Principles of Flight Flashcards

1
Q

The quantity of matter a body possesses

A

Mass

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2
Q

The rate of change of velocity

A

Acceleration

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3
Q

The rate of change of position of a body in a specified direction

A

Velocity

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4
Q

Energy cannot be _____ only _____

A

Destroyed

Transferred

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5
Q

1/2MV² =

A

K.E.

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6
Q

Force x Distance =

A

Energy

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7
Q

Power = Energy/_____

A

Time

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8
Q

Power = ____ x Distance / Time

A

Force

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9
Q

Energy = ____ x ____

A

Force

Distance

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10
Q

Force x Speed =

A

Power

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11
Q

Newtons 1st Law:

A

An object will continue at a constant velocity unless acted upon by an unbalanced force

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12
Q

Newtons 2nd Law

A

The rate of change of momentum is equal to the force applied. (F =MA)

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13
Q

Newtons 3rd Law

A

Every action has an equal and opposite reaction

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14
Q

When air temperature increases, the _____ _____ it is.

A

Less Dense

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15
Q

The more _____ the air, the less dense it is

A

Humid

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16
Q

The _____ the altitude, the less dense it is

A

Higher

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17
Q

Air density (ρ) = ____ / Temperature (T)

A

Pressure (P)

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18
Q

°C to Kelvin =

A

+273°C

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19
Q

Sea level temperature

A

15°C

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20
Q

Sea level pressure

A

1013.25HPa

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21
Q

Sea level Density

A

1.225kg/m³

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22
Q

Lapse rate

A

1.98°C per 1,000ft up to 11km (36,089ft)

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23
Q

Temperature above 11km

A

-56.5°C

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24
Q

IAS

A

Indicated Airspeed

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25
Q

CAS

A

Calibrated Airspeed

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26
Q

EAS

A

Equivalent Airspeed

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27
Q

TAS

A

True Airspeed

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28
Q

Total pressure (Pt) = _____ Pressure + _____ Pressure

A

Dynamic (q)

Static (Ps)

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29
Q

Dynamic Pressure ~ _____

A

Indicated Airspeed

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30
Q

q or IAS = 1/2ρV² =

A

q or IAS = 1/2ρTAS²

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31
Q

If ρ _____, __ must increase

A

Decreases

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32
Q

1013.25HPa

A

Sea level Pressure

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33
Q

1.225kg/m³

A

Sea level Density

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34
Q

___ –> Instrument/_____ error –> CAS –> _____ –> EAS –> Density –> ___

A

IAS –> Instrument/Pressure error –> CAS –> Compressible –> EAS –> Density –> TAS

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35
Q

IAS –> _____/Pressure error –> ___ –> Compressible –> ___ –> _____ –> TAS

A

IAS –> Instrument/Pressure error –> CAS –> Compressible –> EAS –> Density –> TAS

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36
Q

IAS = TAS √(_____/ρ sea level)

A

ρ current alt.

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37
Q

3 types of flow:

A

Streamline
Turbulent
Vortex

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38
Q

The faster the _____. the _____ the stream tube

A

Molecules

Thinner

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39
Q

Streamlines are

A

Lamina flow (smooth)

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40
Q

Vortex flows require

A

lots of energy

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41
Q

Streamline flows have the least _____ and _____

A

Energy

Drag

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42
Q

Turbulent flow path lines can _____ and _____

A

Touch

Cross

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43
Q

Perfect fluid basic assumptions

A

They are In-compressible

They have no Viscosity

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44
Q

You should factor in air compression at speeds above _____

A

350 knots

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45
Q

Mass can neither be _____ or _____

A

destroyed

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46
Q

AVρ = _____

A

Mass flow = constant

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47
Q

The rate of change of momentum is equal to the force applied. (F =MA)

A

Newtons 2nd Law

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48
Q

Acceleration =

A

The rate of change of velocity

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49
Q

An object will continue at a constant velocity unless acted upon by an unbalanced force

A

Newtons 1st Law

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50
Q

Velocity =

A

The rate of change of position of a body in a specified direction

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51
Q

Mass =

A

The quantity of matter a body possesses.

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52
Q

Every action has an equal and opposite reaction

A

Newtons 3rd Law

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53
Q

1nm = __m

A

1852m

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54
Q

1m = __ft

A

3.28ft

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55
Q

1nm = __ft

A

6076ft

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56
Q

1 inch = __cm

A

2.54

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57
Q

1kg = __Ibs

A

2.2Ibs

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58
Q

m/s = ___ x knots

A

0.5144 (approx 0.5)

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59
Q

knots = ___ x m/s

A

1.944 (approx 2)

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60
Q

The drag effects in 2D are….

A

Form Drag, and Skin Friction Drag

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61
Q

Interference Drag is caused by

A

Flow hitting a junction and having to change direction

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62
Q

Parasite drag is made up of

A

Form, Skin Friction, and Interference Drags

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63
Q

Total Drag is made of Parasite Drag, and….

A

Induced Drag

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64
Q

Parasite drag is ________ to V^2

A

Proportional

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65
Q

Induced Drag is _________ to V^2

A

Inversely proportional

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66
Q

To reduce interference drag, we can create less hard junctions using

A

Fillets, or Fairings.

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67
Q

Skin Friction Drag is affected by…. (4 things)

A

Speed, Surface Area, Boundary Layer conditions, Type of Surface.

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68
Q

Parasite Drag Equation

A

D = 0.5 Rho V^2 S Cdp

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69
Q

A clean air craft will create _________ Parasite Drag

A

Less

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70
Q

A heavy aircraft will create __________ Induced Drad

A

More

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71
Q

Induced Drag equations are…..

A

ID is inversely proportional to aspect ratio
ID is inversely proportional to IAS^2
ID = 0.5 Rho V^2 S Cpi

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72
Q

Coefficient of Induced drag is proportional to

A

(Coefficient of lift)^2

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73
Q

Coefficient of Induced drag is Inversely proportional to

A

Aspect Ratio

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74
Q

As speed is reduced by a half, Cdi increases by a factor of

A

16

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75
Q

Wing tip modifications are used to….

A

Reduce induced drag, by reducing wing tip vorticies.

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76
Q

3 main types of wing tip modification

A

Winglets, Wing tip Tanks, Tapered Tips

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77
Q

Vmd is….

A

Velocity of Minimum Drag

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78
Q

At Vmd….

A

parasite drag = induced drag

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79
Q

Drag _____ to Vmd, then…

A

Decreases, increases in a non linear fashion

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80
Q

On the backside of the speed curve….

A

V

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81
Q

Above the Vmd on the speed curve….

A

we have Speed stability

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82
Q

At the bottom of the speed curve, near to Vmd….

A

we have Speed Neutral. Little changes in speed will not change drag by much.

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83
Q

How does the total drag curve change with IAS?

A

It does not! Ruler bend is ruler bend, is ruler bend…. whatever that means.

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84
Q

When plotting Total Drag against TAS, increasing altitude….

A

shifts the Total drag curve to the right.

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85
Q

When plotting Total Drag against TAS, increasing weight….

A

shifts the total drag curve to the right, and up. (a sort of pivot effect)

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86
Q

When plotting Total Drag against TAS, using flaps etc….

A

pivots the total drag graph anticlockwise from the end of the nike tick shape

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87
Q

Increasing altitude ________ the TAS of Vmd

A

Increases

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88
Q

Increasing weight, ________ the TAS of Vmd

A

Increases

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89
Q

Flaps down, Vmd…..

A

down.

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90
Q

Cd= (2 components)

A

Cdp + Cdi, or Cdi +k(Cl)^2

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91
Q

As L=q S Cl, and D=q S Cd…

A

L/D = Cl/Cd

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92
Q

By plotting Cd against Cl, we create the drag polar graph. the gradient of this graph will give us

A

Cd/Cl, or L/D

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93
Q

Maximum L/D is the _________ Lift

A

Greatest

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94
Q

Vmd is at ________ AoA

A

4 degrees

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95
Q

Min D/L is the __________ lift

A

Maximum lift

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96
Q

Lift to drag ratio of a training aircraft

A

11:1

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97
Q

Lift to drag ratio of a modern air transport plane)

A

20:1

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98
Q

Straight rectangular wings stall at the______ first.

A

Root

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99
Q

Swept wings stall at the _______ first

A

Wingtip

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100
Q

Stalling at the wingroot first is advantages because….

A

it creates a natural buffer in the tail, warning or an imminent full wing stall.

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101
Q

If a swept wing stalls…. (3 things)

A

Uneven stall could cause wingdrop
CP moves forward and inward
We get a nose-up moment.

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102
Q

A deep stall mainly affects

A

T-tail designed planes

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103
Q

A deep stall means that….

A

the horizontal stabiliser becomes completely immersed in turbulent wake from the stalled wing, that it loses all effectiveness. This is very bad…. and will probably result in a large bang as you hit the ground.

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104
Q

To reduce wing tip stalling tendencies in swept wings we need to….

A

reduce the lateral movement of air over the wing.

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105
Q

To reduce the wing tip stalling tendencies of a swept wing, we can install (3 things)….

A

Vortilon, a Wing Fence, or a Saw Tooth design.

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106
Q

A Low-speed cross-sectional wing will have ________ Cl, _________ Clmax and _________ AoA

A

Greater, Greater, Higher

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107
Q

A high-speed Cross-sectional wing will have ________ Cl, _________ Clmax, and __________AoA

A

Lower, Lower, smaller

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108
Q

A Stall Strip…..

A

Artificially increases the sharpness of a wing, to instigate an early root stall

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109
Q

Flaps are a……

A

Camber changing device

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110
Q

Slats …..

A

Re-energise the boundary layer.

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111
Q

Draw the graph of showing how Trailing Edge flaps, Leading edge flaps, and slats/slots affect the Clmax and AoA.

A

I’m not paying to go pro to add images, so check p327 of the text, or your notes!

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112
Q

Using Ailerons close to critical AoA can cause

A

Adverse Camber Roll, due to stalling of the wingtip.

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113
Q

Increasing mass will _________ Stalling Speed

A

Increase

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114
Q

Putting flaps down will _________ stalling speed

A

Decrease

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115
Q

Putting landing gear down will ________ stalling speed

A

Increase

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116
Q

With Power On, stalling speed is…

A

Slower

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117
Q

With Power off, stalling speed is…

A

Higher

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118
Q

Swept wing planes have a _______ Stalling speed

A

Greater

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119
Q

A plane with a further forward CoG will have a _______ stalling speed

A

Greater,

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120
Q

As we increase altitude, what happens to stalling speed?

A

It remains the same

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121
Q

At high altitude, with high TAS above 300kts, what happens to IAS stalling speed?

A

Stalling speed will increase.

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122
Q

Contamination causes the stalling speed to

A

Increase

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123
Q

Manoeuvers cause the stalling speed to….

A

Increase

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124
Q

The load factor in a turn is

A

1/cos (Phi), where phi is the angle of bank.

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125
Q

Vs= Stall Speed at 1g x

A

Sqrt(Load Factor)

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126
Q

Flaps are camber chaning devices. ToF?

A

True

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127
Q

Slats are camber chaning devices. ToF?

A

False

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128
Q

Increasing camber by using trailing edge flaps __________ Cl, ________Clmax, and ________Critical AoA

A

Increases, Increases, Decreases

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129
Q

Slots allow….

A

high pressure air to travel through the wing, re-energising the boundary layer, delaying the separation point and delaying the stalling AoA.

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130
Q

Using Ailerons close to your critical AoA can cause….

A

the wing to stall, resulting in Adverse Camber roll

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131
Q

CS23 requires the Vs to be multiplied by what, to give Vs1 and Vs0

A

1.2 for Vs1, 1.3 for Vs0

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132
Q

CS25 requires the Vs to be multiplied by what, to give Vs1 and Vs0

A

1.13 for Vsr1, 1.23 for Vsr0

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133
Q

For Autorotation to occur….

A

Both wings must be stalled

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134
Q

To recover a stall, we must….

A

Increase power…………just kidding, it’s reduce AoA

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135
Q

Easa regulations state aircraft must have an ______ stall warning

A

Audio

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136
Q

The Margin for a stall warning system is….

A

5kts or 5% above a stall, whichever is greater.

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137
Q

Aeorodynamic stall warnings

A

occur naturally for aerodynamic reasons (buffet)

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138
Q

Artificial Sall warning systems are,,,

A

Electro-mechanical sensors that detect a stall

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139
Q

At the stall we can expect….. (4 things)

A

Cl collapse and descent, increased buffet, Nose up or nose down moment, depending on wing shape, wing drop.

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140
Q

Stall prevention devices engage at….

A

2kts, or 2% above stall speed

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141
Q

A stick shaker is a stall _______ device

A

warning

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142
Q

A stick pusher is a stall _________ device.

A

Prevention

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143
Q

A forward sweep wing would be better in a stall, however…..

A

required to be stronger, and therefore hevier.

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144
Q

A plane with elevator stabilisers ahead of the wing is called….

A

Canard

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145
Q

The advantage of elevators in front of the wing, is that….

A

The wing has to produce less lift.

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146
Q

A flapper switch uses what to recognise when you are reaching your stalling AoA?

A

The stagnation point on the leading edge

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147
Q

AoA Vanes….

A

Attach to the side of the fuselage and electronically detect AoA to effective airflow.

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148
Q

AoA vanes are more accurately described as….

A

“Air Direction Detectors”

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149
Q

AoA Probes….

A

Use two slots to identify differing air pressures, thus calculating AoA

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150
Q

Rotating probes…..

A

are Null Seaking, and rotate to balance the air pressure in two tubes, detecting AoA

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151
Q

Pitch indicators on deisplays are often called….

A

eyebrows!

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152
Q

Vsw is,,,,

A

Velocity Stall Warning

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153
Q

The R in Vsr is there because…

A

it is a calculated speed

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154
Q

The stalling angle on a swept wing plane is….

A

less defined

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155
Q

With flaps down, the CP

A

Moves back

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156
Q

With a high wing plane, when extending flaps, there is a transitional…

A

Nose up rotation.

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157
Q

Usually, lowering flaps will cause a ______ ______ Rotation

A

nose down rotation

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158
Q

Lowering flaps _______ Downwash

A

Increases

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159
Q

A split flap will do what to Cl and critical AoA

A

Greater Clmax and AoA than plain flap, but still small AoA than a clean wing. Cl will remain the same for same AoA for a normal flap.

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160
Q

A leading edge flap gives…..

A

More camber

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161
Q

A Krueger Flap is found on what make of aircraft?

A

Boeing

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162
Q

A Krueger Flap reduces the…..

A

Leading Edge Radius, and therefore induces seperation.

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163
Q

A Kreuger flap increases the

A

Camber

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164
Q

A leading edge flap that creates a Slot is called a….

A

Slat.

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165
Q

A fowler flap….

A

Increase surface area and camber.

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166
Q

A Fowler flap moves

A

Aft first, and then down,

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167
Q

A Fowler flap will most likely require a

A

slot, to reenergise the boundary layer.

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168
Q

Slots and slats increase

A

Critical AoA

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169
Q

Slats that are fixed……

A

do not exist. they must move to be a leading edge flap, and therefore a slat.

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170
Q

With Flaps down, we have ______wingtip vorticies

A

Smaller.

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171
Q

At landing, flaps will _______ our decent angle.

A

Steepen

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172
Q

Wing tip vortices _____ when flaps are lowered due to less _____.

A

Decrease

Downwash

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173
Q

Vortex generators produce _____ _____ which _____ the boundary layer. These are placed in front of the _____.

A

Small vortexes
Increase
Ailerons

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174
Q

Usually, the first __% of flap deflection provides more than half the total increase in Cl

A

50%

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175
Q

The second 50% provides more than half of all _____

A

Drag

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176
Q

Complete flap failure requires:

A

Faster approach at a higher AoA
Longer landing run
Reduced margin above the stall requirement

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177
Q

Flap protection system use an _____ to prevent flaps from being lowered until the speed falls below the _____ _____ _____

A

Interlock

Flap extension speed

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178
Q

What do configuration warning systems do?

A

Alert the crew to an incorrect flap setting for the particular flight phase

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179
Q

What do Flap asymmetry sensors do?

A

Stop flap operation if they detect that flap is lowering

asymmetrically

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180
Q

The Ram Effect is

A

The cushioning effect when the pressure below the wing rises because the volume between the ground and the lower surface of the wing reduces, compressing the air flowing underneath.

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181
Q

In the ground effect vortices become _____

A

Compressed

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182
Q

In ground effect, the EAF is _____, resulting in a reduced _____ _____ and an increased _____ _____. this means the stalling angle is _____.

A

Shallower
Induced angle
Effective angle
Reduced

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183
Q

The closer to the ground you are, the _____ the effect.

A

Greater

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184
Q

In ground effect, lift is _____, known as _____. and the induced rage is _____.

A

Increased
Ballooning
Reduced.

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185
Q

Entering the ground effect results in a nose _____ moment and leaving it results in a nose _____ moment. This is due to the decreased/increased _____.

A

Down
Up
Downwash

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186
Q

Entering the ground effect will make the IAS _____ _____

A

Under read

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187
Q

The ground effect come into effect _______ from the ground, but is not noticeble until _______ from the ground.

A

1 wingspan

1/2 wingspan

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188
Q

Flaps are

A

Camber changing devices

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189
Q

Hinge moment = __________ x __________

A

Hinge moment = force felt x distance from the hinge

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190
Q

An inset hinge is where…

A

The hinge on the control surface is moved back to reduce the hinge moment.

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191
Q

A horn balance is…

A

an area of control surface in front of the hinge which produces an opposite hinge moment.

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192
Q

An internal balance is…

A

a flexible diaphragm between the trailing edge and the control surface which creates a a force on the control surface to help move it due to pressure difference above and below the wing.

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193
Q

A balance tab is…

A

A tab at the rear of the aircraft that moves in the opposite direction of the control surface to aid it’s movement.

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194
Q

An anti-balance tab is…

A

The opposite of a balance tab for when the controls are too easy to move.
It is not an aid.

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195
Q

A servo tab is…

A

Similar to a balance tab, but the control column moves the tab which then as a result moves the control surface.
This is only good a high speed

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196
Q

A spring tab is…

A

Where due to a springs force, if at high speed, the control column will move the tab, and if at low speed, it will move the control surface.

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197
Q

Mass balancing is…

A

where mass is added ahead of the hinge line to prevent flutter.
It is not an aerodynamic balance.

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198
Q

Power-assisted controls:

A

The control column is directly attached to the control surfaces, however hydraulic forces provide most of the source.

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199
Q

Fully-powered controls:

A

The control column is not directly connected to the control surface. It requires an artificial feel system (Q-feel system).

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200
Q

The AoA _____ on a down-going wing and _____ on an up-going wing.

A

Increases

Reduces

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201
Q

A tailplane pitch is normally set to a _____ incidence due to the forward ___

A

Negative

CG

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202
Q

What type of tailplane is more effective?

A

The T-tail

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203
Q

When the rudder is deflected, the aircraft will _____ and if held it will _____.

A

Yaw

Sideslip

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204
Q

A rudder travel limiter…

A

Prevents the rudder being moved to far and breaking off at high speeds.

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205
Q

Adverse aileron yaw

A

There is less drag on the downward wing, and more on the upward wing.

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206
Q

Differential Ailerons

A

The angle of the aileron on the down-going wing is greater than that of the up-going wing

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207
Q

Firse Ailerons

A

The leading edge of the aileron is asymmetrically shaped. when facing upwards it increases the form drag.

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208
Q

On large aircraft, at high speeds, the _____ ailerons are locked and the _____ ailerons are used only. _____ _____ are used to aid roll control.

A

Outbound
Inbound
Flight spoilers

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209
Q

Advantages of spoilers:

A

Don’t suffer from flutter
Leave trailing edge free for flaps
Cause no twisting moment

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210
Q

Flaperons

A

The inboard aileron aiding the function of the flaps.

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211
Q

Control coupling

A

Rudder is used when a roll command is made aiding against adverse aileron yaw

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212
Q

Spoilers

A

Disturb the airflow and reduce the Clmax

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213
Q

Speed breaks can be used to

A

Reduce airspeed rapidly
Increase angle of descent
Increase rate of descent
Control the airspeed in a descent

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214
Q

Aileron droop

A

Ailerons can be drooped slightly for take off to compensate for the loss of potential flap area, increasing the camber and lift

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215
Q

Rudder primary and secondary effect

A

Yaw

Roll

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216
Q

Aileron primary and secondary effect

A

Roll

Sideslip the yaw

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217
Q

Equilibrium

A

When all 4 forces acting on an aircraft are equal and opposite.

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218
Q

Trimmable horizontal stabiliser (THS)

A

controlled by an electric screw jack which drives the staboliser to a positive or negative AOI.

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219
Q

THS are used on modern jet aircraft because:

A

They are aerodynamically effective
Doesn’t reduce effective range of the elevator
Have more force than the elevator

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220
Q

It is important to set the THS to the correct incidence before take off because…

A

An angle to positive can reduce the rate of rotation

An angle to negative can increase risk of tail strike

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221
Q

Load factor = _____/_____

A

Load factor = lift/weight

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222
Q

Thrust acts in the opposite direction to….

A

Relative air flow

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223
Q

Increasing thrust on a conventional airliner results in a _______ pitching moment

A

Nose-up

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224
Q

If wind = 0, the flight path angle and the AoA is _____

A

The same

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225
Q

Angle between the horizontal axis and the aircraft’s longitudinal axis.

A

Pitch angle

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226
Q

Angle between the flight path angle and the longitudinal axis

A

AoA

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227
Q

Angle between the horizontal and the flight path

A

Flight path angle (γ)

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228
Q

The more excess thrust…

A

The greater the climb angle

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229
Q

Best angle of climb

A

The steepest climb angle

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230
Q

Best rate of climb

A

Climbing as quick as possible

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231
Q

Excess thrust = _____ x _____

A

weight x sinγ

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232
Q

Lift = _____ x _____

A

weight x cosγ

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233
Q

Climb angle equation

A

Sinγ = T - D/W

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234
Q

The more weight, the _____ the climb angle

A

Shallower

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235
Q

In a steady climb, Weight is _____ than lift. Thrust is _____ than drag

A

Greater

Greater

236
Q

For jet aircraft, Vx is the same as _____ at an AoA of _____.

A

Vmd

237
Q

For Jet aircraft at altitude, Vx ___________

A

Stays the same

238
Q

For prop aircraft, Vx is __________

A

Close to stall speed

239
Q

For prop aircraft, Vmp is ___ Vmd, where the AoA is _____

A

0.76

>4°

240
Q

The flight path _____ with altitude

A

Reduces

241
Q

% gradient =

A

(T - D / W) x 100

242
Q

Shallow glide angles are achived with a _____ configuration

A

Clean

243
Q

Descending at Vmp is a _____ angle, but descends _____

A

Steeper

Slower

244
Q

Descending at Vmd is a _____ angle, but a _____ descent

A

Shallower

Faster

245
Q

_____ does not effect the glide angle

A

Weight

246
Q

A tailwind will _____ the glide path, and a headwind will ______ it.

A

Increase

Decrease

247
Q

The force that opposes centrifugal force is ________

A

Centripetal force

248
Q

The horizontal component of lift supports the _______ and the vertical component supports the _____.

A

Centrifugal force

Weight

249
Q

What 2 things effect the radius of a turn?

A

Speed

Weight

250
Q

Equation for CPF

A

CPF = M x V²/ r

251
Q

Equation for radius of a turn

A

r = V² / g x TanΦ

252
Q

Equation for the bank angle

A

CosΦ = W/L

LF = 1/CosΦ

253
Q

Rate 1 turn:

A

3° per second, 180° a minute

254
Q

Rate if turn =

A

(TAS / Radius) x 60

255
Q

If double the airspeed, radious will _____ and the rate of turn will _____.

A

x4

1/2

256
Q

Turn equations only use _____

A

S.i. units

257
Q

Turn and slip indicator

A

Indicates rate of turn and the centripetal force Vs centrifugal force.

258
Q

Maximum turning performance is determined by:

A

Max. lifting capability
Structural strength
Thrust

259
Q

What properties does and ideal liquid have?

A

Incompressibility, Zero Viscosity

260
Q

In an ideal fluid, the flow pattern that strikes an object and then doesn’t flow around it happens at the ______ ______

A

Stagnation Point

261
Q

Viscosity in a flow pattern creates ______ behind the object

A

Wake

262
Q

Unbalanced force created by an object in viscosity is called ______ ______

A

Form Drag

263
Q

Lift to Drag Ratio for Training Aircraft

A

10:1 - 12:1

264
Q

Lift to Drag Ratio for Long Haul Jets

A

18:1 - 20:1

265
Q

Lift to Drag Ratios for Gliders

A

Above 25:1

266
Q

The front of an Aerofoil is called the _____ _______

A

Leading Edge

267
Q

The rear of an Aerofoil is called the _______ ______

A

Trailing Edge

268
Q

The horizontal distance between the Leading and Trailing edges is the….

A

Chord

269
Q

The shortest distance between the Leading Edge and the Trailing Edge is the…..

A

Chord Line

270
Q

The leading edge radius is…..

A

The radius of a circle that would create the leading edge.

271
Q

The Thickness of a wing, is the….

A

Wing thickness, at its thickest point

272
Q

The Camber Line is the….

A

Imaginary line that bisects the Aerofoil

273
Q

The Camber is….

A

The distance between the amber line and the surface of the wing.

274
Q

Angle of Attack is…..

A

The angle between the Chord Line, and the Relative Airflow.

275
Q

The 4 types of Aerofoil are…

A

Positive Camber
Negative Camber
Symmetrical
Biconvex

276
Q

The two types of Aerofoils we work with in POF are…

A

Positive Camber

Symmetrical

277
Q

The Thickness to Chord ratio is also called the ____ of the Aerofoil

A

Fineness

278
Q

As AoA increases, the Stagnation point…..

A

Moves further down the leading edge

279
Q

As AoA decreases, that Stagnation point……

A

Moves further up the leading edge

280
Q

The ________ ______ is the point of greatest static pressure reduction

A

Suction Peak

281
Q

Aerodynamic Total Reaction is made up of which two forces?

A

Lift and Drag

282
Q

A sharp trailing edge reduces….

A

Adverse Pressure Gradient

283
Q

What two actions on a Aerofoil are needed to produce lift?

A

Upwash, and Downwash

284
Q

Lift is _______ to the free stream flow.

A

Perpendicular

285
Q

Drag is ________ to the free stream flow.

A

Parallel

286
Q

Lift acts at the ______ __ _______ of an aerofoil

A

Centre of Pressure

287
Q

If you double the speed of the airflow over an Aerofoil, you _______ the lift.

A

Quadruple (x by 4)

288
Q

If you increase the speed of airflow over an Aerofoil, Magnitude ______ and Distribution of forces ______

A

Magnitude Increases

Distribution of forces stay the same

289
Q

Changing the angle of attack will ______ magnitude of the forces and the distribution of forces will _______

A

Increase

Change

290
Q

When increasing the AoA on a Cambered Aerofoil, the Centre of Pressure will ________

A

Move closer to the Leading Edge

291
Q

The Centre of Pressure on an aerofoil is roughly how far along the total length?

A

25%

292
Q

When decreasing the AoA on a Cambered Aerofoil, the Centre of Pressure will ________

A

Move further from the Leading Edge

293
Q

When increasing the AoA on a Symmetrical Aerofoil, the Centre of Pressure will ________

A

Remain still

294
Q

When decreasing the AoA on a Symmetrical Aerofoil, the Centre of Pressure will ________

A

Remain still

295
Q

At 0 degrees AoA, a symmetrical Aerofoil will produce ________ lift

A

No

296
Q

At 0 degrees AoA, a Cambered Aerofoil will produce ________ lift

A

Positive or negative lift, depending on its design.

297
Q

To get zero lift on a positively cambered Aerofoil, we need a_______

A

Negative AoA.

298
Q

Increasing the camber of a wing will…

A

Increase pressure differential between the upper and lower surfaces.

299
Q

In a cambered Aerofoil, the pressure distribution is affected by ______ and ______

A

AoA and Camber

300
Q

In Aerodynamic Force, q is

A

Dynamic Pressure

301
Q

In Aerodynamic Force, S is

A

Surface area

302
Q

Aerodynamic Force Coefficient is a __________ number/ratio

A

Dimensionless

303
Q

Our force equation is

A

F = qSCF,
or
F = 0.5 * Rho * V^2 * S * CF

304
Q

Our lift equation is

A

L = IAS^2 * S * CL
or
F = 0.5 * Rho * V^2 * S * CF

305
Q

To maintain Lift, if IAS goes down….

A

AoA must go up

306
Q

The Aerodynamic Force Coefficient in Lift is affected by what 3 things?

A

Angle of Attack
Camber
Thickness

307
Q

In flight, we can change which of the items in out Lift Equation?

A

Lift
Speed
Angle of Attack (CL)

308
Q

In our lift equation, V, IAS or TAS are given in what units?

A

m/s

309
Q

In an Aircraft, at what point does lift act?

A

Centre of Pressure

310
Q

In an Aircraft, at what point does drag act?

A

Centre of Pressure

311
Q

In an Aircraft, at what point does Weight act?

A

Centre of gravity

312
Q

In an Aircraft, where does Thrust act?

A

Through the centre of the engine

313
Q

Engines below the couple created by the Centre of Gravity and Centre of Pressure, create a ______ ______ ______.

A

Nose up Rotation

314
Q

Which must be further forward in an EASA Aircraft, CoG or CP?

A

CoG

315
Q

The Critical AoA is the angle at which an Aerofoil…

A

Produces the Maximum Lift Coefficient.

316
Q

Flying at the Stalling AoA will cause the plane to stall. True or False?

A

False, exceeding this angle will cause the aircraft to stall

317
Q

At the Critical AoA, we say the Coefficient of Lift is

A

CLMAX

318
Q

Our standard Stalling AoA on a Symmetrical wing is

A

16 Degrees

319
Q

Adding thickness does what to the stalling AoA of an Aerofoil?

A

Increases the Stalling AoA

320
Q

A cambered Aerofoil will have a ________ CLMAX than a symmetrical Aerofoil

A

Greater

321
Q

Flaps are ______ ________ Devices

A

Camber Changing

322
Q

As flaps go down, the ______ Increases

A

Camber

323
Q

As flaps go down, and the Camber increases, what must change to maintain the CL?

A

AoA must reduce.

324
Q

“Straight and Level means what cannot change?

A

Lift and IAS

325
Q

Force Coefficient is the ratio of…

A

Surface Pressure:Dynamic Pressure

326
Q

Form drag

A

The wake that is formed behind the wing

327
Q

Skin drag

A

The drag in the boundary layer

328
Q

The drag coefficient gives us a measure of drag per _____ _____ and unit _____ _____

A

Unit area

Dynamic pressure

329
Q

Drag is a component of the _____ _____ and governed by the fundamental _____ force

A

Total reaction

Aerodynamic

330
Q

The boundary lays

A

Area extending from the aircraft’s surface out to the point where the speed if airflow is 99% of the free stream flow

331
Q

The transition point is where

A

Laminar flow becomes turbulent flow

332
Q

The laminar layer is only ______ thick, it is _____ and has _____ _____

A

A few mm
Slippery
Low energy

333
Q

The turbulant layer is _____ thick, it is _____ and has _____ _____

A

A few cm
Draggy
High energy

334
Q

The separation point is where

A

The boundary layer separates from the upper surface. of the aerofoil.

335
Q

There is more energy at the _____ of the boundary layer.

A

Base

336
Q

A low Reynolds no. means (<500,000)

A

Lamina flow

337
Q

A high Reynolds no. means (>10,000,000)

A

Turbulent flow

338
Q

The transition point is 1/3 in front of the ______ ______ _____ or 2/3 behind the _____ _____

A

Point of maximum thickness

Leading edge

339
Q

In lamina flow, _____ forces are dominant

A

Viscus

340
Q

In turbulent flow, _____ forces are dominant

A

Dynamic

341
Q

Aerodynamic drag

A

The force on an object that resists its motion

342
Q

The more viscous the air

A

The greater the shearing force

343
Q

All effects if skin friction drag take place within the

A

Boundary layer

344
Q

The laminar boundary layer has a _____ velocity gradient

A

Shallow

345
Q

The turbulent boundary layer has a _____ velocity gradient

A

Steep

346
Q

Nose to tail axis:

A

Longitudinal - role

347
Q

Wingtip to wingtip axis:

A

Lateral - pitch

348
Q

Vertically through the fuselage axis:

A

Normal - yaw

349
Q

Wingspan

A

The distance between the wingtips

350
Q

Gross wing area

A

The planform of the wing and the area of fuselage between the wing roots.

351
Q

Wing taper

A

When the tip is smaller than the root.

352
Q

Taper ratio = _____/_____

A

Taper ratio= tip chord/root chord

353
Q

Aspect ratio

A

The ratio of wingspan to average wing chord

354
Q

Aspect ratio = _____/_____

A

Aspect ratio = Span/average chord

if highly tapered: Aspect ratio = Span²/wing area

355
Q

Sweep angle

A

The angle at which the wing is inclined to lateral axis.

356
Q

The more swept back a wing, the higher _____ you can cruse at

A

Mach no.

357
Q

Mean aerodynamic chord (MAC)

A

The chord of an imaginary rectangular wing which has similar longitudinal stability properties to the actual wing

358
Q

Angle of incidence

A

The angle between the chord line of the wing and the aircraft’s longitudinal axis.

359
Q

Washout

A

Reduction the in angle of incidence from the root to the tip.

360
Q

Dihedral and Anhedral angles

A

The angle of the wings relative to the aircraft’s lateral axis.

361
Q

Dihedral can be found on aircraft with wings angling

A

Upwards (e.g. A320, 737)

362
Q

Anhedral can be found on aircraft with wings angling

A

Downwards (e.g. BAe 146)

363
Q

Wing planform

A

The outline shape of a wing when seen from above

364
Q

Wing tip vortices are formed when

A

Air travels from high pressure under the wing to low pressure above the wing by flowing around the wing tip.

365
Q

Longer chord at the wingtip will result in

A

Greater vortex

366
Q

Spanwise flow travels from _____ to _____ under the wing and _____ to _____ above the wing

A

Root to tip

Tip to root

367
Q

The vortex spins _____ on the left wing and _____ on the right wing

A

Clockwise

Anti-clockwise

368
Q

The intensity of the tip vortex depends on what 2 things:

A

The pressure difference above and below the wing.

The amount of time the driving force is given to operate on the air mass

369
Q

A _____ _____ can only form when the wing is producing _____

A

Wing vortex

Lift

370
Q

Tip vortices _____ with increasing _____ _____

A

Decrease

Forward speed

371
Q

A low aspect ratio wing produces _____ _____ tip vortices than a high aspect wing ratio.

A

More intense

372
Q

Trailing edge vortices ten to be weaker at the _____ of the wing.

A

Root

373
Q

In 2D flow, the upwash and downwash are _____ in magnitude

A

Equal

374
Q

In 3D flow, the upwash _____ and the amount of downwash _____.

A

Decreases

Increases

375
Q

Downwash is greater at the _____ _____

A

Wing tip

376
Q

Effective airflow

A

The combination of both horizontal and vertical velocities

377
Q

The effective airflow determines the wings _____ _____

A

Aerodynamic forces

378
Q

The component of aerodynamic force acting at ___ to the flow must be shown acting 90° to the _____ _____

A

90°

Effective flow

379
Q

The angle between the Relative airflow and Effective airflow is called:

A

The induced angle of attack

380
Q

Anything the effects the amount of downwash is going to ____ the effective airflow.

A

Steepen

381
Q

The Component of the vector parallel to the relative airflow

A

Induced Drag

382
Q

Induced drag always accompanies the production of _____

A

Lift

383
Q

If the induced angle of attack increases, induced drag _____

A

Increases

384
Q

The angle of attack is the angle between the aircraft’s _____ _____ and the _____ _____

A

Longitudinal axis

Relative airflow

385
Q

The induced angle of attack the is angle between the _____ and _____ air flows

A

Effective

Relative

386
Q

The induced angle of attack is larger when (2 things):

A

The aircraft is flying at a lower TAS
and/or
The vortices are stronger there for producing greater downwash.

387
Q

The effective angle of attack is the angle between the _____ _____ and the _____ _____ of the wing

A

Effective airflow

Chord line

388
Q

Small vortices result in _____ effective airflow angle, meaning a _____ effective angle of attack and a _____ induced angle of attack

A

Shallower
Larger
Smaller

389
Q

The effective airflow angle will be _____ at the wing root and _____ at the wing tip.

A

Shallower

Steeper

390
Q

The higher the aspect ratio, the _____ the lateral pressure gradient.

A

Smaller

391
Q

3 Disadvantages to a high aspect wing:

A

Needs a stronger, heavier main spar to support the larger wing.
More prone to tip strikes during take-off and landing.
At higher speeds, induced drag is a small percentage of the total drag, so the aerodynamic advantages are less significant.

392
Q

For a given _____ _____, a wing with an _____ pressure distribution is the most efficient.

A

Aspect ratio

Elliptical

393
Q

An elliptical wing produces a _____ and _____ level of downwash across the wing.

A

Constant

Reduced

394
Q

An elliptical wing produces a constant section ____ ____ across the _____ _____, the ratio is the same (1.0) across the _____ _____ _____

A

Lift Coefficient
Entire span
Entire wing span

395
Q

A rectangular wing has large _____ _____ and _____ downwash towards the wing tips, giving sections towards the wing tip a _____ effective angle of attack.

A

Wingtip vortices
Greater
Smaller

396
Q

Static stability

A

The immediate response

397
Q

Dynamic Stability

A

Subsequent response over time

398
Q

Positive static stability

A

The initial tendency of an object

399
Q

Neutral static stability

A

Object not wanting to move

400
Q

Negative static stability

A

Moving further from its original position

401
Q

Positive dynamic stability

A

Object returns to it’s original position

402
Q

Neutral dynamic stability

A

Object will not settle

403
Q

Negative dynamic stability

A

The object will move further away from it’s original position

404
Q

Positive static stability can lead to…

A

Positive, Neutral and Negative dynamic stability. With neutral and negative in a periodic motion, and positive in both an aperiodic and periodic motion.

405
Q

Neutral static stability can lead to…

A

Only Neutral dynamic stability in an aperiodic motion

406
Q

Negative static stability can lead to…

A

Only Negative dynamic stability in an aperiodic motion.

407
Q

Rolling/yawing to the right is _____ motion

A

Positive

408
Q

Pitch occurs on the _____ axis and has _____ stability

A

Lateral
Longitudinal
M

409
Q

Yaw occurs on the _____ axis and has _____ stability

A

Normal
Directional
N

410
Q

Roll occurs on the _____ axis and has _____ stability

A

Longitudinal
Lateral
L’

411
Q

On a symmetrical aerofoil the Aerodynamic center (AC) occurs at _____ chord

A

~25%

412
Q

On a Chambered aerofoil the AC occurs at _____ chord

A

23 - 27%

413
Q

An aircraft is more stable with stick _____ rather than stick _____

A

Fixed

Free

414
Q

The absolute AoA is…

A

The angle between the RAF and the Zero lift line, it nullifys the effect of the camber

415
Q

The zero lift line is always _____ the chord line on a positively cambered wing

A

Above

416
Q

Up-gusts _____ the AoA

A

Increase

417
Q

Down-gusts _____ the AoA

A

Decrease

418
Q

The AC is _____ the CG

A

Behind

419
Q

Pitching moment coefficient equation:

A

Cm = M / q S c

420
Q

The greater the dynamic pressure

A

The faster you go

421
Q

To increase longitudinal stability:

A

Increase the horizontal stabiliser size
Move CG forwards
Increase tailplane volume.

422
Q

The forward CG limit makes sure:

A

Aircraft is not too stable

There is a minimum level of controllablity

423
Q

The aft CG limit makes sure

A

Aircraft is not too controllable

There is minimum level of stability

424
Q

The neutral point is

A

the point that the plane reacts around for stability. It is always behind the CG

425
Q

The further from the CG the Neutral point is…

A

the greater the stability

426
Q

Arm to NP

A

the distance between the current CG and the NP

427
Q

Static margin

A

the distance between the aft CG limit and NP

428
Q

CG range

A

the distance between the forward CG limit and the aft CG limit

429
Q

The neurtal point is _____ _____ when the flaps are extended, due to the reduction of _____ _____ at the tail.

A

furthest forward

dynamic pressure

430
Q

With stick position stability, as you go faster, there is _____ deflection of the elevator so the stick moves _____

A

Less

forward

431
Q

With stick position stability, as you go slower, there is _____ deflection of the elevator so the stick moves _____

A

more

backwards

432
Q

With a trim-tab system, stick position stability….

A

stays the same

433
Q

With a trimmable horizontal stabiliser, stick position stability…

A

Changes

434
Q

The aerodynamic center must be _____ the CG to have a positive position stability

A

Behind

435
Q

Stick force stability

A

the further from the center position you move the stick, the greater the force should be

436
Q

The more trim you have, the _____ the force will be on the stick

A

Greater

437
Q

The further forward the CG, the _____ the stick force. The further aft the CG, the _____ the stick force

A

Greater

lighter

438
Q

The stick force per G will be greater on a _____ aircraft than an _____ aircraft

A

Transport

Aerobatic

439
Q

Aerodynamic dampening

A

After the initial down-force of the tail, the down-force will get smaller due to the airflow angle

440
Q

At a lower alt./slower TAS there is a _____ airflow to the tailplane compared to a higher alt./faster TAS where there is a _____ airflow to the tailplane. Therefore aerodynamic dampening is less at _____ _____

A

Steeper
Shallower
High alt/faster TAS

441
Q

TAS is __ the IAS at _____, so the stability is ___.

A

x2
40,000ft
1/2

442
Q

Short oscillations are due to _____ positive dynamic force and Long oscillations are due to _____ positive dynamic force

A

Strong

Weak

443
Q

Short oscillation features:

A

1 -2 secs
not much alt. difference
not much speed difference

444
Q

Long oscillation features:

A
(phugoid)
1 - 2 mins
Increase in airspeed when going down
Decrease in airsped when going up
Larger change in height
445
Q

As Static stability increases, dynamic stability _____.

A

decreases

446
Q

Nose to the left =

A

447
Q

Nose to the right

A

448
Q

Nose to the left of RAF - sideslip to the _____

A

Right

449
Q

Nose to the Right of RAF - sideslip to the _____

A

left

450
Q

Yaw moment coefficient equation:

A

Cn = N / qSb

451
Q

The greater the volume, the _____ the directional stability

A

greater

452
Q

The greater the swept back angle, the _____ the stability

A

greater

453
Q

Dorsal fins _____ lateral stability and _____ direction stability.

A

Increase

Increase

454
Q

Ventral fins _____ lateral stability and _____ direction stability.

A

Reduce

Increase

455
Q

Stakes _____ stability

A

Increase

456
Q

The fuselage can give off a _____ moment

A

De-stabilising

457
Q

Lateral stability

A

The stability in a roll

458
Q

Dihedral wings provide _____ stability

A

Positive

459
Q

Weak lateral and strong directional stability can lead to a _____ _____

A

Spiral Dive

460
Q

Strong lateral and weak directional stability can lead to a _____ _____

A

Dutch roll

461
Q

Stability _____ with altitude

A

decreases

462
Q

The propeller disk represents the __________

A

Plane of rotation

463
Q

The angle between the plane of rotation and the chord line

A

Blade angle

464
Q

The angle between the Plane of rotation and the Relative airflow

A

Helix angle

465
Q

The angle between the Relative airflow and the chord line

A

AoA

466
Q

The name for the distance between the start point actual distance traveled.

A

Effective pitch

467
Q

The name for the distance between the start point and the Theoretical distance traveled

A

Geometric pitch

468
Q

Distance between the Actual distance traveled and the theoretical distance traveled.

A

Slip

469
Q

The _____ _____ determines the geometric pitch

A

Blade angle

470
Q

The _____ _____ determines the effective pitch

A

Helix angle

471
Q

For a fine pitch you need a _____ blade angle

A

Small

472
Q

For a coarse pitch you need a _____ blade angle

A

Large

473
Q

Torque force is…

A

the opposite of what the engine is trying to do.

474
Q

The helix angle for the time is _____ than the helix angle for the hub.

A

Greater

475
Q

The faster you go the _____ the helix angle

A

Greater

476
Q

___ is the optimum blade angle

A

477
Q

____ is the max. blade angle

A

16°

478
Q

If you increase the RPM, the helix angle will get ____

A

Smaller

479
Q

High TAS, Low RPM results in

A

Reverse thrust

480
Q

Fixed pitch propellers

A

Blade angle is fixed, simplest form

481
Q

Two pitch propellers

A

Pilot can set either a fine or a coarse pitch

482
Q

Adjustable pitch propellers

A

Blade angle can be adjusted mechanically on the ground, but then acts as a fixed pitch propeller at that fixed setting

483
Q

Constant speed propellers

A

One that automaticaly adjusts it’s blade angle at different flight speeds to maintain the ideal AoA

484
Q

The smaller the AoA on a prop blade, the _____ the drag

A

Greater

485
Q

During take off, the prop is at _____ pitch

A

Fine

486
Q

As the TAS increases the blade should become more _____

A

Coarse

487
Q

The blade angle of a fixed pitch prop increases when RPM _____ or TAS _____

A

Increases

Decreases

488
Q

Windmilling

A

When the engine has failed but the blade is still spinning and producing drag

489
Q

Feathering

A

Increasing the pitch of the blade to reduce drag

490
Q

To increase the pitch of the blade, you need to _____ the RPM by moving the pitch leaver _____. This takes the blade to a _____ position

A

Reduce
Backwards
Coarse

491
Q

For a variable pitch prop, the faster you go, the _____ the pitch

A

greater

492
Q

To increase torque absorption you need to _____ blade solidarity. We can do this by:

A

Increase
Increasing no. of blades
increasing the chord.

493
Q

Beyond 6 blades, we lose efficiency because

A

They interfere with the flow of the flowing blade.

494
Q

Propellers with more than one hub are known as

A

Contra rotating propellers

495
Q

Torque reaction effect is:

A

Where the engine wants to spin the aircraft in the opposite direction of the prop

496
Q

The heavier you are, the _____ the roll rate due torque reaction

A

Slower

497
Q

The greater the blade size, the _____ the torque reaction

A

Greater

498
Q

The more power you have, the _____ the torque reaction

A

Greater

499
Q

Consequences of torque reaction on take-off:

A

Thrust is at its greatest so torque is at its greatest

Heavier on the left wheel and lighter on the right, causing yaw to the left on the runway.

500
Q

Slipstream effect:

A

Airflow flips around around the body due to prop wash and hits the fin at an angle, pushing it to the right and causing yaw to the left.
It also rolls the tail to the right.

501
Q

The slipstream effect is greatest at _____ power setting and _____ speed.

A

High

Slow

502
Q

Asymmetric Blade Effect - P Factor:

A

As aircraft’s AoA increases, the prop disk has a greater angle which results in the down-going blade producing greater lift. This produces a yaw to the right.

503
Q

Gyro effect:

A

Produces a force 90° to the point where the force is produced.

504
Q

Prop icing forms towards the _____. It can reduces the efficiency by up to ___

A

Hub

20%

505
Q

With a left engine failure, the aircraft will yaw to the _____.

A

left

506
Q

Factors that affect the size of the yawing moment:

A

The amount of thrust being generated by the left engine
The distance the live engine is from the aircraft’s CG
The size of any additional drag moments caused

507
Q

On a prop aircraft with 2 engines, more _____ will be provided on the wing with working engine and there would be more _____ on the dead wing. This causes the aircraft to _____ and _____ towards the _____ wing. If this is not stopped, the aircraft will enter a _____ _____

A
Lift
Drag
Roll
yaw
Dead
Spiral dive
508
Q

The two methods to gain equilibrium from asymmetric flight

A

The wings level method

The banking method

509
Q

The wings level method:

A

Apply rudder to balance the moments

510
Q

Disadvantages of the wings level method:

A

Increases drag from the fin, reducing limited excess thrust + performance.
Fin must be set at a large AoA to produce sufficient force . - chance of fin stall

511
Q

The banking method:

A

Applying no more than 5° bank towards the live engine.

512
Q

Disadvantages of the banking method:

A

In-balance of the slip indicator

More chance of disorientation

513
Q

advantages of the banking method:

A

Less drag

less risk of fin stall

514
Q

For directional control, you have better control at ____ altitude and _____ temperature

A

High

High

515
Q

The critical engine:

A

The engine that, if it fails, results in the largest yaw moment produced by the remaining engine.

516
Q

The factors determining which the critical engine is:

A

Length of the moment arm from the thrust lines
slipstream effects
Torque reaction effects
Weathercock tendency

517
Q

On a prop aircraft with a right down blade, the ____ engine is the critical engine

A

left

518
Q

With a jet the direction the wind is _____ _____ is the critical engine.

A

coming from

519
Q

On a 4 engine jet aircraft, the __________ engine is the critical engine

A

outboard into-wind

520
Q

Minimum control speed:

A

the minimum speed required for directional control

521
Q

Vmc

A

airborne minimum control speed

522
Q

Vmcl

A

landing configuration minimum control speed

523
Q

Vmcg

A

Ground minimum control speed

524
Q

Vmc is determined by:

A

min. thrust
Aft CG (most unfavorable)
trimmed for take-off
Max. take-off weight
most critical take off configuration (with gear up)
aircraft is airborne and out of ground effect
If prop - dead engine is windmilling, (if auto-feather is available, feathered)
rudder pedal force must not exceed 150lb

525
Q

Vmcl is determined by:

A
Maximum thrust 
Aft CG (most unfavorable)
Aircraft trimmed for approach 
min. weight (most unfavorable)
most critical landing configuration 
minimum roll of 20° in 5 secs towards live engine
rudder pedal force must not exceed 150lb
526
Q

Vmcg

A
Maximum thrust 
Aft CG (most unfavorable)
Aircraft trimmed for take-off
min. mass (most unfavorable)
most critical take-off configuration 
maintain control with rudder only, max. 30ft deviation from the center line
527
Q

Mach no. equation

A

M = TAS/LSS

528
Q

LSS equation

A

LSS = 39 x √absolute temp(k)

529
Q

As you get higher, the LSS will get _____

A

smaller

530
Q

subsonic

A

Mach no. <1

531
Q

sonic

A

mach no = 1

532
Q

supersonic

A

mach no. >1

533
Q

M0.4 is the point where

A

compressablity takes factor

534
Q

Mcrit

A

The point where the first LSS reaches supersonic

535
Q

Transonic

A

Where some LSS are subsonic, some sonic, some supersonic

536
Q

Mdet

A

The point where all LLS become supersonic

537
Q

Fist shockwave created:

A

Normal shockwave

538
Q

A normal shockwave is caused by

A

Partials where mach >1 collide with partials mach <1

539
Q

The mach no. is a _____ behind the shockwave, with a distance of _____

A

reciprocal

0.0025mm

540
Q

The faster you go, the _____ the drag from the shockwave.

A

greater

541
Q

Oblique shockwave

A

Supersonic flow in-front and behind shockwave, just slower supersonic flow behind

542
Q

Oblique shockwaves occur at

A

the leading and trailing edge

543
Q

Bow wave:

A

Oblique shockwaves above and below the wing, a normal shockwave by the leading edge due to the stagnation zone

544
Q

Ailerons outside of the mach cone are _____

A

ineffective

545
Q

In expansion waves there is:

A
greater static pressure
colder air
less density
faster moving air 
No change in energy
546
Q

Expansion waves effects:

A
Increases - Mach 
Decreases - 
Ps
density 
temperature 
Pt stays the same
547
Q

Norma/oblique waves effects

A
Decreases - 
Mach
Pt
Increases - 
Ps
density
temperature
548
Q

Mdetached occurs at

A

1.3 mach

549
Q

Operating MMO

A

The max. mach no. - climbing

550
Q

Operating VMO

A

the max. calibrated speed - descending

551
Q

The is more pressure differential _____ of the shockwave

A

in-front

552
Q

When going through Mcrit, initially:

A

Cl slightly increases and Cd slightly decreases

553
Q

After -

A

Cl significantly decreases and Cd significantly increases

554
Q

Shock stall -

A

The point when the lift coefficient, as a function of Mach no., goes beyond it’s maximum value.

555
Q

At MFS = 1.0 -

A

Cd drops

Oblique shockwaves form at the trailing edge

556
Q

Mach tuck -

A

Cp moves back
Points nose down. increases speed - exceeding max. operating speed
Tailplane becomes less effective due to increase in turbulent air coming off the wing.

557
Q

Mach trim

A

When approaching transonic, trims horizontal stabiliser to avoid mach tuck

558
Q

Super-critical wings do

A

Mcrit differed
delays Mdrag divergence
Allows us to travel faster

559
Q

Mach buzz

A

felt through controls when approaching Mach 1.0 due to formation of a shockwave

560
Q

High-speed buffet

A

High speed tumbling wake may hit the airframe/horizontal stabiliser causing buffet.

561
Q

For a greater margin between high-speed buffet and low speed buffet you should…

A

descend to a lower altitude.

562
Q

Aerodynamic ceiling

A

Altitude at which you’ll either enter a high speed stall or a lowspeed stall.

563
Q

Transport aircraft load limits

A

Positive: 2.5g
Negative: -1g
Ultimate: 3.75g

564
Q

Utility aircraft load limits

A

Positive: 4.4g
Negative: -1.76g
Ultimate: 6.6g

565
Q

Aerobatic load limits

A

Positive: 6g
Ultimate: 9g

566
Q

the ultimate load is ___ more than the load limit

A

50%

567
Q

in level flight, the load factor is ___

A

1

568
Q

VA

A

The highest speed at which sudden, full-up elevator deflection can be made without exceeding the limit load factor.

569
Q

VA equation

A

VA = VA(current) x √New weight/old weight

570
Q

With flaps extended, the maximum load limit is reduced to ___ on a transport aircraft

A

2g

571
Q

VB

A

The design speed for maximum gust - up to 66fps at 20,000ft

Faster than VA, Slower than VC

572
Q

Vc/Mc

A

Maximum permissible cruise EAS/Mach no.
Always exceed VMO/MMO
Must withstand gusts of 50fps

573
Q

VD

A

the speed increase from Vc/Mc where the areoplane is flow for 20 secs along a flight path 7.5° below the initail path and then up at a load factor of 1.5g.
Withstand gusts of 25fps

574
Q

VNE

A

Never exceed speed (light aircraft)

575
Q

VNO

A

Max. structural cruise speed

576
Q

VLE

A

Max. landing gear extended speed

577
Q

VLO

A

Max. landing gear operating speed

578
Q

VFE

A

Max. flap extension speed

579
Q

VRA

A

Rough air speed (35kts less than VMO)
Recommended penetration airspeed
- Fast enough to avoid stalling
-Slow enough to avoid structural damage

580
Q

Conditions affecting the load factor

A

Rectangular wing effected more
Light aircraft effected more
Faster airspeed effected more
Low altitude effected more

581
Q

New LF equation

A

Increase in LF x (New speed/ old speed)

582
Q

High speed aileron Reversal

A

Aileron reversal due to large aerodynamic forces twisting the wing when aileron is moved.

583
Q

A contaminated wing effects

A
Reduce stalling AOA
Reduce Cl
Increase Stall Speed
Increase Drag
Climb performance decreases
584
Q

Ice tends to accumulate at speeds below _____ IAS and lower altitudes in visible mosisture and between ___ and ___

A

250kts

0 - 20°C

585
Q

_____ aircraft are more susceptible to ice

A

Prop