should you consider it. This can be delivered via a venflon, PICC line or centrally. There are a host of complications, both nutritionally, related to the catheter e.g. infection, thrombosis and the effect on organ systems e.g. biliary disease. Note that you should also be aware of the phenomenon known as refeeding syndrome.

796
Q

A 29-year-old man presents with frank haematuria. He also had sore throat, myalgia and fever for last 2 days. You notice his ankles are swollen. There is raised IgA titre.

A. Henoch-Schonlein purpura
B. Alport's syndrome
C. Renal stones
D. Goodpasture's Syndrome
E. Thin membrane disease
F. Wegener's granulomatosis
G. Retroperitoneal fibrosis
H. IgA nephropathy
I. Post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis
A

H. IgA nephropathy - About 50% of those with IgA nephropathy will present with recurrent episodes of macroscopic haematuria after a URTI or gastroenteritis. About a third will have microscopic haematuria and mild proteinuria. Less than 10% present with nephrotic syndrome or acute rapidly progressive GN. Fever and myalgia are systemic findings. The oedema here may indicate nephrotic syndrome. Definitive diagnosis is made on renal biopsy. Light microscopy shows focal or diffuse mesangial proliferation and extracellular expansion, and IF shows diffuse mesangial IgA deposition in a granular pattern. ACE inhibitors are prescribed to reduce proteinuria, particularly in the setting of hypertension but they have not been shown to preserve renal function. Early treatment with corticosteroids has been shown to delay renal decline in those with moderate proteinuria. A urine dipstick would be the first test to order here.

797
Q

A 35-year-old with respiratory tract infection developed haemoptysis. His ankles are swollen. Blood test shows creatinine of 400 µmol/l. Antibody screen is positive for MPO-ANCA and anti-GBM antibodies.

A. Henoch-Schonlein purpura
B. Alport's syndrome
C. Renal stones
D. Goodpasture's Syndrome
E. Thin membrane disease
F. Wegener's granulomatosis
G. Retroperitoneal fibrosis
H. IgA nephropathy
I. Post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis
A

D. Goodpasture’s syndrome - Goodpasture’s syndrome is defined by autoantibodies to the alpha-3 chain of type IV collagen which leads to progressive renal dysfunction. It is one of the few causes of pulmonary renal syndrome, which is characterised by pulmonary haemorrhage with rapidly progressive GN. Diagnosis is by early renal biopsy and serology. Around 30-50% of patients with anti-GBM disease will have a positive ANCA result, which changes subsequent management of this condition. Positive ANCA usually suggests a diagnosis of Wegener’s granulomatosis, Churg-Strauss or microscopic polyarteritis instead of Goodpasture’s. Note that MPO-ANCA is also known as pANCA and ANCA stands for anti-neutrophil cystoplasmic antibodies. Anti-GBM serology is a confirmatory diagnostic test in addition to renal biopsy and this can also be used to monitor response to treatment and to gauge when to stop plasmapheresis (i.e. when the antibody titre turns negative). Biopsy of the kidneys will show a crescentic GN and characteristic linear IgG staining on immunofluorescence. The renal function tests here are abnormal, which is the hallmark of Goodpasture’s syndrome.
If it is diagnosed before renal dysfunction becomes severe then aggressive treatment can lead to an excellent prognosis. Plasma exchange can be used to remove preformed antibodies.

798
Q

An 8 year old boy presents with haematuria, frothy urine and oliguria. On investigation, proteinuria, and red cell casts in the urine are confirmed. Two weeks before he has had pharyngitis. There is a raised ASOT, IgM and IgG titres.

A. Henoch-Schonlein purpura
B. Alport's syndrome
C. Renal stones
D. Goodpasture's Syndrome
E. Thin membrane disease
F. Wegener's granulomatosis
G. Retroperitoneal fibrosis
H. IgA nephropathy
I. Post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis
A

I. Post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis - Nephritic syndrome is typically defined by acute kidney injury, hypertension and an active urinary sediment (RBCs and RBC casts). This is post-infectious glomerulonephritis caused by group A beta-haemolytic streptococcus with renal endothelial cell damage. Serological markers would expect to show antibodies to streptococcus and low complement and treatment here is with antibiotics. The high ASOT (antistreptolysin O antibody titres) indicates post-streptococcal GN. There may also be positive anti-Dnase and antihyaluronidase in post-streptococcal GN.
As a note, causes of nephritic syndrome (with sub-nephrotic range proteinuria) include: IgA nephropathy, post-infectious GN and rapidly progressive GN. Nephrotic syndrome causes include minimal change disease, focal and segmental glomerulosclerosis, membranous nephropathy, deposition diseases and membranoproliferative GN.

799
Q

A 10-year-old boy developed a palpable purpura on lower limbs and buttocks. He also complains of colicky abdominal pain and swelling of his ankles. He has raised serum IgA.

A. Henoch-Schonlein purpura
B. Alport's syndrome
C. Renal stones
D. Goodpasture's Syndrome
E. Thin membrane disease
F. Wegener's granulomatosis
G. Retroperitoneal fibrosis
H. IgA nephropathy
I. Post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis
A

A. Henoch-Schonlein purpura - Henoch-Schonlein purpura is the most common vasculitis in childhood and in all cases there is a rash of palpable purpura which are typically non-blanching. If there is no rash, then it is not HSP. They are normally 2-10mm in diameter and are due to the extravasation of blood into the skin. They can occur anywhere on the body but are usually concentrated on the lower extremities. Half of all patients have abdominal pain and arthralgias are commonly present (found in about 80%) and often associated with oedema. The joints most often affected are the knees and ankles. About half will show signs of renal disease such as proteinuria or haematuria. Risk factors for this condition include being male, age 3-15 and history of prior UTI. Complications can occur and the most common cause of death is renal failure. While serum IgA levels may be elevated, this is not a specific test for HSP.

800
Q

A 46-year-old woman with Crohn’s disease presents with oliguria for 3 days. She has also recently suffered from lower back pain.O/E she is hypertensive, the kidneys are palpable.

A. Henoch-Schonlein purpura
B. Alport's syndrome
C. Renal stones
D. Goodpasture's Syndrome
E. Thin membrane disease
F. Wegener's granulomatosis
G. Retroperitoneal fibrosis
H. IgA nephropathy
I. Post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis
A

G. Retroperitoneal fibrosis - Retroperitoneal fibrosis is a rare disorder where there is proliferation of fibrous tissue in the retroperitoneum which here has caused the ureters to become obstructed. This has led to oliguria, back pain and the palpable kidneys. The cause could be an effect of antihypertensives, or due to malignancy or some other cause. A CT scan is the test to order here and treatment depends on severity and can be either surgical or medical, the latter generally with glucocorticoids followed by DMARDs.

801
Q

Contraction of the muscles of the face when tapped gently on the cheek. Sign of hypocalcaemia.

A. Corrigan's sign
B. Cullen's sign
C. Trosseau's sign
D. Raccoon eyes
E. Grey-Turner's sign
F. Murphy's sign
G. Traube's sign
H. Quincke's sign
I. Muller's sign
J. Chvostek's sign
K. Battle's sign
A

J. Chvostek’s sign - Trousseau’s sign is carpal spasm when a blood pressure cuff is used for several minutes. Carpopedal spasm that occurs with hypocalcaemia is a painful spasm and could be the presenting sign. Chvostek’s sign is twitching of the perioral muscles in response to tapping over the facial nerve at the ear. If urgent replacement is necessary, calcium gluconate can be given IV. It is preferred over calcium chloride as it causes less tissue necrosis if it leaks out. It is worth noting that digoxin may be ineffective until serum calcium is restored to normal.

802
Q

A child develops a black eye after falling off the horse. Fracture of the base of skull is diagnosed.

A. Corrigan's sign
B. Cullen's sign
C. Trosseau's sign
D. Raccoon eyes
E. Grey-Turner's sign
F. Murphy's sign
G. Traube's sign
H. Quincke's sign
I. Muller's sign
J. Chvostek's sign
K. Battle's sign
A

D. Raccoon eyes - Basilar skull fractures have specific clinical features. Blood pooling from these fractures can cause periorbital bruising (raccoon eyes), brusing over the mastoid area (Battle’s sign) and bloody otorrhoea. There may also be CSF leak resulting in CSF otorrhoea or rhinorrhoea. A unilateral raccoon eye has an 85% positive predictive value for this diagnosis.

803
Q

A 42-year-old obese lady with history of gall stones develops epigastric pain radiating to the back. She is tachycardic and hypotensive. There is a large bruise on the left flank. She denies any injuries.

A. Corrigan's sign
B. Cullen's sign
C. Trosseau's sign
D. Raccoon eyes
E. Grey-Turner's sign
F. Murphy's sign
G. Traube's sign
H. Quincke's sign
I. Muller's sign
J. Chvostek's sign
K. Battle's sign
A

E. Grey-Turner’s sign - Complicated haemorrhagic pancreatitis may exhibit Cullen’s sign, Grey-Turner’s sign and Fox’s sign. Grey-Turner’s sign refers to bruising of the flanks and can take 24-48 hours to occur. It is due to retroperitoneal haemorrhage.

804
Q

Positive in cholecystitis.

A. Corrigan's sign
B. Cullen's sign
C. Trosseau's sign
D. Raccoon eyes
E. Grey-Turner's sign
F. Murphy's sign
G. Traube's sign
H. Quincke's sign
I. Muller's sign
J. Chvostek's sign
K. Battle's sign
A

F. Murphy’s sign - A positive Murphy’s sign may commonly be seen in cholecystitis. This is where palpation of the right subcostal region reveals tenderness. During deep inspiration, the tenderness suddenly becomes worse and there is inspiratory arrest as a result. This sign can also be elicited during ultrasound examination when pressure is applied using the ultrasound probe.

805
Q

Nail bed fluctuation in aortic regurgitation.

A. Corrigan's sign
B. Cullen's sign
C. Trosseau's sign
D. Raccoon eyes
E. Grey-Turner's sign
F. Murphy's sign
G. Traube's sign
H. Quincke's sign
I. Muller's sign
J. Chvostek's sign
K. Battle's sign
A

H. Quincke’s sign - Quincke’s sign is an uncommonly seen sign where there is subungal or lip capillary pulsations caused by the large stroke volume seen in AR. This is a peripheral sign associated with a bounding pulse and the systolic hypertension of chronic severe aortic regurgitation.

806
Q

A fit 28 year old man comes for an insurance medical & is found to have microscopic haematuria & on abdominal examination is found to have 2 large masses about 20cms by 12cms in each flank.

A. Cystoscopy
B. Abdominal ultrasound
C. Prostatic specific antigen blood test
D. MSU: microscopy and culture
E. X-ray lumbar spine
F. ASO titre blood test
G. Helical CT
H. 24 hour urine monitoring
I. Biopsy of prostate
J. Retrograde pyelogram
A

B. Abdominal ultrasound - This sounds like ADPKD. There may be a FH of PKD or ESRF or cerebrovascular events (intracranial berry aneurysms in the circle of Willis and SAH). Patients may have haematuria, palpable kidneys and symptoms of a UTI. Hypertension and flank pain are also commonly seen. Hepatosplenomegaly may also be found. A renal ultrasound is the first test to order when the diagnosis is suspected. If the ultrasound is equivocal, a CT scan can be done of the abdomen and pelvis.

807
Q

A 25-year-old woman comes back from holiday complaining of a two day history of frequency and dysuria. On dipsticking the urine you find red cells, leukocytes and protein.

A. Cystoscopy
B. Abdominal ultrasound
C. Prostatic specific antigen blood test
D. MSU: microscopy and culture
E. X-ray lumbar spine
F. ASO titre blood test
G. Helical CT
H. 24 hour urine monitoring
I. Biopsy of prostate
J. Retrograde pyelogram
A

D. MSU: microscopy antigen blood test - This young woman has presented with a UTI (dysuria, frequency, haematuria). Sexual activity the strongest risk factor for UTIs in women and she’s just come back from ‘holiday’. It is diagnosed with a urine dipstick (already done), and microscopic analysis for bacteria, WBC and RBC and urine culture and antibiotic sensitivities. Antibiotic selection should be based on local guidelines or known sensitivities. Uncomplicated UTIs with no known antibiotic resistance can be treated with co-trimoxazole or nitrofurantoin. If there is resistance, a quinolone can be considered such as ciprofloxacin.

808
Q

A 75-year-old man who presents with frank, painless haematuria. He tells you that 3 years ago he had a similar episode and was diagnosed as having ‘warts in the bladder’. After treatment, he moved and was lost to follow-up but had been symptom free since then.

A. Cystoscopy
B. Abdominal ultrasound
C. Prostatic specific antigen blood test
D. MSU: microscopy and culture
E. X-ray lumbar spine
F. ASO titre blood test
G. Helical CT
H. 24 hour urine monitoring
I. Biopsy of prostate
J. Retrograde pyelogram
A

A. Cystoscopy - “Warts in the bladder” is the way of some sneaky urologist avoiding telling this man he had cancer. He was treated, and like all cancer patients, was followed up. Unfortunately, this sounds like a recurrence. Gross haematuria is the primary symptom of bladder cancer. Cystoscopy and urinary cytology are key in diagnosis. Low grade tumours are papillary and easy to see on cystoscopy whereas high grade tumours and carcinoma in situ are often difficult to visualise. Resection provides diagnosis and primary treatment in one step.

809
Q

A 45-year-old man wakes in the night with severe pain in his right flank radiating round to the front and into his groin. He can’t get comfortable, but on examination his abdomen is soft with no masses. His urine shows a trace of blood but no other abnormality.

A. Cystoscopy
B. Abdominal ultrasound
C. Prostatic specific antigen blood test
D. MSU: microscopy and culture
E. X-ray lumbar spine
F. ASO titre blood test
G. Helical CT
H. 24 hour urine monitoring
I. Biopsy of prostate
J. Retrograde pyelogram
A

G. Helical CT - This patient has renal colic which classically presents with severe flank pain radiating to the groin. Microscopic haematuria is present in up to 90% of cases. Up to 85% of stones are visible on a plain KUB although urate stones are radiolucent. If the stone is radio-opaque, calcification will be seen within the urinary tract. In pregnancy, a renal USS is first line. The IVP has now been replaced by the CT scan which is the new diagnostic standard. A non-contrast helical (or spiral) CT is preferred due to high sensitivity and specificity and acurately determines presence, site and size of stones. Stones are analysed after they are extracted or when they are expelled to check their composition. It is worth noting that in all females of child bearing age, a urine pregnancy test is necessary to exclude an ectopic pregnancy.

810
Q

An 80 year old man presents with severely painful feet with mottled and purple toes with black areas. He tells you that he has also had constant severe back pain for a few days.

A. Lumbar puncture
B. Arteriogram
C. Blood sugar
D. Cold provocation test
E. Full blood count
F. Blood cultures
G. Venous duplex scan
H. Anti-neutrophil cytoplasmic antibody
I. CT scan
A

I. CT scan - This patient has a dissecting aortic aneurysm which can be diagnosed with a CT scan showing the presence of an intimal flap. The CT scan should include chest, abdomen and pelvis to visualise the extent of the aneurysm. Dissecting aneurysms are either type A, which involves the ascending aorta, or type B. Type A dissections require urgent surgery whereas type B can be managed medically if it is not complicated by end organ ischaemia. The aortic dissection has led to a cholesterol embolism. This can be diagnosed histopathologically with the finding of cholesterol crystals. The phenomenon where cholesterol is released from an atherosclerotic plaque is called ‘trash foot’. A highly technical medical term. This results in the mottled appearance of distal embolism associated with livedo reticularis. You can search the internet for some case reports of this phenomenon.

811
Q

A 35 year old woman arrives on a plane from Melbourne with a swollen right leg. A few days later her leg is even more swollen and her toes have gone black

A. Lumbar puncture
B. Arteriogram
C. Blood sugar
D. Cold provocation test
E. Full blood count
F. Blood cultures
G. Venous duplex scan
H. Anti-neutrophil cytoplasmic antibody
I. CT scan
A

G. Venous duplex scan - This patient has a DVT. Other risk factors include recent major surgery, active malignancy, pregnancy and malignancy. A Wells score is determined in all patients with a suspected DVT with the condition being likely if the score is 2 or greater. The most definitive test is venography but it is invasive. Compression USS of the proximal deep venous system is preferred but Doppler venous flow testing can be used if other tests are unavailable and will demonstrate low flow in affected veins. This requires a trained technician. Anticoagulation is the mainstay of treatment with unfractionated heparin, a LMWH or an anti FXa agent such as fondaparinux.

812
Q

A 25-year-old university student presents with high fevers. He has a petechial rash, black areas on his digits and a blood pressure of 70/50.

A. Lumbar puncture
B. Arteriogram
C. Blood sugar
D. Cold provocation test
E. Full blood count
F. Blood cultures
G. Venous duplex scan
H. Anti-neutrophil cytoplasmic antibody
A

F. Blood cultures - This patient has sepsis. Sepsis is the presence of SIRS with a likely infectious cause. This patient’s profound arterial hypotension means he has severe sepsis (dysfunction of one or more organ systems). The patient being a young university student most likely has meningitis even though symptoms of headache, photophobia and neck stiffness are not mentioned. Hence, a LP would be performed but it is not the 1st test to order in a patient who presents with sepsis.

It is important in the first instance to obtain a blood culture immediately, and preferably before antibiotics are started. If this is bacterial meningitis, you would expect to see a raised WCC on the LP with elevated protein, normal/reduced glucose and predominantly neutrophils in the white cell differential. Early blood cultures allows you to either broaden your empirical antibiotic spectrum or narrow it in those with sensitive organisms. It is worth noting that in sepsis, the patient may have a low temperature

813
Q

A 55 year old woman presents with painful joints, a purpuric rash on her arms and legs. Systems review reveals heamoptysis and ear pain. On examination you find black patches on her toes.

A. Lumbar puncture
B. Arteriogram
C. Blood sugar
D. Cold provocation test
E. Full blood count
F. Blood cultures
G. Venous duplex scan
H. Anti-neutrophil cytoplasmic antibody
A

H. Anti-neutrophil cytoplasmic antibody - This patient has Wegener’s granulomatosis, a systemic vasculitis affecting small and medium sized vessels. The classic triad includes upper and lower respiratory tract involvement and GN. Musculoskeletal manifestations such as arthralgia and signs of thromboembolism are commonly seen. A positive cANCA (antigen being proteinase 3) in the setting of the classic triad is sufficient to diagnose Wegener’s. Urinalysis and microscopy is also indicated to reveal renal involvement and a CT chest may reveal lung involvement, particularly in those who are asymptomatic for pulmonary involvement. This may show nodules or infiltrates.

814
Q

An 80-year-old man with diabetes presents with black right great and second toes. He also has an ulcer on the ball of the foot.

A. Lumbar puncture
B. Arteriogram
C. Blood sugar
D. Cold provocation test
E. Full blood count
F. Blood cultures
G. Venous duplex scan
H. Anti-neutrophil cytoplasmic antibody
A

B. Arteriogram - Diabetic neuropathy has lead to the painless ulcer developing over pressure points in the foot such as on the ball of this man’s foot. This may have resulted from an object becoming lodged in the shoe and eroding through the skin with walking. This is why it is important for diabetics to check their feet regularly and to wear specialised footwear. The black toes on his right foot are likely due to peripheral vascular disease. It is worth noting that peripheral vascular disease refers specifically to peripheral arterial disease. The first line study is an ABPI although an arteriogram can be done to identify areas of stenoses which can be treated surgically. The black mummified toes may have to be amputated.

815
Q

A 25-year-old Sikh presents 3 months after arrival in the UK with anaemia and an enlarged spleen. He gives history of intermittent febrile episodes.

A. Thick blood film
B. Haemoglobin electrophoresis
C. Upper GI endoscopy
D. Colonoscopy
E. Anti-gliadin andtibodies
F. Thin blood film
G. Serum ferritin
H. Urea and electrolytes
I. Faecal occult bloods
J. Faecal fats
K. Bone marrow biopsy
L. Barium meal and follow through
A

A. Thick blood film - In the Western world, almost all cases of malaria occurs in travellers so an adequate travel history is crucial or the diagnosis may be missed. Patients typically present with non-specific symptoms such as a fever, sweats, chills and myalgia. This Sikh may have just arrived from an endemic area. Sometimes EMQs will describe patterns of fevers occuring at regular intervals of 48-72 hours associated with P. vivax, P. ovale and P. malariae infections but in most patients there is no specific pattern. Hepatosplenomegaly is a common presenting sign, although in the Western world, it is not common on initial presentation.

The test of choice is Giesma-stained thick and thin blood smears. Thick films sensitively detect parasites whereas thin films allow species identification and calculation of parasitaemia to guide treatment. In this case, if you had to pick one, then the thick film would be more useful in establishing the diagnosis. Studies have shown that for P falciparum, the most effective treatment is artesunate which is more effective than quinine without the risk of cinchonism. However, not all hospitals are currently licensed to use it in the UK (in London, only the Hospital for Tropical Diseases and Northwick Park). Artesunate is manufactured by a pharmaceutical company in China and there are doubts over the quality of the product. However, there have now been numerous studies such as the AQUAMAT study in The Lancet showing that quinine should no longer be the established treatment of choice.

816
Q

A 41-year-old woman of Mediterranean descent is found to be anaemic. She has hepatosplenomegaly and normal haematinics.

A. Thick blood film
B. Haemoglobin electrophoresis
C. Upper GI endoscopy
D. Colonoscopy
E. Anti-gliadin andtibodies
F. Thin blood film
G. Serum ferritin
H. Urea and electrolytes
I. Faecal occult bloods
J. Faecal fats
K. Bone marrow biopsy
L. Barium meal and follow through
A

B. Haemaglobin electrophoresis - This is beta-thalassaemia, either major or intermedia due to the findings of abdominal distension, skeletal changes and hepatosplenomegaly which is not seen in heterozygoud beta-thalassaemia trait. The pallor is highly suggestive of moderate to severe anaemia, confirmed by the test results. Beta-thalassaemia major (or Cooley anaemia) is due to a complete abscence of HbA and often presents at a few months of age with pallor and abdominal distension, both described by parents as being progressive in nature. HSM and bony abnormalities (most often the frontal and parietal bossing mentioned, as well as ‘chipmunk facies’) are often present at presentation. Intermedia has a similar presentation but in a toddler or older child, with less pronounced symptoms and a more insidious course. Blood transfusions are required though stem cell transplant offers a hope of a cure. Hb electrophoresis will reveal minimal or no HbA and elevated HbF and HbA2.

817
Q

An 18-year-old African woman presents in A&E with severe right shin pain. She has had similar previous episodes. She is found to be anaemic.

A. Thick blood film
B. Haemoglobin electrophoresis
C. Upper GI endoscopy
D. Colonoscopy
E. Anti-gliadin andtibodies
F. Thin blood film
G. Serum ferritin
H. Urea and electrolytes
I. Faecal occult bloods
J. Faecal fats
K. Bone marrow biopsy
L. Barium meal and follow through
A

B. Haemoglobin electrophoresis - Africans have higher incidence of sickle cell anaemia. This is a presentation of bone pain. About 8% of black people carry the gene and the prevalence is high in sub-Saharan Africa. Sickling occurs when RBCs containing HbS become distorted into a crescent shape. Patients with sickle cell anaemia have no HbA at all. If both parents carry the sickle cell gene, there is a 1 in 4 chance of giving birth to a child with sickle cell anaemia. Sickle cell disease also includes other conditions such as HbS from one parent with another abnormal Hb or beta thalassaemia from the other parent such as HbS-Beta thal and HbSC.

818
Q

A 62-year-old man with chronic mechanical low back pain which has been treated with ibuprofen. He presents with bilateral ankle oedema and dyspnoea. He is found to have a haemoglobin of 7.2g/dL and has epigastric tenderness.

A. Thick blood film
B. Haemoglobin electrophoresis
C. Upper GI endoscopy
D. Colonoscopy
E. Anti-gliadin andtibodies
F. Thin blood film
G. Serum ferritin
H. Urea and electrolytes
I. Faecal occult bloods
J. Faecal fats
K. Bone marrow biopsy
L. Barium meal and follow through
A

C. Upper GI endoscopy - This patient is anaemic due to a bleeding peptic ulcer which has resulted from prolonged NSAID use. Dyspnoea is a symptom here and the ankle oedema could be due to high output heart failure. The most specific and sensitive test is an upper GI endoscopy. Duodenal ulcers rarely undergo malignant transformation so do not require a compulsory biopsy but gastric ulcers require biopsies to rule this out. Management is aimed at correcting the underlying cause such as discontinuing NSAIDs in this case. H. pylori eradication should be started if the organism is present with triple therapy. Otherwise, a PPI is indicated.

819
Q

A 71-year-old woman presents with early morning diarrhoea of 3 months duration and is found to be anaemic. There is no obstruction on digital rectal examination, but blood is noticed on the finger stall.

A. Thick blood film
B. Haemoglobin electrophoresis
C. Upper GI endoscopy
D. Colonoscopy
E. Anti-gliadin andtibodies
F. Thin blood film
G. Serum ferritin
H. Urea and electrolytes
I. Faecal occult bloods
J. Faecal fats
K. Bone marrow biopsy
L. Barium meal and follow through
A

D. Colonoscopy - Anaemia in this case is a sinister sign which could point to possible malignancy, particularly given the patient’s advanced age. There is GI bleeding here, presumed to be lower GI, which needs to be investigated with a colonoscopy.

820
Q

A 40-year-old man who has been investigated for iron deficiency anaemia has a normal upper GI endoscopy and colonoscopy. A barium meal and follow through was also unhelpful.

A. Thick blood film
B. Haemoglobin electrophoresis
C. Upper GI endoscopy
D. Colonoscopy
E. Anti-gliadin andtibodies
F. Thin blood film
G. Serum ferritin
H. Urea and electrolytes
I. Faecal occult bloods
J. Faecal fats
K. Bone marrow biopsy
L. Barium meal and follow through
A

E. Anti-gliadin antibodies - This man is being investigated for a microcytic IDA here. The cause is not dietary iron intake given the history. So this could still be due to inadequate absorption such as coeliac disease or loss from GI bleeding. The unremarkable endoscopy results and barium studies indicate the absence of GI bleeding. This leaves coeliac disease, or potentially idiopathic, but the next thing to do here is to investigate the possibility of coeliac disease. Coeliac most common presents with IDA, although it can also lead to a macrocytic anaemia with mainly folate deficiency (though B12 is also affected but hepatic stores last several years). It is an autoimmune condition triggered by gluten peptides found in wheat, rye and barley. The ultimate best test is duodenal biopsy and histology to show intra-epithelial lymphocytes, villous atrophy and crypt hyperplasia. Macroscopic changes may be present but endoscopy is generally unhelpful, as in this case. The test of choice before performing such an invasive confirmatory test is to look for elevated anti-gliadin antibodies. Anti-tissue transglutaminase is less accurate and endomysial antibody is more expensive and has lower sensitivity.

821
Q

A 45-year-old man with a long history of excess alcohol consumption presents with haematemesis. On examination he is clubbed and has spider naevi.

A. Colonoscopy
B. Echocardiogram
C. Sputum culture
D. Lung function tests
E. Abdominal ultrasound scan
F. Bronchoscopy
G. Chest x-ray
H. Stool culture
A

E. Abdominal ultrasound - This is clubbing due to cirrhosis as a result of chronic alcohol excess. Ultrasound here is the only feasible option on the list and can detect advanced cirrhosis and possible signs of portal hypertension, such as ascites, splenomegaly and increased portal vein diameter. The ultrasound may show a nodular liver surface, the liver may itself be shrunk due to cirrhosis and the left hand side of the liver may be hypertrophied. USS findings with a good clinical suspicion is enough for diagnosis.

822
Q

A 45-year-old man with a history of occupational exposure to dust in the building and demolition industry presents with SOB. On examination clubbing and signs of peripheral effusion.

A. Colonoscopy
B. Echocardiogram
C. Sputum culture
D. Lung function tests
E. Abdominal ultrasound scan
F. Bronchoscopy
G. Chest x-ray
H. Stool culture
A

G. Chest x-ray - Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis (previously known as Cryptogenic fibrosing alveolitis) progresses over several years and is characterised by pulmonary scar tissue formation and dyspnoea. Patients complain of a non-productive cough and typically reproducible and predictable SOB on exertion. This man’s work means he comes into contact with small organic or inorganic dust particles which is thought to be implicated in the cascade of events leading to IPF. Another risk factor is cigarette smoking which significantly increases the risk of IPF. The mean age of diagnosis is 60-70. CXR here will show reticular opacities. A high resolution CT scan can also be done if it was an option on this list.

823
Q

A 19-year-old woman with a past history of cardiac surgery in infancy presents with symptoms of decreasing exercise tolerance. On examination there is cyanosis and clubbing.

A. Colonoscopy
B. Echocardiogram
C. Sputum culture
D. Lung function tests
E. Abdominal ultrasound scan
F. Bronchoscopy
G. Chest x-ray
H. Stool culture
A

B. Echocardiography - The only cardiac investigation here is an echocardiogram. Cardiovascular causes of clubbing include cyanotic congenital heart disease, infective endocarditis and atrial myxoma. This could well be Eisenmenger’s syndrome caused by shunt reversal.

824
Q

A 50-year-old woman, who gave up smoking 5 years ago, presents with SOB and weight loss. On examination she is clubbed. The CXR shows a perihilar shadow..

A. Colonoscopy
B. Echocardiogram
C. Sputum culture
D. Lung function tests
E. Abdominal ultrasound scan
F. Bronchoscopy
G. Chest x-ray
H. Stool culture
A

F. Bronchoscopy - The history of smoking and weight loss point to a bronchial carcinoma. Whilst the initial investigation is with a CXR, diagnosis relies on pathological confirmation from a tissue sample, often obtained from bronchoscopy. Non-small cell lung cancer is more often associated with clubbing.

825
Q

A 36-year-old woman complains of right loin pain and gross haematuria. She is discovered to be hypertensive. Abdominal examination reveals a palpable renal mass. There is FH of kidney failure and SAH. Plasma creatinine is normal.

A. Normal variant
B. Essential hypertension
C. Renal artery stenosis
D. SLE
E. Shock
F. Acute interstitial nephritis
G. Pre-eclampsia
H. Polycystic kidney disease
I. Chemotherapy
J. Obstructive uropathy
K. Diabetic nephropathy
A

H. Polycystic kidney disease - This sounds like autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease. There may like in this case be a FH of PKD or ESRF or cerebrovascular events (intracranial berry aneurysms in the circle of Willis and subsequent SAH). Patients may have haematuria (which can be gross), palpable kidneys and symptoms of a UTI which is common in those with the condition. Hypertension and flank pain are also commonly seen. Hepatosplenomegaly may also be found. A renal ultrasound is the first test to order when the diagnosis is suspected. If the ultrasound is equivocal, a CT scan can be done of the abdomen and pelvis.

826
Q

A 28-year-old woman with a carcinoma of the cervix presents to A&E complaining of an inability to urinate in the last 8 hours. She has severe lower abdominal pain and had noted a weak stream prior to this and episodes of nocturia. There is lower abdominal distension, dull to percussion. Plasma creatinine is 250μmol/l. BP was 130/80. Urinalysis was negative.

A. Normal variant
B. Essential hypertension
C. Renal artery stenosis
D. SLE
E. Shock
F. Acute interstitial nephritis
G. Pre-eclampsia
H. Polycystic kidney disease
I. Chemotherapy
J. Obstructive uropathy
K. Diabetic nephropathy
A

J. Obstructive uropathy - This is obstructive uropathy caused by a block in urinary flow by the cervical carcinoma affecting the urinary tract. The history here is highly suggestive of acute retention with pain, distension and the dull percussion note of a full bladder. The patient also has been unable to pass urine for many hours. The diagnosis should already be obvious from this. Other more common conditions which often can give rise to an obstructive uropathy are stones and BPH. Treatment is initially directed at relieving pressure on the kidneys to prevent nephropathy and irreversible damage. This may involve insertion of a catheter, stent or nephrostomy tube, depending on what has caused the obstruction and where it is. Further treatment will be aimed at the cause.

827
Q

A 56 year old man on NSAIDs and amoxicillin for bronchitis develops a rash. He is mildy febrile despite the resolution of his bronchitis. The patient is confirmed to be in acute renal failure with elevated urea and creatinine and there is also pedal oedema. He is not oliguric. FBC shows eosinophilia.

A. Normal variant
B. Essential hypertension
C. Renal artery stenosis
D. SLE
E. Shock
F. Acute interstitial nephritis
G. Pre-eclampsia
H. Polycystic kidney disease
I. Chemotherapy
J. Obstructive uropathy
K. Diabetic nephropathy
A

F. Acute interstitial nephritis - Acute interstitial nephritis classically presents with acute renal failure associated with oliguria and the ‘hypersensitivity triad’ of rash, fever and eosinophilia triggered by a drug. This can commonly be antibiotics, especially beta-lactams, and NSAIDs, though the range of triggering medications is vast. Oliguria can be present in more severe cases. There is inflammation of the renal interstitium, as suggested by the name, and this is likely a hypersensitivity reaction. It can also occur in the setting of a chronic inflammatory disease instead of being drug triggered. It will usually resolve once you stop the offending drug and treatment is supportive, though corticosteroids can be given to dampen the reaction. Most patients recover but have some residual impairment.

828
Q

A 28 year old man presents with haematemesis and a 3 month history of abdominal pain. His BP is 82/41, HR 119 and afebrile. His peripheries feel cool to touch. He is catheterised and you note decreased urine output. Urine and creatinine is elevated and the consultant asks you why his kidneys are compromised.

A. Normal variant
B. Essential hypertension
C. Renal artery stenosis
D. SLE
E. Shock
F. Acute interstitial nephritis
G. Pre-eclampsia
H. Polycystic kidney disease
I. Chemotherapy
J. Obstructive uropathy
K. Diabetic nephropathy
A

E. Shock - In shock there is inadequate organ perfusion and when this includes the kidneys you get renal hypoperfusion (evidenced by this man’s oliguria) which can progress to acute renal failure. The reason here is hypovolaemia due to loss of intravascular volume from this man’s haematemesis. The cool peripheries (hands and feet) indicate poor peripheral perfusion. There is low BP and reflex tachycardia here too. Treatment here will be with volume replacement with IV saline and to treat the underlying cause, ideally in ICU. Do you know some causes of haematemesis?

829
Q

A 32 year old woman at 34 weeks gestation presents with acute RUQ pain and a frontal headache. There is oliguria and increasing oedema as well as proteinuria of 3+ on urinalysis. Creatinine is elevated. The doctor starts her on labetalol.

A. Normal variant
B. Essential hypertension
C. Renal artery stenosis
D. SLE
E. Shock
F. Acute interstitial nephritis
G. Pre-eclampsia
H. Polycystic kidney disease
I. Chemotherapy
J. Obstructive uropathy
K. Diabetic nephropathy
A

G. Pre-eclampsia - This is a syndrome characterised by new onset hypertension and proteinuria in pregnant women after 20 weeks gestation. The only definitive treament is to deliver the placenta and a risk-benefit to the mother and baby should be carried out to determine the best clinical step. The doctor starts her on an antihypertensive here so while the question does not directly tell you she is hypertensive, this can be inferred. If the patient doesn’t have either hypertension or proteinuria, then they do not have pre-eclampsia. The woman may be asymptomatic, or like this case, may present with symptoms indicating a more severe disease such as a headache which is usually frontal and upper abdominal pain usually in the RUQ (a clinical symptom of HELLP syndrome which is a subtype of severe disease characterised by Haemolysis, ELevated liver enzymes and Low Platelets). Oedema is very common but quite non-specific as a presentation. Oliguria may be present and again is a sign that the pre-eclampsia is severe. The raised creatinine indicates underlying renal impairment and renal failure can be a rare complication, often occuring as ATN with either sepsis or placental abruption.

830
Q

An 80-year-old man with a history of ischaemic heart disease trips over a paving stone and fractures his hip. An ambulance takes him to A&E. 1 hour after arrival, he develops crushing central chest pain.

A. Upper GI endoscopy
B. Chest x-ray with rib views
C. V/Q scan
D. Troponin level
E. Exercise ECG
F. CT scan abdomen
G. Thoracic spine x-ray
H. Coronary angiogram
I. Barium swallow
J. Transthoracic echo
K. CT x-ray in expiration
L. ECG
M. Chest x-ray with no special instructions
A

L. ECG - This patient’s crushing central chest pain sounds like an MI. Chest pain is classically severe and heavy in nature, located centrally with possible radiation to the left arm or jaw and lasts for >20 minutes. SOB due to pulmonary congestion and sweating due to high sympathetic output are common symptoms. Risk factors incorporate the standard set of cardiovascular risks such as smoking, high BP, DM, obesity and dyslipidaemia. An ECG is indicated. If ECG shows STEMI, new LBBB or confirmed posterior MI then PCI/thrombolysis is indicated. It is worth noting that RV infarction is present in 40% of inferior infarcts so if ST elevation is seen in II, III and aVF, right sided ECG leads should be obtained.

831
Q

A 19 year old male medical student develops acute chest pain during a game of squash. On examination he is distressed there but examination is otherwise unremarkable. There is a family history of sudden death.

A. Upper GI endoscopy
B. Chest x-ray with rib views
C. V/Q scan
D. Troponin level
E. Exercise ECG
F. CT scan abdomen
G. Thoracic spine x-ray
H. Coronary angiogram
I. Barium swallow
J. Transthoracic echo
K. CT x-ray in expiration
L. ECG
M. Chest x-ray with no special instructions
A

J. Transthoracic echo - This patient has likely HOCM. The patient’s young age makes it unlikely to be atherosclerotic coronary artery disease (unstable angina). HOCM is the most likely cardiomyopathy and the most frequent cause of sudden cardiac death in younger people. The FH of sudden death is suggestive of this diagnosis. This has a benign prognosis is most people though symptomatic patients are treated medically with beta blockade, CCBs or disopyramide. Chest pain on exertion (playing squash) is a common presentation in those who are symptomatic, as is dyspnoea on exertion, palpitations (such as due to AF) and a history of either pre-syncope or syncope (due to LV outflow obstruction). Inheritance is autosomal dominant with a variable penetrance.

Examination findings may be normal or may reveal an ejection systolic murmur which is positionally responsive and a double carotid or apex pulsation due to the transient interruption of CO. A fourth heart sound may also be heard due to hypertrophy. Echocardiography must be performed to establish a diagnosis, though ECG and CXR will also be done and may also show changes. Echo will show septal hypertrophy. There may also be MR.

832
Q

A 30 year old male alcoholic presents nausea and pain in the lower chest in a band radiating around to the back. The pain makes the patient curl up in a ball and movement worsens it. On examination there is decreased breath sounds on the left side which is stony dull to percussion at the base.

A. Upper GI endoscopy
B. Chest x-ray with rib views
C. V/Q scan
D. Troponin level
E. Exercise ECG
F. CT scan abdomen
G. Thoracic spine x-ray
H. Coronary angiogram
I. Barium swallow
J. Transthoracic echo
K. CT x-ray in expiration
L. ECG
M. Chest x-ray with no special instructions
A

F. CT scan abdomen - This patient has acute pancreatitis. He has vomited and is describing mid-epigastric pain radiating around to the back which is relieved in the fetal position and is worse with movement. He is an alcoholic and alcoholic pancreatitis is seen more frequently in men usually after an average of 4-8 years of alcohol intake. Binge drinking also increases the risk. This patient also has nausea and may describe vomiting too, with agitation and confusion. The examination findings described here allude to a pleural effusion which is seen in half of patients with acute pancreatitis. Complicated haemorrhagic pancreatitis may exhibit Cullen’s sign, Grey-Turner’s sign and Fox’s sign. Make sure you know what these are and you are familiar with the causes of acute pancreatitis. Those caused by hypocalcaemia may display Chvostek’s sign and Trousseau’s sign.

Key to diagnosis is serum amylase or lipase levels which are massively elevated. Prognostic criteria are outlined in Ranson’s criteria applied on admission and after 48 hours, or the modified Glasgow score which you can find in your Oxford Handbook. An abdominal CT is however the most sensitive and specific study and findings may include enlargement of the pancreas with irregular contours, necrosis, pseudocysts and peripancreatic fat obliteration.

For interest, urinary trypsinogen-2 is now considered a better screening test than amylase but is not currently clinically used.

833
Q

A 60-year-old woman presents with a poor appetite, weight loss, tiredness and intermittent right iliac fossa discomfort for the last six weeks.

A. Crohn's disease
B. Anal fissure
C. Infective diarrhoea
D. Caecal carcinoma
E. Acute ischaemic bowel
F. Meckel's diverticulum
G. Duodenal ulcer
H. Rectal carcinoma
I. Diverticular disease
J. Haemorrhoids
K. Ulcerative colitis
A

D. Caecal carcinoma - The weight loss, fatigue and RIF discomfort point to caecal carcinoma. Right sided colorectal cancer tends to present with anaemic symptoms. Almost 90% are anaemic at diagnosis.

834
Q

A 70-year-old man with atrial fibrillation presents with a two hour history of general abdominal discomfort and is shocked. He has passed bloody diarrhoea.

A. Crohn's disease
B. Anal fissure
C. Infective diarrhoea
D. Caecal carcinoma
E. Acute ischaemic bowel
F. Meckel's diverticulum
G. Duodenal ulcer
H. Rectal carcinoma
I. Diverticular disease
J. Haemorrhoids
K. Ulcerative colitis
A

E. Acute bowel ischaemia - Untreated AF can lead to a thrombus forming inside the heart which can then embolise like this case to the mesenteric vasculature. This person is also old, which is an additional risk due to comorbidities like atherosclerosis. This patient has the symptoms and signs of ischaemic bowel disease (which encompasses acute mesenteric ischaemia, chronic mesenteric ischaemia and colonic ischaemia). This is likely acute mesenteric ischaemia – something that in a person who presents like this, you should maintain a high index of suspicion for as the presentation can be quite non-specific but the condition can be deadly. You would likely in this case opt for surgical intervention without delay although you can cnsider some form of imaging.

835
Q

A 59-year-old man presents with a one month history of constipation, tenesmus and fresh rectal bleeding. He also notes some weight loss recently.

A. Crohn's disease
B. Anal fissure
C. Infective diarrhoea
D. Caecal carcinoma
E. Acute ischaemic bowel
F. Meckel's diverticulum
G. Duodenal ulcer
H. Rectal carcinoma
I. Diverticular disease
J. Haemorrhoids
K. Ulcerative colitis
A

H. Rectal carcinoma - This a rectal carcinoma. Tenesmus, blood PR alongside weight loss are all highly suggestive. Treatment of rectal carcinoma involves surgical excision where possible. This can either be an anterior resection (tumours in the upper 1/3 of the rectum) or an abdominoperineal resection (if the tumour lies lower down). APER involves the formation of a permanent colostomy and has a high incidence of sexual and urinary dysfunction. Anterior resection involves a colo-anal anastamosis

836
Q

A 68-year-old woman presents with a two day history of passing copious quantities of blood per rectum and a fever. She has also had left iliac fossa pain during this period.

A. Crohn's disease
B. Anal fissure
C. Infective diarrhoea
D. Caecal carcinoma
E. Acute ischaemic bowel
F. Meckel's diverticulum
G. Duodenal ulcer
H. Rectal carcinoma
I. Diverticular disease
J. Haemorrhoids
K. Ulcerative colitis
A

I. Diverticular disease - Symptomatic diverticulitis presents with fever, high WCC and LLQ pain. There may uncommonly be rectal bleeding which is usually painless, profuse and arterial in nature. Risk factors for diverticular disease include low dietary fibre and advanced age. Oral antibiotic therapy and analgesia is indicated. If there is no improvement in 72 hours after oral antibiotics then IV antibiotics are indicated. Make sure you understand the differences in the terms: diverticulosis, diverticulitis and diverticular disease.

837
Q

A 30-year-old stockbroker with a chronic band-like headache for 2 years. The headache is related to stressful work.

A. Intravenous antibiotics
B. Oral antibiotics
C. Burr hole surgery
D. CT head
E. Positron emission tomogram
F. Re-breathing
G. Lumbar puncture
H. Paracetamol
I. Visual field testing
J. Thrombolysis
K. Aspirin
L. Carotid angiography
A

H. Paracetamol - A tension headache is commonly triggered by stress and mental tension (also, fatigure and missing meals), hence the name. It is more common in females and those in middle age, and there is a link with lower socioeconomic status, although this does not necessarily represent causation. Symptoms include a dull, non-pulsatile and constricting bilateral pain, which is often described as a band across the patient’s head. It is not severe or disabling but classically worsens as the day progresses. This headache normally responds well to simple analgesics.

838
Q

A 26-year-old, anxious teacher with diffuse headaches, SOB and tingling in the hands. Blood gas measurement shows low PCO2, but high normal PO2. pH is 7.49.

A. Intravenous antibiotics
B. Oral antibiotics
C. Burr hole surgery
D. CT head
E. Positron emission tomogram
F. Re-breathing
G. Lumbar puncture
H. Paracetamol
I. Visual field testing
J. Thrombolysis
K. Aspirin
L. Carotid angiography
A

F. Re-breathing - A headache is a common presentation of someone suffering from an anxiety disorder. She is clearly hyperventilating here which is causing a respiratory alkalosis and accounting for her subjective experience of SOB. Paraesthesia is also seen in panic attacks with hyperventilation, associated with carpopedal spasm. Tell the patient to slow the breathing but breathing into a bag will help to raise PCO2. If it is an emergency setting you can consider using benzodiazepines. Long term treatment should be aimed at treating the anxiety disorder with for example CBT.

839
Q

An 18-year-old develops fever, photophobia and neck stiffness. There is also confusion and vomiting as well as a petechial rash. A CT scan is needed but someone is already in the CT scanner.

A. Intravenous antibiotics
B. Oral antibiotics
C. Burr hole surgery
D. CT head
E. Positron emission tomogram
F. Re-breathing
G. Lumbar puncture
H. Paracetamol
I. Visual field testing
J. Thrombolysis
K. Aspirin
L. Carotid angiography
A

A. Intravenous antibiotics - Obviously meningitis and likely meningococcal due to the petechial rash. You all got that bit. Right? Now CT head should be considered before LP if there is any evidence of raised ICP, which we can presume this person here has. An LP will confirm the diagnosis with bacterial meningitis showing a low CSF glucose, elevated CSF protein and positive CSF culture/gram stain or meningococcal antigen. BUT this is clearly a very severe case and an emergency and LP here is going to be delayed. You should start this person on IV broad spectrum antibiotics and consider getting blood culture results.

840
Q

A 53-year-old smoker presents with a seizure, unilateral headaches for 3 months and 10kg of weight loss.

A. Intravenous antibiotics
B. Oral antibiotics
C. Burr hole surgery
D. CT head
E. Positron emission tomogram
F. Re-breathing
G. Lumbar puncture
H. Paracetamol
I. Visual field testing
J. Thrombolysis
K. Aspirin
L. Carotid angiography
A

D. CT head - This question is alluding to lung cancer which has metastasized to the brain and is causing the headache and seizure. The best option from the list is a head CT.

841
Q

A 17-year-old woman with a FH of headaches has now herself developed headaches which are throbbing in character and preceded by flashing lights. She wonders what her GP can do for her.

A. Intravenous antibiotics
B. Oral antibiotics
C. Burr hole surgery
D. CT head
E. Positron emission tomogram
F. Re-breathing
G. Lumbar puncture
H. Paracetamol
I. Visual field testing
J. Thrombolysis
K. Aspirin
L. Carotid angiography
A

K. Aspirin - Migraine is a chronic condition, with genetic determinants, which usually presents in early to mid life. The typical migraine aura this patient describes (which can be visual, sensory or speech symptoms) which can occur during or before the headache, is pathognomic, but is not seen in the majority of patients. The aura can be positive phenomena (for example this patient seeing flashing lights) or negative phenomena (for example visual loss). Nausea, photophobia and disability (the headache gets in the way with the patient’s ability to function) accompanying a headache also suggest a migraine diagnosis. The headache of a migraine tends to be prolonged if untreated, and tends to be unilateral and pounding (but does not have to be). Tests aim to rule out other differentials, although if the history is compatible and neurological examination is unremarkable, further testing is not needed.

Treatment of this chronic condition aims at treating acute attacks to restore function. Triptans can be used in specialist care for severe symptoms. These are 5HT1 agonists. Effective initial treatment in a primary care setting can involve NSAIDs, which are available OTC and include aspirin, as well as indometacin and naproxen. Paracetamol is less effective than NSAIDs but is still better than placebo – it is first line in those who are pregnant. Treatment should be taken as soon as a patient realises they are having an attack and may need to be repeated after the attack. A few patients who have frequent, severe or disabling headaches may require daily prophylaxis such as anticonvulsants, TCAs and beta blockers.

842
Q

A 32-year-old man presents 24 hours after the sudden onset of the worst headache of his life. He has no history of headaches, is afebrile but has neck stiffness and is drowsy. CT scan is normal.

A. Intravenous antibiotics
B. Oral antibiotics
C. Burr hole surgery
D. CT head
E. Positron emission tomogram
F. Re-breathing
G. Lumbar puncture
H. Paracetamol
I. Visual field testing
J. Thrombolysis
K. Aspirin
L. Carotid angiography
A

G. Lumbar puncture - SAH (bleeding into the subarachnoid space) presents with sudden severe headache patients will often describe as the worst headache of their life, and can often be so bad that they feel like they’ve been kicked in the back of the back. Half of all patients lose consciousness and eye pain with exposure to light can also be seen. Altered mental status is common. SAH occurs most commonly in the 50-55 age group and affects women and black people more than men and white people. The most common cause of non-traumatic SAH is an aneurysm which ruptures. Conditions which predispose to aneurysm formation and SAH include adult PKD, Marfan’s, NF1 and Ehlers-Danlos. Cerebral aneurysms arise around the circle of Willis. A CT scan is indicated, and if unrevealing, this should be followed by an LP. Cerebral angiography can confirm the presence of aneurysms. The patient should be stabilised and this followed by surgical clipping or endovascular coil embolisation, the choice is subject to much current controversy sparked by relatively recent research. Complications can commonly occur and include rebleeding, hydrocephalus and vasospasm.

843
Q

A 65-year-old man presents with a large painless bladder and overflow incontinence at night and a raised creatinine level.

A. Iatrogenic
B. Bladder calculus
C. Hydronephrosis
D. Advanced prostate cancer
E. Acute prostatitis
F. Localised prostate cancer
G. Bacterial cystitis
H. Gram negative septicaemia
I. Anal fissure
J. Benign prostatic enlargement
A

C. Hydronephrosis - This patient has BPH which has caused hydronephrosis. This is an example of bilateral obstructive uropathy. Acute presentations are often painful whereas chronic presentations are more insidious in onset. Blockage of urinary flow by the enlarged prostate has led to urinary retention and overflow incontinence. Initial treatment aims to relieve the pressure on the kidneys. This involves catheterisation as the first line treatment. The patient should be started on alpha blockers at the time of catheterisation.

844
Q

A 30-year-old man complains of pain in the rectum and groin and urinary frequency with dysuria.

A. Iatrogenic
B. Bladder calculus
C. Hydronephrosis
D. Advanced prostate cancer
E. Acute prostatitis
F. Localised prostate cancer
G. Bacterial cystitis
H. Gram negative septicaemia
I. Anal fissure
J. Benign prostatic enlargement
A

E. Acute prostitis - Acute prostatitis is the most frequently made urological diagnosis in men under 50. It is commonly caused by E. coli and can cause lower abdominal, perineal, rectal and ejaculatory pain. It is associated with the presence of a UTI and BPH. As a result there may be dysuria and frequency. The prostate gland may feel warm and boggy to touch and DRE will reveal an intensely tender gland.This patient does not appear septic and first line treatment is with an oral quinolone such as ciprofloxacin for 10 days with an NSAID for pain relief. A prolonged course of antibiotics is needed if chronic prostatitis follows the acute occurence.

845
Q

choose the SINGLE most appropriate monitoring investigation from the list

ACE inhibitor

A. White cell count
B. Echocardiogram
C. Activated partial thromboplastin time
D. Liver function tests
E. Thyroid function tests
F. Renal function tests
G. Lung function tests
H. INR
I. GCS
J. ECG
K. Serum drug level
A

F. Renal function tests - ACE inhibitors inhibit the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II and are used for a range of conditions such as heart failure, hypertension and diabetic nephropathy. Renal monitoring is needed due to hyperkalaemia and side effects of ACE inhibitors being more common in impaired renal function, necessitating a reduction in dose. They can also cause impaired renal function, particularly in old people. Using it alongside NSAIDs increases this risk and using it with potassium sparing diuretics increases the risk of hyperkalaemia. In those with renal artery stenosis, ACE inhibitors can also reduce or even remove glomerular filtration and result in renal failure and are therefore not recommended in these patients.

846
Q

choose the SINGLE most appropriate monitoring investigation from the list

Pravastatin

A. White cell count
B. Echocardiogram
C. Activated partial thromboplastin time
D. Liver function tests
E. Thyroid function tests
F. Renal function tests
G. Lung function tests
H. INR
I. GCS
J. ECG
K. Serum drug level
A

D. Liver function tests - Pravastatin is a statin. Other statins include the mighty atorvastatin, simvastatin and rosuvastatin. They inhibit HMG-CoA reductase, which is an enzyme involved in the cholesterol synthesis pathway. They hence lower LDL cholesterol levels very effectively to reduce the cardiovascular disease. Statins can cause altered LFTs and rarely even hepatitis and jaundice. There have also been rare case reports of liver failure. NICE have a guideline (which we must listen to…) which state that liver enzymes should be measured before treatment and repeated within 3 months and at 12 months of starting treatment (unless there are obvious signs and symptoms of hepatotoxicity).

847
Q

choose the SINGLE most appropriate monitoring investigation from the list

Cyclophosphamide

A. White cell count
B. Echocardiogram
C. Activated partial thromboplastin time
D. Liver function tests
E. Thyroid function tests
F. Renal function tests
G. Lung function tests
H. INR
I. GCS
J. ECG
K. Serum drug level
A

A. Cyclophosphamide - This drug is used mainly with other drugs for treating malignancies including leukaemias, lymphomas and solid tumours. The rare and serious complication is haemorrhagic cystitis as a result of the urinary metabolite acrolein and mesna can be given as prophylaxis. It is an alkylating agent which damages DNA and interferes with cell replication. The only feasible option on this list is WCC where we have to assume this drug is being used for a leukaemia or lymphoma and we want to measure whether it is working.

848
Q

choose the SINGLE most appropriate monitoring investigation from the list

Warfarin

A. White cell count
B. Echocardiogram
C. Activated partial thromboplastin time
D. Liver function tests
E. Thyroid function tests
F. Renal function tests
G. Lung function tests
H. INR
I. GCS
J. ECG
K. Serum drug level
A

H. INR -Warfarin needs to be monitored with INR, at first daily or on alternate days then at longer intervals (depending on patient response). INR is the international normalised ratio, which is the prothrombin time as a value which is standardised to take into account different lab techniques etc. The higher the INR, the more anticoagulated a patient is. As a rough guide, the aim is 2.5 for DVT/PE, AF, DCM and MI and 3.5 for recurrent DVT/PE.

849
Q

choose the SINGLE most appropriate monitoring investigation from the list

Phenytoin

A. White cell count
B. Echocardiogram
C. Activated partial thromboplastin time
D. Liver function tests
E. Thyroid function tests
F. Renal function tests
G. Lung function tests
H. INR
I. GCS
J. ECG
K. Serum drug level
A

K. Serum drug level - Phenytoin is useful for tonic-clonic and focal seizures but it has a narrow therapeutic index and a non-linear dose-plasma concentration relationship. Hence, small dose increases can lead to huge increases in plasma concentration and acute toxicity. Conversely if the patient skips a dose, there may also be marked change and the levels may be sub-therapeutic. You therefore need to monitor plasma drug concentration to improve the adjustment of dose. Parenterally, you can also consider fosphenytoin.

850
Q

A 28-year-old woman has developed rapid weight loss and palpitations. You notice lid lag and a goitre on examination.

A. TB abscess
B. Graves disease
C. Hodgkin's disease
D. Myxoedema
E. Pancreatic carcinoma
F. Superior vena cava syndrome
G. De Quervain's thyroiditis
H. Hashimoto's thyroiditis
I. Thyroid cancer
J. Euthyroid goitre
K. Carotid artery aneurysm
L. Thyroglossal cyst
A

B. Graves disease - This woman has symptoms of hyperthyroidism (weight loss and palpitations) and a goitre. In countries where sufficient iodine intake is not an issue, Graves’ disease is the most common cause of hyperthyroidism. Graves’ gives a diffuse goitre. Peripheral manifestations such as ophthalmopathy, pretibial myxoedema and hyperthyroid acropachy do not occur with other causes of hyperthyroidism. Ophthalmopathy includes lid retraction, exophthalmos and eye movement restriction leading to diplopia. Acropachy is an uncommon manifestation presenting as clubbing with soft tissue swelling. Pretibial myxoedema is almost always associated with ophthalmopathy. Treatment aims to normalise thyroid function and is achieved by radioactive iodine, antithyroid medications or with surgery. They are all effective and relatively safe options. Symptomatic therapy is given with beta blockers such as propranolol.

851
Q

A 22-year-old man has developed multiple hard swellings on the left side of the neck. He has had night sweats and anorexia for two months.

A. TB abscess
B. Graves disease
C. Hodgkin's disease
D. Myxoedema
E. Pancreatic carcinoma
F. Superior vena cava syndrome
G. De Quervain's thyroiditis
H. Hashimoto's thyroiditis
I. Thyroid cancer
J. Euthyroid goitre
K. Carotid artery aneurysm
L. Thyroglossal cyst
A

G. De Quervain’s thyroiditis - This girl has de Quervain’s thyroiditis (which can also be called subacute granulomatous thyroiditis) which is inflammation of the thyroid characterised by a triphasic course where there is transient thyrotoxicosis followed by a hypothyroid phase before a return to euthyroidism. The thyrotoxic phase (symptoms of hyperthyroidism may be present) is characterised by pain and tenderness of the thyroid, which tends to be larger, firm and tender to touch. This girl also has a fever and neck pain which is making it painful for her to swallow. This is a self-limiting condition and no specific treatment is needed though NSAIDs and beta blockers can be used for symptomatic relief. Roughly 30-40% describe a prior viral infection.

852
Q

A 22-year-old man has developed multiple hard swellings on the left side of the neck. He has had night sweats and anorexia for two months.

A. TB abscess
B. Graves disease
C. Hodgkin's disease
D. Myxoedema
E. Pancreatic carcinoma
F. Superior vena cava syndrome
G. De Quervain's thyroiditis
H. Hashimoto's thyroiditis
I. Thyroid cancer
J. Euthyroid goitre
K. Carotid artery aneurysm
L. Thyroglossal cyst
A

C. Hodgkin’s disease - This is a case of lymphoma. Reed-Sternberg cells are binucleate cells characteristically seen in Hodgkin’s lymphoma. Hodgkin’s is localised to a single group of nodes (normally the cervical and/or supraclavicular) and extranodal involvement is rare. Mediastinal involvement is common. Spread is contiguous and B symptoms may be present such as a low grade fever, weight loss and night sweats. Pruritis may be found in approximately 10% of cases but has no prognostic significance. 50% of cases is associated with EBV infection and distribution is bimodal with peaks in young and old. There is classically pain in lymph nodes on alcohol consumption.

853
Q

A 67-year-old male smoker has developed gross oedema of the neck and face. You also notice swelling of both hands.

A. TB abscess
B. Graves disease
C. Hodgkin's disease
D. Myxoedema
E. Pancreatic carcinoma
F. Superior vena cava syndrome
G. De Quervain's thyroiditis
H. Hashimoto's thyroiditis
I. Thyroid cancer
J. Euthyroid goitre
K. Carotid artery aneurysm
L. Thyroglossal cyst
A

F. SUperior vena cava syndrome - SVC syndrome occurs due to SVCO. The most common cause of this is malignancy (this smoker probably has lung cancer which is the most likely cause in those >50). There are also benign causes such as iatrogenically due to pacemaker leads and central venous catheters causing SVC thrombosis. Common symptoms are facial swelling and arm swelling as seen, as well as dyspnoea, cough and facial plethora. There may also be a headache, chest pain, blurry vision and stridor. These symptoms tend to be worse on bending forwards or lying down. The most useful imaging test is a chest CT with IV contrast which establishes the diagnosis and also shows the exact location of the pathology. A CXR in SVCO can show a widened mediastinum or the lung cancer which is the cause.

854
Q

A 72-tear-old man with weight loss has developed a hard swelling in the left supraclavicular fossa.

A. TB abscess
B. Graves disease
C. Hodgkin's disease
D. Myxoedema
E. Pancreatic carcinoma
F. Superior vena cava syndrome
G. De Quervain's thyroiditis
H. Hashimoto's thyroiditis
I. Thyroid cancer
J. Euthyroid goitre
K. Carotid artery aneurysm
L. Thyroglossal cyst
A

E. Pancreatic carcinoma - The presence of Virchow’s node (Troisier’s sign), a hard enlarged node in the left supraclavicular fossa, points towards a malignancy in the abdominal cavity. This is most often stomach cancer but does not have to be. The lymph drainage of the abdominal cavity drains into Virchow’s node as the lymph drains most of the body from the thoracic duct and enters the venous circulation at the left subclavian vein.

855
Q

A 50-year-old man presents with acute ST elevation MI to London’s best hospital. He has already been given aspirin, oxygen, morphine and GTN and is haemodynamically stable. 20 minutes have passed since symptom onset.

A. Perform CABG
B. Perform exercise ECG
C. Add an ACE inhibitor
D. Perform echocardiography
E. Add Aspirin
F. Add clopidogrel
G. Perform coronary angioplasty
H. Add Atorvastatin
I. Advise lifestyle measures
J. Add Atenolol
K. Add low molecular weight Heparin
L. Add Omega-3 oils
M. Perform coronary thrombolysis
A

G. Perform coronary angioplasty - For confirmed ST elevation MI the 1st line treatment which gives the best results is primary PCI with stenting and is indicated if the person presents to A&E within 90 minutes of first presentation. CABG should be strongly considered if the patient fails PCI and should be done within 12 hours of onset of symptoms, ideally within 6. This is London’s best hospital but if this were Orkney and they did not have PCI capacity or the ability to transfer to a PCI facility within 30 minutes or so, then you would thrombolyse if there are no contraindications. This must be done within 12 hours of symptom onset and ideally within 3 hours as the efficacy of fibrinolytics diminishes over time. You should be aware of the absolute contraindications to thrombolysis such as suspected aortic dissection and prior intracranial haemorrhage. This patient has already been given some treatment for suspected MI (aspirin, oxygen, morphine and GTN). Post-treatment this patient will need aspirin therapy and clopidogrel for at least a year – aspirin should be continued indefinitely. Patients should also be started on a beta blocker, ACE inhibitor and a statin, indefinitely.

856
Q

A 65-year-old woman presents with acute DVT. There is a low risk for bleeding. This step is added along with warfarin therapy.

A. Perform CABG
B. Perform exercise ECG
C. Add an ACE inhibitor
D. Perform echocardiography
E. Add Aspirin
F. Add clopidogrel
G. Perform coronary angioplasty
H. Add Atorvastatin
I. Advise lifestyle measures
J. Add Atenolol
K. Add low molecular weight Heparin
L. Add Omega-3 oils
M. Perform coronary thrombolysis
A

K. Add low molecular weight heparin - The mainstay of treatment for acute DVT is anticoagulation. This can be either unfractionated heparin, a LMWH or a factor Xa inhitor like fondaparinux. Fondaparinux has a higher half life than LMWH and there is no effective way of reversing it. LMWH have a shorter half life and some of it can be removed with protamine. Heparin though can be reversed quickly with protamine. Hence, if the patient is at a high risk of bleeding, they should be treated with unfractionated heparin and you should avoid fondaparinux. If they start bleeding you can just chuck them protamine. This however requires monitoring of APTT and platelet counts. If the patient has heparin-induced thrombocytopenia, you can try using fondaparinux. LMWH is recommended in those with active cancer and preferred in pregnancy, and consideration needs to be given in those with renal impairment. In this case LMWH or unfractionated heparin can be given, and the only option on the list is to add LMWH (such as enoxaparin, tinzaparin and dalteparin). Warfarin is started on the same day and LMWH should be used for at least 5 days until the INR is in the therapeutic range of 2-3 before the LMWH can be discontinued. (Some people say the INR has to be in that range for 48 hours before you remove LMWH)

857
Q

A 55-year-old woman with history of recurrent falls and collapse, presented with intermittent angina-like chest pains. On examination, she has a low pulse volume and an ejection systolic murmur in the aortic region.

A. Perform CABG
B. Perform exercise ECG
C. Add an ACE inhibitor
D. Perform echocardiography
E. Add Aspirin
F. Add clopidogrel
G. Perform coronary angioplasty
H. Add Atorvastatin
I. Advise lifestyle measures
J. Add Atenolol
K. Add low molecular weight Heparin
L. Add Omega-3 oils
M. Perform coronary thrombolysis
A

D. Perform echocardiography - She has a murmur so you would want to do an echocardiogram. Doppler echo is best for diagnosis and evaluation of aortic stenosis and is highly sensitive and specific. It will show an elevated aortic pressure gradient and also allow you to quantify LV ejection function and measure the area of the valve.

858
Q

A 55-year-old woman with a 6-week history of intermittent angina is found to have a serum cholesterol of 7.9 mmol/l.

A. Perform CABG
B. Perform exercise ECG
C. Add an ACE inhibitor
D. Perform echocardiography
E. Add Aspirin
F. Add clopidogrel
G. Perform coronary angioplasty
H. Add Atorvastatin
I. Advise lifestyle measures
J. Add Atenolol
K. Add low molecular weight Heparin
L. Add Omega-3 oils
M. Perform coronary thrombolysis
A

B. Perform exercise ECG - This patient has presented with stable angina. Resting ECG is often normal however during exercise stress ECG (most often the Bruce Protocol) there will be ST segment depression during exercise indicative of ischaemia. Those unable to exercise to an adequate level may need stress myocardial perfusion imaging or stress echocardiography. 1st line treatment involves lifestyle changes and antiplatelet therapy with aspirin. Anti-anginal theray will also be given, first line being beta-blockade. Statin therapy, blood sugar control in diabetics and BP control with antihypertensives may also be necessary. Those with LMS disease, 3 vessel disease or a reduced EF may benefit from CABG. Single vessel disease may benefit from PCI.

859
Q

A 57-year-old Asian male smoker was treated successfully for pulmonary TB last year. He has had nausea for a month and over the last week has vomited after every solid meal. He has lost 5 kg in weight in that period and has some abdominal discomfort. He feels food getting stuck behind the bottom of his sternum. Examination is unremarkable.

A. Full blood count and ESR
B. Abdominal CT
C. HIV antibody test
D. Colonoscopy
E. Blood test for auto-antibodies
F. Thyroid function tests
G. Bronchoscopy
H. Fasting blood glucose
I. Chest x-ray
J. Bone marrow aspirate
K. History only
L. Gastroscopy
M. Brain scan
A

L. Gastroscopy - Weight loss is one of the most common presenting symptoms in patients with gastric cancer. Epigastric pain is present in about 80% and may resemble that of a gastric ulcer. Although commonly mentioned in EMQs, lymphadenopathy is an uncommon presentation. More proximal tumours can also present with dysphagia. Strong risk factors include pernicious anaemia, Helicobacter pylori and the consumption of N-nitroso compounds found in cured meats. The peak incidence occurs between 50-70 and men are twice as likely to have gastric cancer. Most are adenocarcinomas. The first test to order for suspected gastric malignancy is an urgent upper GI endoscopy with biopsy of the lesion. The mainstay of treatment is surgical resection unless there is evidence of metastatic disease.

860
Q

A 73-year-old ex-smoking male consults you because he is polysymptomatic, including 3 kg weight loss, memory loss and sleep disturbance. His family are worried because he lives on his own, following the death of his wife last year. He has given up his gardening and says he doesn’t want to meet his friends any more.

A. Full blood count and ESR
B. Abdominal CT
C. HIV antibody test
D. Colonoscopy
E. Blood test for auto-antibodies
F. Thyroid function tests
G. Bronchoscopy
H. Fasting blood glucose
I. Chest x-ray
J. Bone marrow aspirate
K. History only
L. Gastroscopy
M. Brain scan
A

K. History only - Depression is characterised by low mood, loss of interest and reduced energy persistently over a long period of time. It is a common condition and there is an obvious recent stress here as his wife has died. The diagnosis is clinical even though there are screening tools used in a primary care setting like the PHQ-9 questionnaire. The diagnostic criteria follows DSM-IV-TR which classifies depression into major, minor and dysthymia. Patients tend to respond well to CBT, antidepressants or both. Suicidal ideation should be assessed for. There is a high lifetime chance of recurrence.

861
Q

A 64-year-old, previously obese woman complains of weight loss, despite increased appetite and says she has been treating herself for ‘repeated urine infections’. She also says that over the last few months she has been getting pins and needles in her legs.

A. Full blood count and ESR
B. Abdominal CT
C. HIV antibody test
D. Colonoscopy
E. Blood test for auto-antibodies
F. Thyroid function tests
G. Bronchoscopy
H. Fasting blood glucose
I. Chest x-ray
J. Bone marrow aspirate
K. History only
L. Gastroscopy
M. Brain scan
A

H. Fasting blood glucose - T2DM can present with yeast, skin and urinary tract infections on top of unintentional weight loss and fatigue. The pins and needles in her legs is a result of diabetic peripheral sensory neuropathy. This is a microvascular complication of DM and is characterised by peripheral nerve dysfunction. There tends to be loss of sensation typically occuring in a symmetrical ‘glove and stocking’ distribution. Patient’s may also describe a pain or paraesthesia. Examination should include peripheral pulses, reflexes and sensation to light touch, vibration (128Hz tuning fork), pinprick and proprioception. Any pain can be treated with medications like gabapentin. Symptomatic patients need a single random blood glucose of >11.1 or single fasting glucose of >7. Asymptomatic patients need two separate elevated readings for a diagnosis. Alternatively if there are borderline results, an OGTT can be conducted to see if plasma glucose is raised >11.1 two hours after an oral glucose load of 75g. A patient is said to have impaired fasting glucose if fasting glucose falls between 6.1-6.9. Impaired glucose tolerance is present if plasma glucose 2 hours after oral glucose load in OGTT falls between 7.8-11.0.

862
Q

An 83-year-old lady complains of feeling tired and breathless on exertion since a brief episode six weeks ago which another doctor diagnosed as gastroenteritis. However, the diarrhoea has not improved. A blood test you did last week shows a microcytic anaemia.

A. Full blood count and ESR
B. Abdominal CT
C. HIV antibody test
D. Colonoscopy
E. Blood test for auto-antibodies
F. Thyroid function tests
G. Bronchoscopy
H. Fasting blood glucose
I. Chest x-ray
J. Bone marrow aspirate
K. History only
L. Gastroscopy
M. Brain scan
A

D. Colonoscopy - This lady needs to be investigated for bowel cancer. There are symptoms and confirmation of IDA which could be due here to GI bleeding. There is also diarrhoea which has not improved and is now chronically a problem. Along with advanced age, this raises the suspicion of malignancy and a colonoscopy needs to be done.

863
Q

A 32-year-old male nurse from Zimbabwe came into the UK as part of an NHS recruitment campaign. He presents with SOB, weight loss, general debility, cervical lymphadenopathy and purple tender lesions on his shin of 6 weeks duration.

A. Full blood count and ESR
B. Abdominal CT
C. HIV antibody test
D. Colonoscopy
E. Blood test for auto-antibodies
F. Thyroid function tests
G. Bronchoscopy
H. Fasting blood glucose
I. Chest x-ray
J. Bone marrow aspirate
K. History only
L. Gastroscopy
M. Brain scan
A

I. Chest x-ray -Sarcoidosis is a chronic multisystem disease with an unknown aetiology with the lungs most commonly affected (giving SOB in this case). The purple lesions are erythema nodosum and are tender erythematous nodules. Lupus pernio is another typical skin manifestation of sarcoidosis presenting with indurated plaques with discoloration on the face. CXR will typically show bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy and CXR findings are used in the staging of disease. Additionally, serum calcium and ACE levels may be raised. A transbronchial biopsy is essential for diagnosis in most cases and shows the presence of non-caseating granulomas. Black people have a higher lifetime risk of sarcoidosis, as do those of Scandinavian origin. The mainstay of treatment for severe disease involves systemic corticosteroids.

864
Q

A 78-year-old man presents with low back pain that doesn’t improve with rest. He has non-specific intermittent abdominal pain and night sweats. Investigations reveal a haemoglobin of 9.6 g/dL, a corrected calcium of 2.97 mmol/L, and an ESR > 100 mm/hr.

A. Full blood count and ESR
B. Abdominal CT
C. HIV antibody test
D. Colonoscopy
E. Blood test for auto-antibodies
F. Thyroid function tests
G. Bronchoscopy
H. Fasting blood glucose
I. Chest x-ray
J. Bone marrow aspirate
K. History only
L. Gastroscopy
M. Brain scan
A

J. Bone marrow aspirate - This patient has multiple myeloma. This is characteristed by clonal proliferation of plasma cells in BM and commonly presents with bony pain and symptoms of anaemia (which this patient’s Hb demonstrates). The elevated ESR is also suggestive and hypercalcaemia is present in 30%. The diagnostic test is serum or urine electrophoresis looking for a paraprotein spike of IgG or IgA and light chain urinary excretion (Bence Jones proteins). Bone marrow examination and skeletal survey will also need to be conducted. Bone marrow aspirate in this case and biopsy will show plasma cell infiltration in the bone marrow, and can help to differentiate multiple myeloma from MGUS and solitary plasmacytoma. Bone changes include osteopaenia, osteolytic lesions and fractures.

865
Q

A 70-year-old retired pigeon-fancier becomes cyanosed on exercise. He has a persistent cough and progressive shortness of breath. There are fine crackles at both lung bases on auscultation.

A. Congenital heart disease
B. Opiate intoxication
C. Acute left ventricular failure
D. Extrinsic allergic alveolitis
E. Pneumonia
F. Pulmonary embolus
G. COPD
H. Epilepsy
I. Carcinoma of bronchus
J. Status asthmaticus
K. Cocaine intoxication
L. Foreign body
A

D. Extrinsic allergic alveolitis - This is EAA, a hypersensitivity pneumonitis. There is history here of exposure to organic dust (avian proteins) with birds. There are a variety of syndromes this could be – pidgeon breeder’s lung, bird fancier’s lung and budgerigar fancier’s disease. History and examination findings depend on whether the EAA is acute, subacute or chronic. Chronic presents like idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis and there may be clubbing. The most important treatment element is to avoid antigen exposure.

866
Q

An 82-year-old woman woke up at night acutely short of breath, with a frothy cough and wheeze. She had a myocardial infarction 6 months previously.

A. Congenital heart disease
B. Opiate intoxication
C. Acute left ventricular failure
D. Extrinsic allergic alveolitis
E. Pneumonia
F. Pulmonary embolus
G. COPD
H. Epilepsy
I. Carcinoma of bronchus
J. Status asthmaticus
K. Cocaine intoxication
L. Foreign body
A

C. Acute left ventricular failure - You should know the distinction between LVF and RVF. RVF leads to a backlog of blood and congestion of the systemic capillaries. This causes peripheral oedema and ascites and hepatomegaly may develop. Nocturia may be a symptom as fluid returns from the legs when the patient lies down flat. LVF causes congestion in the pulmonary circulation so the symptoms are respiratory. As seen in this patient, there is SOB and the frothy cough suggestive of pulmonary oedema. In a hospital setting, patients need to be sat upright to improve the SOB and IV access needs to be established. Oxygen, morphine, diuretics (frusemide or another loop diuretic) and nitrates will be given. Once stable, medical treatment of heart failure should be started which involves in the first instance, an ACE inhibitor followed by beta blockade.

867
Q

A 73-year-old man is seen in casualty with acute confusion, fever and vomiting. He had presented to his GP one week earlier with sore throat and cough.

A. Congenital heart disease
B. Opiate intoxication
C. Acute left ventricular failure
D. Extrinsic allergic alveolitis
E. Pneumonia
F. Pulmonary embolus
G. COPD
H. Epilepsy
I. Carcinoma of bronchus
J. Status asthmaticus
K. Cocaine intoxication
L. Foreign body
A

E. Pneumonia - This is pneumonia, which has not resolved and gotten worse to cause this man’s confusion. In elderly people, pneumonia can present anyway with atypical symptoms such as confusion and general deterioration. There is also a small chance of metastic spread to cause meningitis. This patient needs to have his CURB-65 score calculated and his pneumonia needs treating. He already scores a point for age and a point for confusion, and likely needs admission, ITU and IV antibiotics with oxygen and ventilation.

868
Q

A 68-year-old ex-smoker on inhalers and long-term oxygen therapy is found to have bilateral peripheral oedema.

A. Congenital heart disease
B. Opiate intoxication
C. Acute left ventricular failure
D. Extrinsic allergic alveolitis
E. Pneumonia
F. Pulmonary embolus
G. COPD
H. Epilepsy
I. Carcinoma of bronchus
J. Status asthmaticus
K. Cocaine intoxication
L. Foreign body
A

G. COPD - Secondary pulmonary hypertension as a result of this patient’s advanced COPD or cor pulmonale has caused peripheral oedema. Cor pulmonale is right heart failure secondary in this case to long standing COPD, caused by chronic hypoxia and pulmonary vascular vasoconstriction secondary to this, giving pulmonary hypertension and right sided heart failure. Signs aside from lower extremity oedema include hepatomegaly, a loud P2 and engorged neck veins. Given he is on inhalers and LTOT already, he has already been diagnosed with COPD but we are seeing if you know that this is what the patient has. If this is a new symptom he needs to have this assessed and may need additional intervention such as diuretics.

869
Q

A 22-year-old man is found with CNS and respiratory depression at his bedsit. He has track marks on both upper arms and you see a syringe on the carpet. You notice his pupils are constricted.

A. Congenital heart disease
B. Opiate intoxication
C. Acute left ventricular failure
D. Extrinsic allergic alveolitis
E. Pneumonia
F. Pulmonary embolus
G. COPD
H. Epilepsy
I. Carcinoma of bronchus
J. Status asthmaticus
K. Cocaine intoxication
L. Foreign body
A

B. Opiate intoxication - This suggests opiate OD. Signs include CNS depression, miosis and apnoea. With cocaine you would not find small constricted pupils – they would be dilated. Naloxone is indicated both therapeutically and diagnostically. If there is a response, then it is diagnostic. Another diagnosis should be sought if the patient is unresponsive. IV is the preferred route of administration although naloxone can be given IM or SC if IV access cannot be established. Ventilatory support is key with 100% oxygen. You can check out Toxbase for a full database on poisons and treatments.

870
Q

For each of the tumours below, select the most likely causative carcinogen. Each option may be used once, more than once or not at all.

Hepatocellular carcinoma

A. Aniline dyes
B. Aflatoxin B1
C. Azo dyes
D. Asbestos
E. Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)
F. Cadmium
G. Oestrogen
A

B. Aflatoxin B1 - Aflatoxin B1 is a naturally occuring carcinogen produced by many species of Aspergillus (a fungus). It thrives on improperly stored grains and nuts. It is considered a significant etiological factor for liver cancer in Southern Africa and the Far East.

871
Q

For each of the tumours below, select the most likely causative carcinogen. Each option may be used once, more than once or not at all.

Mesothelioma

A. Aniline dyes
B. Aflatoxin B1
C. Azo dyes
D. Asbestos
E. Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)
F. Cadmium
G. Oestrogen
A

D. Asbestos - Mesothelioma is a malignant tumour of the pleura (or less commonly the peritoneum). There are three main types of asbestos: white, blue and brown, with blue being the most potent cause. Asbestos exposure increases the risk of both squamous cell carcinoma and mesothelioma. A 20-year lag time between exposure and development of mesothelioma is typical.

872
Q

For each of the tumours below, select the most likely causative carcinogen. Each option may be used once, more than once or not at all.

Prostate carcinoma

A. Aniline dyes
B. Aflatoxin B1
C. Azo dyes
D. Asbestos
E. Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)
F. Cadmium
G. Oestrogen
A

F. Cadmium - Studies have shown that men in certain occupations, with higher levels of exposure to cadmium, have a higher risk of prostate cancer. It is thought that cadmium interacts with certain hormone receptors and mimics the effects of oestrogen and testosterone, thus abnormally stimulating the growth of the prostate. Furthermore cadmium is thought to interfere with the body’s ability to absorb zinc (which is believed to have a protective effect against prostate cancer.)

873
Q

For each of the tumours below, select the most likely causative carcinogen. Each option may be used once, more than once or not at all.

Bladder cancer

A. Aniline dyes
B. Aflatoxin B1
C. Azo dyes
D. Asbestos
E. Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)
F. Cadmium
G. Oestrogen
A

A. Aniline dyes - Contact with aniline dyes (not azo dyes) is associated with bladder cancer

874
Q

For each of the tumours below, select the most likely causative carcinogen. Each option may be used once, more than once or not at all.

Endometrial carcinoma

A. Aniline dyes
B. Aflatoxin B1
C. Azo dyes
D. Asbestos
E. Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)
F. Cadmium
G. Oestrogen
A

G. Oestrogen - Oestrogen stimulates endometrial proliferation, with an increased risk of endometrial carcinoma. When progesterone is given with oestrogen, there is a decreased incidence of cancer. Remember: never give a woman with a uterus oestrogen alone!

875
Q

A 2-year-old boy presents with abdominal distension, haematuria and vague pain. Examination reveals a large nodular mass on the left kidney.

A. Burkitt's lymphoma
B. Grawitz's tumour
C. Kaposi's sarcoma
D. Wilm's tumour
E. Pancoast tumour
F. Ewing's sarcoma
G. Brodie's tumour
H. Hodgkin's lymphoma
A

D. Wilm’s tumour - Wilms’ tumour (a.k.a. nephroblastoma) is the commonest intra-abdominal tumour in children, rarely occuring in adults. It is a malignant tumour derived from embryonic mesodermal tissues. Patients present with a loin mass, weight loss, anorexia and fever. Although the tumour is rapidly growing an behaves aggressively, it has an 80% survival rate at 5 years.

876
Q

A 32-year-old male architect arrives in your clinic accompanied by his husband. He complains of a 2-week history of indigestion and dysphagia. On examination you notice multiple purple bruise-like lesions on his right arm. There is no pain or itching.

A. Burkitt's lymphoma
B. Grawitz's tumour
C. Kaposi's sarcoma
D. Wilm's tumour
E. Pancoast tumour
F. Ewing's sarcoma
G. Brodie's tumour
H. Hodgkin's lymphoma
A

C. Kaposi’s sarcoma - Kaposi’s sarcoma is a malignant tumour of the vascular endothelium consisting of spindle cells and small blood vessels. It is very rare in patients without HIV infection or those who are immunosuppressed. It gives rise to multiple lesions in the skin that appear like purple bruises and are not painful to touch. In about 40% of cases (such as this one) there is gastrointestinal involvement.

877
Q

A 55-year-old gentleman complains of progressive weakness in his left hand. On examination, you notice that there is wasting of the intrinsic muscles of the hand innervated by the T1 nerve root. There is also mild ptosis and meiosis on the left hand side of his face.

A. Burkitt's lymphoma
B. Grawitz's tumour
C. Kaposi's sarcoma
D. Wilm's tumour
E. Pancoast tumour
F. Ewing's sarcoma
G. Brodie's tumour
H. Hodgkin's lymphoma
A

E. Pancoast tumour - Pancoast tumours are lung tumours located at the apex of the lung. They typically extend to involve the sympathetic ganglion resulting in ipsilateral Horner’s syndrome (ptosis, meiosis, anhydrosis). In some cases, the lower roots of the brachial plexus are also involved, resulting in pain and weakness in the muscles of the arm and hand, specifically in the T1 distribution.

878
Q

A 6-year-old Ethiopian boy presents with a 4-week history of a swelling in his jaw, which has been progressively enlarging. He has a history of EBV infection. Examination of the oral cavity reveals minor disruption of the teeth with no laryngeal obstruction.

A. Burkitt's lymphoma
B. Grawitz's tumour
C. Kaposi's sarcoma
D. Wilm's tumour
E. Pancoast tumour
F. Ewing's sarcoma
G. Brodie's tumour
H. Hodgkin's lymphoma
A

A. Burkitt’s lymphoma - Burkitt’s lymhpoma is a high-grade B-cell lymphoma endemic in some parts of Africa. It frequently involves the jaw and is most often seen in African children with previous EBV infection (there is a strong association between the two) Other associations include chronic malarial infection and translocation of chromosome 8 on the c-myc gene with chromosome 14.

879
Q

A 35-year-old woman comes to see you in the clinic. She is noticeably distressed and complains of a bulky mass in her left breast which has grown rapidly over the past month. On examination you notice that the contour of the breast has been distorted and the overlying skin is red and tender. Core biopsy reveals mixed connective tissue and epithelial elements.

A. Burkitt's lymphoma
B. Grawitz's tumour
C. Kaposi's sarcoma
D. Wilm's tumour
E. Pancoast tumour
F. Ewing's sarcoma
G. Brodie's tumour
H. Hodgkin's lymphoma
A

G. Brodie’s tumour - Brodie’s tumour (a.k.a. phyllodes tumour) are rare tumours of the fibroepithelial stroma of the breast. The history of a rapidly growing mass that distorts the shape of the breast points towards this disease. Most of these tumours are benign and the prognosis after surgery is excellent.

880
Q

A 45-year-old woman presents with an irregular 4cm firm lump in the left breast. O/E the lump is fixed to the overlying skin and their is bloody discharge from the left nipple.

A. CA 15-3
B. Tyrosinase
C. BRCA-1
D. CA 19-9
E. Prostatic acid phosphatase
F. Carcinoembryonic antigen
G. α-Fetoprotein
H. Prostate-specific antigen
A

A. CA 15-3 - High Ca 15-3 levels suggest metastatic breast disease. However, it has poor sensitivity and is therefore not used as a screening procedure to detect breast carcinoma. This tumour marker has recently been superseded by Ca 27-29, which is claimed to be more sensitive and specific. However, CA 27-29 lacks predictive value in the earliest stages of breast cancer and thus has no role in screening for or diagnosing the malignancy.

881
Q

A 56-year-old man presents with anorexia and jaundice. He reports losing weight over the past month. He has a bilirubin of 350 umol/L, AST of 55 IU/L and an ALP of 750 IU/L. O/E the gallbladder is palpable.

A. CA 15-3
B. Tyrosinase
C. BRCA-1
D. CA 19-9
E. Prostatic acid phosphatase
F. Carcinoembryonic antigen
G. α-Fetoprotein
H. Prostate-specific antigen
A

D. CA 19-9 - Ca 19-9 is used to confirm the diagnosis of malignant pancreatic tumours, differentiating them from chronic pancreatitis. However, it should not be used as a stand-alone diagnostic tool, rather as an adjunct to CT, U/S and ERCP. It is also used for monitoring the response to therapy. Levels can also be elevated in hepatbiliary disease, but it is not used in this setting.

882
Q

A 70-year-old man presents with difficulty passing urine, haematuria and back pain. A hard irregular mass is palpable anterior to the rectum.

A. CA 15-3
B. Tyrosinase
C. BRCA-1
D. CA 19-9
E. Prostatic acid phosphatase
F. Carcinoembryonic antigen
G. α-Fetoprotein
H. Prostate-specific antigen
A

E. Prostate-specific antigen - This patient’s history is suggestive of metastatic prostate cancer. Prostate-specific antigen (PSA) is used as a screening test, a diagnostic test, a measure of treatment success and a marker of recurrence. It has replaced the use of prostatic acid phosphatate (PAP). However, PSA lacks the required specificity as it is raised in patients without prostatic cancer (i.e. a high false positive rate). Therefore, it should be used alongside other methods of investigation, and not by itself, to make a diagnosis.

883
Q

An 82-year-old woman presents with constipation, lower abdominal pain and a feeling of incomplete emptying. She looks emaciated and has lost 5 kgs over the past month.

A. CA 15-3
B. Tyrosinase
C. BRCA-1
D. CA 19-9
E. Prostatic acid phosphatase
F. Carcinoembryonic antigen
G. α-Fetoprotein
H. Prostate-specific antigen
A

F. Carcinoembryonic antigen - Although carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) lacks the sensitivity and specificity to be a diagnostic test for colorectal cancer, it has found a valuable application in the detection of recurrence of malignant disease following treatment.

884
Q

A 50-year-old IVDU with a history of hepatitis C infection presents with jaundice and RUQ pain. He has lost weight over the past 2 months and claims he has no desire to eat food.

A. CA 15-3
B. Tyrosinase
C. BRCA-1
D. CA 19-9
E. Prostatic acid phosphatase
F. Carcinoembryonic antigen
G. α-Fetoprotein
H. Prostate-specific antigen
A

G. α-Fetoprotein - This patient is likely to have hepatocellular carcinoma (HCC) on a background of chronic hepatitis C infection. α-Fetoprotein (AFP) is one of the most widely used tumour markers for HCC, but may also be raised in patients with germ cell tumours, cirrhosis and hepatitis.

885
Q

Each of the patients below has lung cancer. Please select the most appropriate cause for their extrapulmonary clinical findings

A 60-year-old gentleman with known lung cancer complains of a four-week history of facial swelling, intermittent blackouts, a tightness around the collar and headache which is worst when he first wakes up in the morning.

A. Raised intracranial pressure
B. Anaphylaxis
C. Tumour lysis syndrome
D. Meningitis
E. Chemotherapy complication
F. Spinal cord compression
G. Ectopic PTH secretion
H. Superior vena caval obstruction
I. SIADH
A

H. Superior vena caval obstruction - This is a classic description of SVC obstruction. This occurs when the SVC is subjected to pressure from a tumour in the superior mediastinum or from thrombosis. The most common cause is lymph node metastases from bronchial carcinoma. The main clinical features are due to venous congestion, and there may even be stridor due to obstruction of the trachea or main bronchi. Initial treatment is with oral dexamethasone to reduce oedema around the tumour followed by long-term radiotherapy/chemotherarpy.

886
Q

Each of the patients below has lung cancer. Please select the most appropriate cause for their extrapulmonary clinical findings

A 62-year-old man with known metastatic prostate cancer complains of sudden-onset weakness in both legs. O/E you notice significantly reduced power in the legs bilaterally, brisk knee and ankle reflexes and bilateral upgoing plantar reflexes.

A. Raised intracranial pressure
B. Anaphylaxis
C. Tumour lysis syndrome
D. Meningitis
E. Chemotherapy complication
F. Spinal cord compression
G. Ectopic PTH secretion
H. Superior vena caval obstruction
I. SIADH
A

F. Spinal cord compression - Metastasis to the spine has lead to compression of this patient’s spinal cord (a medical emergency). Spinal cord compression usually causes LMN signs at the level of the lesion and UMN signs below that level. If not recognised immediately and treated, the damage will become permanent.

887
Q

A 45-year-old woman presents to A&E complaining of a secere headache that has been getting worse over the past 2 months. She claims it is worse when she wakes up in the morning and coughs or sneezes.

A. Raised intracranial pressure
B. Anaphylaxis
C. Tumour lysis syndrome
D. Meningitis
E. Chemotherapy complication
F. Spinal cord compression
G. Ectopic PTH secretion
H. Superior vena caval obstruction
I. SIADH
A

A. Raised intracranial pressure - This lady’s symptoms are suggestive of raised ICP secondary to a mass lesion such as a brain tumour. Actions such as coughing, sneezing and laughing make the pain worse as they all lead to temporary increases in ICP. Patients often report the headache as being worst when they wake up in the morning. This is because ICP increases during sleep, probably from vascular dilatation due to CO2 retention.

888
Q

A 70-year-old lady is brought into A&E after being found unconscious in her home. When examined she is found to be extremely drowsy and agitated when attempts are made to rouse her. Routine observations show that her BP is 160/100 mmHg and pulse 80 bpm. Her U&Es reveal: Na+ 119 mmol/l, K+ 3.0 mmol/l, urea 6.5 mmol/l, Cr 92 mmol/l; corrected Ca2+ 2.45 mmol/l; plasma osmolality: 255 mosmol/kg.

A. Raised intracranial pressure
B. Anaphylaxis
C. Tumour lysis syndrome
D. Meningitis
E. Chemotherapy complication
F. Spinal cord compression
G. Ectopic PTH secretion
H. Superior vena caval obstruction
I. SIADH
A

I. SIADH - There are many causes of SIADH, however in this case it is due to ectopic ADH secrtion from tumour cells, most commonly small cell lung carcinoma. The clinical features are due to the resulting dilutional hyponatraemia. Severe hyponatraemia may lead to convulsions, seizures, coma and even death. Characteristic the patient with SIADH will persistently excrete concentrated urine (with a higher urine osmolairity than serum), have normal renal and adrenal function and will have no oedema or hypovolaemia. When treating hyponatraemia take care not to correct the serum Na+ too quickly as this may lead to central pontine myelinolysis (as you may remember from your IBFD lectures!).

889
Q

A 65 year old male undergoing chemotherapy for acute myeloid leukaemia starts to deteriorate on the ward. He complains of a tingling sensation in his fingers and around his lips. He also complains of muscle weakness and appears confused. His biochemistry reveals that he is hyperkalaemic, hyperphosphataemic, hyperuricaemic and hypocalcaemic. His creatinine is also elevated to 300 umol/L.

A. Raised intracranial pressure
B. Anaphylaxis
C. Tumour lysis syndrome
D. Meningitis
E. Chemotherapy complication
F. Spinal cord compression
G. Ectopic PTH secretion
H. Superior vena caval obstruction
I. SIADH
A

C. Tumour lysis syndrome - Tumour lysis syndrome usually occurs in patients undergoing chemotherapy for lymphoproliferative malignancies, who have just initiated treatment. Lysis of tumour cells leads to the release of large amounts of potassium, phosphate and uric acid into the circulation. The excess phosphate binds to calcium, leading to hypocalcaemia and its clinical features. Patients are also at risk of developing acute renal failure due to the deposition of uric acid and calcium phosphate crystals in the renal tubules.

890
Q

Choose the malignancy that is most strongly associated with the risk factor below

Coeliac disease

A. Gastrointestinal lymhpoma
B. Bladder carcinoma
C. Gastric carcinoma
D. Cholangiocarcinoma
E. Ovarian carcinoma
F. Colorectal carcinoma
G. Hepatocellular carcinoma
H. Prostatic carcinoma
I. Cervical carcinoma
A

A. Gastrointestinal lymphoma - There is an increased incidence of T-cell lymphoma and small bowel adenocarcinoma.

891
Q

Choose the malignancy that is most strongly associated with the risk factor below

Pernicious anaemia

A. Gastrointestinal lymhpoma
B. Bladder carcinoma
C. Gastric carcinoma
D. Cholangiocarcinoma
E. Ovarian carcinoma
F. Colorectal carcinoma
G. Hepatocellular carcinoma
H. Prostatic carcinoma
I. Cervical carcinoma
A

C. Gastric carcinoma - Patients with pernicious anemia have a 2- to 3-fold increased incidence of gastric carcinoma.

892
Q

Choose the malignancy that is most strongly associated with the risk factor below

Unprotected sexual intercourse with several promiscuous partners

A. Gastrointestinal lymhpoma
B. Bladder carcinoma
C. Gastric carcinoma
D. Cholangiocarcinoma
E. Ovarian carcinoma
F. Colorectal carcinoma
G. Hepatocellular carcinoma
H. Prostatic carcinoma
I. Cervical carcinoma
A

I. Cervical carcinoma - The incidence of cervical cancer in celibate women is next to none. Number of sexual partners is a well known risk factor for cervical cancer and it is thought to be associated with the transmission of certain human papilloma virus (HPV) types.

893
Q

Choose the malignancy that is most strongly associated with the risk factor below

History of working in the rubber industry

A. Gastrointestinal lymhpoma
B. Bladder carcinoma
C. Gastric carcinoma
D. Cholangiocarcinoma
E. Ovarian carcinoma
F. Colorectal carcinoma
G. Hepatocellular carcinoma
H. Prostatic carcinoma
I. Cervical carcinoma
A

B. Bladder carcinoma - Bladder cancer was one of the first cancers shown to be industrially associated and has an important place in the history of occupational disease. Rubber industry workers who had been exposed to the substance beta-naphthylamine (banned in the 1950s) were found to have developed bladdder cancer after a latent period of 15-20 years.

894
Q

Choose the malignancy that is most strongly associated with the risk factor below

previous hepatitis C infection

A. Gastrointestinal lymhpoma
B. Bladder carcinoma
C. Gastric carcinoma
D. Cholangiocarcinoma
E. Ovarian carcinoma
F. Colorectal carcinoma
G. Hepatocellular carcinoma
H. Prostatic carcinoma
I. Cervical carcinoma
A

G. Hepatocellular carcinoma - A large proportion of patients with acute hepatitis C infection develop chronic hepatitis. Of these, 3% develop hepatocellular carcinoma following the development of cirrhosis

895
Q

A 25-year-old woman is seen in clinic with a 2-month history of painless lymphadenopaty in the neck. Blood tests show an ESR of 85 and the presence of Reed-Sternberg cells on peripheral blood film.

A. Non-Hodgkin's lymphoma
B. Monoclonal gammopathy of unknown significance
C. Waldenstrom's macroglobulinaemia
D. Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia
E. Burkitt's lymphoma
F. Hodgkin's lymphoma
G. Chronic lymphocytic leukaemia
H. Myeloma
I. Acute myeloid leukaemia
J. Myelofibrosis
K. Chronic myeloid leukaemia
A

F. Hodgkin’s lymphoma - The presence of Reed-Sternberg cells is the giveaway here.

896
Q

A 55-year old woman presents with a 5-month history of tiredness, weight loss and abdominal pain. On examination, there is massive splenomegaly and skin bruising. Her WBC count is 120x109/L. PCR analysis reveals the presence of chimeric Abelson-BCR gene.

A. Non-Hodgkin's lymphoma
B. Monoclonal gammopathy of unknown significance
C. Waldenstrom's macroglobulinaemia
D. Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia
E. Burkitt's lymphoma
F. Hodgkin's lymphoma
G. Chronic lymphocytic leukaemia
H. Myeloma
I. Acute myeloid leukaemia
J. Myelofibrosis
K. Chronic myeloid leukaemia
A

K. Chronic myeloid leukaemia - The clinical features here should alert you towards a malignant process. Massive splenomegaly is characteristic of chronic myeloid leukaemia (CML). CML occurs mainly in middle aged and elderly patients and is due to excessive proliferation of myeloid cells in the bone marrow. Up to 90% of patients have the Abelson-BCR gene (the molecular equivalent of the Philadephia chromosome you may have heard of). Patient’s without the Philadelphia chromosome tend to have a worse prognosis than those with it.

897
Q

An 87-year-old diabetic man comes to see you in the clinic for aroutine checkup. You are pleased to note that his diabetes is well-controlled, however is Hb is 10.5g/dL, WCC 126 x 109/L, platelets 347x109/L. The blood film shows predominantly lymphocytes with no blast cells seen.

A. Non-Hodgkin's lymphoma
B. Monoclonal gammopathy of unknown significance
C. Waldenstrom's macroglobulinaemia
D. Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia
E. Burkitt's lymphoma
F. Hodgkin's lymphoma
G. Chronic lymphocytic leukaemia
H. Myeloma
I. Acute myeloid leukaemia
J. Myelofibrosis
K. Chronic myeloid leukaemia
A

G. Chronic lymphocytic leukaemia - Chronic lympocytic leukaemia (CLL) is characterised by neoplastic proliferation of mature B lymphocytes. The clinical manifestations are due to immunosuppression and bone marrow failure, however it usually has an insidious onset with 25% of patients diagnosed incidentally (as in this case). It occurs most commonly in the elderly and is the most common leukaemia in the Western world.

898
Q

A 35-year old woman presents with a 1-month history of lethargy, malaise, painful enlargement of the cervical and axillary lymph nodes and bruising. Her Hb is 9.0g/dL, WCC 89 x 109/L, platelets 40x109/L. Her blood film shows occasional blast cells and the presence of Auer rods in the cytoplasm.

A. Non-Hodgkin's lymphoma
B. Monoclonal gammopathy of unknown significance
C. Waldenstrom's macroglobulinaemia
D. Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia
E. Burkitt's lymphoma
F. Hodgkin's lymphoma
G. Chronic lymphocytic leukaemia
H. Myeloma
I. Acute myeloid leukaemia
J. Myelofibrosis
K. Chronic myeloid leukaemia
A

I. Acute myeloid leukaemia - Acute myeloid leukaema (AML) is generally seen in adulthood and is caused by proliferation of myeloid precursor cells. Investigations usually show a raised WCC, although it may be normal or low. The brusing and anaemia seen in this patient are due to the effects of marrow failure. The blood film shows blast cells and the presence of Auer rods, which are virtually pathognomonic of AML.

ALL vs. AML

Question; A 3 year old girl presented with several bruises over her body and tiredness. On examination she appeared plae and had petechial haemorrhages. Blood tests revealed low Hb and high WCC and a thrombocytopenia. Peripheral blood film showed the presence of blast cells.

ACUTE LYMPHOBLASTIC LEUKAEMIA

Why would this be ALL and not AML?

Answer: Is the age not the pointer in this question.

Blast cells are immature precursors of either lymphoblasts or myeloblasts. They don’t normally appear in peripheral blood. When present, they signify ACUTE leukaemia. Special staining is needed to identify the lineage. So basically blast cells can occur in both ALL or AML. This is my understanding anyway….but the age thing is probably the most significant pointer.

Answer: Think first of all lymphoid vs myeloid

CLL: enlarged rubbery lymph nodes, non tender, also smear cells
CML: Philadelphia chromosome, sweats, more likely splenomegaly, increased WCC
ALL: bruising, pale, usually children btw 2-4 years old
AML: Auer rods, SOB, bone pain.

899
Q

A 70-year-old man complains of weight loss, headache, blurry vision and haematuria. O/E you notice cervical lymphadenopathy and splenomegaly. Bone marrow biopsy shows a lymphoplasmacytoid cell infiltrate with few plasma cells.

A. Non-Hodgkin's lymphoma
B. Monoclonal gammopathy of unknown significance
C. Waldenstrom's macroglobulinaemia
D. Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia
E. Burkitt's lymphoma
F. Hodgkin's lymphoma
G. Chronic lymphocytic leukaemia
H. Myeloma
I. Acute myeloid leukaemia
J. Myelofibrosis
K. Chronic myeloid leukaemia
A

C. Waldenstrom’s macroglobulinaemia - Waldenstrom’s macroglobulinaemia is a lymphoproliferative disorder of B cells, which take on a lymphoplasmacytoid appearance. It is characterised by the production of immunoglobulin M (IgM), which gives rise to the clinical features of hypervisosity (nosebleeds, blurred vision, retinal haemorrhage etc.)

900
Q

A 7-year-old boy is brought to the GP by his mother. She claims he has been very lethargic for the past few months and occasionally has a fever. FBC reveals Hb 9.3 g/dL, WCC 82 x 109/L and platelets 30 x 109/L.

A. Non-Hodgkin's lymphoma
B. Monoclonal gammopathy of unknown significance
C. Waldenstrom's macroglobulinaemia
D. Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia
E. Burkitt's lymphoma
F. Hodgkin's lymphoma
G. Chronic lymphocytic leukaemia
H. Myeloma
I. Acute myeloid leukaemia
J. Myelofibrosis
K. Chronic myeloid leukaemia
A

D. Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia - Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL) is the most common leukaemia in children. The immature blast cells infiltrate the marrow and lymphoid tissue causing anaemia, bleeding and a vulnerability to infection. Although the FBC reveals that the patient is anaemic, the WCC is raised due to circulating blast cells. The investigation of choice is bone marrow aspiration (which shows a hypercellular marrow with >20% blasts) and treatment is with combination chemotherapy.

ALL vs. AML

Question; A 3 year old girl presented with several bruises over her body and tiredness. On examination she appeared plae and had petechial haemorrhages. Blood tests revealed low Hb and high WCC and a thrombocytopenia. Peripheral blood film showed the presence of blast cells.

ACUTE LYMPHOBLASTIC LEUKAEMIA

Why would this be ALL and not AML?

Answer: Is the age not the pointer in this question.

Blast cells are immature precursors of either lymphoblasts or myeloblasts. They don’t normally appear in peripheral blood. When present, they signify ACUTE leukaemia. Special staining is needed to identify the lineage. So basically blast cells can occur in both ALL or AML. This is my understanding anyway….but the age thing is probably the most significant pointer.

Answer: Think first of all lymphoid vs myeloid

CLL: enlarged rubbery lymph nodes, non tender, also smear cells
CML: Philadelphia chromosome, sweats, more likely splenomegaly, increased WCC
ALL: bruising, pale, usually children btw 2-4 years old
AML: Auer rods, SOB, bone pain.

901
Q

For each of the malignancies listed below, please select the recognised presentation from the list of options.

Gastric carcinoma

A. Hypoglycaemia
B. Erythrocytosis
C. Autoimmune haemolytic anaemia
D. Erythema ab igne
E. Troisier's sign
F. Necrolytic migratory erythema
G. Acanthosis nigricans
H. Eaton-Lambert syndrome
I. Tetany
A

Troisier’s sign - Troisier’s sign is the finding of a palpable solid lymph node located in the left supraclavicular fossa (known as Virchow’s node). It is commonly associated with gastric malignancy. Although rarely present, there is always a mark for checking for this node in an abdo exam in your OSCEs!.

902
Q

For each of the malignancies listed below, please select the recognised presentation from the list of options.

Renal cell carcinoma

A. Hypoglycaemia
B. Erythrocytosis
C. Autoimmune haemolytic anaemia
D. Erythema ab igne
E. Troisier's sign
F. Necrolytic migratory erythema
G. Acanthosis nigricans
H. Eaton-Lambert syndrome
I. Tetany
A

B. Erythrocytosis - Erythropoietin is produced in the kidney and renal cell carcinoma may lead to increased production as a paraneoplastic syndrome. This causes a a secondary polycythaemia.

903
Q

For each of the malignancies listed below, please select the recognised presentation from the list of options.

Small-cell lung carcinoma

A. Hypoglycaemia
B. Erythrocytosis
C. Autoimmune haemolytic anaemia
D. Erythema ab igne
E. Troisier's sign
F. Necrolytic migratory erythema
G. Acanthosis nigricans
H. Eaton-Lambert syndrome
I. Tetany
A

H. Eaton-Lambert syndrome - Eaton-Lambert syndrome is a myasthenic syndrome characterised by impaired release of acetylcholine due to autoantibodies to presynaptic voltage-gated calcium channels. Typically in EMQs, the description is of a patient with absent tendon reflexes and muscle weakness that improved after repeated contraction (much to the amazement of the examining doctors colleagues!). Eaton-Lambert syndrome is associated with small cell lung carcinoma in 60% of cases.

904
Q

For each of the malignancies listed below, please select the recognised presentation from the list of options.

Glucagonoma

A. Hypoglycaemia
B. Erythrocytosis
C. Autoimmune haemolytic anaemia
D. Erythema ab igne
E. Troisier's sign
F. Necrolytic migratory erythema
G. Acanthosis nigricans
H. Eaton-Lambert syndrome
I. Tetany
A

F. Necrolytic migratory erythema - This rash is characteristic of glucagonoma and is also known as ‘glucagonoma syndrome’. It is characterised by the spread of erythematous blisters across the lower abdomen, buttocks, perineum and groin.

905
Q

For each of the malignancies listed below, please select the recognised presentation from the list of options.

Insulinoma

A. Hypoglycaemia
B. Erythrocytosis
C. Autoimmune haemolytic anaemia
D. Erythema ab igne
E. Troisier's sign
F. Necrolytic migratory erythema
G. Acanthosis nigricans
H. Eaton-Lambert syndrome
I. Tetany
A

A. Hypoglycaemia - Insulimonas present with spontaneous episodes of hypoglycaemia, especially when fasting and exercising. Most insulinomas are benign and small tumours, but may cause significant metabolic effects.

906
Q

For each of the malignancies listed below, please select the recognised presentation from the list of options.

Medullary thyroid carcinoma

A. Hypoglycaemia
B. Erythrocytosis
C. Autoimmune haemolytic anaemia
D. Erythema ab igne
E. Troisier's sign
F. Necrolytic migratory erythema
G. Acanthosis nigricans
H. Eaton-Lambert syndrome
I. Tetany
A

I. Tetany - Medullary thyroid carcinoma are uncommon and arise from the parafollicular cells of the thyroid. These tumours produce calctionin and elevated levels are diagnostic. They may occasionally present with hypocalcaemia and tetany as a result of this.

907
Q

Which of the following is most likely to cure a patient of malignant disease?

A. Surgery
B. Radiotherapy
C. Chemotherapy
D. Medical treatment

A

A. Surgery

908
Q

A 60 year old male smoker has a long history of hypertension & angina. 4 weeks ago he was started on captopril by his GP. His creatinine has increased from 100 to 350 during that time. Renal ultrasound shows that 1 kidney is larger than the other.

A. Aortic coarctation
B. Polycystic kidney disease
C. Essential hypertension
D. Chronic alcohol excess
E. Hyperparathyroidism
F. Conn's syndrome
G. Hypothyroidism
H. Medication
I. Acromegaly
J. Renal artery stenosis
K. ‘White-coat hypertension’
L. Cushing's syndrome
M. Phaeochromocytoma
A

J. Renal artery stenosis - Renal artery stenosis is basically narrowing of the renal artery. It occurs typically due to atherosclerosis or fibromuscular dysplasia. The history of smoking, hypertension and angina here are risk factors of the former. The presentation tends to be with accelerated or difficult to control hypertension. Acute kidney injury can be seen after starting an ACE inhibitor or an angiotensin II receptor antagonist. The afferent arteriole is stenosed in RAS and angiotensin II is needed to maintain GFR by constricting the efferent arteriole. ACE inhibitors prevent conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II, which is needed to maintain renal perfusion pressure in those with RAS.
There may not be any clinical consequences of RAS – just because someone’s renal arteries are narrowed does not mean they are suffering worsening kidney function, although this may be the case, especially after blockade of the renin-angiotensin system. A definitive diagnosis is made on imaging, where there is some controversy on what is most appropriate to use. USS is safe and non-invasive but the sensitivity and specificity is low. CT/MR angiography has the risk of contrast nephropathy and nephrogenic systemic fibrosis. Conventional angiography (the best test available) has the risk of bleeding and emboli as well as contrast related risks already mentioned.

909
Q

A 40 year old woman has high blood pressure despite treatment with bendrofluazide & atenolol. Blood tests show Na 140mmol/l, K 3mmol/l, urea 6mmol/l. His bendrofluazide is stopped & he is prescribed potassium supplements, but 2 weeks later his K is still 3mmol/l. Plasma renin activity is low.

A. Aortic coarctation
B. Polycystic kidney disease
C. Essential hypertension
D. Chronic alcohol excess
E. Hyperparathyroidism
F. Conn's syndrome
G. Hypothyroidism
H. Medication
I. Acromegaly
J. Renal artery stenosis
K. ‘White-coat hypertension’
L. Cushing's syndrome
M. Phaeochromocytoma
A

F. Conn’s syndrome - The normal range for potassium 3.5-5mmol/l. You should really know the normal ranges for common values like sodium, potassium and urea by this stage. In Conn’s, potassium is normal or low. It is important when drawing blood to avoid haemolysing the sample, which will cause a falsely elevated potassium level. It is important for screening to calculate the aldosterone/renin ratio, with >30 being suggestive of Conn’s. In Conn’s, aldosterone is raised and renin is low due to negative feedback. This is in contrast to renal artery stenosis where both aldosterone and renin will be raised. It is important to discontinue diuretics and other interfering medications for at least 6 weeks prior to measuring the ratio. The most reliable diagnostic test is a fludrocortisone suppression test. Treatment can be surgical with excision of the adenoma (if aldosterone production is lateralised to one side) or medical with spironolactone and amiloride. There are also familial forms of primary hyperaldosteronism which show an autosomal dominant mode of inheritance.
Spironolactone is an aldosterone receptor antagonist. Amiloride inhibits aldosterone-sensitive sodium channels. They are both examples of potassium sparing diuretics acting on the DCT.

910
Q

A 45 year old woman is hypertensive & complains that she is putting on weight. On examination, she is centrally obese & has a moon face. There are purple striae on her abdomen. She has glycosuria.

A. Aortic coarctation
B. Polycystic kidney disease
C. Essential hypertension
D. Chronic alcohol excess
E. Hyperparathyroidism
F. Conn's syndrome
G. Hypothyroidism
H. Medication
I. Acromegaly
J. Renal artery stenosis
K. ‘White-coat hypertension’
L. Cushing's syndrome
M. Phaeochromocytoma
A

L. Cushing’s syndrome - There is weight gain (truncal obesity), hypertension, moon face and striae in Cushing’s due to hypercorticolism. Cushing’s disease is due to an ACTH secreting pituitary adenoma and is responsible for most cases of Cushing’s syndrome. A low dose 1mg overnight dexamethasone suppresion test can be done, or a 24 hour urinary free cortisol collection to diagnose Cushing’s syndrome. Plasma ACTH should guide further investigation. If ACTH is suppressed, the problem is likely to be with the adrenals. If it not suppressed, pituitary or ectopic disease is more likely.

911
Q

A 40 year old man is hypertensive & complains that he is putting on weight. On examination he has a prominent jaw and brow. You notice that he is sweating and has large hands and feet. Urine dipstick reveals glycosuria.

A. Aortic coarctation
B. Polycystic kidney disease
C. Essential hypertension
D. Chronic alcohol excess
E. Hyperparathyroidism
F. Conn's syndrome
G. Hypothyroidism
H. Medication
I. Acromegaly
J. Renal artery stenosis
K. ‘White-coat hypertension’
L. Cushing's syndrome
M. Phaeochromocytoma
A

I. Acromegaly - Acromegaly is caused by excess growth hormone and is most often due to a pituitary adenoma. The diagnosis is often made late as the symptoms are insidious in onset. This patient is putting on weight, has prognathism, large hands and feet and glycosuria. There may also be an enlarged nose, soft tissue changes and organomegaly, all as a result of excess GH/IGF-1. Visual impairment may be present is due to the pituitary adenoma putting pressure on the optic chiasm. Tumour mass effect may also cause headaches and there may also be hypopituitarism from stalk compression and CN palsies. IGT and DM are associated and this may result not only in glycosuria but possible polydipsia and polyuria. There may also be altered sexual function, Carpal Tunnel Syndrome and joint dysfunction.
Treatment is either sugical with a transsphenoidal approach, or medical (if the tumour cannot be resected/completely resected) with a somatostatin analogue like octreotide and an adjunctive dopamine agonist like cabergoline. If the patient does not respond to SSAs then pegvisomant which is a GH receptor antagonist can be used, although it is very costly. Gigantism occurs as a result of excess GH during childhood.

912
Q

A 41 year old woman with a history of neurofibromatosis has erratic BP readings. Some readings are as high as 220/120 where as otheres are normal. She comes to you complaining of intermittent headaches, sweating and palpitations.

A. Aortic coarctation
B. Polycystic kidney disease
C. Essential hypertension
D. Chronic alcohol excess
E. Hyperparathyroidism
F. Conn's syndrome
G. Hypothyroidism
H. Medication
I. Acromegaly
J. Renal artery stenosis
K. ‘White-coat hypertension’
L. Cushing's syndrome
M. Phaeochromocytoma
A

M. Phaeochromocytoma - Phaeochromocytomas presents with paroxysmal episodes of palpitations, anxiety, excessive sweating, pallor and hypertension. It can be inherited in MEN2, von Hippel-Lindau syndrome and NF1. Diagnosis is based on raised urinary and serum catecholamines, metanephrines and normetanephrines. 24 hour urinary VMA will be elevated. CT is used to localise the tumour. Treatment includes medical with the use of phenoxybenzamine, phentolamine and surgical options. Surgical excision is carried out under alpha and beta blockade to protect against the release of catecholamines into circulation when the tumour is being manipulated. The 10% rule is often quoted: 10% are bilateral, 10% malignant, 10% extraadrenal and 10% hereditary.

913
Q

A 10 year old boy presents with stridor. He reports three episodes of face and tongue swelling, each of which prompted him to report to A&E. There are also red, raised and itchy lesions that cover his body, including face. His sister also suffers from similar attacks.

A. Kawasaki disease
B. Myocarditis
C. Juvenile idiopathic arthritis
D. Primary pulmonary hypertension
E. Aortic stenosis
F. Hereditary angio-oedema
G. Pericarditis
H. Congestive cardiac failure
I. Toxic synovitis
J. Acute rheumatic fever
K. Congenital nephritic disease
A

F. Hereditary angio-oedema - This patient has urticaria (erythematous, blanching, oedematous, pruritic lesions) and angio-oedema (swelling). A positive family history of angio-oedema raises a suspicion for a diagnosis of hereditary angio-oedema. There are two forms of this condition. One is manifest by absence of C1 esterase inhibitor whereas the other is due to normal levels of dysfunctional C1 esterase inhibitor. This allows the uncontrolled activation of the complement cascade which therefore gives rise to angio-oedema. This is a condition which is inherited in an autosomal dominant manner although it should be noted that some 50% of cases have no previous FH and are thought to be due to new mutations. Laboratory investigations may reveal a decreased level of C1 and decreased levels or function of C1 esterase which would support the diagnosis. In acquired angio-oedema, C1q levels are low unlike in the hereditary form where it is normal – this differentiates the two forms. The mainstay of treatment is with antihistamines. Airway compromise like the stridor this patient is experiencing is an indication for prompt treatment with adrenaline. The stridor here is a sign of severe laryngeal angio-oedema, which is a sign of impending airway obstruction – this needs to be taken seriously and is an emergency.

914
Q

A 6 year old girl presents with stiffness and a limp which has lasted for a few weeks now. The onset is reported as insidious and her parents tell you she has not had any injury or infections. One of her knees is swollen and cannot be straightened. The symptoms are worse in the mornings but improve throughout the day. There is also involvement of the small joints of the hands and feet.

A. Kawasaki disease
B. Myocarditis
C. Juvenile idiopathic arthritis
D. Primary pulmonary hypertension
E. Aortic stenosis
F. Hereditary angio-oedema
G. Pericarditis
H. Congestive cardiac failure
I. Toxic synovitis
J. Acute rheumatic fever
K. Congenital nephritic disease
A

C. Juvenile idiopathic arthritis - This is juvenile idiopathic arthritis, also known as juvenile rheumatoid arthritis, or Still’s disease. It is the most common chronic arthropathy of children and there are several clinical subtypes. The diagnosis is clinical. Intra-articular steroids offer good control if only a few joints are affected. Methotrexate is also a commonly used disease-modifying agent. More resistant cases are treated with agents which block inflammatory cytokines. Around 10-20% of children with JIA are at risk of developing anterior uveitis and therefore all children with this diagnosis must undergo regular ophthalmological review for inflammation. Remember that symptoms vary according to subtype of disease, which laboratory tests may be useful in classifying. Note also that while this can be called juvenile RA, rheumatoid factor is only positive in a small minority of patients (2-7%).

915
Q

A 12 year old boy presents with polyarthritis and abdominal pain. He had a sore throat about a week ago. Examination reveals an early blowing diastolic murmur at the left sternal edge. Shortly afterwards, there are bilateral involuntary jerky movements worse when the patient is asked to make a movement.

A. Kawasaki disease
B. Myocarditis
C. Juvenile idiopathic arthritis
D. Primary pulmonary hypertension
E. Aortic stenosis
F. Hereditary angio-oedema
G. Pericarditis
H. Congestive cardiac failure
I. Toxic synovitis
J. Acute rheumatic fever
K. Congenital nephritic disease
A

J. Acute rheumatic fever - Chorea features as part of the acute presentation in 5-10% of patients with rheumatic fever. It can also occur as an isolated event up to 6 months after the initial GABHS infection. It is named Sydenham chorea after the doctor who described St Vitus Dance in the 17th century. Choreiform movements can affect the whole body or just one side of the body, in which case it is referred to as hemi-chorea. The head is often involved with erratic facial movements that resemble grimaces, grins and growns, and the tongue may be affected to resemble a bag of worms when protruded, and protrusion cannot be maintained. In severe cases the patient may have an impaired ability to eat. Chorea disappears with sleep and is made worse by purposeful movements. When the patient is asked to grip the doctor’s hand, the patient will be unable to maintain grip and rhythmic squeezing occurs. There are two signs to look out for in these patients. The first is the spooning sign, which is a flexion at the wrist with finger extension when the hand is held extended. The pronator sign is the second which is when the palms turn outwards when held above the head. Both are consistent with chorea.
Remember that the 5 major manifestations of acute rheumatic fever are carditis, polyarthritis, chorea, erythema marginatum and SC nodules – the most common of which are carditis and polyarthritis. The murmur here is a manifestation of carditis. Primary episodes occur mainly in children aged 5-14 and are rare in those over 30. The greatest burden of disease remains in the developing countries and in populations of people living in poverty.

916
Q

A 16 year old boy presents with 5 month history of chest pain on exertion and two episodes of collapse in the last month. There is also progressive SOB on exertion and now he cannot walk up the stairs without stopping. Examination reveals a loud systolic murmur.

A. Kawasaki disease
B. Myocarditis
C. Juvenile idiopathic arthritis
D. Primary pulmonary hypertension
E. Aortic stenosis
F. Hereditary angio-oedema
G. Pericarditis
H. Congestive cardiac failure
I. Toxic synovitis
J. Acute rheumatic fever
K. Congenital nephritic disease
A

E. Aortic stenosis - Aortic stenosis can present with chest pain, dyspnoea and syncope. It is characterised by a harsh ejection systolic murmur heard loudest at the right upper sternal edge at end expiration, which radiates up towards the carotids. The pulse pressure is narrow and there may be an associated slow-rising and plateau pulse. Doppler echo is vital for diagnosis and shows a pressure gradient across the narrowed valve orifice. This is congenital aortic stenosis due to an abnormally formed aortic valve. He may here be considered for surgical repair or TAVR.

917
Q

A 13 year old girl presents with increasing SOB, particularly when lying down at night to try to sleep. She has also noticed some ankle swelling. Examination reveals a raised JVP, tachycardia and an S3 gallop rhythm on cardiac ascultation.

A. Kawasaki disease
B. Myocarditis
C. Juvenile idiopathic arthritis
D. Primary pulmonary hypertension
E. Aortic stenosis
F. Hereditary angio-oedema
G. Pericarditis
H. Congestive cardiac failure
I. Toxic synovitis
J. Acute rheumatic fever
K. Congenital nephritic disease
A

H. Congestive cardiac failure - The signs and symptoms this patient has points to CCF (congestive cardiac failure). SOB with orthopnoea due to the sudden increase in pre-load, indicates LV failure. Neck vein distension is also present, which is a major Framingham criteria for diagnosis. Tachycardia and ankle oedema are both minor criteria for diagnosis. Other major criteria for diagnosis include S3 gallop, cardiomegaly and hepatojugular reflux. For all patients, initial investigations should include ECG, CXR, TTE and bloods including BNP levels.

CXR may reveal pulmonary vascular redistribution to the upper zones, Kerley B lines, an increased CTR (cardiomegaly) and pleural effusion. CCF in children occurs as a result of various congenital abnormalities as well as rheumatic fever. Congenital causes include aortic stenosis, PDA and Eisenmenger’s syndrome.

918
Q

A 70-year-old diabetic male presents with severe pain in his left foot. The pain is present at rest and is alleviated by hanging his leg off the foot of the bed at the night. On examination you note advanced gangrene with superimposed infection of the left foot with absent dorsalis pedis and posterior tibial pulses.

A. Amputation
B. Embolectomy
C. Thrombolysis
D. Endarterectomy
E. Femoro-popliteal bypass
F. Femoral-femoral crossover graft
G. Anticoagulation
H. Aorto-bifemoral bypass
I. Fasciotomy
J. Percutaneous transluminal angioplasty
K. Antiplatelet drug
L. Conservative management
A

A. Amputation - Gangrene occurs as a complication of necrosis and characterised by the decay of body tissue. It can be due to ischaemia, trauma or infection, or a combination of these processes. There is ischaemic gangrene, which arises due to either arterial or venous obstruction. There is also infectious gangrene which include processes like gas gangrene cause by Clostridium perfringens and necrotising fasciitis which has many causes, commonly Streptococcus pyogenes. Diabetes is a risk factor here and is frequently associated with both infectious and ischaemic gangrene. High blood glucose and impaired immunity, peripheral neuropathy and arterial disease contribute to limb-threatening diabetic foot infections. The absent pulses and symptoms this patient is experiencing here (critical limb ischaemia) also suggests diabetic chronic peripheral arterial disease, which in diabetics tends to affect smaller arteries and affects a younger age group when compared to non-diabetics.There is advanced gangrene here, and in cases of severe limb sepsis, amputation is required. This is a two stage process which at first involves guillotine amputation and later, when the infection has cleared, a definitive amputation and wound closure is needed. If the extremity is not viable (such as a large amount of necrosis, profound anaesthesia/paralysis or an inaudible Doppler pulse) then the patient should undergo prompt amputation. Every effort should be made to preserve as many joints as possible in order to improve rehabilitation chances and to decrease the work of walking around with a prosthesis.

919
Q

A 55-year-old obese smoker presents with pain in his legs on walking 800 metres, which is immediately relieved by rest. His ankle-brachial pressure index is 0.9.

A. Amputation
B. Embolectomy
C. Thrombolysis
D. Endarterectomy
E. Femoro-popliteal bypass
F. Femoral-femoral crossover graft
G. Anticoagulation
H. Aorto-bifemoral bypass
I. Fasciotomy
J. Percutaneous transluminal angioplasty
K. Antiplatelet drug
L. Conservative management
A

L. Conservative management - This is peripheral vascular disease with classic symptoms of claudication (in reality, these classic symptoms only occur in a small minority of patients). ABPI should be performed in symptomatic patients and a result less than or equal to 0.9 is diagnostic for the presence of peripheral vascular disease. You need to however bear in mind that this test may not be accurate if the patient has non-compressible arteries (mainly in diabetic patients). This patient has only presented with claudication which is not severely lifestyle limiting. It depends on how much needing to rest every 800 metres or so bothers him. If he does not feel that this is really a functional disability then no additional treatment is required, but follow-up appointments with a doctor should be made to monitor the development of ischaemic symptoms or coronary and cerebrovascular complaints.

If the symptoms are lifestyle limiting then the patient should undergo a supervised exercise programme (only some rather limited quality cohort studies at the moment show an improvement in walking time and symptoms) and medication for symptomatic relief for a period of 3 months. Medication can include cilostazol, pentoxifylline (widely used but no more effective than placebo in RCTs) or naftidrofuryl. Risk factors should also continually be targetted – BP control, statins to lower LDL, beta blockers to target cardiovascular risk and antiplatelet therapy, for instance. If no improvement is made with this regime then patients should be referred to a vascular specialist to have their anatomy defined and assessed for possible revascularisation.

920
Q

A 65-year-old female presents with sudden-onset pain in her left calf. Although her patient notes are unavailable, she tells you that she is taking digoxin and verapamil for her ‘funny’ heart beat. On examination, the left leg is pale, cold and painful.

A. Amputation
B. Embolectomy
C. Thrombolysis
D. Endarterectomy
E. Femoro-popliteal bypass
F. Femoral-femoral crossover graft
G. Anticoagulation
H. Aorto-bifemoral bypass
I. Fasciotomy
J. Percutaneous transluminal angioplasty
K. Antiplatelet drug
L. Conservative management
A

B. Embolectomy - Have a think about the differential diagnosis of sudden onset limb pain. Do you remember the 6 Ps of critical limb ischaemia? This patient’s arrhythmia has caused an embolic event, leading to acute limb ischaemia. There is as a result a sudden decrease in limb perfusion with threatened tissue viability. An emergency vascular assessment needs to be done with duplex ultrasound. Treatment depends on whether the patient already has a history of significant atherosclerosis. If so, there will already be a built up collateral supply so there is potentially a longer time window to act and so anticoagulation and thrombolysis are options. Otherwise an embolectomy will be indicated with a Fogarty catheter if there is not a long enough time window. This is typically done by inserting a Fogarty catheter with an inflatable balloon attached to its tip into the offending atery and passing the tip beyond the clot. The balloon is then inflated and then the catheter is withdrawn to remove the clot.

921
Q

A 63-year-old male with a history of AF underwent an embolectomy a few hours ago after a clot was found in the popliteal artery. He is now complaining of increasing pain and tightness in the treated leg. O/E the leg appears swollen and there is pain on passive flexion of the foot.

A. Amputation
B. Embolectomy
C. Thrombolysis
D. Endarterectomy
E. Femoro-popliteal bypass
F. Femoral-femoral crossover graft
G. Anticoagulation
H. Aorto-bifemoral bypass
I. Fasciotomy
J. Percutaneous transluminal angioplasty
K. Antiplatelet drug
L. Conservative management
A

I. Fasciotomy - This patient has developed compartment syndrome most likely as a result of soft tissue injury or direct injury to the musculature following the recent embolectomy. Additional causes include fractures and compartment haemorrhage. This condition results from raised interstitial pressure in closed osseofascial compartments. The classical clinical diagnosis will be of the following 6 Ps: pain, pressure, pulselessness, paralysis, paraesthesia and pallor (uncommon). The history here of severe extremity pain and tightness following documented trauma is classical. The pain tends to be out of proportion to the injury and is made worse by passive stretching of the muscle groups which are contained by the affected compartment. Passive stretching of the muscles of the compartment which is involved will also elicit pain. Note that true paralysis is a late sign, as is loss of pulses and pallor. Paraesthesia is however an early seen sign. If the diagnosis is uncertain in an at risk patient then compartment pressure measurement is indicated. Measurements of serum CK and urine myoglobin will also be indicated and these may be elevated with muscle cell lysis and necrosis. This is not due to an occlusive dressing (if it were, the first line treatment would be to remove this dressing). Therefore, a fasciotomy is indicated regardless of time of diagnosis with fasciotomy of all compartments with elevated pressure. There is a clear 6 hour window whereby there are lower amputation and death rates compared to delays >6 hours, so this needs to be done as a matter of urgency. The incision needs to be long enough too! Wound care post-fascitomy is important to prevent the risk of secondary infection and to debride any necrotic tissue, or to consider skin grafts. Post-operatively, care will be MDT with physical and occupational therapies and a range of motion exercises to try an d get the patient fully functional.

922
Q

A 72-year-old male complains of right leg pain on walking 50 metres. Angiography reveals significant stenosis of the superficial femoral artery.

A. Amputation
B. Embolectomy
C. Thrombolysis
D. Endarterectomy
E. Femoro-popliteal bypass
F. Femoral-femoral crossover graft
G. Anticoagulation
H. Aorto-bifemoral bypass
I. Fasciotomy
J. Percutaneous transluminal angioplasty
K. Antiplatelet drug
L. Conservative management
A

E. Femoro-popliteal bypass - Broadly speaking, if there is disease with less severe stenosis then endovascular revascularisation is the recommended approach. Surgical revascularisation is recommended if there is more severe stenosis. At this stage, there is no need to get bogged down by the exact recommendations. This significant stenosis will likely require some form of revascularisation. The best option on the list for disease occuring only on one side and localised to the SFA is a femoro-popliteal bypass (colloquially referred to as a fem-pop). Usually the patient’s own long saphenous vein is used as a graft. As you may remember from year 2 anatomy, the SFA becomes the popliteal artery at the popliteal fossa. As a brief summary, femoro-femoral cross-over grafts are done for cases of unilateral iliac artery occlusion. Aorto-bifemoral bypass is used for atherosclerosis of the infrarenal aorta and iliacs.

923
Q

A 62-year-old lorry driver presents with sudden-onset weakness of the right side of his body as well as ipsilateral loss of vision on the left, which he describes as like a ‘curtain’ descending over his field of vision. His symptoms resolve completely a few minutes later.

A. Duplex doppler ultrasound
B. CT scan
C. Ankle-brachial pressure index
D. No investigation needed
E. Venography
F. Contrast angiography
G. Magnetic resonance venography
H. ESR
I. Coagulation studies
J. Brain MRI
K. Blood glucose level
L.  EMG walking test
M. Serum CK
A

A. Duplex doppler ultrasound - This man is presenting with classic features of a TIA. A TIA is colloquially called a ‘mini stroke’ with symptoms typically lasting under an hour (and resolve within 24 hours). An antiplatelet drug such as aspirin is effective secondary prevention if the patient is not already anticoagulated. The patient will be anticoagulated if they have a likely or known cardioembolic source such as AF. Clopidogrel is an alternative in those who do not tolerate aspirin.
The description of transient visual disturbance like a curtain descending over the eye is characteristic of amaurosis fugax. Amaurosis fugax is a transient and painless loss of vision in one eye due to the passage of an embolus into the central retinal artery. The cause could be embolic from the internal carotid artery to cause an occlusion of the ipsilateral retinal artery. Patients presenting with TIAs should be investigated for carotid artery stenosis with a carotid Doppler ultrasound as there is a high risk of having a subsequent full blown stroke. Furthermore if there is a stenosis of >70%, the patient may be a candidate for carotid endarterectomy. Presence of ipsilateral carotid stenosis suggests artery-to-artery embolic event as the cause and this should be the target for surgical or interventional treatment. Follow up tests could be CT angiography or MRA to expand on the abnormal Doppler results. They are not appropriate first line investigations to do here. Head CT is usually normal in TIA. ECG should also be done to investigate for AF which is a common risk factor for embolic cerebral ischaemia.

924
Q

A 56-year-old man is scheduled for elective AAA repair. The extent and its relationship to the renal arteries need to be identified.

A. Duplex doppler ultrasound
B. CT scan
C. Ankle-brachial pressure index
D. No investigation needed
E. Venography
F. Contrast angiography
G. Magnetic resonance venography
H. ESR
I. Coagulation studies
J. Brain MRI
K. Blood glucose level
L.  EMG walking test
M. Serum CK
A

B. CT scan - Generally, elective surgical repair is indicated in patients with large symptomatic AAA – repair of aneuryms over 5.5cm offers a survival advantage. Also, young healthy patients and women in particular may benefit from early repair for smaller AAAs. Data suggests that EVAR (endovascular AAA repair) is equivalent to open repair in terms of overall survival but the rate of secondary interventions is higher with EVAR. Generally, those with a greater risk of perioperative morbidity and mortality, such as patients with co-morbidities such as COPD, may benefit from the less invasive approach (anatomy permitting). Younger and healthier patients may benefit from the relative durability of traditional open repair. A CT scan is useful for diagnosis aortic aneurysms which lie close to the origins or or proximal to the renal arteries. While abdominal ultrasound can also identify the AAA and aortic dilation, a CT scan is more useful in localising this lesion and its relationship to the renal vasculature

925
Q

A 55 year-old man presents with cramping pains in his left leg that occur after walking 100 metres. The pain is effectively relieved by rest.

A. Duplex doppler ultrasound
B. CT scan
C. Ankle-brachial pressure index
D. No investigation needed
E. Venography
F. Contrast angiography
G. Magnetic resonance venography
H. ESR
I. Coagulation studies
J. Brain MRI
K. Blood glucose level
L.  EMG walking test
M. Serum CK
A

C. Ankle-brachial pressure index - This is peripheral vascular disease (claudication) and the first investigation to do here is an ABPI. This is an ankle brachial pressure index and has a sensitivity of 95% and a specificity of 100%. It is however important to remember that it may not be accurate in patients who have non-compressible arteries – so beware, particularly in diabetics. Those with either severely stenotic or totally occluded arteries may have a normal ABPI if there is abundant collateral circulation. ABPI of les s than or equal to 0.9 is diagnostic for the presence of peripheral vascular disease. ABPI is performed by taking the systolic pressure of the left and right brachial arteries and the left and right PT and DP arteries pressure. The ABPI is the highest of the DP and PT pressure divided by the higher of the left and right arm brachial artery pressure. Finding the artery with the probe is a skill which may take a bit of practice so have a play around with the probe if you are stuck on a vascular attachment. ABPI is a marker of peripheral atherosclerosis as well as a predictor of vascular events. Risk factors for PVD include smoking, diabetes, old age, hyperlipidaemia and history of coronary or cerebrovascular disease. Treatment is outlined in the explanation for question 2 of the previous EMQ set.

926
Q

A 65-year-old man is brought into A&E after his son witnessed him collapse in his home. He reveals how his father complained of an excruciating pain in his lower back. On examination, the patient is pale and cold with shut-down perpheries. There is a palpable epigastric mass.

A. Duplex doppler ultrasound
B. CT scan
C. Ankle-brachial pressure index
D. No investigation needed
E. Venography
F. Contrast angiography
G. Magnetic resonance venography
H. ESR
I. Coagulation studies
J. Brain MRI
K. Blood glucose level
L.  EMG walking test
M. Serum CK
A

D. No investigation necessary - This is a history of a ruptured AAA. There is back pain here and shut down peripheries and pallor due to blood loss. This patient is in haemorrhagic shock. As this AAA has ruptured, this man will need urgent surgical repair, with of course standard resuscitation measures. Investigations would just waste time. The airway will needed to be managed with supplemental oxygen and ET intubation, a central venous catheter will need to be inserted, an arterial catheter and urinary catheter will also be needed for monitoring, and the target systolic BP is 50-70. Infusing too many fluids may increase the risk of death. The most effective form of surgical repair is an EVAR (endovascular AAA repair), anatomy permitting, otherwise traditional open repair is performed. Open repair has a mortality of 48%. Antibiotics will also be needed to cover bacteria to prevent graft infection. This will be prescribed in line with local protocols

927
Q

A 39-year-old multiparous woman presents to the clinic with varciosities in both legs. Although asymptomatic, she wishes to undergo surgery to remove them as they are causing her great embarassment. In order to determine the best treatment plan, the surgeon would like to map out all the incompetent venous pathways.

A. Duplex doppler ultrasound
B. CT scan
C. Ankle-brachial pressure index
D. No investigation needed
E. Venography
F. Contrast angiography
G. Magnetic resonance venography
H. ESR
I. Coagulation studies
J. Brain MRI
K. Blood glucose level
L.  EMG walking test
M. Serum CK
A

A. Duplex doppler ultrasound - Ablative procedures include stripping and ligation, the aim of which is to permanently remove the varicose vein. Radiofrequency ablation (RFA) can also be done, as well as endovenous laser therapy and foamed sclerotherapy. Phlebectomy or sclerotherapy can also be performed. This is generally reserved for symptomatic cases, although this woman has a cosmetic issue with the appearance of her legs which is causing her distress. There are complications of ablation which the patient will need to be made aware of though, such as bleeding, infection, saphenous nerve injury and neovascularisation.
A duplex ultrasound is the investigation which is required here. It can assess reversed flow and valve closure time. This should be done with the patient standing and with the leg in external rotation for best sensitivity. Specific segments which are affected by reflux can be delineated as the superficial and deep truncal veins, perforators and tributaries can all be visualised. Reflex in the great saphenous or common femoral can be detected with Valsalva while more distal reflux can be elicitied by compressing the leg above the Doppler probe to see if any blood is being forced back towards the feet.

928
Q

A 50-year-old diabetic lady, who has smoked 40 cigarettes a day for the last 30 years, presents with a year’s history of worsening bilateral calf pain when she walks. The pain goes away when she stops walking but recurs when she resumes. She has been started recently on hormone replacement therapy.

A. Critical limb ischaemia
B. Viable limb
C. Dead limb
D. Spinal stenosis
E. Ankylosing spondylitis
F. Deep vein thrombosis
G. Acute limb ischaemia
H. Intermittent claudication
I. Compartment syndrome
J. Leriche syndrome
K. Baker’s cyst
L. Muscle tear
M. Rhabdomyolysis
A

H. Intermittent claudication - This is peripheral vascular disease with classic symptoms of claudication (in reality, these classic symptoms only occur in a small minority of patients). Remember also that intermittent claudication can also occur in the large muscle groups of the upper leg, which is indicative of narrowing of the deep femoral artery. ABPI should be performed in symptomatic patients and a result less than or equal to 0.9 is diagnostic for the presence of peripheral vascular disease. You need to however bear in mind that this test may not be accurate if the patient has non-compressible arteries (mainly in diabetic patients like this one). If she does not feel that this claudication is really a functional disability then no additional treatment is required, but follow-up appointments with a doctor should be made to monitor the development of ischaemic symptoms or coronary and cerebrovascular complaints.
If the symptoms are lifestyle limiting then the patient should undergo a supervised exercise programme (only some rather limited quality cohort studies at the moment show an improvement in walking time and symptoms) and medication for symptomatic relief for a period of 3 months. Medication can include cilostazol, pentoxifylline (widely used but no more effective than placebo in RCTs) or naftidrofuryl. Risk factors should also continually be targetted – BP control, statins to lower LDL, beta blockers to target cardiovascular risk and antiplatelet therapy, for instance. If no improvement is made with this regime then patients should be referred to a vascular specialist to have their anatomy defined and assessed for possible revascularisation.

929
Q

A 40-year-old man has been brought into A&E after a road traffic accident. He was a driver and involved in a head-on collision with another vehicle. It took the fire brigade 45 minutes to cut him out of the wreckage. This patient sustained a fracture of his right leg and mentions to you a few hours later that his leg feels hard. When you examine him, there is pain on passive flexion of the ankle.

A. Critical limb ischaemia
B. Viable limb
C. Dead limb
D. Spinal stenosis
E. Ankylosing spondylitis
F. Deep vein thrombosis
G. Acute limb ischaemia
H. Intermittent claudication
I. Compartment syndrome
J. Leriche syndrome
K. Baker’s cyst
L. Muscle tear
M. Rhabdomyolysis
A

I. Compartment syndrome - This patient has developed compartment syndrome due to trauma and the fracture. This condition results from raised interstitial pressure in closed osseofascial compartments. The classical clinical diagnosis will be of the following 6 Ps: pain, pressure, pulselessness, paralysis, paraesthesia and pallor (uncommon). The history tends to be of severe extremity pain and tightness following documented trauma. The pain tends to be out of proportion to the injury and is made worse by passive stretching of the muscle groups which are contained by the affected compartment. Passive stretching of the muscles of the compartment which is involved will also elicit pain. Note that true paralysis is a late sign, as is loss of pulses and pallor. Paraesthesia is however an early seen sign. If the diagnosis is uncertain in an at risk patient then compartment pressure measurement is indicated. Measurements of serum CK and urine myoglobin will also be indicated and these may be elevated with muscle cell lysis and necrosis.
This is not due to an occlusive dressing (if it were, the first line treatment would be to remove this dressing). Therefore, a fasciotomy is indicated regardless of time of diagnosis with fasciotomy of all compartments with elevated pressure. There is a clear 6 hour window whereby there are lower amputation and death rates compared to delays >6 hours, so this needs to be done as a matter of urgency. The incision needs to be long enough too! Wound care post-fascitomy is important to prevent the risk of secondary infection and to debride any necrotic tissue, or to consider skin grafts. Post-operatively, care will be MDT with physical and occupational therapies and a range of motion exercises to try an d get the patient fully functional.

930
Q

A 45-year-old Type 1 diabetic lady is brought in unconscious. She has been ill recently and neglected to take her insulin. On secondary survey, you notice that the right leg is wrapped up in bandages. When these are removed, there is evidence of gangrene. In particular, there is fixed mottling of the skin up to the mid-shin level.

A. Critical limb ischaemia
B. Viable limb
C. Dead limb
D. Spinal stenosis
E. Ankylosing spondylitis
F. Deep vein thrombosis
G. Acute limb ischaemia
H. Intermittent claudication
I. Compartment syndrome
J. Leriche syndrome
K. Baker’s cyst
L. Muscle tear
M. Rhabdomyolysis
A

C. Dead limb - This gangrene may well have mixed infectious and ischaemic aetiology – both of which have associations with DM. You will also hear infectious gangrene being referred to as ‘wet gangrene’ and ischaemic gangrene being referred to as ‘dry gangrene’. Atherosclerosis is associated with DM and forms an important cause of dry gangrene. This occurs due to chronic impairment of blood flow and typically presents with tissue which is dry, black and cold – in most cases, self-amputation eventually occurs. Wet gangrene includes causes such as necrotising fasciitis and gas gangrene. Evidence of non-viability and irreversibility of the affected limb include major tissue loss, sensory loss with rest pain, inaudible arterial Doppler signals and muscle weakness. Fixed mottling does not blanch on pressure and is frequently associated with a limb which is beyond salvage.

931
Q

You see a 75-year-old gentleman in clinic who has been followed up for his foot ulcers for over 10 years. He tells you during the consultation that he has recently had problems sleeping at night with leg pain waking him up. He notices that it helps if he hangs his foot over the edge of the bed.

A. Critical limb ischaemia
B. Viable limb
C. Dead limb
D. Spinal stenosis
E. Ankylosing spondylitis
F. Deep vein thrombosis
G. Acute limb ischaemia
H. Intermittent claudication
I. Compartment syndrome
J. Leriche syndrome
K. Baker’s cyst
L. Muscle tear
M. Rhabdomyolysis
A

A. Critical limb ischaemia - Is this patient’s ulcer an arterial ulcer with diabetic neuropathy, or a diabetic ulcer? Difficult to tell. However, this patient does have critical limb ischaemia. Critical limb ischaemia is chronic severe limb ischaemia. This patient has rest pain which is relieved by hanging the leg dependent – this is classical. These patients have chronic ischaemic symptoms of the leg such as ischaemic rest pain, gangrene and non-healing wounds. Ischaemic cause of these symptoms needs to be established urgently, or if the patient already has a documented history of PVD, then they can be referred to a vascular surgeon for revascularisation. Their arterial anatomy needs to be defined and assessed. Risk factors also need to continue to be aggressively targetted. If they are not a candidate for revascularisation then the patient should be assessed for amputation where necessary and be on appropriate risk factor reduction medication.

932
Q

A 65-year-old lady is referred to your vascular clinic by a GP. The patient has had a painful left leg for the last week. You find out that she smokes and is diabetic. Her symptoms started following a week’s illness when she was bedbound. You request an ultrasound which confirms your diagnosis.

A. Critical limb ischaemia
B. Viable limb
C. Dead limb
D. Spinal stenosis
E. Ankylosing spondylitis
F. Deep vein thrombosis
G. Acute limb ischaemia
H. Intermittent claudication
I. Compartment syndrome
J. Leriche syndrome
K. Baker’s cyst
L. Muscle tear
M. Rhabdomyolysis
A

F. Deep vein thrombosis - This patient has a DVT. There is a history of smoking, DM and immobility. Other risk factors include recent major surgery, active malignancy, pregnancy and malignancy. A Wells score is determined in all patients with a suspected DVT with the condition being likely if the score is 2 or greater. The most definitive test is venography but it is invasive. Compression USS of the proximal deep venous system is preferred but Doppler venous flow testing can be used if other tests are unavailable and will demonstrate low flow in affected veins. This requires a trained technician. Anticoagulation is the mainstay of treatment with unfractionated heparin, a LMWH or an anti FXa agent such as fondaparinux.

933
Q

A 40-year old gentleman with a history of diabetes mellitus and CHD presents to your clinic complaining of pain in his buttocks after walking only 100 meters. He has recently married, and with much embarassment, reveals that he has had difficulty completing intercourse as he is unable to maintain an erection. O/E you notice his femoral pulses are absent.

A. Critical limb ischaemia
B. Viable limb
C. Dead limb
D. Spinal stenosis
E. Ankylosing spondylitis
F. Deep vein thrombosis
G. Acute limb ischaemia
H. Intermittent claudication
I. Compartment syndrome
J. Leriche syndrome
K. Baker’s cyst
L. Muscle tear
M. Rhabdomyolysis
A

J. Leriche syndrome - Leriche’s syndrome, named after some French surgeon, is aortoiliac atherosclerotic occlusive disease and is one of those eponymous syndromes which can be found in your Oxford Handbook. This involves the abdominal aorta and/or both of the iliac arteries. It presents with the classic triad of buttock claudication, impotence and reduced or absent femoral pulses. This combination is referred to as Leriche’s syndrome.

934
Q

A 60-year old lady who has just from a STEMI requires ongoing treatment. The doctor asks you what would be appropriate first line prevention therapy.

A. Aspirin and atorvastatin
B. Simvastatin
C. ACE inhibitor
D. Warfarin and heparin
E. Aspirin and clopidogrel
F. Glyceryl trinitrate
G. Warfarin
H. Alteplase
I. Dipyridamole
J. Aspirin and lisinopril
K. Beta blocker
L. Clopidogrel and atorvastatin
A

E. Aspirin and clopidogrel - Dual antiplatelet therapy is recommended for at least 12 months in all patients whether or not they have been stented. Aspirin should be continued forever and clopidogrel for at least a year. Note that prasugrel, a platelet inhibitor, has been found in relatively recent studies to be superior to clopidogrel in outcome measures when given for at least a year – although there is an increased risk of bleeding in low weight patients and in those over 74 years of age (lower doses are recommended in these patients)

935
Q

What else can be given to this same patient post-MI which also has a favourable effect on ventricular remodelling?

A. Aspirin and atorvastatin
B. Simvastatin
C. ACE inhibitor
D. Warfarin and heparin
E. Aspirin and clopidogrel
F. Glyceryl trinitrate
G. Warfarin
H. Alteplase
I. Dipyridamole
J. Aspirin and lisinopril
K. Beta blocker
L. Clopidogrel and atorvastatin
A

C. ACE inhibitor - ACE inhibitors should be started early (when the patient is haemodynamically stable, optimally on the first day in hospital) for a favourable effect on ventricular remodelling, particularly for patients with a large anterior wall MI. There is good evidence to suggest that ACE inhibitors are more effective at reducing overall mortality and sudden cardiac death after 2-42 months compared to placebo, especially when started within 14 days of an acute MI.

936
Q

An 80-year-old lady who is prone to consuming fatty foods has had a stroke. She is allergic to aspirin. She asks you what she can take to prevent her having another stroke.

A. Aspirin and atorvastatin
B. Simvastatin
C. ACE inhibitor
D. Warfarin and heparin
E. Aspirin and clopidogrel
F. Glyceryl trinitrate
G. Warfarin
H. Alteplase
I. Dipyridamole
J. Aspirin and lisinopril
K. Beta blocker
L. Clopidogrel and atorvastatin
A

L. Clopidogrel and atorvastatin - Remember that in acute stroke, there is no current evidence that non-aspirin antiplatelet drugs such as dipyridamole, clopidogrel and glycoprotein IIb/IIIa inhibitors are effective so they are not indicated. However, clopidogrel is useful in the secondary prevention of stroke and is indicated in those who are sensitive to aspirin. A statin is also given here for its lipid lowering effects to lower the risk of stroke and other cardiovascular events. In terms of antiplatelet drugs for secondary prevention, a systematic review of the studies have found that the most cost-effective treatment is clopidogrel, followed by MRD (modified release dipyridamole) followed lastly by aspirin. Incidentally, in terms of cost-effectiveness, clopidogrel should be the first choice agent anyway.

937
Q

A 55 year old needs secondary prevention for stroke. He has had one stroke already which is due to cardioembolism. He has atrial fibrillation.

A. Aspirin and atorvastatin
B. Simvastatin
C. ACE inhibitor
D. Warfarin and heparin
E. Aspirin and clopidogrel
F. Glyceryl trinitrate
G. Warfarin
H. Alteplase
I. Dipyridamole
J. Aspirin and lisinopril
K. Beta blocker
L. Clopidogrel and atorvastatin
A

G. Warfarin - Anticoagulation with warfarin is indicated for atrial fibrillation in the secondary prevention of stroke, with target INR of 2.5 (range 2-3). This is for when the stroke (or indeed TIA) is following a cardioembolic source like in this case. If the stroke is not cardioembolic then these drugs may not confer any long term benefit and will increase the patient’s risk of serious bleeding. Those who are not appropriate candidates for warfarin should have clopidogrel added to aspirin to reduce the risk of stroke. Note that I have not included ‘Aspirin and warfarin’ as an option because this can be given in some cases, such as after multiple recurrent strokes caused by AF and co-existing coronary artery disease, but is controversial.

938
Q

A 62-year-old man has had an ischaemic stroke. He has normal blood pressure and is in sinus rhythm, although is noted to have peripheral vascular disease. You prescribe him some preventative medication.

A. Aspirin and atorvastatin
B. Simvastatin
C. ACE inhibitor
D. Warfarin and heparin
E. Aspirin and clopidogrel
F. Glyceryl trinitrate
G. Warfarin
H. Alteplase
I. Dipyridamole
J. Aspirin and lisinopril
K. Beta blocker
L. Clopidogrel and atorvastatin
A

A. Aspirin and atorvastatin - I will accept ‘Clopidogrel and atorvastatin’ too for this question, as clopidogrel is the most cost effective antiplatelet drug for the secondary prevention of ischaemic stroke or TIA. However, aspirin is what is generally given. The statin, as mentioned before, is given for its lipid lowering effects. It is mainly given for patients with LDL >2.6 and is recommended for those with atherosclerotic ischaemic stroke or TIA, to lower the risk. This patient has PVD which is due to atherosclerosis and suggests that statins will help. Aspirin and clopidogrel would not be given together in this patient as this would unnecessarily increase the risk of a major bleed.

939
Q

A 65-year-old lady presents with back pain. She has had it for about 3 days. Examination is normal but in her blood tests, ALP is elevated.

A. Perforated duodenal ulcer
B. Mesenteric infarction
C. Pericarditis
D. Metastatic disease
E. Pyelonephritis
F. Pancreatitis
G. Myocardial infarction
H. Addison’s disease
I. Volvulus 
J. Ruptured abdominal aortic aneurysm
K. Renal colic
L. Spinal stenosis
M. Dissecting aortic aneurysm
N. Hepatitis
A

D. Metastatic disease - Back pain and a raised ALP is an ominous finding which is usually indicative of bone metastases. Alkaline phosphatase is an enzyme which is also a marker for bone turnover. There is often a history of maligancy before this back pain and commonly implicated malignancies include breast, lung, prostate, thyroid and kidney cancer. Neurological deficits may occur if the tumour destruction is extensive and causes compression of nerves. The patient may also have generalised systemic symptoms on examination including fever, chills, weight loss and focal tenderness. XR may demonstrate lysis of the vertebral body and MRI may show up a lytic or blastic lesion.

940
Q

A 70-year-old man with rheumatoid arthritis presents with severe abdominal pain. In A&E he is clearly unwell and hypotensive. He reveals that he has had black tarry stools intermittently for many years.

A. Perforated duodenal ulcer
B. Mesenteric infarction
C. Pericarditis
D. Metastatic disease
E. Pyelonephritis
F. Pancreatitis
G. Myocardial infarction
H. Addison’s disease
I. Volvulus 
J. Ruptured abdominal aortic aneurysm
K. Renal colic
L. Spinal stenosis
M. Dissecting aortic aneurysm
N. Hepatitis
A

A. Perforated duodenal ulcer - Long standing RA leads you towards high NSAID use. NSAIDs, along with H pylori infection are a major risk factors in peptic ulcer disease. The patient’s advanced age adds to this risk. This accounts for black tarry stools over many years which result from blood loss from the ulcer. The acute symptoms now of severe abdominal pain and hypotension is likely to be due to acute blood loss from a perforated ulcer. This patient needs emergency surgery. NSAID induced ulcers are more commonly gastric than duodenal. Stopping NSAID use will reduce ulcer recurrence. If NSAIDs cannot be discontinued, then prescribing a PPI alongside will reduce recurrence.

941
Q

An 80-year-old woman is brought into A&E complaining of diffuse abdominal pain and vomiting. O/E she has an irregularly irregular pulse of 110/min. Minutes later she appears confused and you notice bright red blood passing per rectum.

A. Perforated duodenal ulcer
B. Mesenteric infarction
C. Pericarditis
D. Metastatic disease
E. Pyelonephritis
F. Pancreatitis
G. Myocardial infarction
H. Addison’s disease
I. Volvulus 
J. Ruptured abdominal aortic aneurysm
K. Renal colic
L. Spinal stenosis
M. Dissecting aortic aneurysm
N. Hepatitis
A

B. Mesenteric infarct - The irregularly irregular pulse is a hallmark sign of atrial fibrillation which has led to cardioembolism and subsequent occlusion of the mesenteric vasculature. Untreated AF can lead to a thrombus forming inside the heart which can then embolise like this case to the mesenteric vasculature. This person is also old, which is an additional risk due to comorbidities like atherosclerosis. This patient has the symptoms and signs of ischaemic bowel disease (which encompasses acute mesenteric ischaemia, chronic mesenteric ischaemia and colonic ischaemia). This is likely acute mesenteric ischaemia – something that in a person who presents like this, you should maintain a high index of suspicion for as the presentation can be quite non-specific but the condition can be deadly. You would likely in this case opt for surgical intervention without delay although you can consider some form of imaging first to localise the bleed.

942
Q

A 62 year old woman presents to A&E with searing back pain, nausea and vomiting. She is known to have an abdominal aortic aneurysm which is scanned every year. She appears jaundiced and the subsequent abdominal CT reveals an AAA of 5.0cm

A. Perforated duodenal ulcer
B. Mesenteric infarction
C. Pericarditis
D. Metastatic disease
E. Pyelonephritis
F. Pancreatitis
G. Myocardial infarction
H. Addison’s disease
I. Volvulus 
J. Ruptured abdominal aortic aneurysm
K. Renal colic
L. Spinal stenosis
M. Dissecting aortic aneurysm
N. Hepatitis
A

C. Pancreatitis - The AAA here has nothing to do with the question, and at 5cm, it is not massively prone at the moment to rupture. However, if the patient is otherwise young, fit and healthy, elective repair can soon be considered (the normal abdominal aorta is 1.5cm diameter, and remember that rupture is more common in females than males). This is acute pancreatitis. Jaundice here is suggestive of gallstone aetiology with obstruction to the common bile duct, though pancreatic oedema can itself cause jaundice. Nausea and vomiting is not uncommon and can occur with agitation and confusion. Complicated haemorrhagic pancreatitis may exhibit Cullen’s sign, Grey-Turner’s sign and Fox’s sign. Make sure you know what these are and you are familiar with the causes of acute pancreatitis (GET SMASHED). Those caused by hypocalcaemia may also display Chvostek’s sign and Trousseau’s sign.
Key to diagnosis is serum amylase or lipase levels which are massively elevated. Prognostic criteria are outlined in Ranson’s criteria applied on admission and after 48 hours, or the modified Glasgow score which you can find in your Oxford Handbook.

943
Q

A 65-year-old man is referred to you for an emergency appointment after attending his GP earlier that morning. You are called by the nurse to the waiting room, where you see this patient looking pale, sweaty and unwell. You establish that he has pain in his chest radiating to his back. You call a crash team. Later on, you find out that his Troponin I was 0.032 and that he was taken to theatre.

A. Perforated duodenal ulcer
B. Mesenteric infarction
C. Pericarditis
D. Metastatic disease
E. Pyelonephritis
F. Pancreatitis
G. Myocardial infarction
H. Addison’s disease
I. Volvulus 
J. Ruptured abdominal aortic aneurysm
K. Renal colic
L. Spinal stenosis
M. Dissecting aortic aneurysm
N. Hepatitis
A

J. Ruptured abdominal aortic aneurysm - This is a history of a ruptured AAA. There is abdominal (which the patient states as chest) pain radiating around to the back here and pallor due to blood loss suggesting this diagnosis. As this AAA has ruptured, this man will need urgent surgical repair, with of course standard resuscitation measures. Investigations would just waste time although it seems he has had a troponin, and likely ECG too. Misdiagnosing this condition is pretty poor of the doctors with the history here of pain which radiates to the back. The airway will needed to be managed with supplemental oxygen and ET intubation, a central venous catheter will need to be inserted, an arterial catheter and urinary catheter will also be needed for monitoring, and the target systolic BP is 50-70. Infusing too many fluids may increase the risk of death. The most effective form of surgical repair is an EVAR (endovascular AAA repair), anatomy permitting, otherwise traditional open repair is performed. Open repair has a mortality of 48%. Antibiotics will also be needed to cover bacteria to prevent graft infection. This will be prescribed in line with local protocols.

944
Q

A 59-year-old man is bought in by ambulance after collapsing. The A&E Sister fast-bleeps you because the blood pressures in both arms are significantly different.

A. Perforated duodenal ulcer
B. Mesenteric infarction
C. Pericarditis
D. Metastatic disease
E. Pyelonephritis
F. Pancreatitis
G. Myocardial infarction
H. Addison’s disease
I. Volvulus 
J. Ruptured abdominal aortic aneurysm
K. Renal colic
L. Spinal stenosis
M. Dissecting aortic aneurysm
N. Hepatitis
A

M. Dissecting aortic aneurysm - I don’t know why the A&E Sister has fast bleeped a medical student here but BP differential between the 2 arms is a hallmark feature of this condition. Pulse differences may also be present in the lower limbs. Aortic dissection, however, typically presents with tearing chest pain (but this isn’t something a collapsed patient is in a position to report). There may also be interscapular pain with dissection of the descending aorta. Dissecting aneurysms are either type A, which involves the ascending aorta, or type B. Type A dissections require urgent surgery whereas type B can be managed medically if it is not complicated by end organ ischaemia. There may also be the diastolic murmur of AR in proximal dissections. A CT scan is indicated as soon as a diagnosis of aortic dissection is suspected and should be from the chest to the pelvis to see the full extent of the dissecting aneurysm. What you will see is the intimal flap. MRI is more sensitive and specific but is more difficult to obtain acutely.
Of course, the investigations are irrelevant when you have an emergency case and a collapsed patient in front of you who needs immediate resuscitation measures starting with your ABC. Strong risk factors include hypertension, atherosclerotic aneurysmal disease, Marfan’s or Ehlers-Danlos, bicuspid aortic valve, coarctation, smoking, FH and annulo-aortic ectasia.

945
Q

An ambulance crew is dispatched to attend a 999 call made by passers-by. A 71-year-old diabetic lady at a bus stop collapsed, could not get up and was complaining of back pain. After basic investigations, she was taken to hospital. Subsequent CT showed no abnormalities.

A. Perforated duodenal ulcer
B. Mesenteric infarction
C. Pericarditis
D. Metastatic disease
E. Pyelonephritis
F. Pancreatitis
G. Myocardial infarction
H. Addison’s disease
I. Volvulus 
J. Ruptured abdominal aortic aneurysm
K. Renal colic
L. Spinal stenosis
M. Dissecting aortic aneurysm
N. Hepatitis
A

G. Myocardial infarction - Given the list of options here, this is likely to be an atypical MI which is more common in diabetics and the elderly, likely to be due to autonomic neuropathy. They are known as ‘silent’ MI and should be excluded in all causes of collapse. An ECG is indicated here after the clear CT scan (although may have already been done on admission by alert staff). STEMI, new LBBB or confirmed posterior MI is an indication for PCI/thrombolysis. It is worth noting that RV infarction is present in 40% of inferior infarcts so in this case, right sided ECG leads should also be obtained.

946
Q

A 91 year old man is referred to you by the urologists. He has an abdominal aortic aneurysm on examination and on ultrasound, an 8.8 cm infra-renal aneurysm is identified. He multiple co-morbidities but is given the green light for treatment to take place.

A. Angioplasty
B. Femoral-distal bypass
C. Aortobifemoral bypass
D. Methyldopa
E. Ultrasound
F. Alpha blocker
G. Embolectomy
H. Endarterectomy
I. Angiography
J. Endovascular aneurysm repair
K. Open repair of aneurysm
A

J. Endovascular aneurysm repair - Incidental finding of a large AAA requires elective surgical repair (exceeding 5.5cm in men, 5cm in women – repair of aneuryms greater or equal to 5.5cm offers a survival advantage). Additionally, rapid increase in size is also an indication for elective repair. Young and healthy patients, particularly women, may benefit from early repair of smaller AAAs. (>5cm). Data suggests EVAR is equivalent to open repair in terms of overall survival but there is a higher rate of secondary interventions with EVAR. Therefore younger and healthier patients may benefit more from open repair. Patient 1 is however is elderly and has co-morbidities. An EVAR is the best way forward here. However note also that EVAR could entail a complication of endovascular repair leak, which would require corrective treatment. Endoleak is persistent blood flow outside the graft and within the aneurysm sac. There is 24% risk after EVAR. However, this is not a complication of open repair, which is probably preferred in most cases in those who are fit and healthy enough to have it such as Patient 4. Management of this complication would depend on the type of endoleak.

947
Q

A 55-year-old lady describes 10 minutes yesterday when she was unable to see out of her left eye. The symptoms have resolved but on duplex scan, her internal carotid artery is 75% stenosed.

A. Angioplasty
B. Femoral-distal bypass
C. Aortobifemoral bypass
D. Methyldopa
E. Ultrasound
F. Alpha blocker
G. Embolectomy
H. Endarterectomy
I. Angiography
J. Endovascular aneurysm repair
K. Open repair of aneurysm
A

H. Endarterectomy - Amaurosis fugax is a transient and painless loss of vision in one eye due to the passage of an embolus into the central retinal artery. This temporary arrest of blood flow leads to vision loss. The cause could be embolic from the internal carotid artery to cause an occlusion of the ipsilateral retinal artery. Patients presenting in this way should be investigated for carotid artery stenosis with a carotid Doppler ultrasound and if there is a stenosis of >70%, the patient may be a candidate for carotid endarterectomy. Presence of ipsilateral carotid stenosis suggests artery-to-artery embolic event as the cause here and this should be the target for surgical or interventional treatment.

948
Q

A 68-year-old man has been scanned annually for 10 years. His abdominal aortic aneurysm last year was 4.9 cm in diameter. This year, the aneurysm is 5.0 cm in diameter.

A. Angioplasty
B. Femoral-distal bypass
C. Aortobifemoral bypass
D. Methyldopa
E. Ultrasound
F. Alpha blocker
G. Embolectomy
H. Endarterectomy
I. Angiography
J. Endovascular aneurysm repair
K. Open repair of aneurysm
A

E. Ultraasound - For asymptomatic small AAA, surveillance is indicated. Infra and juxtarenal AAAs between 4.0-5.4cm in diameter (bear in mind that young and healthy patients with >5cm may benefit from repair!) should be monitored by USS or CT every 6-12 months. There is good quality evidence that the risk of rupture is 20% for aneurysms larger than 5.0-6.0cm in diameter. Note also that AAAs

949
Q

A 52 year old otherwise fit and healthy man is found to have a 6.3cm AAA. He is very surprised and requests that it is treated so he does not die suddenly in the future.

A. Angioplasty
B. Femoral-distal bypass
C. Aortobifemoral bypass
D. Methyldopa
E. Ultrasound
F. Alpha blocker
G. Embolectomy
H. Endarterectomy
I. Angiography
J. Endovascular aneurysm repair
K. Open repair of aneurysm
A

K. open repair of aneurysm - Incidental finding of a large AAA requires elective surgical repair (exceeding 5.5cm in men, 5cm in women – repair of aneuryms greater or equal to 5.5cm offers a survival advantage). Additionally, rapid increase in size is also an indication for elective repair. Young and healthy patients, particularly women, may benefit from early repair of smaller AAAs. (>5cm). Data suggests EVAR is equivalent to open repair in terms of overall survival but there is a higher rate of secondary interventions with EVAR. Therefore younger and healthier patients may benefit more from open repair. Patient 1 is however is elderly and has co-morbidities. An EVAR is the best way forward here. However note also that EVAR could entail a complication of endovascular repair leak, which would require corrective treatment. Endoleak is persistent blood flow outside the graft and within the aneurysm sac. There is 24% risk after EVAR. However, this is not a complication of open repair, which is probably preferred in most cases in those who are fit and healthy enough to have it such as Patient 4. Management of this complication would depend on the type of endoleak.

950
Q

A 45-year-old man had an arteriovenous fistula formed yesterday for dialysis access. A Doppler scan shows that this is not working today.

A. Angioplasty
B. Femoral-distal bypass
C. Aortobifemoral bypass
D. Methyldopa
E. Ultrasound
F. Alpha blocker
G. Embolectomy
H. Endarterectomy
I. Angiography
J. Endovascular aneurysm repair
K. Open repair of aneurysm
A

A. Angioplasty - Stenosis and thrombosis of AV fistulae may lead to loss of vascular access sites which presents a problem for chronic haemodialysis patients. Percutaneous transluminal angioplasty is a commonly employed technique used to correct the stenosis and restore viability. All patients who are having haemodialysis should be educated about vein preservation with limiting venepuncture and IV access in the access arm.

951
Q

A 62-year-old lady has been having difficulties walking for some years. A scan this year shows occlusion of the popliteal artery in her left leg. Previous angioplasties have failed.

A. Angioplasty
B. Femoral-distal bypass
C. Aortobifemoral bypass
D. Methyldopa
E. Ultrasound
F. Alpha blocker
G. Embolectomy
H. Endarterectomy
I. Angiography
J. Endovascular aneurysm repair
K. Open repair of aneurysm
A

B. Femoral-distal bypass - Previous angioplasties have failed so there is clearly not point in having another endovascular intervention such as PTA (percutaneous transluminal angioplasty) with balloon dilation, stents, laser, atherectomy or thermal angioplasty. The occlusion here is at the level of the popliteal artery so a femoral-distal bypass is indicated. Surgical revascularisation is recommended for lesions involving the popliteal artery. Make sure you know your vascular anatomy! (At least the big vessels).

952
Q

A 69-year-old male heavy smoker presents with sudden onset abdominal pain radiating through to the back. He appears pale, sweaty and has vomited a few times.

A. Elective EVAR (endovascular AAA repair)
B. Semi-urgent surgical repair
C. Elective open repair
D. Urgent surgical repair
E. Palliative care
F. Abdominal XR
G. Aggressive fluid resuscitation
H. Ultrasound in 1 or more years
I. Ultrasound in 6 months
A

B. Urgent surgical repair - This is a history of a ruptured AAA. The history of heavy smoking is a risk factor here for atherosclerotic disease. There is abdominal pain radiating around to the back here and pallor due to blood loss suggest this diagnosis. As this AAA has ruptured, this man will need urgent surgical repair, with of course standard resuscitation measures. Investigations would just waste time. The airway will needed to be managed with supplemental oxygen and ET intubation, a central venous catheter will need to be inserted, an arterial catheter and urinary catheter will also be needed for monitoring, and the target systolic BP is 50-70. Infusing too many fluids may increase the risk of death. The most effective form of surgical repair is an EVAR (endovascular AAA repair), anatomy permitting, otherwise traditional open repair is performed. Open repair has a mortality of 48%. Antibiotics will also be needed to cover bacteria to prevent graft infection. This will be prescribed in line with local protocols.

AAA is defined as dilation of the abdominal aorta to a diameter >3cm – this represents a 50% increase. There has been an aetiological shift – of the first 10 AAA repairs performed by Eastcott in London in the 1950s, 4 of them were tuberculous or syphilitic. Now most are atherosclerotic. Of men >65, 5% have an AAA and there is a M:F of 8:1 (although in terms of risk of rupture, there is a 3:1 female preponderance). This condition is still a common cause of sudden death (3rd in this country), and most are completely asymptomatic up until the point they rupture. A misdiagnosis as either ureteric colic, or acute pancreatitis, is disasterous so this is really one not to be missed. Of all patients who have a ruptured AAA, 75% die before they even reach hospital. The main three processes involved in aetiology are: inflammation, loss of smooth muscle and excess proteolysis due to MMPs. Incidentally, DM appears to be protective in AAA development.

953
Q

A 62-year-old male undergoes a CT abdominal scan for investigation of renal calculi. You notice a 4.9cm infra-renal AAA.

A. Elective EVAR (endovascular AAA repair)
B. Semi-urgent surgical repair
C. Elective open repair
D. Urgent surgical repair
E. Palliative care
F. Abdominal XR
G. Aggressive fluid resuscitation
H. Ultrasound in 1 or more years
I. Ultrasound in 6 months
A

I. Ultrasound in 6 months - These questions require a knowledge of guidelines for AAA management.

What you need to know:

  • Ruptured AAA needs resuscitation measures and urgent surgical repair as mentioned above.
  • Symptomatic but not yet ruptured AAA needs semi-urgent surgical repair. EVAR can be offered if aorto-iliac anatomy is permitting. Urgent traditional open repair of symptomatic unruptured AAAs carries increased morbidity and mortality with a rate between that of ruptured AAA repair and elective repair. Beta blockers should be used pre-op with peri-op antibiotic therapy also initiated.
  • Incidental finding of a large AAA requires elective surgical repair (exceeding 5.5cm in men, 5cm in women – repair of aneuryms greater or equal to 5.5cm offers a survival advantage). Additionally, rapid increase in size is also an indication for elective repair. Young and healthy patients, particularly women, may benefit from early repair of smaller AAAs. (>5cm). Data suggests EVAR is equivalent to open repair in terms of overall survival but there is a higher rate of secondary interventions with EVAR. Therefore younger and healthier patients may benefit more from open repair.
  • For asymptomatic small AAA, surveillance is indicated. Infra and juxtarenal AAAs between 4.0-5.4cm in diameter (bear in mind that young and healthy patients with >5cm may benefit from repair!) should be monitored by USS or CT every 6-12 months. There is good quality evidence that the risk of rupture is 20% for aneurysms larger than 5.0-6.0cm in diameter.
  • AAAs
954
Q

A 69-year-old male undergoes a CT abdominal for investigation of renal calculi. You notice a 3.8cm infra-renal AAA.

A. Elective EVAR (endovascular AAA repair)
B. Semi-urgent surgical repair
C. Elective open repair
D. Urgent surgical repair
E. Palliative care
F. Abdominal XR
G. Aggressive fluid resuscitation
H. Ultrasound in 1 or more years
I. Ultrasound in 6 months
A

H. Ultrasound in 1 or more years - These questions require a knowledge of guidelines for AAA management.

What you need to know:

  • Ruptured AAA needs resuscitation measures and urgent surgical repair as mentioned above.
  • Symptomatic but not yet ruptured AAA needs semi-urgent surgical repair. EVAR can be offered if aorto-iliac anatomy is permitting. Urgent traditional open repair of symptomatic unruptured AAAs carries increased morbidity and mortality with a rate between that of ruptured AAA repair and elective repair. Beta blockers should be used pre-op with peri-op antibiotic therapy also initiated.
  • Incidental finding of a large AAA requires elective surgical repair (exceeding 5.5cm in men, 5cm in women – repair of aneuryms greater or equal to 5.5cm offers a survival advantage). Additionally, rapid increase in size is also an indication for elective repair. Young and healthy patients, particularly women, may benefit from early repair of smaller AAAs. (>5cm). Data suggests EVAR is equivalent to open repair in terms of overall survival but there is a higher rate of secondary interventions with EVAR. Therefore younger and healthier patients may benefit more from open repair.
  • For asymptomatic small AAA, surveillance is indicated. Infra and juxtarenal AAAs between 4.0-5.4cm in diameter (bear in mind that young and healthy patients with >5cm may benefit from repair!) should be monitored by USS or CT every 6-12 months. There is good quality evidence that the risk of rupture is 20% for aneurysms larger than 5.0-6.0cm in diameter.
  • AAAs
955
Q

A 44 year old male with a known AAA attends your clinic for his regular abdominal ultrasound. You note the diameter of the aorta as 4.0cm. He returns to your clinic one year later and you find that the diameter has grown to 5.7cm. He is otherwise fit and healthy.

A. Elective EVAR (endovascular AAA repair)
B. Semi-urgent surgical repair
C. Elective open repair
D. Urgent surgical repair
E. Palliative care
F. Abdominal XR
G. Aggressive fluid resuscitation
H. Ultrasound in 1 or more years
I. Ultrasound in 6 months
A

C. Elective open repair - These questions require a knowledge of guidelines for AAA management.

What you need to know:

  • Ruptured AAA needs resuscitation measures and urgent surgical repair as mentioned above.
  • Symptomatic but not yet ruptured AAA needs semi-urgent surgical repair. EVAR can be offered if aorto-iliac anatomy is permitting. Urgent traditional open repair of symptomatic unruptured AAAs carries increased morbidity and mortality with a rate between that of ruptured AAA repair and elective repair. Beta blockers should be used pre-op with peri-op antibiotic therapy also initiated.
  • Incidental finding of a large AAA requires elective surgical repair (exceeding 5.5cm in men, 5cm in women – repair of aneuryms greater or equal to 5.5cm offers a survival advantage). Additionally, rapid increase in size is also an indication for elective repair. Young and healthy patients, particularly women, may benefit from early repair of smaller AAAs. (>5cm). Data suggests EVAR is equivalent to open repair in terms of overall survival but there is a higher rate of secondary interventions with EVAR. Therefore younger and healthier patients may benefit more from open repair.
  • For asymptomatic small AAA, surveillance is indicated. Infra and juxtarenal AAAs between 4.0-5.4cm in diameter (bear in mind that young and healthy patients with >5cm may benefit from repair!) should be monitored by USS or CT every 6-12 months. There is good quality evidence that the risk of rupture is 20% for aneurysms larger than 5.0-6.0cm in diameter.
  • AAAs
956
Q

A woman presents in clinic with dizzy spells and abdominal pain, her BP is taken sitting 130/80 and then standing 105/75. On examination of her mouth it’s noted that she has darkening of her gums

A. Diabetes Insipidus
B. Adrenal adenoma
C. Nelson's syndrome
D. Pituitary apoplexy
E. Conns Adenoma
F. Drug withdrawal
G. Addison's disease
H. Tuberculosis
I. Sheehan's syndrome
J. Cushing's disease
K. Ectopic ACTH producing tumour
L. Addisonian crisis
A

G. Addison’s disease - This patient has symptoms of adrenal insufficiency. Her Systolic Bp falls by more than 20mmHg on standing which means she has postural hypotension. Hyperpigmentation of the gingiva and buccal mucosa suggests high ACTH output which in this patient would be due to primary adrenal insufficiency…Addison’s disease. The condition is probably of AI origin in this girl and a positive finding may be 21 hydroxylase auto-antibodies.

957
Q

A man comes to clinic complaining of weight gain and a cut on his leg that just won’t heal. He has various blood tests performed including a CRH (corticotrophin releasing hormone) stimulation test. His ACTH and cortisol are both shown to rise.

A. Diabetes Insipidus
B. Adrenal adenoma
C. Nelson's syndrome
D. Pituitary apoplexy
E. Conns Adenoma
F. Drug withdrawal
G. Addison's disease
H. Tuberculosis
I. Sheehan's syndrome
J. Cushing's disease
K. Ectopic ACTH producing tumour
L. Addisonian crisis
A

J. Cushing’s disease - This man has weight gain and impaired wound healing, already you should be thinking cushings or diabetes…The blood test used here is being performed to differentiate between cushings disease and cushings syndrome.

10ug ovine or human CRH is administered to a patient who has fasted at least 4 hrs. pre test and serial post test ACTH and cortisol measurements are taken.

In pituitary driven cushing’s disease the cortisol can be manipulated, that is to say exogenous CRH will cause a recordable increase in serum cortisol by the 2hr mark (and ACTH). However if the source of the excess cortisol is an ectopic ACTH producing tumour for example, this is not subject to any feedback mechanisms and so no change in serum cortisol will be seen on giving CRH.

958
Q

A dishevelled man local to the area is found collapsed on the street. In A+E his blood work reveals low sodium and a raised potassium, he is oliguric, tachcyardic and his BMs are running dangerously low. Chest X ray shows pathological upper lobe changes and abdominal films show areas of calcification.

A. Diabetes Insipidus
B. Adrenal adenoma
C. Nelson's syndrome
D. Pituitary apoplexy
E. Conns Adenoma
F. Drug withdrawal
G. Addison's disease
H. Tuberculosis
I. Sheehan's syndrome
J. Cushing's disease
K. Ectopic ACTH producing tumour
L. Addisonian crisis
A

L. Addisonian crisis - This man is found collapsed, the cause of his collapse is not given but one differential is always cardiovascular. He is shown to be hyponataraemic and hyperkalaemic. This picture fits adrenal failure well, the raised potassium is a result of mineralocorticoid deficiency leading to decreased K+ excretion.

The CXR is hinting at upper lobe fibrosis as seen in patients who have had Tuberculosis, and further the abdo film shows calcification of the adrenals bilaterally which is the radiographic appearance of TB infiltration of the adrenal galnds.

This man has Addison’s is caused by TB. Furthermore he is found collapsed with low blood glucose. He has signs of shock…Tachycardia and oliguria so he is in fact in Addisonian crisis which should be treated promptly with gluocorticoid replacement and dextrose, this man has evidence of mineralocorticoid deficiency also so fludrocortisone should be coadministered.

959
Q

A Woman who has been complaining of worsening loss of peripheral vision for months suddenly takes a turn for the worse. She has an intense headache come on suddenly at home, by the time she is driven to hospital she has vomited a number of times and now complains of double vision. Her blood pressure also falls drastically. She is managed initially with hydrocortisone iv. and N. saline. Thyroxine follows. A Lumbar puncture is requested, it shows Xanthochromia.

A. Diabetes Insipidus
B. Adrenal adenoma
C. Nelson's syndrome
D. Pituitary apoplexy
E. Conns Adenoma
F. Drug withdrawal
G. Addison's disease
H. Tuberculosis
I. Sheehan's syndrome
J. Cushing's disease
K. Ectopic ACTH producing tumour
L. Addisonian crisis
A

D. Pituitary apoplexy - Has bitemporal hemianopia which has been worsening..this should spark thoughts of a growing pituitary adenoma. But then she presents with an acute change. With a tumour a sudden change is usually vascular.. in this case the patient is suffering pituitary apoplexy whereby her enlarging pituitary tumour has undergone haemorrhage. This has basically wiped out pituitary function in a moment which explains her cardiovascular collapse and immensely painful headache.

In fact apoplexy can present just like a sub-arachnoid haemorrhage in patients with known adenomas…

Splitting headache - INCREDIBLY BAD

  • Xanthochromia (from extravasation of blood through the diaphrgam sellae into the sub aracahnoid space)
  • Vomiting
  • Loss of consciousness.
The opthalmoplegia (diplopia) is a mass effect of the tumour being displaced by the bleed to impinge on the cavernous sinus and hence the IIIrd Cranial Nerve. Management is fluid resuscitation, and then hormone replacement of all lacking hromines! 
NB: In EMQS xanthochromia is usually pathognomonic of SAH.
960
Q

A woman developed pre-eclampsia during her first pregnancy, she also required syntocin and several units of blood during the birth. 4 months after the birth she still had not resumed menstruation and felt generally tired. She also noticed loss of pubic hair

A. Diabetes Insipidus
B. Adrenal adenoma
C. Nelson's syndrome
D. Pituitary apoplexy
E. Conns Adenoma
F. Drug withdrawal
G. Addison's disease
H. Tuberculosis
I. Sheehan's syndrome
J. Cushing's disease
K. Ectopic ACTH producing tumour
L. Addisonian crisis
A

I. Sheehan’s syndrome - Pre-eclampsia (proteinuria + HTN in pregnancy) is a major risk for post partum haemorrhage…In this ladies case she had to receive blood products and Syntocin (a synthetic oxytocin drug used to combat uterine atony and help stop haemorrhaging).

Blood loss doesn’t normally cause changes in pituitary function however in pregnancy the pituitary gland is particularly vulnerable.

Hyperplasia and Hypertrophy of the lactotrophe cells in pregnancy (due to increased LH/FSH) leads to an increase in size of the adenphypophysis, however there is no such increase in the vascular supply to the anterior pituitary. When blood is lost in post -partum haemorrhage (PPH) the ant. pituitary thus infarcts and necroses. This is Sheehans syndrome…it can present insidiously or in a major way. It may be picked up if the mother fails to breast feed, but amennorhoea following birth and loss of pubic and axillary hair is also a common presentation. Only occasionally is full blown Sheehan’s encountered where the Mother becomes hypothyroid and can develop Diabetes mellitus due to wildly deranged Ant. Pituitary function.

DX: low oestradiol and pituitary hormone levels.

NB: Diabetes Insipidus is a rare complication since the posterior pituitary has a rich arterial blood supply that is rarely compromised in PPH.

961
Q

An overweight 60 year old lady is seen in clinic complaining of tiredness and general weakness, her eyesight is also suffering, she says she can’t see the room if she looks at a book and it’s getting worse. Physical examination reveals multiple scars on her abdomen, they are noted to be dark, in stark contrast to her purple striae. The notes show the patient was on metyrapone and aminoglutethamide before her surgery.

A. Diabetes Insipidus
B. Adrenal adenoma
C. Nelson's syndrome
D. Pituitary apoplexy
E. Conns Adenoma
F. Drug withdrawal
G. Addison's disease
H. Tuberculosis
I. Sheehan's syndrome
J. Cushing's disease
K. Ectopic ACTH producing tumour
L. Addisonian crisis
A

C. Nelson’s syndrome - Worsening loss of peripheral vision infers pituitary adenoma.

Hyperpigmented scars suggests a state of increased ACTH production however this patient doesn’t seem to be in adrenal failure, she is overweight.

She has had abdominal surgery and was on metyrapone (a drug which inhibits cortisol production) and Aminoglutethamide (an adrenolytic) Basically this woman is overweight and has striae because she was cushingoid.. the cause was adrenal hyperplasia. She was on medication to control this but the decision was made to operate and a bilateral adrenalectomy was performed. The consequences of this is that she has very minimal cortisol production and her pituitary is striving to fuel this by pumping out lots of ACTH (hence the dark scars). The visual field problems are due to an undiagnosed pituitary adenoma that was non functional but since her surgery the pituitary tumour has grown substantially since there is no negative feedback coming from circulating cortisol. This is basically Nelson’s syndrome.

NB : these days bilateral adrenalectomy is very rare and the pituitary is sometimes irradiated to prevent Nelson’s from occurring. This patient needs glucocorticoid replacement and transsphenoidal surgery.

962
Q

An obese Lady has a low dose dexamethasone suppression test and is found to have hypercortisolism. High dose dexamethasone fails to suppress her cortisol. There is darkening of her palmar creases and she is found to be hypokalaemic. A side observation is dark velvety patches of axillary skin.

A. Diabetes Insipidus
B. Adrenal adenoma
C. Nelson's syndrome
D. Pituitary apoplexy
E. Conns Adenoma
F. Drug withdrawal
G. Addison's disease
H. Tuberculosis
I. Sheehan's syndrome
J. Cushing's disease
K. Ectopic ACTH producing tumour
L. Addisonian crisis
A

K. Ectopic ACTH producing tumour - This lady is cushingoid. That’s given. But is the pathology Cushing’s disease or syndrome - the dexamethasone suppression test tells us this.

Administration of low dose dexamethasone (0.5 mg) would suppress cortisol production in a normal person. If suppression was not achieved then hypercortisolism is present.

The high dose dexamethasone test uses 2mg which is capable of producing partial/complete suppression of cortisol if the problem is a pituitary tumour (since the pituitary retains some feedback control). However an ectopic source of ACTH would not be responsive to exogenous feedback and so its not suppressed.

This lady therefore has Cushing’s Syndrome caused by an ectopic source of ACTH. The darkening of the palmar crease confirms excess ACTH and the hypokalaemia supports this showing there is excessive aldosterone stimulation.

Common causes for ectopic ACTH = Small cell carcinoma of the lung and Carcinoid tumours.

The presence of Acanthosis nigricans (velvet under axilla) might push you towards investigating for carcinoid tumours.

NB: Acanthosis is not only caused by Diabetes and in real life is frequently followed up to screen for Ca. EMQS nigricans + Diabetes pretty much.

963
Q

An anxious man walks into clinic he is sweating and looks red, his blood pressure is raised, he faints when he is told the dr would like to obtain a blood sample.

A. Prader Willi syndrome
B. Panic attack
C. Inconclusive sample
D. Essential Hypertension
E. Graves disease
F. Insulinoma
G. Autonomic neuropathy
H. Phaechromocytoma
A

B. Panic attack

964
Q

A young girl complains of weight loss and headaches, the dr proceeds to perform an abdominal examination during which she becomes anxious flushed and tachycardic.

A. Prader Willi syndrome
B. Panic attack
C. Inconclusive sample
D. Essential Hypertension
E. Graves disease
F. Insulinoma
G. Autonomic neuropathy
H. Phaechromocytoma
A

H. Phaeochromocytoma

965
Q

A 40 yo man is in for blood tests he brings in a 24 hr urine sample for VMA which is raised. The man eats ice cream and cream cakes for breakfast lunch and dinner.

A. Prader Willi syndrome
B. Panic attack
C. Inconclusive sample
D. Essential Hypertension
E. Graves disease
F. Insulinoma
G. Autonomic neuropathy
H. Phaechromocytoma
A

C. Inconclusive sample

966
Q

A clonidine suppression test is performed on a young man complaining of occasional palpitations and anxiety, his plasma catecholamines are suppressed. However his symptoms persist until he eats some of his jelly babies

A. Prader Willi syndrome
B. Panic attack
C. Inconclusive sample
D. Essential Hypertension
E. Graves disease
F. Insulinoma
G. Autonomic neuropathy
H. Phaechromocytoma
A

F. Insulinoma

967
Q

A young girl is seen in clinic. She appears to be uncomfortable and stares at the doctor. She complains of weight loss and palpitations. She is in shorts though the heating is on in the consultation room

A. Prader Willi syndrome
B. Panic attack
C. Inconclusive sample
D. Essential Hypertension
E. Graves disease
F. Insulinoma
G. Autonomic neuropathy
H. Phaechromocytoma
A

E. Graves disease

968
Q

A man complaining of vague abdominal pain + general lethargy has a short SynACTHen test performed. Pre test cortisol was 200mM, 30 minutes after administration of tetracosactide the serum cortisol is 370mM. Pick the most appropriate conclusion..

  1. Primary adrenal insufficiency
  2. Normal response
  3. Secondary adrenal insufficiency
A
  1. Primary adrenal insufficiency - Tetracosactide is synthetic ACTH. When administered during a short synacthen test it can be used to determine whether a patient has adrenal or pituitary hypocortisolism. A Normal test would be : basal cortisol >170mM and 30 minutes cortisol should be at least double the basal measurement and be greater than 550mM This man’s basal cortisol is normal however his 30 minutes cortisol has less than doubled and is less than 550mM which indicates that the adrenals are not functioning properly. In secondary adrenal insufficiency the basal cortisol would be very low but would exhibit large increases on administration of tetracosactide.
969
Q

Estimate the serum osmolality for this patient Na = 125 mmol/l K = 5.1 mmol/l Urea = 4.8 mmol/l glucose = 6.0mmol/l Triglcerides = 5.0 mmol/l (normal = 0.5-1.9 mmol/l) Now pick the most appropriate conclusion.

  1. hypo osmolar
  2. hyper osmolar
  3. inconclusive
  4. normal
A
  1. Inconclusive - The estimated serum osmolality is 271 mosm which is low. However one can see that is mainly due to the low sodium. The Triglycerides given are seriously elevated so this is a case of pseudohyponatraemia. This occurs in samples with hyperproteinaemia or hyperlipidaemia as the excess fat/ protein occupies a disproportionately large amount of plasma volume thus diluting the sodium. This sample is inconclusive! The excess fat would not change the directly measured plasma osmolality but does change the estimated value. Thus if we were to compare actual measured osmolality with our estimate we would expect an osmolar gap. A gap greater than 10-15 mOsm indicates either an error, a state of excess fat/protein or the presence of solutes not being measured such as blood ethanol.
970
Q

Each of these patients has been found to have raised blood prolactin, select the most likely aetiology for each case.

A woman has suffered with hypothyroidism for 20 years, she still complains of feeling cold and a bit sluggish.

A. inadequate treatment
B. Metoclopramide
C. Ibuprofen
D. Macroadenoma
E. Acetaminophen
F. non epileptic seizure
G. Microadenoma
H. epileptic seizure
A

A. Inadequate treatment

971
Q

Each of these patients has been found to have raised blood prolactin, select the most likely aetiology for each case.

A 21 yo man presents in A+E with prolactin levels raised 10-fold having been found collapsed on the street, witnesses say he was shaking and rigid.

A. inadequate treatment
B. Metoclopramide
C. Ibuprofen
D. Macroadenoma
E. Acetaminophen
F. non epileptic seizure
G. Microadenoma
H. epileptic seizure
A

H. Epileptic seizure

972
Q

Each of these patients has been found to have raised blood prolactin, select the most likely aetiology for each case.

A 45 year old lady complains of low libido and some galactorrhoea.

A. inadequate treatment
B. Metoclopramide
C. Ibuprofen
D. Macroadenoma
E. Acetaminophen
F. non epileptic seizure
G. Microadenoma
H. epileptic seizure
A

G. Microadenoma

973
Q

Each of these patients has been found to have raised blood prolactin, select the most likely aetiology for each case.

A 45 year old lady complains of headache and double vision.

A. inadequate treatment
B. Metoclopramide
C. Ibuprofen
D. Macroadenoma
E. Acetaminophen
F. non epileptic seizure
G. Microadenoma
H. epileptic seizure
A

D. Macroadenoma

974
Q

Each of these patients has been found to have raised blood prolactin, select the most likely aetiology for each case.

A man has a long history feeling unwell having had several bouts of gastritis recently. He has noticed he has had problems getting it up, he has had a number of medications prescribed for the gastritis

A. inadequate treatment
B. Metoclopramide
C. Ibuprofen
D. Macroadenoma
E. Acetaminophen
F. non epileptic seizure
G. Microadenoma
H. epileptic seizure
A

B. Metclopramide

975
Q

A man has undergone an anterior resection, the epidural he was supposed to have didn’t site properly so he is on strong opioids post op. He has developed hyponatraemia, he is not oedematous and his urine is dark. The urine osmolality is measured at 600 mOsm.

A. ectopic ACTH
B. Addison's disease
C. Liddle's syndrome
D. paraneoplastic syndrome
E. Primary Cushing's disease
F. morphine overdose
G. Conns adenoma
H. SIADH
I. Diabetes Insipidus
A

H. SIADH - Opioids and operative pain are known causes for SIADH. The man is hyponatraemic with concentrated urine. His urine is inappropriately concentrated given his dilutional hyponatraemia. This is caused by excessive production of ADH. Excessive fluid replacement post surgery can exarcebate SIADH. The diagnosis requires absence of hypovolaemia and oedema (and use of diuretics). It also depends on urine osmolality being >500 mOsm and high in sodium. Causes Include Drugs, malignancies (ie.SCC of the lung) CNS disorders including guillain barre and head trauma. Chest infections in hospital can lead to SIADH developing. Metabolic diseases can also be responsible.

976
Q

A man has hypertension, his dr starts advising him on low salt diets and prescribes him Spironolactone. The man’s father and grandfather had the same problem.

A. ectopic ACTH
B. Addison's disease
C. Liddle's syndrome
D. paraneoplastic syndrome
E. Primary Cushing's disease
F. morphine overdose
G. Conns adenoma
H. SIADH
I. Diabetes Insipidus
A

C. Liddle’s syndrome - This man has Liddle’s syndrome a form of pseudohyperaldosteronism which is caused by overactive eNaC ( epithelial sodium channel) found in the collecting ducts. Liddles is an autosomal dominant condition hence the strong family history. The biochemical picture of hypernatraemia and hypokalaemia mimicks that of hyperaldosteronism, normally aldosterone modulates the eNacs activity however in Liddle’s the problem is the channel does not dissocciate properly so blockade of aldosterone with spironolactone is ineffective. Direct eNaC antagonists are used…Amiloride or Triamterene in conjucntion with a low sodium diet.

977
Q

A young woman has high blood pressure and that hasn’t improved with a low salt diet. she has been complaining of headaches and tingling in her fingers. her hand twitches when the dr takes her blood pressure again. Dr Trouser takes blood samples and sees the woman has Na+ = 150 mmol/l and K+ = 3.0mmol/l.

A. ectopic ACTH
B. Addison's disease
C. Liddle's syndrome
D. paraneoplastic syndrome
E. Primary Cushing's disease
F. morphine overdose
G. Conns adenoma
H. SIADH
I. Diabetes Insipidus
A

G. Conn’s adenoma - This lady has true primary hyperaldosteronism caused by a conns adenoma. Hyperaldosteronism should always be considered in the young hypertensive. Hypokalaemia and hypernatraemia are caused by the aldosterone excess. Headaches are due to the hypertension and hypokalaemia there are also a number of musculoskeletal symptoms that patients complain of. The tingling can be peri-oral and the twitching was alluding to trousseau’s sign of hypocalcaemia. Trousseau’s sign : ALWAYS an EMQ in the exam, basically in hypocalcaemia there is carpo-pedal spasm when blood pressure cuff is inflated to above systolic pressure. Chvostek’s sign : tapping the zygoma produces facial spasm. the hypocalcaemia is caused because hyperaldosteronism leads to metabolic alkalosis and the raised blood pH makes calcium less available to tissues thus causing a functional hypocalcaemia. Liddles is not an option because there is nil family history of note. Mx = spironolactone and surgery.

978
Q

A tanned looking man comes into clinic complaining of feeling under the weather, his bloodwork shows he is Na+ - 120 mmol/l and K+ = 6.0 mmol/l. His urinary sodium is noted to be higher than expected.

A. ectopic ACTH
B. Addison's disease
C. Liddle's syndrome
D. paraneoplastic syndrome
E. Primary Cushing's disease
F. morphine overdose
G. Conns adenoma
H. SIADH
I. Diabetes Insipidus
A

B. Addison’s disease - Tanned with hyponatraemia…it must be addisons. The hyperkalaemia shows there is mineralocorticoid deficiency..replacement therapy is key as addisonian crisis may ensue.

979
Q

A man seen in the oncology clinic for radiotherapy has bloodwork showing hyponatraemia. He has been a smoker for 50 years.

A. ectopic ACTH
B. Addison's disease
C. Liddle's syndrome
D. paraneoplastic syndrome
E. Primary Cushing's disease
F. morphine overdose
G. Conns adenoma
H. SIADH
I. Diabetes Insipidus
A

D. Paraneoplastic syndrome - Smoker with radiotherapy..the hyponatraemia is caused by SIADH, the aetiology is paraneoplastic syndrome. He has a bronchial or small cell carcinoma which is producing excess ADH.

980
Q

A 47 year old man has a glucose measurement of 6.3 mmol/L in an afternoon checkup appointment, he hasn’t eaten since 6pm the previous day.

A. Impaired glucose tolerance
B. Normal
C. Impaired fasting glucose
D. Diabetic
E. Non-signifcant
A

C. Impaired fasting glucose - This patient hasn’t eaten for over 12 hours so his BM is a fasting glucose measurement. Normal value for which would be less than 6 mmol/L

981
Q

A 23 year old woman has a random blood glucose result of 7.7 mmol/L in clinic

A. Impaired glucose tolerance
B. Normal
C. Impaired fasting glucose
D. Diabetic
E. Non-signifcant
A

E. Non- significant - This patient has had a random blood glucose taken. A reading of > 11.1 mmol/L would almost definitely mean she was diabetic. A reading greater than 7.8 might be suggestive of some dysfunction and possible prediabetes although it is not conclusive. However her reading is 7.7 mmol..nothing can be derived from this.. it is a non-significant reading.

982
Q

A 56 yo chef has a random glucose of 9.0 mmol/l and is submitted to an OGTT (oral glucose tolerance test). His BMs come back as 10.8 mmol/L

A. Impaired glucose tolerance
B. Normal
C. Impaired fasting glucose
D. Diabetic
E. Non-signifcant
A

A. Impaired glucose tolerance - The random glucose for this patient is suggestive of a problem and the oral glucose tolerance test gives a reading

983
Q

A 89 yo lady has a fasting glucose of 5.5 mmol/l, after eating her dinner her glucose is checked again and has increased to 6.9 mmol/L

A. Impaired glucose tolerance
B. Normal
C. Impaired fasting glucose
D. Diabetic
E. Non-signifcant
A

B. Normal - This womans fasting BM is completely innocuous. After eating a meal her blood glucose remains below a level at which there may be suspicion of IGT. This patient is therefore definitely normal

  • A useful marker for body glucose regulation is looking at post prandial rises in BMs. If after eating the BMs increase by more than 2.2mM from fasting baseline it may be useful to test further.
984
Q

A woman comes to clinic complaining of vaginal disharge and itching , a swab reveals candida is responsible. She is prescribed Clotrimazole, before leaving the Dr measures her BMs randomly and finds her reading is 12.0 mmol/L,

A. Impaired glucose tolerance
B. Normal
C. Impaired fasting glucose
D. Diabetic
E. Non-signifcant
A

D. Diabetic - WHO criteria for diagnosing Diabetes courtesy of cheese and onion :- symptoms (vaginal thrush is one..impaired immune system) + raised venous glucose detected on one occasion.

OR 2 separate raised BMs (fasting >7mM or random >11.1mM etc..)

OGTT: the patient fasts for 8-14 hours and baseline glucose is measured (usually around 7am) 1.75g per kg body weight glucose solution is given (up to 75g) drunk quickly and BMs are recorded again at 2hrs.

985
Q

Reduction of the HbA1c from 8% to 7% in diabetic reduces the risk of microvascular complications by approximately..?

  1. 20%
  2. 40%
  3. 5%
  4. 60%
A
  1. 40% - So although HbA1c can not be used diagnostically in diabetes it represents the amount of endogenous glycation occuring in vivo . Glycation produces Advanced glycation end products which are responsible for damaging vasa nervorum etc causing microvascular complications of diabetes. Lens protein Glycation is also responsible for the increased occurrence of catract in Diabetics.
986
Q

An alcoholic man is unwell he is seen by the on call Dr in A+E, diagnosed and started on iv fluids and is NBM, his BM is 15.8 mmol/L.

A. Oesophageal cancer
B. Pancreatitis
C. Drug induced
D. Lung cancer
E. Pituitary adenoma
F. Cushing's syndrome
G. Type II diabetes
H. PCOS
I. Cushing's disease
A

B. Pancreatitis - This patient is an alcoholic and his management points to abdominal pathology which in his case is acute pancreatitis: any pathology affecting the pancreas can disrupt it’s endocrine function..surgery, trauma chemical inflammation etc. here this has affected insulin production

987
Q

A 94 yo lady has suffered with Rheumatoid arthritis for 20 years, her blood glucose is 12 mmol/L

A. Oesophageal cancer
B. Pancreatitis
C. Drug induced
D. Lung cancer
E. Pituitary adenoma
F. Cushing's syndrome
G. Type II diabetes
H. PCOS
I. Cushing's disease
A

C. Drug induced - this patient has rheumatoid arthritis a long standing inflammatory disease for which she no doubt has been placed on oral prednisolone…a side effect of corticosteroids is hyperglycaemia, mimicking the action of endogenous cortisol. The answer is drug induced as opposed to cushing’s syndrome because no other signs of Cushing’s are mentioned at all.

988
Q

A 30 man is seen in cardiology clinic for a regular checkup. In the notes it was commented on that he had a large tongue and that he was taking octreotide. O/E he was hypertensive and his blood sugars were 13.4 mmol/L.

A. Oesophageal cancer
B. Pancreatitis
C. Drug induced
D. Lung cancer
E. Pituitary adenoma
F. Cushing's syndrome
G. Type II diabetes
H. PCOS
I. Cushing's disease
A

E. Pituitary adenoma - this patient is young and in a cardiology clinic..none of the options point to congenital heart disease however. The patient has macroglossia and is being treated with octreotide (a somatostatin analogue). This drug is useful in suppressing over active pituitaries, in this case once producing excess growth hormone. The most common cause would be an adenoma and his symptoms would include cardiomegaly and hypertension along with hyperglycaemia.

989
Q

A 70 yo old smoker has been complaining of haemoptysis, dysphagia and weight loss his BM is found to be high. Incidientally his biceps reflexes are reported as being greatly reduced but improve after the patient flexes his arms for a while.

A. Oesophageal cancer
B. Pancreatitis
C. Drug induced
D. Lung cancer
E. Pituitary adenoma
F. Cushing's syndrome
G. Type II diabetes
H. PCOS
I. Cushing's disease
A

D. Lung cancer - This patient has small cell lung cancer which is causing him to suffer from Lambert-Eaton myasthenic syndrome. This is an auto-immune condition where calcium channel antibodies inhibit the release of acetylcholine from the calcium channels’ pre-synaptic nerve terminal, thus causing muscle weakness.

This condition resembles myasthenia gravis except the weakness improves with repeated activity, where it worsens in MG. Also, the respiratory and facial muscles are usually not involved or if they are it is not so severe as in MG.

990
Q

A 19 yo old girl with thinning hair is seen in clinic. the notes say she has been prescribed the OCP for 2 years following an ultrasound. Her BMI is found to be 27, prior to the pill she had had one or two periods a few months apart.

A. Oesophageal cancer
B. Pancreatitis
C. Drug induced
D. Lung cancer
E. Pituitary adenoma
F. Cushing's syndrome
G. Type II diabetes
H. PCOS
I. Cushing's disease
A

H. PCOS - Young and obese may point to TIIDM however she has been prescribed the OCP for years.This is to manage the androgen excess resulting from her PCOS. Evidence for this is her thinning hair and oily skin coupled with her abdominal ultrasound used to diagnose her condition. Insulin resitance, obesity, dyslipidaemia and oligoovulation are all features of this condition.

991
Q

A 50 year old man has his BMs measured in cardiology clinic which he attends as he is in left ventricular failure. It is a fasting measurement and comes back as 6.8 mmol/L. Pick the medication most suitable for this patient.

  1. Captopril
  2. Amiodarone
  3. Bendroflumethazide
  4. Digoxin
A
  1. Captopril - No mention is made of any arryhthmia so Amiodarone/ Digoxin aren’t necessarily required. The man has impaired fasting glucose and so is at risk of progressing to diabetes. Thiazide diuretics are recognised as causing iatrogenic Diabetes Mellitus and so are unsuitable here. This man has LVF without Atrial fib and so an ACE-i’ is first line therapy.They relieve the pre and afterload on the heart reducing progression to Left ventricular dilatation. It has also been shown that patients with Impaired Fasting Glucose and heart failure treated with ACE-i drugs are at much less risk of progression to diabetes over the short term at least (3% vs~50%).
992
Q

A TIIDM man has recently had an addition to his medicine, his wife has noted that he becomes confused and seems to shake in the evening especially if he has forgotten to take his lunch to work

A. Addison's disease
B. Alcohol
C. Meningitis
D. Insulinoma
E. Insulin
F. dumping syndrome
G. Gliclazide
H. Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome
I. Starvation
A

G. Gliclazide

993
Q

A woman of BMI 47 has been in surgery for a major operation to help her lose weight. Gastric banding was previously unsuccessful. She is started on pureed foods in hospital and she becomes nauseous and distended shortly after. a few hours later she is sweating and anxious, she c/o palpitations. Nurses measure her BMs which are low.

A. Addison's disease
B. Alcohol
C. Meningitis
D. Insulinoma
E. Insulin
F. dumping syndrome
G. Gliclazide
H. Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome
I. Starvation
A

F. Dumping syndrome

994
Q

A 25 year old man has to pull out of a football match ten minutes in c/o headache and blurring of his vision. He also has palpitations, at the sidelines he has some lucozade and feels better.To be safe he calls into the hospital. Dr Man is on call, he notices small scars on the pts neck and in his history he has had transphenoidal surgery in the past. Dr Man requests blood glucose which is ,2.4mmol/L and c-peptides which are found to be high

A. Addison's disease
B. Alcohol
C. Meningitis
D. Insulinoma
E. Insulin
F. dumping syndrome
G. Gliclazide
H. Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome
I. Starvation
A

D. Insulinoma

995
Q

A budding shotputter with hopes of 2016 is found collapsed at the gym, his trainer takes him to A+E where his BMs are found to be very low as is his c-peptide. On taking a history it is found that the athletes room mate is type 1 Diabetic.

A. Addison's disease
B. Alcohol
C. Meningitis
D. Insulinoma
E. Insulin
F. dumping syndrome
G. Gliclazide
H. Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome
I. Starvation
A

E. Insulin

996
Q

A young man comes into A+E after a night out complaining of palpitations, he is drowsy and has low BMs. He normally feels fine after a big night out but this time didn’t pass by chicken cottage on his way home.

A. Addison's disease
B. Alcohol
C. Meningitis
D. Insulinoma
E. Insulin
F. dumping syndrome
G. Gliclazide
H. Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome
I. Starvation
A

B. Alcohol

997
Q
An 18 yo girl is seen in A+E, she has a macular rash covering her body, is photophobic and kernigs sign is positive. The girl is hypotensive and started on ceftriaxone immediately. She fails to respond to an ACTH stimulation test. BMs s disease
B. Alcohol
C. Meningitis
D. Insulinoma
E. Insulin
F. dumping syndrome
G. Gliclazide
H. Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome
I. Starvation
A

F. Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome - Adrenal haemorrhage following massive gram negative meningitis

998
Q

The arterial supply to the thyroid is via the inferior and superior thyroid arteries…The superior thyroid artery is a branch of which artery?

  1. internal carotid
  2. external carotid
  3. right brachiocephalic
  4. left vertebral
A
  1. External carotid
999
Q

What is the proportion of total T4/T3 that is free in the plasma?

  1. 75%
  2. 99%
  3. 1%
  4. 60%
  5. 35%
A
  1. 1%
1000
Q

A woman has been trying for a baby for a number of years now to no avail, she has suffered two miscarriages in the past. Her only past medical history of note is a ‘dodgy’ rhythm she has received treatment for for years.

A. Myxoedema coma
B. Hashimoto's thyroiditis
C. Amiodarone
D. external neck irradiation
E. Addisonian crisis
F. De Quervains thyroiditis
G. Grave's disease 
H. Thyroxine abuse
A

C. Amiodarone - Any patient with a history of miscarriage should be investigated for thyroid dysfunction especially hpothyroidism. In this ladies case she has been taking amiodarone as an anti-arrhythmic long term, Amiodarone is one of several drugs that can cause hyper/hypothyroidism.

1001
Q

A 75 yo man with a 50 pack year history complains of weight gain and tingling in his hands especially at night, he also feels generally lethargic. The last time he was in hospital he was receiving treatment after having something ‘nasty’ cut out of his tongue.

A. Myxoedema coma
B. Hashimoto's thyroiditis
C. Amiodarone
D. external neck irradiation
E. Addisonian crisis
F. De Quervains thyroiditis
G. Grave's disease 
H. Thyroxine abuse
A

D. External neck irradiation - The man’s history points to oral cancer, for which he would have received a wide local excision most likely. This would have been followed up with radiotherapy to the local nodes and tissues of the neck. In this gentleman the radiation has caused his thyroid to become underactive hence the lethargy and tiredness. The tingling in his hands at night is a classic presentation of Carpal tunnel syndrome (median nerve compression at the flexor retinaculum) which has an increased incidence in patients with hypothyroidism.

1002
Q

A middle aged women is seen in clinic complaining that she is depressed and that her taste is impaired, she also has muscle aches. The dr reviews her bloodwork and sees her cholesterol and creatine kinase are elevated. He examines her neck and feels a firm, rubbery structure overlying the trachea that moves on swallowing.

A. Myxoedema coma
B. Hashimoto's thyroiditis
C. Amiodarone
D. external neck irradiation
E. Addisonian crisis
F. De Quervains thyroiditis
G. Grave's disease 
H. Thyroxine abuse
A

B. Hasimoto’s thyroiditis - This patient has signs of hypothyroidism; depressed mood and impaired taste. Also she has hypothyroid myopathy, evidenced both symptomatically and biochemically by the elevated creatine kinase. Further to this it is worth noting that hypothyroidism has other effects that can be seen on bloodwork. Amongst these are anaemia and hypercholesterolaemia. It is the thyroid that moves on swallowing and on examination hers is rubbery and firm, this is typical of hashimoto’s thyroiditis which is one of the leading causes of hypothyroidism in the uk. De quervains is not an option owing to lack of preceding viral infection and no tenderness over the neck.

Hashimoto’s thyroiditis An Autoimmune thyroiditis with associations with HLA -DR5 (and some conditions such as Turner’s syndrome, T1DM and pernicious anemia) that shows T - lymphocyte infiltration of the gland and reactive antibodies against the TSH receptor and less commonly Thyroglobulin. It is most prevalent in middle aged women and is a prominent cause of goitre, due to the infiltration of the gland and elevated TSH levels (since T4 production is decreased). Note that at presentation most patients are euthyroid, although around half end up hypo due to destruction of the thyroid. It is possible to be toxic with hasimotos. Hashitoxicosis however is rare and can be transient. Treatment is generally thyroxine T4 given at doses sufficient to suppress endogenous T4 production and minimise TSH, this is done to lessen the risk of a goitre forming and subsequently growing.

1003
Q

An 80 year old woman is brought into hospital following a house visit. She was initially confused, but in hospital she is found to be hypoventilating, her bloods show low BMs and hyponatraemia. Drs order hydrocortisone and liothyronine sodium

A. Myxoedema coma
B. Hashimoto's thyroiditis
C. Amiodarone
D. external neck irradiation
E. Addisonian crisis
F. De Quervains thyroiditis
G. Grave's disease 
H. Thyroxine abuse
A

A. Myxoedema coma - This patient is at the severe end of the hypothyroid spectrum. She has depressed level of consciousness (this can descend into frank coma) and is hypoventilating, other features that can present in this serious complication are bradycardia, and hyponatraemia. Further to this a massive proportion are hypothermic (core temp

1004
Q

A teenage girl is seen in clinic for palpitations, she looks extremely thin but does not bring this up with the doctor. Her pulse is irregularly irregular her mother is concerned she may have inherited her gland problems.

A. Myxoedema coma
B. Hashimoto's thyroiditis
C. Amiodarone
D. external neck irradiation
E. Addisonian crisis
F. De Quervains thyroiditis
G. Grave's disease 
H. Thyroxine abuse
A

H. Thyroxine abuse - This patient is not worried by her weight loss as it is self induced, she has no features that confirm grave’s disease though she is thyrotoxic…the mother’s condition is not stated but you can deduce that the girl has access to thyroxine which she is abusing for it’s metabolic properties.

1005
Q

A 48 yo woman is seen in clinic complaining of a non-painful lump in her neck that has been getting larger. The Dr notes that her voice sounds hoarse and she has been having difficulty swallowing her food. O/E there is a large ‘iron’ hard lump on the left side of her neck that seems to be fixed to the underlying structures. The dr thinks Tamoxifen might help.

A. MEN 2B
B. Medullary thyroid cancer
C. Grave's disease
D. Riedel's thyroiditis
E. subacute lymphocytic thyroiditis
F. late De Quervains thyroiditis
G. Early De Quervains thyroiditis
A

D. Reidel’s thyroiditis - Riedel’s is typically described as Iron hard or ‘woody’. It is of an autoimmune origin and 25-50% of those affected are hypothyroid. The presenation is of a painless lump in the neck that can also cause local compressive symptoms. ie. Tracheal/oesophageal compression..stridor etc. Since the lump is hard and craggy it can be easily mistaken for carcinoma, however there is no lymphadenopathy in this patient or general cancer symptomology. Riedel’s can be associated with sclerosing cholangitis and peculiarly responds to Tamoxifen, there can also be use for steroids.

1006
Q

An anxious looking lady presents to the endocrinology clinic to receive her test results. She is positive for anti-TSH receptor antibodies, eye movement testing reveals some opthalmoplegia

A. MEN 2B
B. Medullary thyroid cancer
C. Grave's disease
D. Riedel's thyroiditis
E. subacute lymphocytic thyroiditis
F. late De Quervains thyroiditis
G. Early De Quervains thyroiditis
A

C. Graves disease - anxious and with opthalmoplegia, immediately you are thinking thyrotoxic and more specifically Grave’s as opthalmopathy is almost always associated with this particular pathology. The anti TSH receptor antibodies are a finding in Graves and they are likely responsible for the opthalmopathy and pre-tibial myxoedema sometimes seen. Thyroid stimulating immunoglobulin (TSI) is also implicated. A Radio-idoine uptake scan of the thyroid would show a ‘hot’ gland with diffuse symmetrical enlargement.

1007
Q

A man has recently recovered from a sore throat and now has a painful lump in his neck. FNA was performed and showed giant cells on histology. A radioiodine uptake scan was ‘cold’. The patient feels anxious and has a racing heart..he was prescribed Propranolol

A. MEN 2B
B. Medullary thyroid cancer
C. Grave's disease
D. Riedel's thyroiditis
E. subacute lymphocytic thyroiditis
F. late De Quervains thyroiditis
G. Early De Quervains thyroiditis
A

G. Early De Quervains thyroiditis - preceeding viral infection already points towards De quervains. The fine needle aspirate shows giant cells which are collections of macrophages which form in response to infection or foreign bodies. In this case the gentleman is anxious suggesting he is thyrotoxic, this is reinforced by the low uptake on radio iodine scanning. In the early stages of De Quervain’s thyroiditis viral infiltration of the gland leads to destruction and release of preformed T4/T3, this leads to thyrototoxicosis. There is low uptake as the gland is responding to feedback, the raised serum T4 is a consequence of gland destruction not increased synthesis; as a result of this there is a second phase where the endogenous T4/T3 stores are depleted and the patient becomes hypothyroid. early management is symptomatic and generally supportive…beta blocakde.

1008
Q

An unusually tall middle aged lady seen in clinic has a large painless lump in her neck that is fixed. The Dr also notes cervical lymphadenopathy and yellow white nodules on her lips. Pembertons sign is positive and a thoracic inlet scan confirms the compression. Her medical history includes surgery on her aortic valve and some work on her lens.

A. MEN 2B
B. Medullary thyroid cancer
C. Grave's disease
D. Riedel's thyroiditis
E. subacute lymphocytic thyroiditis
F. late De Quervains thyroiditis
G. Early De Quervains thyroiditis
A

A. MEN 2B - this fixed lump is accompanied by lymphadenopathy, warning bells go off that this may be malignant. There are local invasion signs also as confirmed by pemberton’

Pemberton’s sign - I put this into a thyroid exam, It can equally be justified in a respiratory examination. Basically you ask the patient to lift their arms straight above their head as high as possible and then listen for inspiratory stridor, look for facial flushing or distension of veins acorss the neck. You can ask the patient to tell you if they fell light headed when performing this test.

It basically looks to see if there is evidence of SVC (superior venae cava) syndrome. If there is a large goitre or apical lung tumour for example impinging on the SVC, lifting the arms will lead to compression and cause congestion of blood in the head. This can be seen as a plethoric face, a cyanosed face, the patient may experience nausea and headache etc.

Positive Pemberton’s sign signifies thoracic inlet obstruction causes of which include:

  • Retrosternal goitre
  • Lung carcinomas
  • Aortic Aneurysms

Thoracic inlet scan shows that a goitre is compressing structures such as the Superior vena cava. This seems to be maligant..Medullary thyroid carcinoma. however the rest of the patient must be taken into account..she has a marfanoid appearance and suggestion of other features of the syndrome. the lens work would be to correct dislocation, and the aortic valve work no doubt was to correct aortic root dilatation and valve incompetency seen in Marfan’s. The nodules are neurofibromatoses typical of MEN 2b.s sign.

1009
Q

Thyroid acropachy is a extrathyroidal manifestation of which disease/s?

  1. Hypothyroidism
  2. Mulitnodular goitre
  3. Hyperthyroidism
  4. Plummer’s disease
  5. Grave’s disease
A
  1. Graves disease
1010
Q

A pregnant woman in her second trimester has a diffusely enlarged goitre with an audible bruit, she is currently thyrotoxic and carbimazole isn’t working as well as hoped. The doctors want to treat her with something in preparation for surgery.

A. Potassium Iodide
B. Radioiodine
C. Propranolol
D. Propylthiouracil
E. Surgical decompression
F. Carbimazole
G. Stop treatment
A

A. Potassium iodide - This patient is suffering with grave’s disease and requires removal of her goitre as she is likely to have high circulating levels of TSI (thyroid stimulating immunoglobulin) which can cross the placenta and stimulate toxicosis in the foetus..leading to failure to thrive etc. The fetal thyroid status can be measured via it’s heart rate. Carbimazole is standard management but if this doesn;t control maternal grave’s surgery can be performed. As she has an audible bruit her goitre is likely extremely vascular and as she is pregnant the risks of excessive blood loss during thyroidectomy are multiple and serious. KI - potassium iodide can be given to saturate the thyroid and reduce vascularity pre surgery. Radioiodine is of course out of the question-risk of serious teratogenesis.

1011
Q

A man is seen in the endocrinology clinic for his thyroid condition. He has the ‘thyroid stare’ and closer inspection of his eyes shows the optic disc is pale and swollen.

A. Potassium Iodide
B. Radioiodine
C. Propranolol
D. Propylthiouracil
E. Surgical decompression
F. Carbimazole
G. Stop treatment
A

E. Surgical decompression - There is significant retroorbital oedema and fibrosis around the optic nerve, decompressive surgery should help relieve this and prevent further atrophy.

1012
Q

A young woman has been diagnosed with grave’s disease and has been receiving oral treatment for the past few weeks, she has developed a sore throat and a nasty cold.

A. Potassium Iodide
B. Radioiodine
C. Propranolol
D. Propylthiouracil
E. Surgical decompression
F. Carbimazole
G. Stop treatment
A

G. Stop treatment - The sore throat should be treated with a high index of suspicion as it might warn of neutropenic agranulocytosis, a serious side effect of Carbimazole. Bloods should be taken to determine if this has occurred and if so the drug should be stopped.

1013
Q

A man has dysphagia which has been getting progressively worse, he has also lost weight. He is submitted for thyrooidectomy. A few weeks later at a checkup it is noticed that his thyroglobulin levels are creeping up again.

A. Potassium Iodide
B. Radioiodine
C. Propranolol
D. Propylthiouracil
E. Surgical decompression
F. Carbimazole
G. Stop treatment
A

B. Radioiodine - sounds like a malignant thyroid has been removed (weight loss, dysphagia) and the thyroglobulin is mentioned as it is useful as a marker of neoplastic activity in patients with these malignancies (much like PSA in prostate Ca), carcinoembryonic antigen : CEA may also be used in the same way. Recurrence or suggestion of should be treated promptly with followup irradiation.

1014
Q

A 21 yo man has had a sore throat recently and now developed a very tender gland on his neck which is quite erythematous. He has also been feeling quite jittery and anxious, he complains of thumping in his chest.

A. Potassium Iodide
B. Radioiodine
C. Propranolol
D. Propylthiouracil
E. Surgical decompression
F. Carbimazole
G. Stop treatment
A

C. Propanolol - de quervains, sore, red thyroid caused by infection. It is early stage hence he is thyrotoxic. Management is mainly supportive..analgesia and beta blockade for the palpitations and anxiety.

1015
Q

A woman has a firm diffuse goitre, she’s feeling tired.

A. Grave's disease
B. Hashimoto's thyroiditis
C. Papillary carcinoma
D. De Quervain's thyroiditis
E. Follicular carcinoma
F. solitary toxic adenoma
G. Multinodular goitre
H. medullary cell carcinoma
A

B. Hashimoto’s thyroiditis - Firm and diffuse goitre can be present physiologically (ie. preganancy), caused by Autoimmune disease : Grave’s/Hasimoto’s, drugs (sulphonylureas) or infective causes. The only information given is that she is hypothyroid. The most liley cause is thus Hashimoto’s.

1016
Q

A woman has a lumpy swelling over the front of her neck and has been complaining of difficulty swallowing. She is euthyroid.

A. Grave's disease
B. Hashimoto's thyroiditis
C. Papillary carcinoma
D. De Quervain's thyroiditis
E. Follicular carcinoma
F. solitary toxic adenoma
G. Multinodular goitre
H. medullary cell carcinoma
A

G. Multinodular goitre - Lumpy swelling and euthyroid (or borderline hyper- suppressed TSH with normal T4/T3) you would think multinodular goitre. She has no cancer B symptoms or infective history. These goitres are major causes of thoracic inlet obstruction and can also involve the laryngeal nerve causing hoarseness..a symptom that would also make you worry about infiltrative carcinoma. After palaption, ultrasound of the thyroid accompanied by Fine needle aspirate can be useful to check there are no malignant changes within the multinodular goitre. (worrying USS findings may be calcification of cysts - the so called ‘halo’ sign)

1017
Q

A man has a history of weight loss and his voice has recently hoarsened. He has been complaining of pain in his leg also. The Dr reviews his blood work and highlights a raised calcitonin

A. Grave's disease
B. Hashimoto's thyroiditis
C. Papillary carcinoma
D. De Quervain's thyroiditis
E. Follicular carcinoma
F. solitary toxic adenoma
G. Multinodular goitre
H. medullary cell carcinoma
A

H. Medullary cell carcinoma - This patient has a maliganacy, the bone pain suggests it has metastasised (medullar cell carincoma frequently does so). Raised calcitonin is noted as medullary carcinoma originates from the parafollicular c cells of the thyroid, responsible for producing calcitonin as part of the calcium, homeostasis mechanism…raised calcitonin is fairly diagnostic.

Thyroid malignancies: GOOD - differentiated (around 90% of all malignancies) : Papillary (80%) and Follicular (10%) carcinomas : these originate from the thyroxine producing stroma and commonly present as a solitary lump in a euthyroid patient. Infiltrative symptoms such as hoarseness and dysphagia may be seen..Surgical management +/- radioiodine followup (these tumours take up iodine quite well) is usually effective. Papillary tumours are slow growing and have excellent survical rates.

BAD - from undifferentiated to anaplastic - Medullary cell Ca - aggressive and metastatic these tumours do not take up iodine well and are less curable by surgery. often linked with MEN or can be a familial neoplasm.

The elderly are particularly affected by Lymphomas and Anaplastic carcinomas - both are rare and rapidly growing however biopsy to differentiate these is important here as lymphomas have a decent prognosis whilst anaplastic carcinomas are pretty much incurable.

1018
Q

A woman with a goitre has difficulty looking upwards and outwards on eye muscle testing, which extra-ocular muscle has been affected?

  1. Superior oblique
  2. inferior oblique
  3. Superior rectus
  4. levator palpebrae superioris
A
  1. Inferior oblique
1019
Q

A 62-year-old diabetic lady presents with recurrent ulceration of the gaiter area of the left leg. The ulcer is well circumscribed, irregular in shape and of partial thickness. There is a brown discolouration and ‘eczema’ over both calves.

A. Venous ulcer
B. Diabetic ulcer
C. Osteomyelitis
D. Kaposi’s sarcoma
E. Sickle cell disease
F. Necrobiosis lipoidica
G. Pigmented purpuric dermatoses
H. Pressure ulcer
I. Squamous cell carcinoma (Marjolin)
J. Pyoderma gangrenosum
K. Dermatitis
L. Pyogenic granuloma
M. Lymphoedema
N. Arterial ulcer
A

A. Venous ulcer - Venous ulcers occur on a background of deep venous insufficiency. There is oedema and a brown skin discolouration due to leaching of pigments and haemosiderin deposition. In addition there may be lipodermatosclerosis and an inflammatory response, which is seen as an eczema-like thickening and hardening of the skin. The skin can also be drawn tightly around the ankle. Ulceration usually follows trauma and is usually on the medial gaiter region. The base has granulation tissue and is sloughy in nature and there is a sloping edge to the ulcer. The shape is often irregular. Look up some photos to help you remember. Once significant arterial disease is excluded (ulcers can have mixed components), the mainstay of treatment is with compression bandaging, appropriate dressings and treatment of any infection with antibiotics. Maggots can also be used and varicose veins should be treated where possible to reduce recurrence. If the ulcer is not healing, a biopsy should be considered (Marjolin’s ulcer).

1020
Q

A 27-year-old woman complains of a change in bowel habit and the passage of blood and mucus per rectum. She says she has lost weight and has felt lethargic for the past 2 months. On examination, you notice a large ulcerating lesion on her left leg with dark red edges.

A. Venous ulcer
B. Diabetic ulcer
C. Osteomyelitis
D. Kaposi’s sarcoma
E. Sickle cell disease
F. Necrobiosis lipoidica
G. Pigmented purpuric dermatoses
H. Pressure ulcer
I. Squamous cell carcinoma (Marjolin)
J. Pyoderma gangrenosum
K. Dermatitis
L. Pyogenic granuloma
M. Lymphoedema
N. Arterial ulcer
A

J. Pyoderma gangrenosum - This is pyoderma gangrenosum, which presents with multiple lesions, most commonly affecting the lower extremity and is linked to UC although it can be seen less commonly in Crohn’s, and is also seen in conditions such as RA and the myeloid dyscrasias. These lesions start as tender papules or vesicles which develop into painful ulcers with a dusky purple edge and surrounding induration and erythema. The base may contain granulation tissue and lesions heal with atrophic scars.

1021
Q

A 60-year-old man with longstanding peripheral vascular disease and type 1 DM presents with a large ulcerating lesion over his toes on his left foot. The lesion appears ‘punched out’ with well demarcated edges. On examination, the leg is cool to touch and hairless. The dorsalis pedis and posterial tibial pulses are absent.

A. Venous ulcer
B. Diabetic ulcer
C. Osteomyelitis
D. Kaposi’s sarcoma
E. Sickle cell disease
F. Necrobiosis lipoidica
G. Pigmented purpuric dermatoses
H. Pressure ulcer
I. Squamous cell carcinoma (Marjolin)
J. Pyoderma gangrenosum
K. Dermatitis
L. Pyogenic granuloma
M. Lymphoedema
N. Arterial ulcer
A

N. Arterial ulcers - Arterial ulcers are deep and painful with a well defined edge, usually found on the shin or foot. They often have a pale base and a punched out appearance. The absent pulses and longstanding PVD with DM here is also indicative. There may be local changes such as cold peripheries, loss of hair, dusky cyanosis and toenail dystrophy. The surrounding skin is often white and shiny. It is typically most painful in bed and the pain is sometimes relieved by having the legs dependent. On examination, peripheral pulses may be absent or reduced like this case. An angiogram with contrast will define the lesion and determine whether it can be improved by surgical intervention. Pain often increases when the legs are at rest and elevated. They can occur between the webs of toes so it is important to always check these in your peripheral vascular examination.

1022
Q

A 20-year-old woman from sub-Saharan Africa is seen in A&E complaining of severe pain, swelling and tenderness of her right leg. Examination reveals a pale, cold and cyanosed leg and a well defined ulcer near the medial malleolus. She claims to have had similar episodes of pain in the past, which resolved with opiate analgesia. ABPI is normal.

A. Venous ulcer
B. Diabetic ulcer
C. Osteomyelitis
D. Kaposi’s sarcoma
E. Sickle cell disease
F. Necrobiosis lipoidica
G. Pigmented purpuric dermatoses
H. Pressure ulcer
I. Squamous cell carcinoma (Marjolin)
J. Pyoderma gangrenosum
K. Dermatitis
L. Pyogenic granuloma
M. Lymphoedema
N. Arterial ulcer
A

E. Sickle cell disease - Adults with sickle cell anaemia may present with leg ulcers although it has to be said that it is very unusual for a person with sickle cell disease to reach adulthood without being aware of their diagnosis. The adult patient could present with unexplained haemolysis, possible intermittent episodes of pain due to vaso-occlusive crises, avascular necrosis and retinal haemorrhage too. The doppler derived ankle-brachial pressure index is normal here which points away from peripheral arterial disease, which in this relatively young person is unlikely in any case. The typical constellation of findings of venous ulcers are not seen (oedema, lipodermatosclerosis). Additionally the pain would appear to be out of proportion to a standard arterial or venous ulcer and instead sounds more like a the pain of a vaso-occulusive crisis, particularly with the recurrent nature.
In real medicine, this is unlikely as it is rare for sickle cell anaemia to present this late, but the fact this lady is from sub-Saharan Africa is a key fact. From an epidemiological perspective, the prevalence is 10-30% in sub-Saharan Africa. Between 25 and 30% of newborns in western Africa are carriers of sickle cell trait. This patient here will need to have their peripheral blood film reviewed following by haemoglobin electrophoresis and HPLC. Sickle solubility is a rapid test which can also be done but will not differentiate sickle trait from sickle disease.

1023
Q

A 60-year-old obese man presents with a ulceration on the sole of the right foot, beneath the metatarsal heads. The ulcer is deep and penetrating, however the skin around it appears well perfused. There is no pain and ankle reflexes are absent bilaterally.

A. Venous ulcer
B. Diabetic ulcer
C. Osteomyelitis
D. Kaposi’s sarcoma
E. Sickle cell disease
F. Necrobiosis lipoidica
G. Pigmented purpuric dermatoses
H. Pressure ulcer
I. Squamous cell carcinoma (Marjolin)
J. Pyoderma gangrenosum
K. Dermatitis
L. Pyogenic granuloma
M. Lymphoedema
N. Arterial ulcer
A

B. Diabetic ulcer - This is a case of diabetic neuropathy. This is a microvascular complication of DM and is characterised by peripheral nerve dysfunction. Complications range from the painless neuropathic ulcer described, at areas of the foot where there is weight loading (particularly the metatarsal heads), to the Charcot foot with severe architectural destruction of the foot. Foot ulceration is a common precusor to amputation. Foot care is crucial in DM. Examination should include peripheral pulses, reflexes and sensation to light touch with a 10g monofilament, vibration (128Hz tuning fork), pinprick and proprioception. Any neuropathic pain may be treated with medications like pregabalin and gabapentin (but unlikely to much effect).