Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

MCAT > MCAT > Flashcards

MCAT Flashcards

1
Q

The _____ of a wave is directly proportional to its _____, but inversely proportional to its _____

A

The energy of a wave is directly proportional to its frequency, but inversely proportional to its wavelength

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Define: Doppler Effect and its Result

A

An increase (or decrease) in the frequency of sound, light, or other waves as the source and observer move toward (or away from) each other.

The effect causes the sudden change in pitch noticeable in a passing siren.

Shifts frequency, not intensity, so cannot dampen sounds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

________does not change when the wave travels from one medium to another!

A

Frequency does not change when the wave travels from one medium to another!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Why doesn’t _____ change when going through different mediums?

What happens to frequency?

What happens to wavelength?

What happens to speed of wave?

A

When waves travel from one medium to another the frequency never changes.

As waves travel into the denser medium, they slow down and wavelength decreases. Part of the wave travels faster for longer causing the wave to turn.

The wave is slower but the wavelength is shorter meaning frequency remains the same.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is Interference? (Waves)

What are the different types?

What do the different types look like?

A

The combination of 2 or more waves. Can be constructive or destructive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is Constructive Interference?

A

Interference: The combination of 2 or more waves.

When the waves are in-phase (crest meets crest, trough meet trough), this is Constructive Interference.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is destructive interference?

A

When the waves are out-of-phase (crest meets trough, trough meets crest), this is destructive interference and the amplitude (maximum displacement of a wave from its equilibrium) of the resultant wave is equal to the difference between the 2 individual amplitudes

Decreases amplitude, therefore energy, and thus loudness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the relationship between amplification, energy, and frequency?

A

The amplitude, or vertical height, of a wave is defined as half the peak-to-trough height; as the amplitude of a wave with a given frequency increases, so does its energy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Define Wavelength

A

The distance between two corresponding points in a wave—between the midpoints of two peaks, for example, or two troughs—is the wavelength (λ)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Define frequency, what are its units?

A

The frequency (ν) of a wave is the number of oscillations that pass a particular point in a given period of time. The usual units are oscillations per second (1/s = s−1), which in the SI system is called the hertz (Hz)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Define: Amplification

A

A result of constructive interference

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What changes in a molecule would you expect in a Nucleophilic Addition?

A

would expect to see a pi bond in the molecule break in order to form two new sigma bonds.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is Hydrolysis? What are 3 common types?

A

Hydrolysis - hydrolysis is a chemical reaction in which water is used to break down the bonds of a particular substance.

Opposite of condensation (combination of 2 molecules that results in the release of H2O).

Salts: Hydrolysis occurs when salt from a weak base or acid dissolves in liquid. When this occurs, water spontaneously ionizes into hydroxide anions and hydronium cations. This is the most common type of hydrolysis.

Acid: Water can act as an acid or a base, according to the Bronsted-Lowry acid theory. In this case, the water molecule would give away a proton. Perhaps the oldest commercially-practiced example of this type of hydrolysis is saponification, the formation of soap.

Base: This reaction is very similar to the hydrolysis for base dissociation. Again, on a practical note, a base that often dissociates in water is ammonia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Define: Saponification

A

Saponification - describes basic hydrolysis of ester bonds. Typlcally a triglyceride

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What would you expect to see in an oxidation reaction?

A

Oxidation - more oxygen appears in molecule

Oxidation: gain oxygen, lose hydrogen, lose e-

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is a dehydration reaction?

A

Dehydration - the removal of water from a molecule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is a lipase? What is its role?

A

Lipase - an enzyme that breaks down fats (which contain 3 esters)

A lipase is any enzyme that catalyzes the hydrolysis of fats. Lipases are a subclass of the esterases. Lipases perform essential roles in digestion, transport and processing of dietary lipids in most, if not all, living organisms.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the most common biomolecule is an amide present in?

A

Amides - Functional groups present in proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is a hemiacetal?

What common biomolecule is it found in?

A

Hemiacetals - functional groups present in sugars

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What common biomolecules are ethers found in?

A

Ethers - not largely important for biological molecules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Define: Gauge Pressure

A

The pressure relative to atmospheric pressure

Positive for pressures above atmospheric pressure

Negative for pressures below atmospheric pressure

Atmospheric pressure adds to pressure of any fluid not enclosed in a rigid containers. Happens because of Pascal’s Principle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Define: Absolute Pressure

A

Sum of gauge pressure and atmospheric pressure

Pabs = Pg (gauge) + Patm (atmosphere)

Can never be negative

Because fluids push rather than pull, the lowest absolute pressure can be is zero.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Define: Ambient Pressure

A

Pressure of the surrounding medium (gas or liquid) of an object

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Define: Systolic Pressure

A

Maximum Blood Pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Define: Diastolic Blood Pressure

A

Minimum Blood Pressure (like when you die

(diastolic) your blood pressure will be very low)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Paramagnetic

A

electron orbital half-filled

attracted to magnet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Diamagnetic

A

All electrons are paired in valence shell

Not attracted to magnet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Energy of excitation is _______ to energy of emitted photon

A

Energy of excitation is directly proportional to energy of emitted photon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Valence Structure refers to _____ in the periodic table

A

Valence structure refers to the family or column in the periodic table (because family/column have identical valence structures)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

______ always lose their valence “s” electrons before any “d” electrons

A

Transition Metals always lose their valence “s” electrons before any “d” electrons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Triple bonds have ___ pi bonds and ___ sigma bonds

A

Triple bonds have 2 pi bonds and 1 sigma bond

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Double bonds have ___ pi bonds and ___ sigma bonds

A

Double bonds have 1 pi bond and 1 sigma bond

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Single bonds have ___ pi bonds and ___ sigma bonds

A

Single bonds have 0 pi bonds and 1 sigma bond

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

The amount of Acetyl-CoA produced via B-oxidation is ___. The number of rounds in B-oxidation is determined via ___

A

The amount of Acetyl-CoA produced via B-oxidation is C/2. The number of rounds in B-oxidation is determined via (C/2)-1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

For each Acetyl-CoA that enters the TCA cycke generates: ___ NADH and ___ FADH2

A

For each Acetyl-CoA that enters the TCA cycke generates: 3 NADH and 1 FADH2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Disulfide bonds are most easily broken via _______ to their thiol state

A

Disulfide bonds are most easily broken via reduction to their thiol state

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

______ is responsible for forming disulfide bonds

A

oxidation is responsible for forming disulfide bonds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

When Kreb’s Cycle is halted, conditions are (aerobic/anaerobic)

A

Conditions are aerobic still. The ETC is still functional.

Cell would end up consuming more glucose to compensate for loss of ATP production supplied by Kreb’s Cycle.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

A molecule is _________ if it does not have any carbons in which all 4 substituents are different (no chiral centers)

A

A molecule is Optically Inactive if it does not have any carbons in which all 4 substituents are different (no chiral centers)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Define: Osmotic pressure

The solution with _____ [solute] has ______ osmotic pressure

A

The pressure that would have to be applied to a pure solvent to prevent it from passing into a given solution via osmosis

The solution with greater [solute] has greater osmotic pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Define: Hypertonic Solution

A

When osmotic pressure of solution outside the cell is greater than osmotic pressure inside the cell

Water exits to equalize osmotic pressure

Concentration outside is greater than concentration inside

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Define: Hypotonic Solution

A

When Osmotic Pressure inside the cell is greater than osmotic pressure outside the cell.

Water enters cell and cell gets larger or bursts

Concentration inside is greater than concentration outside

43
Q

Tonicity is a measure of _______

A

Osmotic Pressure

44
Q

The ______ in bacteria, help to oppose ______ so that bacteria can exist in hypotonic solutions.

In absence of _____, water can diffuse across ______ and cell can _______

A

The cell wall in bacteria helps to oppose osmotic pressure so that bacteria can exist in hypotonic solutions.

In absence of cell wall, water can diffuse across lipid bilayer, and cell can burst

45
Q

What are 3 facts about a prosthetic group?

A
  1. Non-protein organic molecule associated with an enzyme
  2. Added to proteins after translation
  3. Needed for some enzymes to catalyze reactions
46
Q

The light phase makes _____ and the dark phase consumes _____.

What will happen in the absence of the dark phase?

A

The light phase makes NADPH and the dark phase consumes NADPH

In the absence of the dark phase, NADPH will still be produced, but it will not be consumed, leading to buildup of NADPH. Carbohydrate production will cease (because dark phase is responsible for carb. production)

47
Q

Racemic mictures are (optically active/inactive)

A
48
Q

During _______, the final electron acceptor is O2 (from ____), but during ________, the final accepter is an organic compound.

A

During oxidative phosphorylation, the final electron acceptor is O2 (from NADH), but during fermentation, the final accepter is an organic compound.

49
Q

Lactic acid decreased the pH of plasma (making it more _____). The CO2, dissolved in the plasma, also decreases the pH through conversion to _______. Thus, respiratory rate is regulated to ______ when plasma becomes more acidic.

A
50
Q

glucose is _______ in glycolysis

A

oxidized

51
Q

_____ is regenerated in fermentation, but not in ____.

A

NAD+ is regenerated in fermentation, but not in glycolysis

52
Q
A
53
Q

Muscle cells can produce ATP through:

A

Aerobic Respiration:
With glycolysis linked to the Kreb’s Cycle and Oxidative Phosporylation

Anaerobic Respiration:

With use of NADH to reduce pyruvate to lactic acid, regenerate NAD+

54
Q

Faculative Anaerobes are able to:

A

use either fermentation or oxidative phosphorylation depending on O2 availability

55
Q

Define: Isomerase

A
56
Q

Define: Hydration reaction of a dbl bond

A

In the hydration of a dbl bond (alkene) h20 acts as a nucleophile to destroy double bond and produce an alcohol

57
Q

If you have a 16-carbon fatty acid, How many ATP, NADH, FADH2 will be generated?

In B-oxidation?

In citric acid cycle?

In ETC?

TOTAL?

A

In B-oxidation: # of cycles = (C/2) - 1 -> 16/2 - 1 = 7 cycles. Which produce:

7 FADH2,

7 NADH,

8 Acetyl-CoA

In CAC -> each round produces:

3 NADH

1 FADH2

1 GTP

(so 24 NADH, 8 FADH2, 8 GTP)

In ETC ->

  1. 5 ATP per 1 FADH2
  2. 5 ATP per 1 NADH

1 ATP per 1 GTP

Total of 108 total ATP (be careful, there might be 2 that need to be subtracted due to starting of b-ox)

58
Q

Fatty acid synthesis occurs in the _____

A

cytosol

59
Q

Beta-Oxidation occurs in the _________

A

Mitochondrial Matrix

60
Q

What happens in the absence of oxygen?

A
61
Q

Define: Symbolic Culture

A

Non-tangible culture that exists in society:

norms

beliefs

ideas

(social networks can be an example of symbolic culture)

62
Q

Define: Social Capital

A

Expected benefits that individuals receive from social networks

63
Q

Define: Human Capital

A

Individual’s skills, knowledge, experiences that are condsidered valuable to society.

64
Q

Define: Cultural Capital

A

Non-financial resources that can help an individual’s social mobility

appearance

language

clothing

65
Q

Define: symbolic capital

A

Resources given to an individual due to power or prestige

66
Q

How does social support correlate with mortality?

A

positively correlated with health and negatively correlated to mortality. Therefore, mortality rates decrease as social support increases

67
Q

Define: Social Constructionism

A
68
Q

Define: Symbolic Interactionism

A

Explains why ppl interact and respond to others based on individual’s interpretations of the interactions

69
Q

Define: Conflict Theory

A

Inequality occurs when an uneven distribution of walth and power (resources) is present in a society.

70
Q

Define: Deviance

A

When a social norm is violated (oppositve of conformity)

71
Q

Define: Discrimination

A

Behavior (usually negative) directed towards a specific social group, often emerges from prejudice

72
Q

Define: Privlege

A

The advantages provided to dominant or majority group members, often at the expense of minority group members.

73
Q

Define: Stereotype

A

Single and usually distorted belief aimed at individuals of a social group

74
Q

Define: Prejudice

A

The unjustified attitude (usually negative) toward a specific social group. Can lead to discrimination but doesn’t have to.

75
Q

Define: Weber’s Three Component Theory of Stratification

A

Includes: Class, Power (ability to implement one’s decision despite opposition), and Status (one’s reputation, often associated with class)

Class and status help facilitate power

76
Q

Define Structural Functionalism?

What theorist is it associated with?

A

Structural Functionalism: the relationship between individual parts of society, which function together to promote social order.

Purpose of individual structures is to contibute to stability of the whole society

Durkheim

77
Q

Define: Conflict Theory

What theorist is it associated with?

A

Describes the power relationships and inequality in society.

Argues that power differences and social inequalities contribute to producing social order. (would consider mental illness to be a result of these inequalities)

Karl Marx

78
Q

Define: Symbolic Interactionism

What theorist is it associated with?

A

Sysmbolic meaning between social interactions

The idea that social interaction is a process by which meaning is created and maintained

Mead and Cooley

79
Q

Define: Social Facilitation

A

An individual performs better in activities in which they are being watched as opposed to when they are alone.

80
Q

Define: Conformity

A

When an individual follows an established norm. Opposite of deviance

81
Q

Define: Agents of Socialization

A

Socially contructed roles transmitted in some form (such as tv transmitting social construction of gender roles or parents dressing children in gender specific clothing)

82
Q

Define: Peer Pressure

A

Enouragement from peers to conform to social norms; individuals are influenced by actors within their in-group or that which they relate to or see as role models

(Does it have to be conforming to social norms? Could it be conforming to deviant behavior as well?)

83
Q

Define: Gender Differentiation

A

Gender as a social construct

Not due to biological differences but socially constructed differences (girls wear pink and boys wear blue)

84
Q

Define: Labeling

A

When others place an individual into a certain group until they feel pressured into fulfulling that specific role

85
Q

Define: Ethnocentricism

A
86
Q

Define: Social Exclusion

A
87
Q

Define: Global Inequality

A
88
Q

Define: Cultural Relativism

A

Idea of believeing that no superior group exists and encouraging the mindset of being unbiased to all kinds of groups.

89
Q

Define: Intergenerational mobility

A

Social mobility (up or down), when compare to family members of another generation

90
Q

Define: Intragenerational mobility

A

Social mobility (up or down), when compared with family members of the same generation.

91
Q

What is decarboxylation?

A

Decarboxylation is a chemical reaction that removes a carboxyl group and releases carbon dioxide (CO2). Usually, decarboxylation refers to a reaction of carboxylic acids, removing a carbon atom from a carbon chain.

92
Q

Magnetic fields exert forces on ______/_____ particles. Since photons have no charge, they are (affected/unaffected) by magnetic fields.

A

Magnetic fields exert forces on moving/charged particles. Since photons have no charge, they are unaffected by magnetic fields.

(do particles have to be charged? or can a neutral molecule that is moving be affected??)

93
Q

Define: Alpha Particles

A

Alpha particles: Carry a positive charge. It is made up of two protons, and two neutrons, bound together.

94
Q

Define: Beta particles

A

Beta Particles: Carry a negative charge. Are high-energy electrons

95
Q

Define: Gamma Rays

A

Gamma Rays: Neutral, waves of electromagenetic energy

96
Q

Each subsequent molecule in the electron transport chain has a ______ (higher/lower) affinity for electrons than the molecule before it; therefore, the final electron acceptor will have the _____ (highest/lowest) affinity for electrons.

A

***Remember that each subsequent molecule in the electron transport chain has a higher affinity for electrons than the molecule before it; therefore, the final electron acceptor will have the highest affinity for electrons. Oxygen has a very high electronegativity, making it a good electron acceptor.

97
Q

What is the role of NADH in the ETC? Is NADH a strong or weak electron donor?

A

NADH - Donates its electrons to the first electron carrier in the ETC -> resulting in the oxidized NAD+. Remember, that NAD+ means that it has lost an electron in the form of a hydrogen, meaning it has low electron affinity. NADH is a STRONG ELECTRON DONOR!!!

98
Q

Because ___ is the terminal species in the electron transport chain (ETC), it must have the ______ electron affinity.

_____ donates its electrons to the first electron carrier in the ETC.

_____ enters the ETC by donating its electrons directly to ubiquinone (CoQ)

A

Because O2 is the terminal species in the electron transport chain (ETC), it must have the highest electron affinity.

NADH donates its electrons to the first electron carrier in the ETC, the product of its oxidation, NAD+, would have the lowest electron affinity.

FADH2 enters the ETC by donating its electrons directly to ubiquinone (CoQ) so the oxidized FAD will have a lower electron affinity than CoQ

99
Q

What is the relationship between pKa and pH?

A

The pKa of any system is equal to the pH where exactly half of the compound in solution is in the protonated from and half is in the deprotonated form

(does this mean that it is neutral? - I don’t think it necessarily does)

100
Q

What is the equation that relates:

Energy

Wavelength

A

E = hc/λ

101
Q

Define: Glycosylation

A

Glycosylation: the attachment of sugar moieties to proteins, is a post-translational modification (PTM)

102
Q

Why is an imine unstable to hydrolysis?

A
103
Q

How are imines hydrolyzed?

A

Hydrolysis of Imines: nucleophilic addition; nucleophilic water attacks the electrophilic carbon involved in C=N double bond.

104
Q
A

MCAT (4 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions