Psychiatry Flashcards

1
Q

When to modify hx taking?

A

distressed, low cognition, no language, concerns about risk/safety, urgent issues, time, carer

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2
Q

What is phenomenolgy?

A

descriptive psychopathology (objectivity about abnormal states of mind); elicit, identify and interpret symptoms of psychiatric disorders; understand the mental experiences of the patient and try to be empathetic

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3
Q

5 Ps for helping with hx taking?

A

presenting problem, predisposing factors, precipitating factors, perpetuation factors and protective factors

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4
Q

Other questions to ask in hx other than the normal ones?

A

Mood, sleep, appetite, risks of harm to self or others

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5
Q

Questions to ask around drugs and alcohol?

A

what, injected?, which veins, what is meant by social drinking, what time start in morning, drink everyday

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6
Q

PMH questions?

A

med conditions, admissions, surgery, head injuries, deliberate self-harm, SEs from meds

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7
Q

FH questions?

A

mental health, suicides, drug/alcohol abuse, forensic encounters; if recent death and note reaction to this

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8
Q

Personal history (EE-OR)?

A

o Early life and development – pregnancy/birth complications, serious illnesses, bereavements, abuse (emotional, physical, sexual), childhood separation, describe childhood home environment, religion
o Educational history – school, academic achievements, friends/bullied?, school conduct/truancy
o Occupational history – job titles and duration, reasons for change (work satisfaction, relationships with colleagues, use longest job for indicator of normal before deterioration)
o Relationship history – duration, gender of partner, children, quality and abuse (communication, aggression, jealousy or infidelity), sex problems (menstruation, contraception, pregnancies)

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9
Q

Forensic hx?

A

arrests, imprisoned, juvenile crime, length of sentence, against person/property, prison experience

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10
Q

Premorbid personality questions?

A

how would you and friends describe you before; what do you enjoy; how do you cope

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11
Q

How common is mental health in the general population?

A

1 in 4

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12
Q

RFs?

A

inequalities in health (socioeconomic, refugees 5x more common), age, gender and sexual identity

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13
Q

Causes of RFs?

A

problems behind the illness, social determinants (poverty, isolation, migration unemployment, trauma, abuse, education, racism/discrimination, institutional care, homelessness)

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14
Q

Definition of primary prevention?

A

stop it in first place

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15
Q

Definition of secondary prevention?

A

intervene early when problem emerges

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16
Q

Definition of tertiary prevention?

A

manage ongoing problem and reduce its harm

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17
Q

Examples of primary prevention?

A

population wide campaigns, campaigns for at risk groups, screening questions to find at risk, physical exams, legislation, action to reduce harmful consequences

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18
Q

Mental state examination parts?

A

ABSolutely MAD PIC - appearance and behaviour, speech, mood and affect, disorders of thought content, perception, insight, cognition

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19
Q

Appearance and behaviour questions?

A
  • General health and posture, tattoos, clothing, cuts, hygiene and tidiness
  • Distinctive features
  • Manner and report, hallucination response
  • Motor activity high or low (tics, chorea, repeated movements)
  • Antipsychotic side-effects (tremor, bradykinesia, akathisia [restlessness], tardive dyskinesia [rolling tongue/licking lips], dystonia [muscle spasm])
  • Mannerisms
  • Gait abnormalities
  • Self-harm
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20
Q

Speech questions?

A
  • Tone, rate and volume
  • Look at PPS first lecture
  • Circumstantiality
  • Loosening of association – incoherent speech as lack of association of thoughts to speech (disorder of form of speech)
  • Perseveration – inappropriate repetition
  • Flight of ideas
  • Pressure of speech – rapid and strays from topic
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21
Q

Mood and affect questions?

A
  • Mood = self-explanatory (subjective view of mood from patient and objective is what you think)
  • Affect = more to do with how mood is making the patient seem sometimes with reaction to certain cues (unreactive, labile, irritable etc)
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22
Q

Disorders of thought content questions?

A

• Negative thoughts
• Ruminations (preoccupations of the mind)
• Obsessions
• Depersonalisations (feel cut out from world) and derealisation (feel like world and people in it are lifeless and not real)
• Abnormal beliefs:
o Overvalued ideas
o Ideas of reference (thinking other people are talking about them but not at delusional intensity)
o Delusions – secondary can be explained by another morbid experience
• Concrete thinking – taking things literally
• Content (obsession, preoccupation, delusions), form (circumstantial, tangential, looseness of association) and stream (poverty, racing, perseverative, thought insertion/withdrawal/broadcast; disorders of continuity of thought or tempo)
• Think of main categories = disorders of tempo, continuity, possession (thought alienation and obsessions and compulsions)
• Disorder of memory – confabulation and dissociative amnesia (sudden from periods of trauma, lasts a few days)
• Disorder of emotion – anhedonia, apathy (lack of emotion), incongruity of affect (seen mood not related to actual emotion), blunting of affect, conversion (unconscious mechanism of symptom formation, in conversion hysteria, psych conflict into somatic symptom, motor or sensory), la belle indifference (lack of concern about their disability – not bothered about no legs)

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23
Q

Perception questions?

A
  • Seen/heard anything others can’t hear (5 senses = auditory, visual, tactile [usually in drug abuse], gustatory, olfactory); changes in intensity, quality, spatial form and distortion of experience of time (differentiate normal from abnormal)
  • Illusions – misinterpretations of normal things
  • Hallucinations
  • Pseudo-hallucinations – internal perceptions with preserved insight (like a voice in head saying not doing good)
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24
Q

Insight questions?

A
  • How patient sees their own condition
  • Identifies abnormal mental phenomena
  • Willing to seek help
  • Appreciates risk of non-compliance, impact of illness on others
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25
Q

Cognition questions?

A
•	Ability of pt to perform tasks
•	Memory – of list of objects etc
•	Orientations – in time, place, person
•	Attention and conc – count backwards
•	Dyspraxia – draw pentagons
•	Receptive dysphasia – follow a command
•	Expressive dysphasia – name object
•	Frontal lobe functioning tests:
o	Approximation (height of landmark)
o	Abstract reasoning (next shape in sequence)
o	Verbal fluency
o	Proverb interpretation
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26
Q

Main 3 classification categories for psych?

A

LD, PD and mental illness

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27
Q

Hierarchal classification categories for DSM-IV-TR?

A

o Personality disorders
o Anxiety disorders (GAD, panic, OCD, PTSD and adjustment disorder)
o Mood disorders (bipolar, affective disorder and psychotic depression)
o Psychotic disorders (schizophrenia)
o Organic disorders (delirium, dementia, drug abuse)

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28
Q

Overview of risk assessment in psych?

A

• Assess risk of self-harm and harm to others
o How likely is event to happen
o How bad will it be
o Collaborate with the pt and review plan
o Use past behaviour as a guide for future risk
o Any new risks let someone know

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29
Q

Suicide risk assessment questions?

A

method, belief in lethality, plan to avoid discovery, note and planning for death after (bank acc etc), how do they feel (anger it didn’t succeed and will they do it again) now, protective factors, risk factors

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30
Q

Questions and things to note with harm to others?

A
o	Document any acts of violence of intimidation towards others
o	Any isolation put in place
o	Compliance with meds
o	Life events
o	Stressful incidents recently
o	Change in meds
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31
Q

Self-neglect and accidental harm questions?

A
o	Malnutrition
o	No healthcare
o	Bad living conditions
o	Falls that can be prevented (frailty)
o	Wandering
o	Overdose
o	Vulnerability to crime
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32
Q

Psychosis definition?

A

misperception of thoughts and perceptions by the patient

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33
Q

Psychosis examples?

A
o	Schizophrenia
o	Schizoaffective disorder
o	Delusional disorder
o	Brief psychotic episodes
o	Psychotic depression
o	Bipolar affective disorder
o	Drug-induced psychoses
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34
Q

Definition of schizophrenia?

A

more permanent than episodes of relapse of mania/psychosis

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35
Q

When does schizophrenia usually begin?

A

Adolescence/early 20s

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36
Q

Negative, positive and cognitive symptom examples of schizophrenia?

A

positive (hallucinations and delusions), negative (poor motivations, low speech, low function, socially withdrawn, self-neglect, blunted affect [same emotions but how they express this is less]) and cognitive

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37
Q

1st rank symptoms of schizophrenia?

A

o 3rd person auditory hallucinations (people talking about you, running commentary)
o Thought echo (hear own thoughts out loud)
o Thought block
o Delusional perception (real perception exaggerated to something else or jumping to conclusions from an unrelated thing e.g. a jumper means that someone is watching me)
o Thought insertion/withdrawal (thoughts interfered with e.g. like in big brother); all of these known as thought alientation
o Passivity (actions, feelings or impulses controlled by someone/something else) or somatic passivity (body movements controlled by someone else)
o Primary delusions – something they strongly believe in (an idea etc); mood, perception or sudden idea

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38
Q

2nd rank symptoms of schizophrenia?

A

o Other symptoms that can be present in schizophrenia but also other disorders
o Catatonic behaviour
o 2nd person auditory hallucinations (talking to you e.g. telling you that you’re the messiah)
o -ve symptoms
o Other hallucinations
o Thought disorder

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39
Q

Diagnosis for schizophrenia?

A

first rank symptom/persistent delusion/at least 2+ secondary symptoms; present for 6 months (using DSM-IV-TPR); no drug intoxication, withdrawal, overt brain disease, prominent affective symptoms

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40
Q

2 types of delusions?

A
o	Persecutory (out to harm the person)
o	Delusions of reference (paranoia people or news is talking about them)
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41
Q

Thought disorder examples?

A

o Loosening of associations
o Neologisms (new words or words used in special way – THINK OF SAM ABOUT TO DO SOMETHING DUMB)
o Concrete thinking (can’t deal with out of box thinking)
o Word salad (jumbled nonsense)
o Perseveration – keep persisting with a word/phrase and can’t help it

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42
Q

Subtypes of schizophrenia and what they consist of?

A

o Paranoid – delusions (persecution or grandeur) and hallucinations evident
o Catatonic – psychomotor disturbances, rigidity, posturing (strange posture), echolalia (LIKE IN ENGLISH LIT – copying speech), echopraxia (copying behaviours), waxy flexibility (limbs feel like wax – sustained abnormal position), logoclonia (repetition of last syllable of word), negativism (unreasonable resistance to movement and aversion), palilalia (repetition of word with increasing intensity), verbigeration (repetition of meaningless words/phrases)
o Hebephrenic – early onset and poor prognosis, irresponsible and unpredictable, disorganised/disordered, giggling and mannerisms, delusions and hallucinations
o Residual – negative and cognitive mainly and chronic
o Undifferentiated – negative

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43
Q

Main RFs for schizophrenia?

A

o Genetics and later age of parents
o Neurodevelopmental factors (winter births, obstetric complications, developmental delay, temporal lobe epilepsy, bad academia, smoking cannabis in adolescence, severe bullying/abuse)
o Life events and bad socio-economic factors
o Neurotransmitters – high dopamine/serotonin and low glutamate increase risk

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44
Q

Treatment and management of schizophrenia?

A

o Antipsychotics – atypical have fewer motor side effects than typical; lowest dose needed should be used; use clozapine if more than one anti-psychotic is ineffective
o Therapies – CBT, family therapy, art therapy and self-help forums and groups
o Social support – to maximise independence and get back working; always think of psychosocial factors (homelessness etc)
o Adjust diet, smoking
o If need to tranquilise then use benzodiazepine

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45
Q

Good prognostic factors for schizophrenia (FINDING PLANS)?

A
o	Female
o	In relationship/s
o	No negative symptoms
o	aDheres to medications
o	Intelligence
o	No stress
o	Good premorbid personality
o	Paranoid subtype
o	Late onset
o	Acute onset
o	No substance misuse
o	Scan (CT head) normal
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46
Q

What is hypomania and S+Ss?

A

(4+ days) – elevated mood (euphoric, dysphoric, angry), increased energy, more talkative, poor conc, mild reckless, sociability, increased libido, increased confidence, decreased need to sleep, change in appetite

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47
Q

What is mania and S+Ss?

A

(more than 1 week) – extreme elation (uncontrollable), overactive, pressure of speech (can’t interrupt their flow but can in hypomania), impaired judgement, extreme risk taking/high libido, v grandiose ideas about self and strange (more normal in hypomania but still v self confident), social disinhibition, psychosis, mood congruent/incongruent

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48
Q

Types of bipolar affective disorder?

A
o	Depressive
o	Manic (like schizophrenia)
o	Hypomanic (less severe and without psychosis – circumstantiality [take ages to get to point])
o	Mixed (depressive and manic)
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49
Q

What is bipolar 1 disorder?

A

1+ episodes of manic/mixed episodes and 1+ major depressive episodes

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50
Q

What is bipolar 2 disorder?

A

recurrent major depressive and hypomania but not manic – easy to miss should treat with mood stabilisers not antidepressants

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51
Q

What is cyclothymic/persistent mood disorder?

A

not quite bipolar 2 but very close over 2 yearsish; more mild; mood swings and some periods of hypomania/depression; highs and lows for 6 months with only 2 months consecutive no symptoms

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52
Q

S+Ss of bipolar?

A

think of everything being high functioning and out of control mind and body-wise:
o High psychomotor
o Exaggerated optimism
o High self-esteem
o Low social inhibition (high libido, high spending, dangerous driving)
o High sensory awareness
o Rapid thinking and speech (fast and furious speech and thoughts)
o Manic symptoms can be 4 monthsish and depressive is longer
o Can be mixed with schizophrenia and the subtypes and ADHD or substance misuse
o Secondary delusions

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53
Q

RFs for developing bipolar?

A

o Genetics
o Small prefrontal and large amygdalas
o Childhood abuse
o Postpartum

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54
Q

Management and treatment of bipolar?

A

o Anti-manic drugs (also for prophylaxis) – lithium and valproate (like for epilepsy)
o Atypical anti-psychotics (also for prophylaxis) – orlanzapine, risperidone, aripiprazole, quetiapine
o Benzodiazepines for acute behavioural disturbance and lorazepam and antipsychotics for rapid tranquillisation
o Use antidepressants with anti-manics
o Electrocompulsive therapy (ECT) – stimulation to brain under anaesthesia

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55
Q

What is a personality disorder?

A

deeply engrained and long-lasting abnormal behaviour that can cause distress (similar to some mental illnesses but PDs not temporary and not treatable)

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56
Q

Cluster A PD?

A

Paranoid, schizoid, schizotypal

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57
Q

Cluster B PD?

A

Borderline/EUPD, histrionic, narcissistic, antisocial

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58
Q

Paranoid PD S+Ss?

A

cold sensitive, distrust and suspicious (friends and spouse), won’t confide, bears grudges, takes everything negatively, grandiose sense of personal rights; cold and calculating; meds not recommended

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59
Q

Schizoid S+Ss?

A

(sad and withdrawn): socially withdrawn, low emotional range, low pleasure, won’t confide, not bothered about praise or criticism, insensitive to social norms; daydream; no meds

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60
Q

Schizotypal S+Ss?

A

(hallucinations and inappropriate dot joining): struggles socially and interpersonally, ideas of reference, magical thinking, unusual perceptions, tangential and circumstantial thinking, suspicious, socially anxious, eccentric; hallucinations 2 weeks before mood; schizophrenia symptoms with mood disorder; antipsychotics and SSRIs and lithium for bipolar types

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61
Q

Borderline S+Ss?

A

(both schizophrenic and bipolar): self-damaging impulsivity, unstable mood and intense interpersonal relationships/attachment issues, identity confusion, anhedonia (won’t feel pleasure in things meant to feel pleasure), recurrent suicidal/self-harm behaviour to relieve psychic pain, tries to avoid real life, transient paranoid ideation (feelings of grandeur and persecution and sometimes paranoia of others); emotional insensitivity and chronic feelings of emptiness; sometimes uncontrollable anger; most likely to have other co-morbidities like anxiety, depression, PTSD, substance misuse and past trauma
 Self injury causes (prevalent) – feel something when numb, reduce anxiety, feel in control, express anger, keep away bad memories

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62
Q

Histrionic S+Ss?

A

(blonde, dumb valley girl): shallow and excessive emotions, attention-seeker, suggestable, immature, inappropriate sexual seductiveness, narcissism, grandiosity, exploitable actions

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63
Q

Narcissistic S+Ss?

A

grandiose, lack of empathy, need for praise

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64
Q

Antisocial PD S+Ss?

A

(like a young ADHD kid – most likely to be in secure psychiatric units): disregard for rights/safety of others, irresponsible, can’t maintain relationships, irritable, low threshold for frustration and aggression, no guilt, deceitful, impulsive, no personal safety, blames others

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65
Q

Cluster C PD?

A

avoidant, dependent, anankastic/OCD

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66
Q

Avoidant S+Ss?

A

feeling tense/anxious, socially inhibited, won’t join in unless know is liked by others, restricts lifestyle to keep physical security; antidepressants

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67
Q

Dependent S+Ss?

A

needs taken care of, fear of separation, too much advice to make decisions, won’t disagree in case argument, won’t express opinion first as low self-confidence, lengths to gain support from others, always thinking about being left alone; CBT

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68
Q

Anankastic/obsessive compulsive PD?

A

(perfectionist and stickler for the rules): excessive doubt, rigid and stubborn, must stick to rules, perfectionism, always must be productive and takes over life, must be socially norm, obsessional thoughts and impulses

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69
Q

Treatment for PDs?

A

some mood stabilisers for symptomatic but CBT and DBT (dialectical behavioural therapy) is usually more helpful; medium-term outcome = bad but long-term is better

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70
Q

Adjustment disorder characteristics and treatment?

A

lasts less than 6 months few weeks after change in life; symptoms (depression, anxiety, autonomic arousal); support (vent feelings, CBT, problem solving; some SSRI and SNRI)

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71
Q

Abnormal grief reaction S+Ss?

A

delayed onset of grief, prolonged and higher intensity; with difficult relationship with deceased, sudden death or constraints to grieving

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72
Q

Normal grief stages?

A

shock and disbelief, anger, guilt and self-blame, sadness and despair, acceptance

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73
Q

Examples of exceptional stress?

A

PTSD and acute stress reactions?

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74
Q

PTSD S+Ss and treatment?

A

over 1 month symptoms from weeks to months after event; autonomic system and hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal axis and noradrenaline; symptoms = intrusive thoughts and reimagining, avoidance, detachment, high arousal and heightened senses; treatment = trauma-focussed CBT, EMDR (eye movement desensitisation reprogramming – asked to recall upsetting moments and then directed to do eye movements and exercises to reprogram how feel about event), antidepressants, PIES (proximity, immediacy, expectancy and simplicity)

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75
Q

Acute stress reaction S+Ss and treatment?

A

starts within minutes to hour and last less than 3 days; symptoms = dazed, confused, intense anxiety, autonomic arousal, intense sadness or depression and heightened senses; reorientate and brief CBT

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76
Q

Pathophysiology of anxiety disorders?

A

Low levels of GABA and remodelling of amygdala (heightened stimulation) and frontal cortex

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77
Q

What can worsen anxiety?

A

alcohol and benzodiazepines

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78
Q

Define panic disorder?

A

o Episodic severe panic attacks can happen whenever (last a few mins)
o >4 panic attacks in a >4 week period

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79
Q

S+Ss panic attack?

A

palpitations, tachycardia, choking feeling, chest pain, nausea, dizziness, paraesthesia, dry mouth, chills and hot flushes, derealisation and depersonalisation, fear of losing control, feeling of impending doom

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80
Q

Treatment for panic disorder?

A

SSRIs, CBT, tricyclics, NOT BENZODIAZEPINES

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81
Q

What is generalised anxiety disorder?

A

o Last 6 months or longer; generalised, persistent and excessive worry

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82
Q

GAD S+Ss?

A

subjective apprehension, high vigilance, restless, insomnia (difficulty falling asleep), motor tension, autonomic hyperactivity

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83
Q

GAD treatment and management?

A

CBT and SSRIs and benzodiazepines for no longer than 4 weeks; also SNRIs, buspirone and pregabalin; psychotherapy

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84
Q

3 elements of phobic disorder?

A

phobia, avoidance of anxiety situations and severe anxiety

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85
Q

Treatment for rare phobias?

A

Benzodiazepines

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86
Q

What is agoraphobia

A

fear and avoidance of places cannot escape from easily

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87
Q

What is an obsession?

A

thoughts, images, impulses, ruminations (continuous pondering) or doubts and infiltrate everything think about; unpleasant, irrational, intrusive, thought as own thoughts

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88
Q

What are compulsions?

A

repetitive and purposeful physical/mental behaviours in response to an obsession (neutralise discomfort), need to be differentiated from superstitions and rituals; patient realises behaviour is unreasonable

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89
Q

Examples of compulsions?

A
o	Hand-washing
o	Counting and checking
o	Touching and rearranging
o	Hoarding
o	Arthimomania (counting)
o	Onamatomania (say a forbidden word)
o	Folie du pourquoi (asking questions to facts that don’t need to be asked)
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90
Q

OCD S+Ss?

A

concerned with contamination, concerned with harm (leaving gas on), obsessions without overt compulsive acts, hoarding; More than an hour per day of obsessions/compulsions; Avoidance of stimuli is common and sometimes resistance

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91
Q

RFs for OCD?

A

conditioning as a child by parents; defence from cruel and aggressive fantasies in mind; traumatic event where had a disease as a child (PANDAS – paediatric autoimmune neuropsychiatric disorders associated with streptococci)

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92
Q

What is body dysmorphic disorder/dysmorphophobia

(BDD) and S+Ss?

A

o Imagined defect in appearance
o Time consuming behaviours: mirror gazing, comparing features to others, excessive camouflaging of area, skin picking, seeking reassurance, surgery request

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93
Q

BDD treatment and management?

A

psychoeducation so understand their disorder; CBT with medication and patient told to try and avoid compulsion in CBT when exposed to it; SSRIs or clomipramine; sometimes psychosurgery and deep brain stimulation

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94
Q

S+Ss of anankastic PD?

A

obsessive-compulsive personality disorder; rigidity of thinking, perfectionism, preoccupation with the rules, excessive cleanliness and order, emotional coldness

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95
Q

Atypical antipsychotic examples?

A
o	Amisulpride
o	Aripiprazole
o	Clozapine 
o	Lurasidone
o	Olanzapine
o	Paliperidone
o	Quetiapine
o	Risperidone
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96
Q

Clozapine SEs?

A

side effect of agranulocytosis, seizures and weight gain; most effective; offered only when 2+ treatments tried, in treatment resistance

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97
Q

Olanzapine SEs?

A

weight gain

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98
Q

Risperidone SEs?

A

galactorrhoea SE; only one indicated in older people with dementia and behavioural disturbance (lower stroke risk and glycaemic loss of control)

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99
Q

General SEs of atypical antipsychotics?

A

 Parkinsonism (e.g. rest tremor, postural tremor)
 Akathisia (severe restlessness)
 Acute dystonia (sustained muscle contractions – laryngeal, oculogyric crisis, buccolingual and scoliosis [basically mainly in top of body])
 Tardive dyskinesia (involuntary movements of the tongue, lips, face, trunk, and extremities)
o Other side-effects
 antimuscarinic: dry mouth, blurred vision, urinary retention, constipation
 sedation, weight gain
 raised prolactin may result in galactorrhoea due to inhibition of the dopaminergic tuberoinfundibular pathway
 impaired glucose tolerance
 neuroleptic malignant syndrome: pyrexia, muscle stiffness
 reduced seizure threshold (greater with atypicals)
 prolonged QT interval (particularly haloperidol)

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100
Q

Physiology of antipsychotics?

A

Most antipsychotics work by blocking dopamine D2/3 receptors to reduce input it is thought; can be taken orally but some as depot injections like risperidone; low meso-cortical pathway and overactive mesolimbic (reward/pleasure centre) in psychosis

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101
Q

When are antipsychotics used?

A

For schizophrenia, psychoses, acute mania and sometimes violent or agitated behaviour with benzodiazepine; if have negative symptoms then can have neuroleptic dysphoria/neuroleptic malignant syndrome (tremor, muscle cramps, fever, autonomic instability, delirium, raised CK, give DA agonists bromocriptine) when give dopamine agonist; Low dose for tourette’s

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102
Q

Antipsychotic length taken?

A

Taper over 2-3 weeks; usually continue meds for 5 years to prevent relapse

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103
Q

Typical antipsychotic examples?

A
o	Haloperidol
o	Trifluperazine
o	Chlorpromazine
o	Pericyazine
o	Levomepromazine
o	Flupentixol
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104
Q

Antimanic/mood stabilising drug examples?

A

Lithium, lamotrigine, valproic acid and carbamazepine

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105
Q

What is lithium used for?

A

acute mania, control aggression, schizoaffective disorder, prophylaxis in recurrent affective disorder, resistant depression

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106
Q

How does lithium work?

A

affects all systems associated with electrolytes, 5HT, dopamine, acetylcholine and noradrenaline

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107
Q

Checks done when on lithium?

A

thyroid and renal before and every 6 months checked and serum lithium as well

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108
Q

Lithium CIs?

A

avoided in renal, cardiac, thyroid and Addison’s; dehydration and diuretics = toxicity; also NSAIDs, CCBs and some antibiotics

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109
Q

When to stop lithium?

A

toxicity and OD stop it and fluid therapy (normal bad SEs incl tremor and muscle twitching)

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110
Q

What is lamotrigine for?

A

bipolar depression

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111
Q

Valproic acid and carbamazapine SEs?

A

nausea, drowsiness, gastric irritation, diarrhoea, dizziness

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112
Q

What to check when taking valproic acid and carbamazapine?

A

check bloods every 6 months as could be agranulocytosis

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113
Q

Give types of hypnotics and anxiolytics?

A

Benzodiazepines, zopiclone, zolpidem, quinazoliones; Some antidepressants (mirtazapine), antihistamines and some antipsychotics (clozapine) used as hypnotics; H1 antihistamines as anxiolytics

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114
Q

What are benzodiazepines for?

A

– flumazenil given (for muscle relaxants, anticonvulsants, insomnia, alcohol withdrawal)

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115
Q

Withdrawal S+Ss from benzos?

A

Resp depression, tremors, seizures, anxiety

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116
Q

Benzo SEs?

A

drowsiness, ataxia, amnesia, dependence, disinhibition

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117
Q

Benzo physiology?

A

GABA agonist

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118
Q

Benzo examples?

A

 Midazolam
 Diazepam – long-acting
 Lorazepam – short-acting
 Chlordiazepoxide – long-acting

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119
Q

What are zopiclone and zolpidem?

A

Hypnotics

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120
Q

What are zopiclone and zolpidem used for?

A

Sleep and sedatives

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121
Q

Example of a quinazolinone?

A

chloroqualone

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122
Q

What is a quinazolinone?

A

hypnotic

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123
Q

Examples of H1 antihistamines?

A

hydroxyzine, chlorpheniramine, diphenhydramine

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124
Q

What are H1 antihistamines used for?

A

anxiolytics for GAD

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125
Q

Examples of stimulants?

A

o Methylphenidate and atomoxetine

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126
Q

What are stimulants used for?

A

ADHD and narcolepsy

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127
Q

Stimulant SEs?

A

low appetite and weight loss, anxiety, agitation, insomnia

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128
Q

Types of antidementia drugs?

A

Cholinesterase inhibitors, glutamate receptor antagonist

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129
Q

Cholinesterase inhibitor examples?

A

donepezil, rivastigmine galantamine

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130
Q

Glutamate receptor antagonist example?

A

memantine

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131
Q

SEs from antidementia drugs?

A

GI disturbance, dizziness, drowsiness, cramps, incontinence, dyspnoea and syncope

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132
Q

What is serotonin discontinuation syndrome and what are the S+Ss?

A
stop taking them:
	increased mood change
	restlessness
	difficulty sleeping
	unsteadiness
	sweating
	gastrointestinal symptoms: pain, cramping, diarrhoea, vomiting
	paraesthesia
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133
Q

SEs from SSRIs?

A

gastro SEs mainly with bleeding (especially with aspirin) and hyponatraemia in older; sexual dysfunction, headaches, anorexia, nausea, indigestion, anxiety

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134
Q

Why shouldn’t you give SSRIs with triptans/MAOIs?

A

serotonin syndrome (neuromuscular abnormalities, altered mental state, autonomic dysfunction – use cyproheptadine)

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135
Q

Examples of SSRIs?

A
o	Fluoxetine
o	Zimeldine 
o	Citalopram
o	Sertraline 
o	Paroxetine
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136
Q

Physiology of SNRIs?

A

block pre-synaptic alpha-2 receptors, increasing monoamine output

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137
Q

Examples of SNRIs?

A

o Mirtazapine and mianserin, venlafaxine and duolxetine

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138
Q

SEs and physiology of tricyclics?

A

dry mouth, tremor, tachycardia, constipation, fatigue and weight gain; anticholinergic effects, alpha-1 adrenergic antagonism, antihistaminergic

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139
Q

Examples of tricyclics?

A

o Imipramine
o Amitriptyline
o Dothiepin
o Lofepramine

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140
Q

What are norepinerphine reuptake inhibitors for and some examples?

A

(for ADHD):
o Atomoxetine
o Methylphenidate
reboxetine

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141
Q

Antidepressants physiology?

A

increase NA and 5-HT function; stress neurotoxic as causes glutamate release and affects neuronal neuroplasticity; depressed have more BDNF

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142
Q

MAO-A reversible inhibitor example?

A

Moclobemide

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143
Q

MAO-i examples?

A

phenelzine and tranylcypromine and iproniazid

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144
Q

MAOi physiology?

A

inhibit breakdown of serotonin by MAO-A

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145
Q

MAOi CIs?

A

don’t take with high tyramine foods (cheese, red wine) as can cause hypertension or headaches

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146
Q

Other non-category antidepressants?

A

agomelatine, trazadone, maprotiline, nefazodone; St John’s Wort (acts like MAO inhibitor but herbal)

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147
Q

When are antidepressants taken?

A

• Moderate or severe episode of depression; take at least 4 weeks to work; phobic disorder, panic disorder, PTSD, generalised anxiety, bulimia and OCD

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148
Q

What is ECT?

A

• ELECTROCONVULSIVE THERAPY (ECT) – modified cerebral seizure

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149
Q

What is ECT used for?

A

severe depressive illnesses, prolonged/severe mania, catatonia, moderate resistant depression; depressive and/or psychomotor retardation most likely to respond; when all other treatment options failed (for fast and short-term improvement when sitch is life threatening)

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150
Q

What is involved in the process of ECT?

A

= patient fasts for 4 hours then anaesthesia, muscle relaxant and preoxygenation then place electrodes then seizure for 20-60 seconds and EEG then monitor

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151
Q

ECT CIs?

A

raised ICP, stroke, MI and angina

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152
Q

ECT SEs?

A

mainly memory and cognition = orientation problems, new learning, retrograde amnesia, anaesthetic complications, dysrhythmias, confusion, headaches

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153
Q

What is transcranial magnetic stimulation?

A

prefrontal cortex stimulation using magnetic field; daily 30 min session or 2-4 weeks

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154
Q

When is transcranial magnetic stimulation used?

A

severe depression

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155
Q

When is deep brain stimulation used?

A

PD

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156
Q

What is deep brain stimulation?

A

thin electrode into brain

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157
Q

What types of neurosurgery are there?

A

bilateral anterior capsulotomy, anterior cingulotomy for severe treatment-resistant depression and OCD

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158
Q

What is malingering?

A

give fake reasons for symptoms for monetary gain (secondary gain)

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159
Q

What is conversion disorder?

A

pt not bothered by symptoms

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160
Q

What is somatic symptom disorder?

A

experience real but unidentifiable symptoms in somatic pathway (bit like fibromyalgia)

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161
Q

What is Munchausen disorder?

A

patient complains of symptoms for primary gain (medical attention and attention from loved ones); often those with severe PD; sometimes can be by proxy

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162
Q

What is hypochondriasis?

A

patient worried about disease even though don’t have one; must have lasted over 6 months and can be associated with other psych

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163
Q

What is dysmorphophobia?

A

patient worried about something wrong with morphology of self and causes social anxiety

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164
Q

What is Korsakoff’s syndrome?

A

like more acute version of wernicke’s encephalopathy; symptoms = anterograde amnesia (can’t make new memories), retrograde amnesia (can’t remember past) and confabulation (making up new memories)

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165
Q

What is delusional misidentification syndrome?

A

Capgras’ = delusional belief that person known to them has been replaced with a imposter of them, Fregoli’s = delusion that strangers the person meets are the patient’s persecutors in disguise

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166
Q

What is delusional parasitosis/Ekbom’s syndrome?

A

think insects colonising body (esp under skin and eyes)

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167
Q

What is Folie a deux?

A

delusional belief shared by two or more people but only one has psychotic illness but is more dominating and intelligent over the others who aren’t

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168
Q

What is De Clerambault’s syndrome/erotomania?

A

delusional belief that someone is in love with them and makes inappropriate advances and can get angry when rejected

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169
Q

What is Othello syndrome?

A

morbid/pathological jealousy, patient usually convinced partner is unfaithful and always trying to find evidence; can sometimes occur from Parkinson’s disease dopamine agonists

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170
Q

What is Cotard’s syndrome?

A

nihilistic delusions where pt thinks parts of body rotting/decaying or stopped existing, also that they are dead or eternally alive

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171
Q

What is Couvade’s syndrome?

A

pregnant symptoms (abdo swelling, spasms, nausea and vomiting etc) in expectant fathers

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172
Q

What is Ganser’s syndrome?

A

approximate, absurd and inconsistent answers to simple questions (colour of snow = green); clouding of consciousness, somatic symptoms, true/pseudo-hallucinations

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173
Q

What is Somatoform disorder?

A

pain severe enough to disrupt patient’s life (like somatic symptom disorder)

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174
Q

What is a reflex hallucination?

A

normal sensory stimulus causes a hallucination

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175
Q

What is an extracampine hallucination?

A

hallucination outside limits of sensory field

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176
Q

What is a hypnagopic and hypnopompic hallucination?

A

occur when the subject is falling asleep or waking up respectively

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177
Q

What is an autoscopic hallucination?

A

see self in a hallucination externally

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178
Q

What is first person auditory hallucination?

A

hear own thoughts out loud

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179
Q

What is a haptic hallucination?

A

tactile feel

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180
Q

What is an elementary hallucination?

A

simple, unstructured sounds

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181
Q

What is a gustatory hallucination?

A

in mouth in absence of food/drink

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182
Q

What is functional vs organic?

A

organic is something that can be physically seen and functional is the symptom/sign

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183
Q

Give the different types of delusions?

A
  • Persecutory – person feels persecuted even though lack of evidence of it
  • Grandiose
  • Self-referential
  • Love
  • Infidelity
  • Nihilistic – pt denies existence of their body
  • Poverty
  • Misidentification
  • Religious
  • Hypochondriacal
  • Guilt
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184
Q

What is idealisation?

A

dealing with emotional conflict by attributing overly positive attributes to others

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185
Q

What is reaction formation?

A

intrapsychic conflict dealt with by thoughts and behaviours that are opposite to their own

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186
Q

What is projecting?

A

blames other people for their own wrongdoings etc

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187
Q

What is rationalising?

A

reassures self why things that are wrong are ok to happen

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188
Q

What is sublimation?

A

channelling potentially threatening and bad feelings and impulses into a socially acceptable outlet (bit like fighting in arguments out on the street after having been in prison like in the Louie Theroux doc)

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189
Q

S+Ss oppositional defiant disorders (ODD)?

A

6 months+; rebellious and won’t listen to authority

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190
Q

Conduct disorder S+Ss?

A

like ODD but also violent to people and animals; worse prognosis if younger diagnosis

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191
Q

What is antisocial PD?

A

socio/psychopath label; hurts others; 18+ years old; low moral values and societal norms; low empathy and impulse control

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192
Q

What is intermittent explosive disorder?

A

intense anger in brief and spontaneous and out of proportion bursts; 6+ age; twice per week for 3 months

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193
Q

What is impulse control disorder?

A

difference between this and like it is that these urges are compulsion

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194
Q

Two types and descriptions of impulse control disorders?

A

o Pyromania – fire compulsion (not arsonist)

o Kleptomania – stealing compulsion

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195
Q

Treatment of conduct disorders and disruptive impulse control?

A

CBT, social skills training, anger management, parent management training (for parents of the children)

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196
Q

What is depersonalisation and derealisation defined?

A

• Depersonalisation (feeling of detachment)/derealisation (world around isn’t real) disorders – emotionally and physically numb; weak sense of self; deadpan speech; relationship trouble; altered sense of time

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197
Q

What is dissociative amnesia?

A

localised (traumatic event); generalised (not remember any of past, comes in attacks); continuous (only remember present moment)

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198
Q

What is dissociative identity disorder?

A

(multiple personality disorder) – covert (sudden ways in which they perceive and think about themselves; think are a different person but can be aware of this afterwards; when different identity bit like being trapped in that body [bit like being trans]); overt (acts like different person; takes over mind and often not aware/blackout periods; more than 2 distinct identities)

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199
Q

What is bruxism and S+Ss?

A

• Clenching jaw – tooth fracture; tongue deformation; temporomandibular joint disorder
o Nocturnal – grinding and clicking, gets better through day and worse at start
o Diurnal – no waking pain and increases through day; no grinding or clicking; stress and chewing

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200
Q

Bruxism complications?

A

• Improperly aligned teeth, stress, dehydration, meds and MDMA can cause

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201
Q

Bruxism treatment and management?

A

behaviour modification, mouth guards, dental plates, muscle relaxants, avoid stimulants and depressants, avoid chewing, do stress-relieving activities

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202
Q

Social complications from LD?

A
  • More vulnerable (easy to abuse) and lower intellectual ability (IQ<70) and struggles with ADLs
  • Impairment to social/adaptive functioning (can’t cope with new sitch’s and info easily); lower life expectancy
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203
Q

RFs for LD?

A

development in womb/genetic problems

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204
Q

Examples of learning difficulties?

A
o	Auditory processing disorder
o	Dyscalculia
o	Dysgraphia
o	Dyslexia
o	Language processing disorder
o	Non-verbal learning disabilities
o	Visual perceptual/motor deficit
o	ADHD
o	Dyspraxia executive functioning (higher brain functioning = organisation and planning etc)
o	Cognition/memory
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205
Q

LD S+Ss?

A

poor task performance/cognition; congenital syndromes and challenging behaviour (aggression and self-aggression, withdrawal and destructive behaviour); can have other associated physical/psychological problems (psych problems, epilepsy, incontinence, visual/hearing impairment)

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206
Q

LD management?

A

• GP – should have annual physical and mental health check and check meds (Cardiff health check used)

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207
Q

Down’s syndrome outlined?

A

o Multiple malformations, medical conditions and cognitive impairment
o Different severities
o Trisomy 21 – risk factors = FH and maternal age
o 1/1000 affected

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208
Q

Down’s S+Ss?

A
	Single palmar crease
	Hypotonia
	Flat face/round head
	Protruding tongue
	Broad hands
	Upward slanted palpebral fissures and epicanthic folds (medial corner of eye and lid fold problems)
	Speckled irises
	Intellectual impairment
	Short stature
	Pelvic dysplasia
	Cardia malformations
	Hypoplasia of middle phalanx of 5th finger
	Intestinal atresia
	High-arched palate
209
Q

Complications from Down’s?

A

cardiac, feeding, vision, hearing, thyroid and haematological problems

210
Q

Other more rare complications from Down’s?

A

heart septal defects/tetralogy of Fallot, otitis media, sinusitis, OSA, cataracts, glaucoma, GORD, dental problems, coeliacs, hyperflexibility, scoliosis, hypothyroidism, LD, behavioural problems, seizures, AD, infections, AML, ALL, polycythaemia

211
Q

ASD S+Ss?

A

deficits in social communication and interaction; restricted/repetitive patterns of behaviour, interests or activities

212
Q

ASD diagnosis?

A

difficult; team of doctor, psychologist and speech and language therapist; use either autism diagnostic observation schedule (ADOS) or developmental, dimensional and diagnostic interview (3di)

213
Q

Main 3 types of ASD?

A

Impaired reciprocal social interaction, impaired imagination, poor range of activities and interests

214
Q

Impaired reciprocal social interaction features (ASD)?

A

(think of bit like a robot and low emotions):
• Can’t read emotions
• Abnormal response to being hurt
• Impaired imitation/learning of certain things (waving bye at a door if no one leaves)
• Repetitive play
• Bad at making friends as low empathy

215
Q

Impaired imagination features (ASD)?

A

(prefers to be alone and socially awkward):
• Very quiet in infancy and not many facial expressions
• Avoids gaze, stiffens with interaction with family (tactile defensiveness)
• Not interested in fantasy
• Odd speech
• Difficulty in keeping up social interactions

216
Q

Poor range of activities and interests features (ASD)?

A

(bit like stereotypical autism):
• Stereotyped movements (flicking, spinning, head banging)
• Preoccupation with objects and unusual attachments to strange objects
• Distress over minor or trivial things
• Insists on routine
• Fixation on order

217
Q

Complication from ASD?

A

Seizures

218
Q

ASD treatment and management?

A

early intensive behavioural intervention, parent training and education, social skills training, drugs (risperidone for aggression, melatonin or sometimes t3 for sleep, SSRIs for repetitive behaviour), gluten free can help but unproven; if under 3 refer to ASD and above 3 to paeds if concerned about language and motor skills

219
Q

What does Fragile X/Martin Bell syndrome affect?

A

o Behavioural, developmental and physical problems

o No shortening of life expectancy

220
Q

Pathophysiology of fragile X?

A

o Disorder of repeat expansion Xp28

221
Q

S+Ss Fragile X?

A
	Learning difficulties (low IQ) and delayed milestones
	Emotional and behavioural mood swings
	Anxiety and autism (tactile defensiveness)
	High forehead
	Large testicles 
	Facial asymmetry 
	Large jaw and long ears
	Connective tissue problems
222
Q

Fragile X diagnosis?

A

DNA blood sample 3 times

223
Q

Fragile X treatment and management?

A

speech therapy, specialist education, behavioural therapy
 ADHD = dextroamphetamine
 Anxiety = SSRIs
 Psychosis = aripiprazole
 Anticonvulsants = anti-manics/benzodiazepines
 Genetic counselling
 Minocycline = dampens anxiety and eases severity of traits (MAIN ONE USED)

224
Q

Williams syndrome S+Ss?

A

 Heart disease
 Failure to thrive
 Characteristic facial appearance
 Hearing loss
 Intellectual/LD
 ADHD common
 Sociable but sometimes don’t know social norms
 Speech and language delay
 Non-social anxiety (insecure and loud noises and pain etc)
 Weak in – relational/conceptual language (irony etc), reading comprehension, pragmatism (common sense), grammar structure

225
Q

Williams syndrome management?

A

speech-language intervention, support and advocacy

226
Q

What is global developmental delay?

A

o When a child takes longer to reach a learning milestone/development in any skill area
o Someone with another condition may have this
o Some can be short-term and overcome with therapy
o Others can be more significant and need lifelong aid and lead to LD

227
Q

Definition of depression?

A

• Definition (IC-10) – 2+ symptoms present every day for at least 2 weeks: low mood, anhedonia (associated with low emotional reactivity and motivation), decreased energy (anergia); not from substance abuse or illness

228
Q

Symptoms of depression?

A

low conc and attention, low self-esteem and confidence, ideas of guilt and worthlessness, feeling hopeless for the future, self-harm thoughts, change in libido, guilt, diurnal mood variation, low sleep (early waking and low mood in morning) and appetite (weight loss and food refusal)

229
Q

Severity rating for depression?

A

number of symptom (mild = 2-3, moderate = 4 plus loss of functioning), severity of symptoms, degree of distress and affect on ADLs (SAND – Symptom no. ADLs affected, Number of symptoms, Distress experienced); associated with psychosis (mood congruent, nihilistic, guilty delusions, derogatory voices) = always severe

230
Q

Beck’s cognitive triad?

A

(-ve and pessimistic thoughts) – the self, the world and the future

231
Q

Delusions in depression?

A

usually nihilistic, hypochondriacal, concerning illness or death

232
Q

Atypical depression S+Ss?

A

initial anxiety-related insomnia, oversleeping, increased appetite, relatively bright and reactive mood (think of opposite to what would expect in other symptoms)

233
Q

Depression associated with?

A

anxiety disorders, eating disorders, PD and substance misuse

234
Q

Differentials of depression?

A

with normal sadness after bereavement or during an illness; psychotic depression with negative schizophrenia; depressive retardation with chronic schizophrenia; with drug or alcohol withdrawal

235
Q

Aetiology of depression?

A

monoamine neurotransmitter availability in synaptic cleft (adrenaline and noradrenaline) is reduced in depressed patients and antidepressants increase availability; hypercortisolaemia in severe depression; cytokines and limbic system can contribute

236
Q

Rfs for depression?

A

psychosocial, recent adverse event, childhood stress/abuse, women after childbirth, illnesses and medications (acne isotretinoin and steroids, antihypertensives, beta blockers, benzodiazepines)

237
Q

Scores used for depression?

A

PHQ9, hospital anxiety and depression scores used

238
Q

Depression increasing risk of?

A

CV and gastro deaths

239
Q

Management and treatment of depression?

A

treat comorbidities, assess self-harm/suicide risk
o Mild – self-help groups, structured physical activity groups, guided self-help, computerised CBT
o Doesn’t work – individual CBT, interpersonal therapy
o Moderate to severe – give antidepressants, continue these for at least 6 months to reduce relapse but also up to 5 years, taper slowly out to prevent withdrawal
o Resistant depression – antidepressant with mood stabiliser (lithium), atypical antipsychotic or another antidepressant
o ECT – severe cases for psychosis and if food and fluids refused

240
Q

What is post-natal depression and the problems surrounding it?

A

within first year post-natal; can affect child; suicide can be common; likely if other mental health problems and normal factors surrounding mother; same as depression but most women don’t seek help as don’t want baby going into care

241
Q

Post-natal depression assessment?

A

past mental health, substance misuse, attitude of pregnancy, relationships, social network, domestic violence, housing and physical wellbeing

242
Q

What is post-partum psychosis?

A

not very common; depressive, manic, delusions, hallucinations and odd beliefs about baby

243
Q

Personality of people with eating disorders?

A

anxious, obsessive compulsive, depressive and low self-esteem; anorexia usually constricted affect and emotional expressiveness; bulimia usually impulsive

244
Q

Aetiology of eating disorders?

A

altered 5-HT brain serotonin for appetite, mood and impulse control

245
Q

Early childhood of people with eating disorders?

A

abuse; overprotective/controlling; food, body-shape and eating overvalued; troubled family relationships; ridiculed coz of size/weight; culture

246
Q

Anorexia nervosa restrictive and bulimic definitions?

A

o Restrictive (low food intake and exercise) and bulimic (binge-eating with laxative and vomiting) subtypes

247
Q

Anorexia diagnosis?

A

fear of fatness, deliberate weight loss, distorted body image, BMI<17.5/<85% predicted, amenorrhoea, loss of sexual interest and prepubertal development arrest

248
Q

What is the SCOFF questionnaire?

A

sick, loss of control, one stone in 3 months, considered fat and food dominates life

249
Q

Anorexia S+Ss?

A

preoccupation with food (dieting, food plans), public eating self-consciousness, vigorous exercise, constipation, cold intolerance, depressive and obsessive compulsive symptoms
o Physical signs: emaciation (abnormally thin/weak), dry and yellow skin, fine lanugo hair, bradycardia and hypotension, anaemia and leucopenia, repeated vomiting (hypokalaemia, alkalosis, pitted teeth, parotid swelling, scarring of dorsum of hand (russell’s sign)

250
Q

Anorexia differentials?

A

diabetes, depression, psychotic disorders, substance/alcohol abuse

251
Q

Anorexia management and treatment?

A

people often don’t think anything is wrong and like the way they look; monitor physical health; adolescents = family interventions first; adults = CBT, IPT, focal psychodynamic therapy and family therapy; severe = nasogastric feeding under mental health act; hospitalise if severe/raid weight loss or BMI<13.5, significant suicide risk and chronic starving/purging; risedronate,

252
Q

Bulimia nervosa diagnosis?

A

morbid fear of fatness; craving for food and binge-eating (>2000kcal per session), purging (vomiting, laxative use, diuretics, enemas, omitting insulin if diabetic, fasting, excessive exercise); preoccupation with weight

253
Q

Bulimia S+Ss?

A

normal or excessive weight, loss of control in binging, intense self-loathing, depression; multi-impulsive bulimia = alcohol and drug misuse, deliberate self-harm, stealing/sexual disinhibition, poor impulse control mainly
o Physical signs: amenorrhoea, hypokalaemia (dysrhythmias, renal damage), signs of excessive vomiting (mallory-weiss tear etc)

254
Q

Bulimia rare causes?

A

kleine-levin and kluver-bucy syndromes

255
Q

What is binge-eating disorder and its treatment?

A

o Binge-eating without purging – so become obese

o Treat by psychotherapy and some meds like orlistat if severe and sometimes even gastric banding or bypass surgery

256
Q

3 categories for psychosexual disorders?

A

Function, preference and identity; lots of legal and social implications

257
Q

Disorders of sexual function men examples?

A

erectile dysfunction, ejaculatory failure

258
Q

Disorders of sexual function women examples?

A

low libido, vaginismus (inability to allow penetration), dyspareunia (painful intercourse), lack of sexual enjoyment and orgasmic dysfunction

259
Q

Disorders of sexual function assessment?

A

examine both partners and identify nature of problem; couple’s attitudes to sex and reason why came to you

260
Q

Disorders of sexual function aetiology?

A

main past trauma etc, poor relationship with partner, physical conditions (neuro, diabetes, hypothyroidism, pelvic surgery), sexual dysfunction physical, psych conditions (depression, substance misuse, anxiety), prescribed drugs (beta-blockers, diuretics, antipsychotics, benzodiazepines, antidepressants, recreationals)

261
Q

Disorders of sexual function management and treatment?

A

oral phosphodiesterase inhibitors (sildenafil) for ED; low-dose antidepressants for premature ejaculation; ED = vacuum pumps, penile bands and intracavernosal drugs like alprostadil; cognitive based therapies; education and dispelling sexual myths; sex/couples therapy

262
Q

Other name for disorder of sexual preference?

A

paraphilias

263
Q

What is not involved in disorder of sexual preference?

A

homosexuality

264
Q

what are examples of disorders of sexual preference?

A
o	Give sexual excitement
o	Variations of sexual act:	
	Paedophilia
	Fetishism (inanimate object)
	Transvestism (cross-dressing)
	Bestiality
	Necrophilia
265
Q

Management of disorders of sexual preference?

A

behaviour therapy and sometimes antiandrogens in paedophiles

266
Q

Variations of the sexual act examples?

A

 Exhibitionism – indecent exposure; either those with aggressive personality traits or antisocial personality disorders or inhibited temperament where penis = flaccid
 Voyeurism – observe sexual acts
 Frotteurism – rubbing genital against stranger in crowd
 Sadomasochism – inflicting pain on other (sadism) or having it on self (masochism)

267
Q

Another name for disorders of sexual identity?

A

gender dysphoria

268
Q

S+Ss of transsexuality?

A

o Often starts in childhood – cross-dressing, cross-gender roles in games and fantasy, past-times thought of for opposite sex, homosexual men more likely to be open about it then heterosexuals
o Most are men

269
Q

When can you seek gender reassignement surgery?

A

psychologically stable, adopted cross-gender role for at least 2 years, accepts surgical treatment not cure, will participate in pre-surgical psychotherapy

270
Q

Most common abused illicit substances?

A

• Cannabis is most abused illicit substance then coke, MD, amphetamines and amyl nitrate (poppers)

271
Q

Acute intoxication definition?

A

after use = disturbance in consciousness, cognition, behaviour and affect

272
Q

Harmful use of substance abuse definition?

A

damage to health and effects on family and society

273
Q

Dependence definition (CAN’T STOP)?

A

Compulsion, Aware of harms but persist, Neglect of activities, Tolerance, Stopping causes withdrawal, Time preoccupied with substance, Out of control of use, Persistent

274
Q

Withdrawal state definiton?

A

physical and psychological symptoms after stop after prolonged and/or high use

275
Q

Psychotic disorder defintion?

A

psychosis during or immediately after taking illicit substances

276
Q

Amnesic disorder definition?

A

memory and cognitive impairments

277
Q

Residual and late onset psychotic disorders S+Ss?

A

effects on behaviour, affect, personality or cognition that last after drug effect

278
Q

RFs for substance misuse?

A

peer pressure, desire for pleasurable effect, prescribed drug misuse, psych illness (impulsivity/anxiety/borderline/PD), can exacerbate depression and anxiety and psychosis; use a multi-disciplinary team in these circumstances

279
Q

Withdrawal S+Ss?

A

late-onset (7-10 days later) and bad symptoms = mydriasis (pupil dilation), abdo cramps, diarrhoea, agitation, restlessness, piloerection (‘goose-flesh), tachycardia

280
Q

Management and treatment of substance misuse?

A

can be offered rewards (goods/services) if -ve drug test or harm reduction; CBT, motivational interviewing, self-help groups; needle exchange for those at infection risk

281
Q

Examples of opiates?

A

heroine, morphine, methadone

282
Q

Opiates S+Ss of tolerance and withdrawal?

A

flu-like,, sweating and yawning) develop quickly

283
Q

Opiates detoxification and treatments for this?

A

lasts between 4-12 weeks; methadone (opioid agonist) or buprenophrine (partial opioid agonist) first-line as less euphoric and long half-life compared to abusive opioids; lofexidine is used where milder abuse and for shorter detox

284
Q

Opiates progression after detoxification entails?

A

from maintenance (getting off illicit substances just to prescribed), detoxification and abstinence

285
Q

What is naltrexone?

A

opioid antagonist used to prevent relapse as blocks their effects

286
Q

What is naloxone used for?

A

used for overdose (miosis, respiratory depression)

287
Q

Examples of hallucinogens?

A

o Magic mushrooms, LSD, MD, GHB, GBL

288
Q

Examples of stimulants?

A

cocaine, amphetamines, methamphetamine, naphyrone, mephedrone, amyl nitrate

289
Q

Cocaine S+Ss?

A

effects resemble hypomania (restlessness, increased energy, no fatigue and hunger) and last 20 minutes; hallucinations and paranoid psychoses, pre-withdrawal = dysphoria, insomnia and depression

290
Q

Amphetamines, methamphetamine, naphyrone, mephedrone, amyl nitrate S+Ss?

A
o	Amphetamines (speed) – similar to cocaine
o	Methamphetamine – similar but more potent and long-lasting
o	Naphyrone and mephedrone – close to amphetamines but legal highs but now class B drugs
o	Amyl nitrate – fatal if swallowed and toxic
291
Q

Cannabis S+Ss?

A

euphoric, relaxed, hallucinations, high appetite and low body temp; lung disease, low sperm, flashbacks and psychosis, depression

292
Q

Benzodiazepines risks?

A

dependence, dangerous withdrawals and tolerance

293
Q

Solvents S+Ss?

A

sniffed and red rash around mouth; euphoria followed by drowsiness; psychological dependence common; weight loss, nausea, vomiting, polyneuropathy, low cognition; can have fatal SEs (bronchospasm, arrythmias, aplastic anaemia, organ damage)

294
Q

What is phencyclidine and S+Ss?

A

aka PCP; euphoria, analgesic, psychosis, impaired consciousness

295
Q

What is Khat and S+Ss?

A

somali and yemen; excitement and euphoria

296
Q

Define a unit of alcohol?

A

10mL/8g

297
Q

Units per week/day?

A
  • Units per week – 14 and 2 drink-free days per week

* Units per day – 4 for men and 3 for women

298
Q

S+Ss acute alcohol intoxification?

A

bit like cerebellar dysfunction; slurring, low coordination, labile affect, hypoglycaemia, stupor and coma

299
Q

S+Ss acute alcohol withdrawal?

A

mainly shaking and feeling fluey (1/2 days after) – malaise, nausea, autonomic hyperactivity, labile mood, insomnia, transient hallucinations or illusions, seizures, delirium tremens (hyperadrenergic state – emergency)

300
Q

RFs alcohol abuse?

A

medical inpatients, mental illness and 2+ drink drive offences

301
Q

CAGE questionnaire?

A

ever tried Cutting down?, people Annoyed you by suggesting it?, felt Guilty about drinking?, ever needed an Eye-opener (early morning drink)?; then use FAST alcohol test

302
Q

Signs of alcohol abuse?

A

liver disease signs, peripheral neuropathy, macrocytosis, raised GGT, ALT and AST and CDT

303
Q

Aetiology of alcohol abuse?

A

genetic, occupation (high risk), cultural (Scottish and irish), cost to drink, avoiding withdrawal, chronic illness

304
Q

Complications of alcohol abuse?

A

wernicke’s encephalopathy (ataxia, nystagmus, acute confusion, ophthalmoplegia – like have cerebellar dysfunction); peripheral neuropathy; ED; cerebellar degeneration; dementia; depression; suicide; severe anxiety; insomnia; foetal alcohol syndrome

305
Q

Management and treatment of alcohol abuse?

A

rapid detailing sedation to control withdrawal and seizures; delirium tremens treated with lorazepam or antipsychotics; rehydration with electrolytes (pabrinex) and thiamine; motivational interviewing on what treatment and why to stop; psych therapies (self-help groups, meds like disulfiram [can’t metabolise so feel ill], acamprosate [reduces cravings], naltrexone [reduces opioid effects])

306
Q

Basis of psychological therapies?

A

educating person about their condition – reflecting on previous life events/relationships; good rapport developed; teach skills around problems
• Choice of therapy guided by patient, cost and illness

307
Q

Types of counselling techniques?

A

non-directive (pt shares), problem solving, cognitive, behavioural, CBT; 6-10 sessions over 8-12 weeks

308
Q

Types of therapies?

A

supportive e.g. counselling, cognitive and behavioural e.g. CBT, psychodynamic psychotherapies e.g. IPT, psychoanalysis

309
Q

What is CBT?

A

challenge automatic and -ve thoughts to modify underlying core beliefs; for anxiety, depression, eating disorders and some PD

310
Q

What is rational behavioural therapy?

A

form of cognitive therapy to teach recognition of beliefs and how cause patient harm

311
Q

What are behavioural therapies and what concepts do they use (ABC)?

A

based on learning theory to condition desirable behaviours by reinforcement; graded-exposure to objects/situations that cause anxiety; reciprocal inhibition uses a response that combats the symptom at the time; behaviour activation is doing activities they avoid; behavioural management therapy uses ABC Antecedents to target behaviour, Behaviour targeted and Consequence where A and C are manipulated to alter behaviour; couples therapy as well

312
Q

What are psychodynamic therapies?

A

based on learning theory to condition desirable behaviours by reinforcement; graded-exposure to objects/situations that cause anxiety; reciprocal inhibition uses a response that combats the symptom at the time; behaviour activation is doing activities they avoid; behavioural management therapy uses ABC Antecedents to target behaviour, Behaviour targeted and Consequence where A and C are manipulated to alter behaviour; couples therapy as well

313
Q

What is transference therapy?

A

pt re-experiences emotions from important relationships with therapist

314
Q

What is counter-transference therapy?

A

therapist has strong emotions to pt

315
Q

When are therapeutic communities used?

A

severe borderline PD and involves group and individual sessions

316
Q

What is interpersonal psychotherapy for and what is it?

A

depression and eating disorders; focuses on interpersonal aspects; role transitions, interpersonal disputes, deficits in number and quality of relationships, grief

317
Q

What is dialectical behavioural therapy and when is it used?

A

for borderline; similar to CBT but also group skills training to give coping strategies alternative to self-harm; mindfulness, emotional regulation, distress tolerance, interpersonal effectiveness

318
Q

What are mentalisation-based treatments and what for?

A

borderline psychodynamic principles; can deduce mental states of behaviour of themselves and others; based on attachment theory

319
Q

What are eye movement desensitisation and reprocessing for and what is it?

A

for PTSD; recall the past event and focus on external stimulus; usually get patient to use lateral eye movements (Saccadic eye movement)

320
Q

What are exposure therapies for?

A

phobias, OCD, PTSD

321
Q

What are the 4 aspects of mental capacity?

A

(4 rule – understand, retain, weigh-up and communicate) – understand info relevant to decision; retain, use and weigh info to come to decision; communicate decision

322
Q

Some principles when lacking capacity?

A
  • Should always try to get people to make decisions for themselves if have capacity and their views if not
  • Repeat capacity as can change and sometimes wait on a decision if lack it temporarily (psychotic episode)
323
Q

What happens when no capacity?

A

o Professional always acts in best interests; consult family/carers and friends and independent mental capacity advocate (IMCA) if this not available

324
Q

What is an LPA?

A

o LASTING POWER OF ATTORNEY – person appointed on their behalf to make decisions for them when they lack capacity (property, financial, personal incl healthcare welfare)

325
Q

What is an advance decision?

A

o ADVANCE DECISIONS – make a decision in advance for certain decisions; can only refuse treatments not demand it

326
Q

What are deprivation of liberty safeguards and when are they used?

A

for people in hosp or carehomes who = deprived of liberty, lack capacity and not sectioned; can only authorise if person is over 18 and if doesn’t interfere with advanced directive or with the LPA, person has mental health disorder, person not detained under MHA and doesn’t need it (only if requires it for the treatment), in person’s best interests; renewed annually and the person can appeal

327
Q

What is fitness to plead and when is it used?

A

jury can decide if they can mount defence against charges: understand the charge, distinguish between guilty and not guilty, instruct lawyers, follow court evidence, challenge jurors; can still have trial of the facts if unfit to plead and if facts proven then flexibility of the case

328
Q

What is men’s rea?

A

if the person can be criminally responsible and has a ‘guilty mind’; not if: age under 10, lack criminal intent, automatism (epilepsy, sleepwalking and concussion), mental disorders

329
Q

What is diminished responsibility?

A

murder to manslaughter due to ‘abnormality of mind’ at the time

330
Q

What is testament capacity?

A

will only valid if: understand will making, appreciate his/her property, be aware who has a reasonable claim to estate

331
Q

Basic outlines of sectioning?

A

pt has severe enough mental health disorder to be kept in hospital for their/others safety, for under longer periods must have appropriate medical intervention, can’t be detained for LD unless aggressive or serious conduct

332
Q

What is a section 12?

A

approved doctor; can be police, psychiatrists and GPs; need at least 1 sectioned 12 approved doctor to section someone for anything; also need an approved mental health professional (mainly social care worker) and a mental disorder/disability of mind (not drugs/alcohol)

333
Q

Aspects to bear in mind when sectioning?

A

• Respect for patients’ past and present wishes; respect for diversity; minimise liberty restrictions; involve pts in planning, developing, delivering care, treatment; avoidance of discrimination; public safety

334
Q

What is a section 2?

A

kept for 28 days for admission of assessment, 2 doctors (one S12 approved), AMHP; evidence needed = pt has mental disorder needing detention in hosp for assessment, for health and safety of themselves or others

335
Q

What is a section 3?

A

up to 6 months for treatment (can be renewed so much longer) – must have a responsible clinician; pt has mental disorder which means medical treatment in hosp, in interests of health and safety of them/others, appropriate treatment plan and diagnosis and treatment availability

336
Q

What is a section 4?

A

emergency and lasts 72 hours (when can’t get both doctors but has to section 12 approved); same reasons for section as 2 but don’t have enough time to get a 2nd doctor

337
Q

What is a section 5(2)?

A

pt already admitted but wanting to leave; doctor’s holding power 72 hours (not s12 approved); allows time for 2 or 3; can’t be coercively treated

338
Q

What is a section 5(4)?

A

same as 5(2) but for nurse and only 6 hours

339
Q

What is a section 135/136 for police?

A

135 court order to remove pt from home; 136 = in public; get them to place of safety (local psych unit/police cell) for further assessment; last for 72 hours

340
Q

What is a community treatment order?

A

must make themselves available for examination and to be given treatment for up to 72 hours at a time (section 4)

341
Q

Who can remove a section?

A

pt’s legal closest relative or at a tribunal

342
Q

What is CAHMS for?

A

ages 4-18 and community based

343
Q

What is psychomotor retardation?

A

decreased spontaneous movement and slowing of voluntary (essentially opposite to catatonia/stupor)

344
Q

What is incongruity of affect?

A

pt thought doesn’t affect outcome of mood (schizophrenia)

345
Q

What is blunting of affect?

A

less emotional sensitivity reaction

346
Q

What is Belle indifference?

A

lack of concern/denial of severe functional disability

347
Q

What is Creutz-feldt Jakob disease (CJD)?

A

communicable disease; 85% sporadic; can be transmitted in neurosurgery

348
Q

CJD S+Ss?

A

myoclonus, visual disturbances, cerebellar, pyramidal and extrapyramidal signs; cognitive and functional impairment; incubation 4-30 years; CJD lasts a few months and neurological whereas nvCJD (from cows) can also be psychiatrics

349
Q

Management and diagnosis for CJD?

A

no cure so management and tonsil biopsy for helping to diagnose

350
Q

Types of fronto-temporal dementia?

A

behavioural variant FTD (main one), progressive non-fluent aphasia, semantic dementia

351
Q

Proteins involved in fronto-temporal dementia?

A

tau, FUS and TDP-43 proteins

352
Q

S+Ss behavioural FTD?

A

loss of inhibition, inappropriate social behaviour, loss of motivation, repetitive behaviours, loss of control, difficulty planning, lack of insight, loss of awareness of hygiene

353
Q

S+Ss semantic FTD?

A

loss of vocab, can’t find right word, can’t recognise people, memory preserved, slow aphasia; best prognosis

354
Q

Investigations FTD?

A

o Bloods = dementia screen, ammonia, ESR, toxicology (if encephalopathy)
o If parkinsonism – screen for caeruloplasmin and serum copper for Wilson’s

355
Q

HIV encephalopathy S+Ss?

A

in 16% with AIDS; first conc and memory and depression then intellect; slow movements

356
Q

Neurosyphilis S+Ss?

A

dorsal column loss, dementia and meningovascular involvement

357
Q

Wilson’s disease S+Ss?

A

young adults seen as neuropsychiatric; severe depression common also behaviour and psych

358
Q

Wernicke-Korsakoff’s syndrome causes?

A

thiamine deficiency from alcohol abuse; neuronal loss in cerebral cortex, hypothalamus and cerebellum; also chronic subdural haematoma

359
Q

Wernicke-Korsakoff’s syndrome S+Ss?

A

N+V, confusion, fatigue, weakness, apathy, diplopia and eye drooping, anterograde and retrograde amnesia, disorientation, polyneuropathy, low reflexes, gait abnormal, low bp, maybe cachectic

360
Q

Treatment for wernicke-korsakoff’s syndrome?

A

oral thiamine

361
Q

Psychosis S+Ss?

A

• Can’t: think clearly, respond with appropriate emotion, communicate effectively, understand reality and behave appropriately

362
Q

When does psychosis happen?

A

schizophrenia, depression, bipolar, puerperal psychosis, drug/alcohol abuse

363
Q

Psychosis treatment and management?

A

• Reduce symptoms, initiate treatment, maximise ability to ADL, prevent relapse; may have to initiate immediate tranquilisation

364
Q

What is neurosis?

A

less severe than psychosis (internal struggles and mental/physical disturbances)

365
Q

What are positive and negative symptoms of psychosis?

A

• Positive symptoms = symptoms before psychosis that pt doesn’t have and -ve symptoms is opposite to this

366
Q

Acute and transient psychosis what is it and how is it treated?

A

disorder most affecting females; around 17 days and onset acute; good response to antipsychotics; better postepisodic functioning than after schizophrenia psychosis episode

367
Q

Frontal lobe syndrome S+Ss?

A

deterioration in personality and behaviour; lack of spontaneous activity, loss of attention, memory unimpaired, perserveration and change of affect; signs = go no go (ask patient to hold up two fingers when you hold one), visual grasp, letter fluency and motor test

368
Q

Somatic symptom disorder S+Ss?

A

• Chronic and many physical complaints; multiple, recurrent and changing symptoms; happens before age 30 and more in women; can affect ADLs; symptoms = SOB, palpitations, chest pain, vomiting, abdo pain, joint pain, headaches, dizziness, vision changes and dysuria (basically think how old person is)

369
Q

Somatic symptom disorder treatment?

A

antidepressants

370
Q

What is neuroleptic malignant syndrome and S+Ss?

A

• Rare but life-threatening reaction to neuroleptic drugs – fever, muscle-rigidity, altered mental state, autonomic dysfunction

371
Q

Treatment for neuroleptic malignant syndrome?

A

Bromocriptine

372
Q

What is ADHD?

A

o Persistent patten of inattention and/or hyperactivity and impulsivity than normal; combined, predominantly inattention or predominantly hyperactivity-impulsivity

373
Q

Risks from ADHD?

A

self-harm, substance misuse, anxiety, academic underachievement

374
Q

Management of ADHD?

A

o Watchful waiting (10 weeks) first to see if can adjust life (reduce certain food groups); only give drugs to those not responsive to therapy (parent-training) and moderate/severe

375
Q

What is tourette’s?

A

neuropsychiatric condition with motor and vocal tics; fluctuating; can be associated with OCD

376
Q

What are tics?

A

sudden, purposeless, repetitive, non-rhythmic, stereotyped movements/vocalisations; persist more than 1 year

377
Q

Features other than tics for tourettes?

A

echolalia (copying others), palilalia (repeating own words), coprolalia (dirty words), copropraxia (obscene gestures), echopraxia and difficulty concentrating

378
Q

Factors to modify in ADHD?

A

o Education, reduce stress etc, behavioural and psychosocial factors good to modify

379
Q

Drugs for moderate to severe ADHD?

A

riseridone, sulpiride; haloperidol for treatment of tics

380
Q

What is enuresis?

A

Bedwetting with no pathology

381
Q

S+Ss enuresis?

A

excess urine, poor sleep arousal, reduced bladder capacity; primary nocturnal enuresis = more than 5 with/without daytime

382
Q

RFs enuresis?

A

male, daytime incontinence, FH, obesity, sleep apnoea, spina bifida, Down’s, stress

383
Q

Enuresis questions for hx?

A

frequency, pattern, time, wake after, daytime, soiling, fluid intake, reason for consultation

384
Q

When to refer for enuresis?

A

severe daytime, recurrent UTIs, abnormal renal US, physical/neuro problems, not responded after 6 months

385
Q

Management and treatment of enuresis?

A

avoid caffeine and reward good toileting; alarm training; desmopressin and imipramine for resistant cases

386
Q

Asperger’s definition?

A

lies in ASD; high functionality than autism; difficulties understanding and processing language; usually obsessed with complex subjects; poor imagination; solitary but socially aware

387
Q

What is separation anxiety disorder and S+Ss?

A

fear affecting when think about separating from home or people attached to; usually ends aged 2; may have physical (headache, nausea and vomiting, nightmares); more than 4 weeks in children and 6 months in adults; anti-anxiety meds

388
Q

What are the RFs for delirium (CHIMPS PHONED)?

A
Constipation
Hypoxia
Infection
Metabolic disturbance
Pain
Sleeplessness
Prescriptions
Hypothermia/pyrexia
Organ dysfunction (hepatic or renal impairment)
Nutrition
Environmental changes
Drugs (over the counter, illicit, recreational, their partner/neighbour/pets’, alcohol and smoking)
389
Q

Order for looking into causes for a psychiatric diagnosis?

A

• Organic, then drugs, then psychosis, then depression then anxiety

390
Q

General investigations for organic causes?

A

Basic bloods, imaging, blood-testing towards known effects of medication, dementia screens, blood testing of plasma levels of medication, urine drug screens

391
Q

What basic bloods are tested?

A

FBC, U+E, LFT, glucose, TSH

392
Q

What blood testing for known effects of medications are there example?

A

Prolactin for antipsychotics

393
Q

What directed imaging is used?

A

X-ray, CT or MRI

394
Q

What blood plasma levels of drugs examples are there?

A

Lithium, clozpine for compliance etc

395
Q

What directed dementia screens are there (exclude delirium)?

A

FBC, U+E, LFT, ESR, TFT, B12/folate, glucose, syphilis, CT/MRI

396
Q

What is a Lilliputian hallucination?

A

See small figures dotting around (in alcohol withdrawal)

397
Q

When is an affective illusion seen?

A

Depression

398
Q

What is a pareidolic illusion?

A

Like seeing a face in a cloud

399
Q

Memory therapies and strategies for those with dementia?

A

Doll therapy (https://www.dementiauk.org/get-support/complementary-approaches/doll-therapy/), music/aromatherapy, occupational therapy, recreation therapy, nostalgia therapy, dementia cafes, day-care hospitals (have a lot of the therapies in there), memory nurses, trackers, increased security, training for abuse for carers to protect pts

400
Q

What do you treat acute dystonia with?

A

Procyclidine

401
Q

In what conditions would you refer to inpatients for pts stopping alcohol?

A

withdrawals in past, delirium tremens in past, epilepsy, drink over 30 units, score more than 30 on SADQ, need concurrent withdrawal from alcohol and benzos, regularly drink 15-30 units pre day and have significant LD or cognitive impairment or psych or physical comorbidity

402
Q

When would you tend to get pseudo-hallucinations?

A

In non-psychotic illness like depression

403
Q

How to differentiate between a personality disorder and traits of PD (the 3 Ps)?

A

usually disorder if it’s a problem for them or others, persistent through their life and perseverant in all aspects of their life (3 Ps – if not all Ps but some then can be traits of a PD)

404
Q

What to use for short-term in mania/hypomania treatment?

A

Antipsychotics

405
Q

Treatment for cyclothymia?

A

Primarily CBT but sometimes mood stabiliser trial

406
Q

Stages of depression?

A

mild = 2 core and 2 others, moderate = 2/3 and 3 others plus loss of functioning, severe = all 3 core plus 4 other

407
Q

What is dysthymia and S+Ss?

A

less severe depression; less ADLs affected; symptoms do not present for more than 2 weeks; very pessimistic and glass half empty personality

408
Q

What is seasonal affective disorder and S+Ss?

A

time of year depression (cyclical); get more hungry and more sleepy as well as other 3 core symptoms of depression; more depressed in the evening

409
Q

Give a focused alcohol history?

A

drinking pattern (everyday/weekends), time of day; what do they drink; when; how much per day; where, who with; what makes drink less/more in a day; spenditure on alcohol; compulsion?, how important is drinking to you, if you stop do you notice -ve change in mood/physical signs (sick/sweating/shakes), do have to drink more than used to, to feel the effects?, impact of drinking on jobs and ADLs, alcohol-related crime, previous attempts at abstinence, desire to stop drinking

410
Q

What is dependence syndrome?

A

3+ of these S+Ss in the same year: strong desire to take, difficulties in controlling taking, withdrawal state if stop or use to stop withdrawal, tolerance evidence, neglect of pleasurable activities, keep using substance despite evidence to show its harm

411
Q

What is substance tolerance?

A

A condition that occurs when the body gets used to a substance so that either more substance is needed to feel the effects or different substance is needed

412
Q

Short term effects of heroine use?

A

the rush is usually accompanied by a warm flushing of the skin, dry mouth, and a heavy feeling in the extremities. Nausea, vomiting, and severe itching may also occur. After the initial effects, users usually will be drowsy for several hours; mental function is clouded; heart function slows; and breathing is also severely slowed, sometimes enough to be life-threatening. Slowed breathing can also lead to coma and permanent brain damage

413
Q

Long-term effects of heroine use?

A

changes the physical structure13 and physiology of the brain, creating long-term imbalances in neuronal and hormonal systems that are not easily reversed.14,15 Studies have shown some deterioration of the brain’s white matter due to heroin use, which may affect decision-making abilities, the ability to regulate behavior, and responses to stressful situations.16-18 Heroin also produces profound degrees of tolerance and physical dependence

414
Q

Define a legal high?

A

a drug that is taken for pleasure and has the same effect as an illegal drug, but has not been made illegal

415
Q

SEs and risks of taking legal highs?

A

agitation, paranoia, drowsiness, coma, seizure, death; risks = don’t know what they contain, significant risk if mix with alcohol/other drugs, more likely to engage in risky behaviour, can dehydrate and overheat, long-term mental health problems, synthetic cannabinoids more likely to cause long-term depression and psychosis

416
Q

Difference between learning difficulty and disability?

A

o a learning disability constitutes a condition which affects learning and intelligence across all areas of life
o a learning difficulty constitutes a condition which creates an obstacle to a specific form of learning, but does not affect the overall IQ of an individual

417
Q

Types of abuse and neglect?

A

Physical, sexual, emotional, discriminatory, neglect, domestic, financial

418
Q

Risks when overdosing on tricyclic antidepressants?

A

Seizures and death

419
Q

Time to stop taking antidepressives after last depressive episode?

A

2 years

420
Q

How long to wait for antidepressant effects seen?

A

4 weeks

421
Q

Chemicals lacking and high in depression in the body?

A

low BDNF and low neuroplasticity and high glutamate release; MAO low

422
Q

What is the neuroplasticity hypothesis for depression?

A

Low neuroplasticity in depressed so fewer neural pathways formed (antidepressants form more)

423
Q

What is the salience hypothesis in psychosis?

A

associating something with importance; psychosis hypothesis where associate something with the wrong importance

424
Q

What is the mesocortical pathway for?

A

executive function and cognitive control of emotions

425
Q

What is the nigrostriatal pathway do in antipsychotics?

A

Contribute the movement component

426
Q

What is the tuberoinfundibular pathway do in antipsychotics?

A

increase in prolactin

427
Q

What is neuroleptic syndrome and S+Ss?

A

from antipsychotic use; pyrexia, muscle stiffness, raised CK, tremor, delirium; treat with DA agonists like bromocriptine

428
Q

What long-acting benzodiazepine would you use for alcohol withdrawal?

A

Chlordiazepoxide

429
Q

Give S+Ss and treatment for wernicke’s syndrome?

A

ophthalmoplegia, gait ataxia, alteration of consciousness and give glucose with thiamine

430
Q

When is family therapy used?

A

Mainly in CAMHS for eating disorders

431
Q

What is family therapy?

A

sometimes observed by other therapists through black glass; systemic works with family’s strengths to help families think about different ways of helping

432
Q

SEs of olanzapine?

A

side effect is weight gain, impaired glucose tolerance and increased appetite for sugary foods, drowsiness

433
Q

Why is aripiprazole useful in certain situations?

A

can give this if hyperprolactinaemia as can bring prolactin levels down

434
Q

What is a 117 (when thinking about a section 3)?

A

after discharge can get a 117 which gives discounts and support in social care

435
Q

IQ for borderline LD?

A

70-85

436
Q

IQ for mild, moderate, sever and profound LD?

A

50-69, 35-49, 20-35 and below 20

437
Q

LD definition?

A

Onset in development and problems with intellectual and adaptive functioning and deficit in conceptual, social and practical domains

438
Q

LD 3 criteria?

A

Deficits in intellectual (reasoning, problem-solving, abstract thinking etc - basically IQ) and adaptive (can’t meet developmental and sociocultural standards) and this onset must be in the developmental period (0-18yrs)

439
Q

Prenatal LDs?

A

Genetic (Down and Fragile X), inborn errors of metabolism, brain malformation (microcephaly), maternal disease (placental disease), environmental (fetal alcohol syndrome, other drugs/toxins/teratogens), infection, toxins, maternal health, nutrition

440
Q

Perinatal LD?

A

Prematurity, birth anoxia

441
Q

Post-natal LD?

A

Hypoxic ischemic injury

  • Traumatic brain injury
  • Infections
  • Demyelinating disorders
  • Seizure disorders (e.g., infantile spasms)
  • Severe and chronic social deprivation including malnutrition
  • Toxic metabolic syndromes and intoxications (e.g. lead/ mercury)
442
Q

What is a challenging behaviour and some examples in LD?

A

Can get them locked up and hard to deal with; violence, aggression, hyperactivity, withdrawal, shouting/screaming, sexual aberrance, self-injuries

443
Q

Examples of genetic and inherited LDs?

A
	Downs [21] chromosomal
	Turners
	Klinefelter’s XXY
	XYY syndrome
	Tuberous sclerosis
	Prader Willi and Angleman’s syndromes [15q deletion] genetic
	15q duplication syndrome
	22q11.5 deletion syndrome
	Phenylketonuria [phenylalanine hydroxylase gene and enzyme dysfunction]
	Hydrocephalus
	Fetal alcohol syndrome
444
Q

Treatment for severe depression?

A

give medication first then therapy; if with psychosis give with antipsychotics; benzodiazepines if extreme psychosis distress; sleeping agents if struggling to sleep

445
Q

What delusions tend to be mood incongruent?

A

Psychotic

446
Q

Organic differentials for mood changes?

A

MS, stroke, diabetes, brain tumour, hypothyroidism

447
Q

Organic differentials for insomnia?

A

sleep apnoea, hyperthyroidism, GORD, pain

448
Q

Organic differentials for confusion?

A

renal failure, cerebral arteritis, sepsis

449
Q

Organic differentials for personality change?

A

MS, mass lesion, SLE

450
Q

Organic differentials for hallucinations?

A

migraine, substance abuse, encephalitis, seizures

451
Q

Organic differentials for behavioural change?

A

lyme, vascular infarct, Parkinson’s, subdural haematoma, mass lesion

452
Q

Organic differentials for psychosis?

A

sensory loss, syphilis, dementia, Wilson’s

453
Q

Organic differentials for irritability?

A

vitamin B12 deficient, drug withdrawal, substance misuse

454
Q

Causes for Parkinson facies?

A

Antipsychotics and depression

455
Q

Causes for abnormal pupils?

A

opiate

456
Q

Argyll-Robertson pupil causes?

A

Neurosyphilis

457
Q

Enlarged parotids causes?

A

Bulimia

458
Q

Hypersalivation causes?

A

clozapine

459
Q

Goitre causes?

A

Thyroid disease

460
Q

Multiple forearm scars causes?

A

BPD

461
Q

Needle tracks causes?

A

IVDU

462
Q

Gynaecomastia causes?

A

Antipsychotics, alcoholic liver disease

463
Q

Russell’s sign causes?

A

Bulimia

464
Q

Lanugo hair causes?

A

Anorexia

465
Q

Piloerection causes?

A

opiate withdrawal

466
Q

Excessive thinness causes?

A

anorexia

467
Q

Primary definition?

A

directly from disordered mental states

468
Q

Secondary definition?

A

reaction to something as a result of condition

469
Q

Congruent/incongruent definition?

A

affect is aligned with mood or not

470
Q

Form definition?

A

Type of experience from the symptom

471
Q

Content definition?

A

Composition of symptom

472
Q

Structural definition?

A

Observable structural abnormalities

473
Q

Functional definition?

A

Outcome of an abnormality

474
Q

ICD 10 classification hierarchy?

A
  • Organic, including symptomatic, mental disorders
  • Mental and behavioural disorders due to psychoactive substance use
  • Schizophrenia, schizotypal and delusional disorders
  • Mood [affective] disorders
  • Neurotic, stress-related and somatoform disorders
  • Behavioural syndromes associated with physiological disturbances and physical factors
  • Disorders of adult personality and behaviour
  • Mental retardation
  • Disorders of psychological development
  • Behavioural and emotional disorders with onset usually occurring in childhood and adolescence
  • Unspecified mental disorder
475
Q

Schizoaffective disorder defintion?

A

symptoms of schizophrenia and mood disorders (antipsychotic and mood stabiliser)

476
Q

Definition of schizophreniform disorder?

A

some traits of schizophrenia but doesn’t meet threshold for diagnosis

477
Q

Anxiety disorder treatments?

A

symptom control (explain that symptoms cannot cause harm), meditation, exercise, progressive relaxation exercises (deep-breathing), CBT, behavioural therapy, hypnosis, medication

478
Q

S+Ss of dementia in general?

A

restless, repetitive activity, rigid, fixed routine; sexual disinhibition, social gaffes, shoplifting, blunting; syntax errors, dysphasia, mutism; slow, muddled thinking; bad memory; illusions and hallucinations; irritable, depressed, emotional incontinence

479
Q

4 As of Alzheimer’s?

A

amnesia, aphasia, agnosia, apraxia

480
Q

2 types of reactive attachment disorders?

A

reactive either: disinhibited (seek comfort from everyone even strangers) or inhibited (withdrawn and detached from everyone); can be diagnosed before 5yrs

481
Q

3 core symptoms of conduct disorder?

A

defiance of will of authority, aggression, antisocial behaviour

482
Q

What medication to control seizure threshold in LD?

A

Antipsychotics

483
Q

CHANGE VIEW for explaining CBT?

A

change = thoughts and actions; homework = practice makes perfect; action = don’t just talk, do; need = pinpoint problem; goals = move towards them; evidence = CBT can work; view = events from other angle; I can do it = self-help approach; experience = test out beliefs; write it down = to remember progress

484
Q

Types of behavioural psychotherapy?

A

relaxation therapy (muscle group relaxation can form part of this); systematic desensitisation; response prevention; exposure therapy; thought stopping therapy; aversion therapy; social skills training; token economy; modelling and role play therapy

485
Q

Counselling definition?

A

2 people talking together to find a solution to a stressful situation/problem

486
Q

Supportive psychotherapy definition?

A

only time therapist engages in a supportive and encouraging way (uses psychodynamic, interpersonal and CBT approaches)

487
Q

Qualities of pt eligible for group therapies?

A

enter voluntarily, think it will be as good as individual, good verbal and conceptual skills

488
Q

Illnesses indicated for group therapy?

A

PD, addictions, drug and alcohol misuse, victims of childhood abuse, difficulty in socialising, major medical illnesses

489
Q

Who is play therapy offered for?

A

kids mainly 3-11yrs as can communicate better how they are feeling this way

490
Q

Types of play therapy?

A

either directive (structured by therapist) or non-directive

491
Q

What is art therapy?

A

using art materials for self-expression and reflection

492
Q

Who is indicated for using art therapy?

A

mental health, LD, palliative care, disaster zones, prisons

493
Q

Brain areas implicated in stress response?

A

amygdala, hippocampus, and prefrontal cortex

494
Q

What effect does traumatic/acute stress have upon the structural and functional aspects of the brain?

A

Traumatic stress is associated with increased cortisol and norepinephrine responses to subsequent stressors. Antidepressants have effets on the hippocampus that counteract the effects of stress. Findings from animal studies have been extended to patients with post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) showing smaller hippocampal and anterior cingulate volumes, increased amygdala function, and decreased medial prefrontal/anterior cingulate function. In addition, patients with PTSD show increased cortisol and norepinephrine responses to stress

495
Q

What is a section 37?

A

A court decides instead of going to prison you go to hospital for treatment

496
Q

What is a section 41?

A

A judge decides certain restrictions must be placed on the pt for public safety (it is a court order by the crown court)

497
Q

What SSRI is licensed for neuropathic pain?

A

Duloxetine

498
Q

Treatment of antipsychotic akathisia?

A

Reduce dose and use propanolol/diazepam

499
Q

Why not give sodium valproate to child bearing age mothers?

A

Teratogenic

500
Q

Treatment for neuroleptic malignant syndrome?

A

stop drug and treat symptoms with diazepam (tremors), dantrolene and bromocriptine (high temp)

501
Q

Treatment for OCD?

A

Sertraline

502
Q

Difference between OCD and OCPD?

A

OCPD enjoy it more and don’t see it as a problem unlike OCD where it is more unpleasant; ego-syntonic in OCPD and ego-dystonic in OCD

503
Q

3 types of attachment styles and cause?

A

secure (type B), insecure avoidant (type A), insecure ambivalent/resistant (type C); due to early interactions with mother

504
Q

Attachment in BPD?

A

insecurity in their sense of self and relationships; fear abandonment

505
Q

What is refeeding syndrome?

A

potentially fatal shifts in fluids and electrolytes that may occur in malnourished patients receiving artificial refeeding (whether enterally or parenterally5). These shifts result from hormonal and metabolic changes and may cause serious clinical complications. The hallmark biochemical feature of refeeding syndrome is hypophosphataemia.

506
Q

Pathophysiology of refeeding syndrome?

A
  • During prolonged fasting, hormonal and metabolic changes are aimed at preventing protein and muscle breakdown. Muscle and other tissues decrease their use of ketone bodies and use fatty acids as the main energy source. This results in an increase in blood levels of ketone bodies, stimulating the brain to switch from glucose to ketone bodies as its main energy source. The liver decreases its rate of gluconeogenesis, thus preserving muscle protein. During the period of prolonged starvation, several intracellular minerals become severely depleted. However, serum concentrations of these minerals (including phosphate) may remain normal. This is because these minerals are mainly in the intracellular compartment, which contracts during starvation. In addition, there is a reduction in renal excretion.
  • Refeeding
  • During refeeding, glycaemia leads to increased insulin and decreased secretion of glucagon. Insulin stimulates glycogen, fat, and protein synthesis. This process requires minerals such as phosphate and magnesium and cofactors such as thiamine. Insulin stimulates the absorption of potassium into the cells through the sodium-potassium ATPase symporter, which also transports glucose into the cells. Magnesium and phosphate are also taken up into the cells. Water follows by osmosis. These processes result in a decrease in the serum levels of phosphate, potassium, and magnesium, all of which are already depleted. The clinical features of the refeeding syndrome occur as a result of the functional deficits of these electrolytes and the rapid change in basal metabolic rate.
507
Q

NICE guidelines for refeeding?

A

• The NICE guidelines recommend that refeeding is started at no more than 50% of energy requirements in “patients who have eaten little or nothing for more than 5 days.” The rate can then be increased if no refeeding problems are detected on clinical and biochemical monitoring

508
Q

What section is used for force feeding anorexic patients?

A

can force-feed anorexic as long as its treatment for the disorder using a section 63

509
Q

Give an overview of CAMHS and AMHs?

A

• CAHMS is ages 4-18 and community based; deal with families; 50% mental health manifests at 14yrs;
o AHM – focussed around individual; FH; MHA common
o CAHMS – FH, early life (events, development); less pharma used; wider range of therapies (play and art therapy); young person and family always interviewed; schools give a good insight into social and academic progression, have to have young person’s and fam’s permission first tho; good to have a good connection with the schools

510
Q

Questions to ask a child entering CAMHS?

A

 Development – young person’s understanding? (do they know why they’re here, what do the want help with), if anxious then use play to express themselves; try and understand what matters to them; if under 16 then assume no capacity

511
Q

Give an overview of the attachment timeline?

A

0-3 months = indiscriminate attachment, 3-6 months = preference for main caregivers, 6-12 months = only main caregiver, 12-24 months = increasingly able to separate from main caregiver

512
Q

Treatments offered at CAMHS?

A

 Treatments = CBT, EMDR, art therapy, meds, family therapy

513
Q

Transition process of patients from CAMHS to GP/AMH?

A

17.5-18.5yrs; wither to GP/AMH; depends on severity and risk; risky process, careful and gradual planning, shared with family

514
Q

Drug used in anxiety after sertraline for sleep and anxiety?

A

Promethazine

515
Q

Antipsychotic mainly used in anxiety?

A

Quetiapine

516
Q

Mild moderate and severe treatment length for PTSD?

A

6 months, 1yr, 18months to 2yrs

517
Q

Ego-syntonic definition in OCD?

A

Behaviours that are acceptable

518
Q

Ego-dystonic definition in OCD?

A

Behaviours that cause distress