Definitions and Abbreviations Flashcards

1
Q

Define alternate aerodrome?

A

Aerodrome to which an aircraft may proceed when it becomes either impossible or inadvisable to proceed to or land at the aerodrome of intended landing.

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2
Q

Define area navigation?

A

A method of navigation which permits aircraft operation on any desired flight path within the coverage of ground or space-based navigation systems or within the limits of self-contained navigation systems, or a combination of these.

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3
Q

Define augmented crew?

A

The crew on an aeroplane when it has more than the minimum crew required by the aeroplane certification.

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4
Q

Define the term, barometric vertical navigation?

A
  • A navigation system that presents to the pilot computed vertical guidance referenced to a specified vertical path angle (VPA), nominally 3 degrees.
  • The computer-resolved vertical guidance is based on barometric altitude.
  • Baro-VNAV approach procedures use a DA/H and not an MDA/H and neither a FAF nor a missed approach point is identified.
  • They only use a final approach point only.
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5
Q

Define CAT II precision approach procedure?

A

A precision instrument approach and landing with a decision height lower than 200 feet, but not lower than 100 feet, and a runway visual range not less than 300 m.

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6
Q

Define CAT IIIA precision approach procedure?

A

A precision instrument approach and landing that has:

  • A decision height lower than 100 feet or no decision height.
  • Runway visual range not less than 175m.
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7
Q

Define CAT IIIB precision approach procedure?

A

A precision instrument approach and landing that has:

  • A decision height lower than 50 feet or no decision height.
  • A runway visual range less than 175m but not less than 50m.
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8
Q

Define CAT IIIC precision approach procedure?

A

A precision instrument approach and landing with no decision height an no runway visual range limitations.

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9
Q

Define the term, change over point (CoP)?

A

The point at which an aircraft navigating on an ATS route defined by reference to very high frequency omnidirectional radio ranges (VOR) is expected to transfer its primary navigational reference from the facility behind the aircraft to the next facility ahead of the aircraft.

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10
Q

Define the term, contaminated runway?

A

In relation to a runway, more than 25% of the runway surface within the required length and width is covered by surface water, slush or loose snow more than 3 millimetres in depth or ice on any part of the runway surface.

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11
Q

Define decision altitude?

A

A specified altitude, referenced to mean sea level, in the precision approach at which a missed approach must be initiated if the required visual reference to continue the approach has not been established.

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12
Q

Define decision height?

A

A specified height, referenced to the runway threshold, in the precision approach at which a missed approach must be initiated if the required visual reference to continue the approach has not been established.

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13
Q

Define the term, escorted passenger?

A

Any passenger requiring the personal attendance of an appointed escort, during an air transport operation.

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14
Q

Define flight level?

A

Altitude expressed in terms of hundreds of feet that is related to a specific datum of 1013.2 hPa and is separated by specific pressure intervals.

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15
Q

Define IFR flight?

A

Flight conducted in accordance with the instrument flight rules.

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16
Q

Define Instrument Approach Procedure?

A

A series of predetermined manoeuvres by reference to flight instruments with specified protection from obstacles from the beginning of a defined arrival route, to a point from which a landing can be completed and if a landing is not completed, to a position at which holding, or en-route obstacle clearance criteria apply.

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17
Q

Define instrument flight?

A

Flight during which an aircraft is piloted solely by reference to instruments and without external reference points.

18
Q

Define instrument flight time?

A

The time during which an aircraft is piloted solely by reference to instruments and without external reference points.

19
Q

Define instrument meteorological conditions?

A

Meteorological conditions in terms of visibility, distance from cloud, and ceiling is less than the minima for visual meteorological conditions.

20
Q

Define instrument time?

A

Includes instrument flight time and time during which a pilot is practising simulated instrument flight on an approved mechanical device.

21
Q

Define mach number?

A

Ratio of true airspeed to the speed of sound.

22
Q

Define minimum descent altitude?

A

A specified altitude, referenced to mean sea level, in a non-precision approach or circling approach below which descent may not be made without visual reference.

23
Q

Define minimum safe altitude?

A

The lowest altitude rounded up to the nearest 100ft, which provides terrain clearance required by CAR 91.

24
Q

Define minimum sector altitude?

A

The lowest altitude that may be used that will provide a minimum clearance of 1000ft (2000ft in mountainous zones) above all objects in an area contained within a circle of 25NM radius centred on a radio navigation aid or where associated with GNSS procedures, the Aerodrome Reference Point.

25
Q

Define precision approach procedure?

A

Instrument approach procedure using azimuth and glide path information.

26
Q

Define procedure altitude?

A
  • A recommended altitude established to setup an established descent profile on a prescribed descent angle in the final approach segment.
  • A procedure altitude will never be less than the segment obstacle clearance altitude.
27
Q

Define required navigation performance (RNP)?

A

Navigation performance accuracy required for operation within a defined area of airspace.

28
Q

Define runway visual range?

A

The range the pilot of an aircraft on the centre line of a runway can see the runway surface markings or the lights delineating the runway or identifying its centreline.

29
Q

Define SEIFR passenger operation?

A

Air transport operation carrying passengers in a single-engine aeroplane under IFR.

30
Q

Define transition altitude?

A

The altitude at or below at which the vertical position of the aircraft is controlled by reference to altitudes.

31
Q

Define transition layer?

A

Airspace between the transition altitude and the transition level.

32
Q

Define transition level?

A
  • The lowest flight level available for use above the transition altitude.
  • May also be known as the Lowest Usable Flight Level.
  • The Transition level is FL150, except:
  • When the zone area QNH is 980 hPa or less, FL160 is to be used.
  • Within a circle of 20NM radius centred on Mt Cook, FL160 is to be used if the aircraft is in IMC.
33
Q

Define ZFT simulator?

A
  • A synthetic flight trainer which:
  • Meets the standard of level 5 in the NZ Civil Aviation Publication 37.
  • Meets the standard of level D/Phase III in part 121 of the US Federal Aviation Regulations.
34
Q

What does PAR stand for?

A

Precision Approach Radar

35
Q

What does PRA stand for?

A

Precision Radar Approach

36
Q

What does RVSM stand for?

A

Reduced Vertical Separation Minimum

37
Q

What does STA stand for?

A

Straight in Approach

38
Q

What does EDTO stand for?

A

Extended diversion time operation

39
Q

What does IFSD stand for?

A

In flight shut down

40
Q

What does VORSEC stand for?

A

VOR/DME Minimum Sector Altitude Chart

41
Q

What does VORTAC stand for?

A

Both a VOR and a tactical air navigation system

42
Q

What does VPA stand for?

A

Vertical path angle