Surgery Flashcards

(119 cards)

1
Q

________ presents with mid-systolic, crescendo-decrescrendo right 2nd intercostal+ left sternal border

A

Aortic stenosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Aortic stenosis radiates to _________

A

carotid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

______ increases the murmur of aortic stenosis

A

squatting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

_______ decreases the murmur of aortic stenosis

A

valsalva

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

when is the valve replaced in aortic stenosis

A

if symptomatic, gradient > 50 or CHF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

________ presents with Holosystolic murmur with click at the apex radiating to axilla

A

mitral regurgitation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Most common cause of mirtal regurgitation

A

MVP (Marfans)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Early peaking systolic ejection murmur increased by Valsalva,
decreased by squatting/handgrip

A

HOCM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

if pt with HOCM present with syncope, arrhythmia or FH of HOCM

A

place an Implantable Cardioverter Defibrillator

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Acute: young person with endocarditis & sudden CHF with

loud diastolic murmur at right 2nd intercostal space

A

Acute Aortic Regurgitation/Insufficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

blowing high-pitched diastolic at 2nd intercostal space

+ left lower sternal border assoc’d with wide pulse pressure.

A

Chronic Aortic Regurgitation/Insufficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what is the first line treatment of chronic aortic regurgitation

A

medical therapy with vasodilators

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Low pitched rumbling diastolic at apex with opening snap

A

mitral stenosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

complication of mitral stenosis

A

atrial fibrillation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

extreme drop in platelets + clots in post-op patient who has received
heparin within 5-14 days

A

Heparin Induced Thrombocytopenia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

treatment of heparin Induced Thrmbocytopenia includes _________

A

STOP HEPARIN, give lepirudin or argatroban

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Lidocaine + epinephrine should not be given in the following places: ______, _______, _______ and _____

A

fingers, nose, penis and toes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

A patient takes amlodipine for hypertension. When should

this patient discontinue this medication prior to surgery?

A

Hold morning dose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

For how long should an active smoker be told to quit before surgery?

A

8 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

why are patients with nephrotic syndrome at increased risk of clotting?

A

loss of antithrombin III in urine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

symptoms of malignant hyperthermia

A

high fever (>104 degrees celcius), muscle rigidity, metabolic acidosis, hyperkalemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

treatment of malignant hyperthermia

A

IV dantrolene, 100% oxygen, Cooling blankets, correct acidosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

patient presents with fever less than 24hrs of surgical operation. most likely cause?

A

malignant hyperthermia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

patient presents with fever within 24hrs of surgical operation. most likely causes?

A

atelectasis, necrotizing fasciitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
management of atelectasis
incentive spirometry, mobilization
26
symptoms of atelectasis
low-grade fever, non productive cough
27
CXR findings for atelectasis
bilateral fluffy lower lobe infiltrates without consolidation
28
management of necrotizing fasciitis
surgical debridement, antibiotics
29
symptoms of necrotizing fasciitis post operatively
high fever, ill, rash
30
findings for necrotizing fasciitis
gas in tissue
31
post operative fever Day 2-5. Most likely causes?
Pneumonia UTI Thrombophlebitis
32
post operative fever Day 7. Most likely causes?
``` central line infection cellulitis wound infection dehiscence pulmonary embolus ```
33
post operative fever Day 10-15. Most likely cause?
abscess
34
prevention of decubitus (pressure) ulcers
change position every two hours
35
light criteria
LDH> 200 LDH effusion/LDH serum > 0.6 Protein effusion/protein serum >0.5
36
what stage of pressure ulcer- intact skin, red, blanches with pressure
Stage 1
37
what stage of pressure ulcer- break in dermis, blister
Stage 2
38
what stage of pressure ulcer -into subcutaneous tissue and muscle?
Stage 3
39
what stage of pressure ulcer- involvement of bone?
Stage 4
40
what makes an exudative effusion complicated?
flank pus, +gram/culture, pH <7.2
41
diagnostic criteria of ARDS
- PaCO2/ FiO2 < 200 (< 300=acute lung injury) - Bilateral alveolar infiltrates - PCWP < 18 (Rules out cardiogenic cause of pulmonary edema)
42
when should 3% Normal saline be used
severe hyponatremia (<110), seizures
43
rapid correction of hyponatremia could lead to ____
central pontine myelinosis
44
rapid correction of hypernatremia could lead to _____
cerebral edema
45
Pain/dysphagia worse with liquids, chest pain, no regurgitation. Suspect?
Diffuse esophageal spasm
46
Confirmatory diagnosis of diffuse esophageal spasm
Manometry
47
Management of diffuse esophageal spasm
CCB or nitrates
48
Barium swallow done at the time of pain showing “corkscrew esophagus” is suspicious of
Diffuse esophageal spasm
49
Usually idiopathic, can be associated with Chagas’ disease and patient presents with dysphagia to liquids and solids. Suspect?
Achalasia
50
Barium swallow for achalasia shows?
Bird’s beak
51
Management of achalasia
CCB; Nitrates; Botox; Dilation; heller myotomy
52
Terrible breath, regurgitation of dinner in the morning. Suspect?
Zenker diverticulum | False diverticulum, only contains mucosa
53
Progressive dysphagia, weight loos with h/o smoking or alcoholism . Suspect?
Squamous cell esophageal carcinoma
54
Progressive dysphagia, weight loos with h/o GERD/ Barrett’s. Suspect?
Adenocarcinoma of the esophagus
55
Management of early stage esophageal carcinoma
Esophagectomy
56
Management of advanced esophageal carcinoma
Chemo + RT and then surgery
57
Management of metastatic esophageal carcinoma
Chemotherapy
58
Epigastric pain worse after eating or laying down with h/o hiatal hernia. Suspect?
GERD
59
Risk factors for GERD
``` Hiatal hernia Obesity Pregnancy EtOH/ smoking Acidic, spicy foods/caffeine Certain meds ```
60
Best diagnostic test for GERD
24-hr pH monitoring
61
What can be used to treat GERD if incompetent LES or symptoms persists after maximum dose of PPI
A Nissen fundoplication
62
Alcoholic presents with bright red blood in emesis after severe vomiting. Suspect?
Mallory-Weiss tear
63
To confirm diagnosis of Mallory-Weiss tear do?
Endoscopy
64
Hematemesis after vomiting, subcutaneous emphysema, severe pain, fever leukocytosis and ill appearing. Suspect?
Boerhaave syndrome | Full thickness esophageal rupture
65
Diagnostic test when you suspect full thickness esophageal rupture
Gastrografin swallow
66
Management of boerhaave syndrome
Surgical repair
67
Management of varices
``` Octreotide/SST Balloon tamponade Endoscopic sclerotherapy Banding Beta blocker if asymptomatic ```
68
Risk factors of gastric ulcers
H. Pylori NSAIDS use Steroids
69
When is the pain from gastric ulcer worse
Worse with eating
70
Treatment of H.pylori cause of gastric ulcer
Clarithromycin Amoxicillin/metronidazole PPI
71
Complications of partial/total gastrectomy
Gastric dumping Pernicious anemia Fe-deficiency anemia
72
Management of H.pylori gastric lymphoma
Treat H.pylori with triple therapy
73
Epigastric pain of duodenal ulcer improves with
Eating
74
Management of Duodenal ulcer
Triple therapy for 14 days then test for eradication
75
Unremitting peptic ulcers + watery diarrhea. Suspect?
Zollinger-Ellison syndrome
76
Diagnostic test for Zollinger-Ellison Syndrome
Secretin stimulation test (inappropriately high gastrin) | CT
77
Management of Zollinger-Ellison Syndrome
Surgery Check for MEN syndrome Omeprazole for metastases
78
Epigastric pain, nausea, vomiting with increased amylase + lipase. Diagnosis?
Acute pancreatitis
79
Complications of acute pancreatitis
``` Pseudo cyst Hemorrhage Abscess Sepsis ARDS ```
80
Complication of chronic pancreatitis
Splenic vein thrombosis which leads to gastric varices
81
Large, non-tender gallbladder, itching, jaundice - what sign?
Courvoiser’s sign of pancreatic cancer
82
Migratory thrombophlebitis- what sign
Trousseau’s sign of pancreatic cancer
83
Which endocrine pancreatic tumor presents with malabsorption and steatorrhea
Somatostatinoma
84
Complications of gallbladder
Rupture Fistula formation Gallstone ileus
85
RUQ pain, elevated bilirubin + alkaline phosphatase Suspect?
Choledocholithiasis
86
RUQ pain, fever, jaundice, hypotension, AMS Suspect?
Reynolds pentad Ascending cholangitis
87
Which hematoma does not cross the suture lines
Epidural hematoma
88
Which hematoma shows biconvex lens on non-contrast CT scan
Epidural hematoma
89
What vessel is responsible for epidural hematoma?
Middle meningeal artery
90
Semilunar, crescent shaped on CT. What hematoma?
Subdural hematoma
91
What vessel is responsible for subdural hematoma?
Bridging vein
92
Raccoon eyes, CSF rhinorrhea/otorrhea, ecchymosis behind the ear is suggestive of?
Basilar skull fracture
93
Management of ICP
Elevation of head of bed Hyperventilating to PCO2 35 Mannitol/ furosemide & avoid excess IVF Maintain adequate CPP (MAP- ICP)
94
What zone of penetrating neck injury warrants surgical exploration?
Zone 2
95
Forced neck hyperextension (whiplash); paralysis & burning pain in the upper extremities. Suspect?
Central cord syndrome
96
Vertebral body burst fractures; loss of motor, pain and temperature distal to injury on both sides. Suspect?
Anterior cord syndrome
97
Gun shot wounds or stab cutting the cord at one level; paralysis & loss of proprioception distal to injury on the same side; loss of pain & temperature sensation on opposite side. Diagnosis?
Brown-Sequard syndrome
98
Flail chest symptom to watch out for
Inward movement of chest with inspiration
99
Complication to watch out for with flail chest
Aortic transection
100
Management of rib fracture
Pain control w/ aggressive respiratory therapy
101
What do you see on CXR 48 hours after for the diagnosis of pulmonary contusion
White out of lungs on CXR
102
Difference between pneumothorax and hemothorax
Dullness to percussion for hemothorax
103
Difference between tension pneumothorax and hemothorax
Trachea deviates toward the side of injury
104
What injuries increases the suspicion of aortic rupture
- scapular - 1st rib - Sternal fracture
105
How do you intubate a patient with tracheal rupture?
Fiber optic bronchoscopy
106
The four spaces FAST exam checks
Perihepatic Perisplenic Pericardium Pelvis
107
Next step in a stable patient who had an abdominal trauma
CT scan
108
Lower rib + abdominal bleed
Splenic/ liver laceration
109
Lower rib fracture + hematuria
Kidney laceration
110
Kher sign + viscera in the left thorax on XR
Diaphragmatic rupture
111
Handlebar sign
Pancreatic rupture
112
Retro peritoneal fluid + epigastric pain
Duodenal rupture
113
Seizure/electric burn; arm is internally rotated and addicted on exam. ?
Posterior shoulder dislocation
114
Fall on outstretched hand; arm externally rotated and abducted arm
Anterior shoulder dislocation
115
Direct blow to proximal ulna, anterior dislocation of radial head
Monteggia fracture
116
Direct blow to distal radius, dorsal dislocation of radioulnar joint
Galeazzi fracture
117
Shortened and externally rotated leg
Hip fracture
118
Parkland formula:
kg x BSA% x 4
119
Management of circumferential burns
Escharotomy