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A Set > 1st Volume - HVAC/R General Subjects > Flashcards

1st Volume - HVAC/R General Subjects Flashcards

1
Q

What Outlines the basis of CE Organizations

A

Joint Publication 3-34, Engineer Doctrine for Joint Operations

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2
Q

What breaks the CE organization into two basic units?

A

Joint Publication 3-34, Engineer Doctrine for Joint Operations

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3
Q

What are the two basic units of CE organizations?

A

base civil engineer (BCE) units and RED HORSE units.

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4
Q

What is the basic organizational unit for civil engineer operations?

A

The BCE unit

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5
Q

How do BCE units operate?

A

As a combat support force, providing direct support to an operational mission.

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6
Q

What is the BCE unit’s primary mission?

A

To establish, sustain, and restore the base infrastructure.

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7
Q

What does infrastructure include?

A

Buildings, utilities (water, gas, electricity), and roads.

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8
Q

What are CE’s two core missions?

A

Wartime and peacetime

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9
Q

What is the BCE unit’s secondary mission?

A

Provide critical operational support such as fire protection, crash rescue, disaster preparedness, EOD, environmental, housing, and technical engineer services.

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10
Q

How is the CE organization structured?

A

As an objective squadron.

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11
Q

Why is CE structured as an objective squadron?

A

To implement the Air Force’s goal to streamline functions and responsibilities.

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12
Q

What enables us to do our job more effectively using fewer people?

A

The objective squadron concept.

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13
Q

What does the Housing Flight provide?

A

All permanent party personnel with adequate government housing when It is available or assists them with locating adequate off-base housing through referral services. It provides and manages furnishings where authorized and manages all aspects of the housing program

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14
Q

Who provides cradle-to-grave technical design and construction surveillance of operations and maintenance projects by contract?

A

The Engineering Flight

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15
Q

What empowers decision-making and work activities at the lowest level in the Air Force?

A

Objective squadron concept

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16
Q

What does RED HORSE stand for?

A

Rapid Engineer Deployable Heavy Operational Repair Squadron Engineer

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17
Q

What RED HORSE units are structured for?

A

wartime operations to provide heavy engineer capability

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18
Q

Who provides air component commanders with a dedicated and flexible unit capable of airfield and base heavy construction and repair?

A

RED HORSE

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19
Q

What unit has 400 squadron personnel and over 1,800 tons of heavy construction and support equipment and vehicles?

A

RED HORSE

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20
Q

Where are requirements for the Prime BEEF program located?

A

Air Force Instruction (AFI) 10–210, Prime Base Engineer Emergency Force (BEEF) Program

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21
Q

What five-character, alphanumeric code uniquely identifies each type unit of the Armed Forces?

A

Unit Type Codes (UTC)

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22
Q

Who establishes Unit Type Codes (UTC)?

A

MAJCOMs

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23
Q

What code establish the size, composition and equipment that make up Prime BEEF teams?

A

Unit Type Codes (UTC)

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24
Q

Who writes a designed operational capability (DOC) statement for each unit assigned to them?

A

MAJCOMs

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25
Q

What are DOC statements are based on?

A

the number and type of authorized personnel in each unit

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26
Q

The basic CE contingency mission includes what?

A

Force beddown of Air Force units and weapons systems; Operation and maintenance of Air Force facilities, infrastructure, and installations; Aircraft rescue and facility fire suppression; Command and control staff augmentation; Emergency repair of air bases; Construction management of emergency repair and force beddown activities; Rendering safe and disposal of explosive ordnance; Monitoring and protecting resources subject to conventional, nuclear, biological, and chemical attack.

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27
Q

What response time do MAJCOMs use for Prime BEEF forces?

A

24 hours for active units and 28 hours after activation for ANG and AFRES units

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28
Q

What do Prime BEEF UTC core positions represent?

A

minimally acceptable skills and proficiency levels necessary to organize and lead the most demanding contingency tasks required of the UTC; they serve as the core of experts for the UTC.

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29
Q

What are Prime BEEF UTC non-core positions?

A

those that have the same specialty but a lower skill level or those where substitution by other CE Air Force Specialties (AFSs) is permitted

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30
Q

Which positions combine to deliver the total manpower necessary for the UTC to conduct successful operations?

A

Core and non-core positions

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31
Q

What is the basis for all Prime BEEF training?

A

AFI 10–210, Prime Base Engineer Emergency Force (BEEF) Program

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32
Q

Who must attend Silver Flag training?

A

All personnel filling critical UTC positions

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33
Q

What establishes a systematic framework for decision-making with regard to the development of Air Force installations?

A

AF Comprehensive planning

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34
Q

What incorporates Air Force programs such as operational, environmental, and urban planning to identify and assess development alternatives and ensure compliance with applicable federal, state, and local laws, regulations, and policies?

A

AF Comprehensive planning

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35
Q

What allows commanders to thoroughly analyze a variety of factors before making a decision that affects the installation or the surrounding community?

A

AF Comprehensive planning

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36
Q

What keeps everyone on the same page to make sure we meet mission requirements?

A

AF Comprehensive planning

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37
Q

What incorporates many documents and graphics that provide relevant information used in the planning and decision-making process?

A

AF Comprehensive plan

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38
Q

What are the four basic parts of the comprehensive plan?

A

general plan, component plans, special plans and studies, and maps

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39
Q

Which plan is a decision-maker’s summary document that contains text, maps, graphics, photographs, and other information, in a condensed format?

A

General plan

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40
Q

Which plan generally synopsizes information from the component plans as well as other planning documents?

A

General plan

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41
Q

Which plan allows easy updates and provides flexibility in responding to changes in the mission?

A

General plan

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42
Q

Which plans provide DETAILED information in the form of graphics, textual data, narrative, and maps that focus on specific functional areas?

A

Component Plans

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43
Q

Which plans provide an EXTENDED level of information and detail as needed to support execution of Air Force Civil Engineer programs

A

Component Plans

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44
Q

What are the four component plans under the comprehensive plan structure?

A

Composite Constraints and Opportunities; Infrastructure; Land Use and Transportation; and, Capital Improvements Program

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45
Q

What helps visually explain the narrative contained in the general plan, component plans, and special plans and studies?

A

Maps

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46
Q

What informs military planners of what the capabilities of an installation are and how they fit into the overall battle plans?

A

The USAF GeoBase Program

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47
Q

What is the vision of the USAF GeoBase?

A

One installation, one map

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48
Q

What is the high-resolution base map for an installation and includes facilities that all functional communities typically view for reference?

A

The Common Installation Picture (CIP)

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49
Q

What map includes an overhead satellite image or aerial photograph?

A

The Common Installation Picture (CIP)

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50
Q

What should serve as the foundation for the USAF Comprehensive Planning C-1 Installation Layout Map?

A

The Common Installation Picture (CIP)

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51
Q

Who maintains the Common Installation Picture (CIP) at each installation?

A

Civil Engineers

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52
Q

GeoBase is comprised of four unique decision support environments. What are they?

A

Garrison GeoBase, Strategic GeoBase, GeoReach Process, and Expeditionary GeoBase

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53
Q

What GeoBase environment enhances the many overlapping mapping efforts across major and minor installations with a single, coherent approach?

A

Garrison GeoBase

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54
Q

What GeoBase environment provides the structure for base operational support (BOS)?

A

Garrison GeoBase

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55
Q

What GeoBase environment provides the foundation for the Strategic GeoBase program environment?

A

Garrison GeoBase

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56
Q

What GeoBase environment is also a key training device for ground support mapping of forward operating locations (FOLs) during expeditionary operations?

A

Garrison GeoBase

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57
Q

What GeoBase environment offers the Air Force, DoD, and other government leadership the means to visualize Air Force installations through generalized views of detailed imagery and map data maintained as part of Garrison GeoBase?

A

Strategic GeoBase

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58
Q

What process provides senior planners and airmen with new intelligence enabling improved FOL selection, Time-Phased Force and Deployment Data planning, and accelerated bed-down of deployed personnel?

A

The GeoReach Process

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59
Q

What provides support to the Air Force Global Mobility Concept of Operations and the Expeditionary Site Survey Process?

A

The GeoReach Process

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60
Q

What is a lean, forward deployed version of Garrison GeoBase capabilities?

A

Expeditionary GeoBase

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61
Q

What provides provisional commanders and airmen enhanced situational awareness of the expeditionary base?

A

Expeditionary GeoBase

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62
Q

What enables Expeditionary GeoBase and sustains capabilities acquired at home stations through training?

A

The GeoReach Process

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63
Q

What is a template-based site designed to provide a standard for presenting information in support of the The Expeditionary Site Mapping (ESM) Program?

A

The Expeditionary Site Mapping (ESM) Portal

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64
Q

What makes the distribution of site mapping information and map visualization content to DoD users easy?

A

The Expeditionary Site Mapping (ESM) Portal

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65
Q

What portal aligns leadership’s vision for the Expeditionary Site Mapping (ESM) program with current and future site mapping capabilities and development initiatives?

A

The Expeditionary Site Mapping (ESM) Portal

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66
Q

What provides a common view of the Expeditionary Site Mapping (ESM) program throughout the Air Force?

A

The Expeditionary Site Mapping (ESM) Portal

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67
Q

What are geospatial data layers supporting one or more functional communities’ specific missions or processes?

A

Mission Data Sets (MDS)

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68
Q

What Air Force document outlines the basis of the Civil Engineer organizations?

A

Joint Publication 3–34, Engineer Doctrine for Joint Operations

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69
Q

What is the difference between an Air and Space Expeditionary Wing and an Air and Space Expeditionary Force?

A

The AEW must deploy quickly anywhere in the world while the AEF always knows when it is going to deploy and for how long

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70
Q

The Civil Engineer Operations Flight includes the elements of Material Acquisition, Facility
Maintenance, Heavy Repair, and

A

Infrastructure Support.

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71
Q

A RED HORSE unit will deploy with virtually all support necessary to support what function(s)?

A

Force beddown and expedient construction.

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72
Q

Who schedules and coordinates Air National Guard and Air Force Reserve training
deployments?

A

HQ AFCESA.

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73
Q

MAJCOMs ensure that Prime BEEF operational and training activities comply with
environmental laws and standards described in

A

AFPD 32–70, Environmental Quality.

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74
Q

A Prime BEEF unit’s response time

A

is always 24 hours after the mission begins

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75
Q

What Air Force instructional guidance is the basis for all Prime BEEF training?

A

AFI 10–210, Prime Base Engineer Emergency Force (BEEF) Program.

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76
Q

When a Prime BEEF member relocates to another duty station, what happens to his or her training record?

A

A printout of the training record or AF Form 1098 is placed in the member’s AF Form 623,
Individual Training Record.

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77
Q

After receiving initial nuclear, biological, and chemical defense and explosive ordnance
reconnaissance training, how often will you get refresher training for proper wear of chemical gear?

A

Annually.

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78
Q

What is your primary weapon when assigned to a Prime BEEF position?

A

M–16 rifle.

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79
Q

The Air Force comprehensive planning process

A

establishes a systematic framework for making decisions about AF installations.

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80
Q

In a comprehensive plan, what helps to visually explain the narrative contained in the
general plan, component plans, and special plans and studies?

A

Maps.

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81
Q

What is a key training device for ground support mapping of forward operating locations during expeditionary operations?

A

Garrison GeoBase.

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82
Q

The generalized installation views created by Strategic GeoBase are located on a server at

A

the Pentagon.

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83
Q

What enables the Expeditionary GeoBase?

A

GeoReach process.

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84
Q

What are Mission Data Sets?

A

Geospatial data layers supporting a functional community’s mission or processes.

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85
Q

Which system identifies duties and tasks for every position needed to accomplish the Air
Force mission?

A

Military personnel classification.

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86
Q

Each Air Force Specialty is combined into a broad and more general functional category
called

A

a career field

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87
Q

An apprentice learning a trade is at the

A

3-skill level

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88
Q

What is the Chief Enlisted Manager code that identifies a CMSgt or CMSgt-select as the top enlisted manager for Civil Engineers?`

A

3E000.

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89
Q

Which skill level must you obtain before promotion to staff sergeant?

A

5-skill level.

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90
Q

Who is responsible for obtaining the highest possible score on your end-of-course exam for CDCs?

A

You.

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91
Q

What is the forum to change the Career Field Education and Training Plan?

A

Utilization and Training Workshop.

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92
Q

Which proficiency codes identify subject knowledge?

A

A, B, C, and D.

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93
Q

If you can recall the methods, procedures, tools, and equipment associated with a task, you

A

have task knowledge.

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94
Q

As a minimum, what must trainees complete for skill level upgrade?

A

All core and critical tasks in the STS.

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95
Q

For a diamond task, what must the trainee do for upgrade?

A

Complete the task’s Air Force Quality Training Package and pass CerTest.

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96
Q

What electronic training program consolidates all of your training forms into a single database?

A

Air Force Training Records

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97
Q

Who must sign entries electronically on the 623a screen in Air Force Training Records?

A

You and your supervisor.

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98
Q

Which Air Force Training Records screen allows your section to document training for one of a kind systems?

A

797.

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99
Q

Which Air Force Training Records screen allows your trainer to document recurring training such as lockout tagout, HAZCOM, CPR, and the law of armed conflict?

A

1098.

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100
Q

You supervisor will sign you off on which screen in Air Force Training Records as you complete the required Air Force Qualification Training Packages?

A

AFQTP.

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101
Q

When you start a new assignment, within how many days will your supervisor conduct an
initial training needs review?

A

90 days.

102
Q

What are the two parts of a task that you must train?

A

Knowledge and performance.

103
Q

A Qualification Training Package is used to train

A

core tasks.

104
Q

The CerTest pre-tests are used to

A

evaluate a student’s current knowledge and identify weak areas that need training

105
Q

What happens if you fail a CerTest post-test twice?

A

You must complete remedial training for that subject area.

106
Q

What annual audit program was developed to ensure that the Air Force’s environmental
program is operating efficiently?

A

Environmental Compliance Assessment and Management Program.

107
Q

What skill level is a worker who has served an apprenticeship and is qualified to work at a specified trade?

A

A journeyman (5-level)

108
Q

How long must an Apprentice (3-level) perform satisfactorily in 5-skill level upgrade on-the-job training (OJT)?

A

Minimum of 15 Months

109
Q

What did Air Force establish to ensure an integrated multi-disciplinary approach for identifying environmental impacts, minimizing these impacts, and developing policies to maintain environmental compliance?

A

Environmental Protection Committees (EPCs)

110
Q

What was developed to ensure the Air Force’s environmental program was functioning efficiently?

A

An annual audit program was developed, known as the Environmental Compliance Assessment and Management Program (ECAMP)

111
Q

What are a vital part of the Air Force’s Environmental Management System?

A

Environmental Compliance Assessment and Management Program (ECAMP)

112
Q

What aids in assessing the status of an installation’s environmental management system as well as identify deficiencies, best management practices, and provide a mechanism for tracking solutions to identified environmental problems?

A

environmental audits [Environmental Compliance Assessment and Management Program (ECAMP)]

113
Q

How often are major installations required to conduct internal environmental compliance assessments?

A

At least annually

114
Q

Major installations are required to have external compliance assessments at least how often?

A

once every three years

115
Q

What provides you with an explanation of the physical data of the chemicals you work with?

A

The material safety data sheet (MSDS)

116
Q

What Air Force Instruction (AFI) describes the Air Force’s hazardous waste management responsibilities?

A

AFI 32–7042, Solid and Hazardous Waste Compliance

117
Q

Hazardous waste generators must keep training records of former employees for how long?

A

Three years from the last day the person worked.

118
Q

What is a waste stream?

A

The movement of a hazardous waste from the generator to disposal with all of the stops on the way

119
Q

Hazardous waste streams characterization consists of what three activities?

A

identifying (waste analysis plan), quantifying (HW stream inventory), and describing (HW profile sheet).

120
Q

The possible findings for an Environmental Compliance and Assessment Management Plan inspection include Carryover, Major, Minor, Positive, Repeat, and

A

Significant.

121
Q

An Environmental Compliance and Assessment Management Plan final report must be completed within how many days of an internal assessment?

A

120.

122
Q

What requires federal agencies to incorporate environmental considerations in their planning and decision-making process?

A

National Environmental Policy Act.

123
Q

In an environmental impact analysis, a categorical exclusion is an action

A

that has been shown to have no significant impact and requires no further analysis.

124
Q

What is the public document that explains which alternative was selected in the Environmental Impact Statement process?

A

Record of Decision.

125
Q

What form covers releases and transfers of toxic chemicals to various facilities and
environmental media?

A

Form R.

126
Q

Who appoints the administrator of the Environmental Protection Agency?

A

President of the United States.

127
Q

What agency leads the nation’s environmental science, research, education, and assessment efforts?

A

Environmental Protection Agency.

128
Q

For how many years must hazardous waste generators keep training records of former
employees?

A

Three.

129
Q

How long can hazardous waste be stored in an accumulation point before disposal?

A

Up to 90 days.

130
Q

What two inspections does the hazardous waste program require for hazardous waste
activities?

A

Scheduled and unscheduled.

131
Q

Who signs environmental permits and manifests tracking off-base hazardous waste
shipment?

A

Installation commander.

132
Q

When you create a new waste stream, what is the first thing you must do before you can
dispose of the waste?

A

Create a hazardous waste profile.

133
Q

Where will you find instructions and requirements for labeling hazardous waste containers?

A

Installation hazardous waste management plan.

134
Q

When must an employee receive employer-sponsored training on hazardous chemicals?

A

At the time of initial assignment and when a new hazard is introduced into the work area

135
Q

What are the most common colors of floor tiles containing asbestos?

A

Dark green, brown, and red.

136
Q

Having WHAT with a customer means having a relationship based on mutual trust?

A

Rapport

137
Q

What influences your customer’s level of satisfaction?

A

Your attitude, quality of work, and timeliness

138
Q

What often leads to misunderstandings and dissatisfied customers even if the
quality of your work is high?

A

Failing to discuss your work with the customer

139
Q

What is a fast way to accomplish simple work that can be completed by a
single work section?

A

Direct scheduled work (DSW)

140
Q

What is work that generally doesn’t require detailed planning?

A

Direct scheduled work (DSW)

141
Q

These job orders are small and require less than 50 hours of labor to accomplish.

A

Direct scheduled work (DSW)

142
Q

What is for immediate and routine facility work including maintenance, repair, and minor construction work that does not require special funding?

A

Direct scheduled work (DSW)

143
Q

What are the three types of Direct scheduled work (DSW)?

A

Emergency, Urgent, and Routine

144
Q

What type of Direct scheduled work (DSW) is needed if a condition is detrimental to the mission or reduces operational effectiveness?

A

emergency

145
Q

Emergency work must be completed within

A

24 hours of notification

146
Q

Urgent must be completed within

A

seven calendar days after receiving materials

147
Q

Routine work should be completed within

A

30 calendar days or during the next scheduled cycle visit to the facility

148
Q

What is “reactive” work?

A

Direct scheduled work (DSW)

149
Q

What is “proactive” work?

A

Recurring work program (RWP)

150
Q

What accomplishes maintenance to prevent the system from breaking down?

A

Recurring work program (RWP)

151
Q

What includes all work to prevent breakdown of critical facilities, equipment, or utilities?

A

Recurring work program (RWP)

152
Q

What forms identify work that you schedule at regular intervals?

A

AF Form 1841, Maintenance Action Sheet (MAS)

153
Q

What are task intervals referred as?

A

frequencies

154
Q

What refers to how often a task is accomplished?

A

task intervals or frequencies

155
Q

How often will your supervisor will produce an RWP schedule?

A

weekly

156
Q

When will you complete RWP?

A

after any emergency or urgent Direct scheduled work (DSW) and before any routine Direct scheduled work (DSW)

157
Q

What is matching labor, materials, and equipment resources to work requirements?

A

Scheduling

158
Q

Assignment of work requirements are based on what?

A

manpower availability, materials availability, and priority of the jobs

159
Q

What are the two scheduling phases?

A

weekly work schedules and the daily work schedules.

160
Q

When does the scheduling process begin?

A

with the weekly scheduling meeting

161
Q

What is used to track labor spent each month?

A

Labor utilization codes (LUC)

162
Q

What accounting tool allows management

to assign labor to requirements?

A

Labor utilization codes (LUC)

163
Q

What are the two different Labor utilization codes (LUC)?

A

direct and indirect Labor utilization codes (LUC)

164
Q

What is the weekly schedule based on?

A

direct and indirect labor

165
Q

What identifies productive labor hours?

A

direct Labor utilization codes (LUC)

166
Q

What work is that accomplishes an assigned task?

A

Productive labor

167
Q

What are examples of direct labor?

A

DSW, Work orders, RWP, or Utility operations

168
Q

What identifies non-productive labor hours?

A

indirect LUC

169
Q

What is work that does not accomplish a task?

A

Non-productive labor

170
Q

What work is done in support of a project, but not directly related to accomplishing a task

A

Non-productive labor

171
Q

What are examples of Non-productive labor?

A

Supervision, Appointments, Prime BEEF, Leave, Shop clean-up.

172
Q

Which LUC is only used by operations personnel and assures all labor data is correctly reported?

A

LUC 10, Labor Summary

173
Q

Which LUC is used to report labor under the recurring work program.

A

LUC 11, Recurring Work

174
Q

Use this code to report labor for emergency maintenance and repair DSW orders by both shop and DIN personnel.

A

LUC 12 Emergency DSW Orders

175
Q

Use this code to report projects that require design by Engineering or monitoring of contracts utilize this LUC.

A

LUC 13 Engineering Design and

Monitoring Contracts

176
Q

Use this code to report labor for urgent maintenance and repair DSW orders by both shop and DIN personnel.

A

LUC 14 Urgent DSW Orders

177
Q

Use this code to report all MC work authorized by AF Form 327 (work orders) or AF Form 1879 (job orders).

A

LUC 15 Minor Construction Work

178
Q

Use this code to report labor expended for routine maintenance and repair DSW orders.

A

LUC 16 Routine DSW Orders

179
Q

Use this code to report work hours for work orders other than minor construction work orders.

A

LUC 18 Work Orders (Other)

180
Q

Use this code to report all labor expended in support of plant or utility operations.

A

LUC 19 Utility Operations

181
Q

Use this code to report Prime BEEF practice exercises, recalls, M–16 firing.

A

LUC 20 Readiness Training

182
Q

Use this code to report the work supervisors do.

A

LUC 31 Supervision

183
Q

Use this code to report all training conducted in a classroom-type environment

A

LUC 32 Training

184
Q

Use this code to report all types of leave for military and civilian personnel.

A

LUC 33 Leave

185
Q

This code identifies working leaders’ supervision and all other indirect labor that is not included in LUC 31 through LUC 33.

A

LUC 34 All Other

186
Q

Use this code to report all overtime (military and civilian) for ATA personnel.

A

LUC 38 Overtime

187
Q

Use this code to report personnel loaned to other BCE cost centers.

A

LUC 39 Loaned Labor

188
Q

Each LUC can be subdivided into a maximum of how many additional areas for management analysis?

A

nine

189
Q

What allows supervisors to get the most production from his or her section, and also provides a means to recoup reimbursable expenses

A

Time accounting

190
Q

What is used to match labor, materials, and equipment resources to work requirements?

A

scheduling

191
Q

What allows us to complete as many prioritized requirements as the number of labor hours allows?

A

scheduling

192
Q

What is a process that allows you to get everything you will need to complete a job before you start the work?

A

Planning, or estimating

193
Q

How does acquire the necessary resources?

A

By using the Civil Engineer Material Acquisition System (CEMAS)

194
Q

What do you use to obtain most items you need to complete both RWP and DSW jobs?

A

By using the Civil Engineer Material Acquisition System (CEMAS)

195
Q

What is a computerized system used for identifying, acquiring, and controlling material requirements for CE?

A

Civil Engineer Material Acquisition System (CEMAS)

196
Q

What system uses both the national stock number (NSN) and the power of local purchase to obtain the material you need to complete your work?

A

Civil Engineer Material Acquisition System (CEMAS)

197
Q

Who monitors and controls the flow of material to the CE shops?

A

Material Control

198
Q

Who provides logistics support and manages the holding area and residue holding areas?

A

Material Control

199
Q

Who monitors all CE material support?

A

Logistics

200
Q

What are high volume supplies used on a routine basis that includes screws, nuts, bolts, and lumber?

A

Bench Stock

201
Q

Where are excess materials left over from jobs stored?

A

Residue Holding Area

202
Q

What is a material list required to complete a job?

A

Bill of Materials (BOM)

203
Q

What consists of deciding what you need to do and what materials are needed to do it?

A

Planning

204
Q

What is CE’s own supply numbering system called?

A

Consolidated Supply Listing (CSL)

205
Q

A report of survey (ROS) must be performed if the loss or damage of government property exceeds

A

$500

206
Q

What term means having a relationship based on mutual trust?

A

Rapport

207
Q

For Civil Engineer personnel, who is our customer?

A

Everyone on base

208
Q

You have a small job that doesn’t require detailed planning or special funding. What work process should you use?

A

Direct Scheduled Work (DSW)

209
Q

When must you complete an emergency work order?

A

Within 24 hours of notification

210
Q

Unless there is a delay in receiving materials, routine work orders must be completed within

A

30 calendar days

211
Q

Which work process includes all work to prevent breakdown of critical facilities, equipment, or utilities?

A

Recurring work program

212
Q

How often will your supervisor produce a recurring work program schedule using Interim Work Information Management System or Automated Civil Engineer System?

A

Weekly

213
Q

What happens to a recurring work program item that does not have a complete indicator?

A

It remains on the next week’s schedule as a working item

214
Q

What is used to track how labor is spent each month?

A

Labor utilization codes (LUC)

215
Q

What do we call the process your supervisor uses to account for all your time throughout the day?

A

Scheduling

216
Q

What is a process that allows you to get everything you will need to complete the work?

A

Planning

217
Q

Once you have updated an engineering or as built drawing, who must you deliver the updates to so they can update the master files?

A

Maintenance Engineering drafting section

218
Q

What refers to a method where a group of individuals simultaneously contribute ideas to solve a problem?

A

Brainstorming

219
Q

What includes all of the planning documentation needed to complete a job?

A

Work packages

220
Q

What is the system that uses both the national stock number and the power of local purchase to obtain the material you need to complete your work?

A

Civil Engineer Material Aquisition System (CEMAS)

221
Q

What section in Civil Engineer monitors and controls the flow of material to the CE shops?

A

Material Control

222
Q

Where does material control store materials left over after a job is complete?

A

Residue holding area

223
Q

What is a bill of materials?

A

A list of materials required to complete a job

224
Q

What is CE’s own internal numbering system for materials?

A

Consolidated Supply Listing

225
Q

What is shop stock?

A

Left-over material stored in your shop for future use.

226
Q

Who is responsible for government property, including property issued, found, and used?

A

Everyone

227
Q

If you receive government property on a short-term basis, what is used to track accountability of that item?

A

Temporary issue or hand receipt

228
Q

A report of survey must be used to investigate the cause of damage to government property
when

A

exceeds $500

229
Q

If a MAJCOM needs to add material to a publication issued by higher headquarters, the MAJCOM will issue

A

A supplement

230
Q

What publications are concise reference books on the technical aspects of a particular
subject or a compilation of factual data?

A

AF Handbooks

231
Q

What series of publications cover policy on all aspects of civilian and military staffing,
including procuring, promoting, training, and funding?

A

36 Series

232
Q

On the Air Force’s e-Publishing home page, what does the short title search use to find the
publication you are looking for?

A

Publication number

233
Q

On the Air Force’s e-Publishing home page, what does the long title search use to find the
publication you are looking for?

A

Key words of the publication title

234
Q

Which publication should you follow when the guidance issued by a field unit conflicts with
the guidance issued by a higher-level unit?

A

the higher level publication

235
Q

Which commercial publications provide the “how to” aspect of a job?

A

Technical

236
Q

What manuals does the Air Force develop or pay a contractor to develop for all equipment
built to military specifications?

A

Technical Orders

237
Q

What military service develops technical manuals for equipment they use?

A

Army and Marines

238
Q

A manufacturer’s manual that supports equipment designed for commercial use is a

A

Commercial off the shelf manual

239
Q

Which section of a dash 1 contains the step-by-step procedures for operating the equipment?

A

4

240
Q

Which manuals provide instruction for designated field maintenance units in support of the using organization?

A

Field Maintenance Instruction

241
Q

Which manuals are used for major repairs of a particular piece of equipment?

A

Overhaul Instructions

242
Q

Which type of time compliance technical order can be identified by a border of red Xs around the page?

A

Immediate action

243
Q

If a page in a technical order is the original (i.e., no modifications have been made to that
page), what will the a-page show for that page?

A

0

244
Q

What do you do if you cannot find a listing of the specific component you are looking for in a dash 4 (Illustrated Parts Breakdown)?

A

Look in the numerical index

245
Q

How can you identify the specific changes made to a TO?

A

Put a heavy black line next to the text in the outer margin of the page.

246
Q

Engineering technical letters

A

provide directive guidance on construction processes unique to the military mission.

247
Q

Once published, how long does an engineering technical letter remain in effect?

A

Until it is canceled, rescinded, or superseded by a later ETL.

248
Q

What series of publications govern policy and procedures on operations?

A

10 Series

249
Q

What series of publications govern policy and procedures on operations and describe how bases operate day-to-day and during contingency missions?

A

10 Series

250
Q

What series publications guide policy and procedures on all aspects of Air Force civil engineering, including management of real property assets?

A

32 Series

251
Q

What series publications covers policy on all aspects of civilian and military staffing, including procuring, promoting, training, and funding?

A

36 Series

252
Q

What provides you with technical information about a specific piece of equipment?

A

Technical Publications

A Set (2 decks)

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