Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

NASM CPT Study Guide Flash Cards > Concepts of Integrated Training (Flexibility, Cardiorespiratory, Core > Flashcards

Concepts of Integrated Training (Flexibility, Cardiorespiratory, Core Flashcards

1
Q

What are 3 primary goals of a core training program?

A

Develop neuromuscular efficiency, intervertebral and LPHC stability, and functional strength

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What stretching technique uses functional movements to move the body through a full range of motion at realistic speeds?

A

Dynamic stretching

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Which balance-power exercise involves lifting one leg directly beside balance leg, hopping off the box and landing on ground on one leg; keeping toes pointing straight ahead and knees directly over the toes, and holding this position for 3 to 5 seconds?

A

Multiplanar single-leg box hop-down with stabilization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which heart rate training zone builds high-end work capacity?

A

Zone three

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What stage is best for people with low-to-moderate cardio fitness levels who are ready to begin training at higher intensities, moves in and out of zones 1 and 2, intro to interval training?

A

Stage II

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

A multiplanar single-leg box hop-up with stabilization is categorized as an exercise in which of the following?

A

Balance-power

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is a multiplanar single-leg box hop-up with stabilization an example of?

A

Balance-power exercise

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

James performs a multiplanar lunge to balance. After first stepping out into the lunge, which of the following should he perform as the next step in this exercise?

A

Push off the front foot through the heel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which structures make up the core?

A

Which structures make up the core?Lumbo-pelvic-hip complex, including the lumbar spine, the pelvic girdle, abdomen, and the hip joint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

The concept of muscle inhibition, caused by a tight agonist, which inhibits its functional antagonist

A

Altered reciprocal inhibition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which heart rate training zone builds aerobic base and aids in recovery?

A

Zone One

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

The process when neural impulses that sense tension are greater than the impulses that cause muscles to contract, providing an inhibitory effect to the muscle spindles

A

Autogenic inhibition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

The tendency of the body to seek the path of least resistance during functional movement patterns

A

Relative flexibility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the repair process initiated by dysfunction within the connective tissue of the kinetic chain that is treated by the body as an injury?

A

Cumulative injury cycle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Stage II intervals should have what work: rest ratio?

A

Start with 1:3, progress to 1:2 and eventually 1:1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What workout component consists of stretching movements that mimic the activity to be performed later in the workout?

A

Specific warm-up

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

How long should a client hold the landing position in a squat jump with stabilization exercise?

A

3–5 seconds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

While performing a multiplanar lunge to balance exercise, a client exhibits excessive extension of the lumbar spine. Which of the following instructions can help this client?

A

Tell the client to reduce their stride length.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

The body’s ability to produce, reduce, and stabilizes forces in all three planes of motion

A

Neuromuscular efficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

On what should core training focus?

A

Quality of movement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is developed when clients demonstrate poor flexibility?

A

Relative flexibility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Which of the following is a form of training in which an individual reacts to the ground surface in such a way that he or she develops larger than normal ground forces that can be used to project the body with a greater velocity or speed of movement?

A

Reactive training

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Consistently repeating the same pattern of motion, which may place abnormal stresses on the body

A

Pattern overload

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Which heart rate training zone increases endurance and trains the anaerobic threshold?

A

Zone two

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

For advanced exercisers, what stage uses all three heart rate zones for maximal cardiorespiratory improvement, used at Power level, includes HIIT?

A

Stage III

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Co-contraction of core movement muscles to increase LPHC stability

A

Abdominal bracing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Which characteristics help identify exercises in the core-stabilization level?

A

Involve little motion through the spine and pelvis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What prepares body and mind for physical activity, increases heart and respiration rates, increases body temperature?

A

The warm-up

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is the reflex that realigns the eyes by anteriorly rotating the pelvis when the cervical spine is in extension?

A

Pelvo-ocular reflex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is the primary goal of core-power training?

A

Develop the ability to stabilize and generate force at functionally applicable speeds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What are some general warm-up recommendations?

A

5 to 10 minutes at low-to-moderate intensity

32
Q

What are 4 core exercises in the strength level?

A

Ball crunch; Back extensions; Reverse crunch; Cable rotations

33
Q

Which stretching technique is used during Phase 5 of the OPT model?

A

Dynamic stretching

34
Q

What are 4 core-power exercises?

A

Rotation chest pass, Ball medicine ball pullover throw, Front medicine ball oblique throw, Soccer throw

35
Q

What stage improves cardio fitness levels using HR zone 1?

A

Stage I

36
Q

What 3 things has research demonstrated regarding circuit training?

A

Just as beneficial as traditional cardiorespiratory training; produces greater levels of EPOC and strength; produces near identical caloric expenditure when compared with walking at a fast pace

37
Q

Which muscles directly attach to the vertebrae and stabilize the spine?

A

Local stabilization musculature

38
Q

What is just as beneficial as traditional cardio for health?

A

Circuit training

39
Q

What uses the Borg scale to rate how hard one is training?

A

Rating of perceived exertion (RPE)

40
Q

What are 4 core-stabilization exercises?

A

Marching, Floor bridge, Floor prone cobra, Prone iso-Abs

41
Q

What workout component consists of movement activities that get heart rate up, such as walking on a treadmill or riding a stationary bike?

A

General warm-up

42
Q

Which stretching technique is used during Phases 2, 3, and 4 of the OPT model?

A

Active-isolated stretching

43
Q

The type of flexibility designed to improve extensibility of soft tissue and increase neuromuscular efficiency by using reciprocal inhibition

A

Active flexibility

44
Q

What type of flexibility is developed during Phase 1 of the OPT model?

A

SMR and static stretching

45
Q

With what stage should Stage II training alternate every other day?

A

Stage I

46
Q

What are the warm-up steps for a Power-level client?

A

SMR, 3-10 dynamic stretches

47
Q

What are 3 reasons to perform cardiorespiratory exercise?

A

Lose weight, reduce stress, improve health

48
Q

What are the 3 phases of the integrated flexibility continuum?

A

Corrective flexibility, active flexibility, functional flexibility

49
Q

What is the recommended frequency for cardiorespiratory training?

A

General health: daily, for small quantities of time, at moderate intensity — To improve fitness: 3 - 5 days per week, at high intensity

50
Q

What are 8 reasons for the incorporation of flexibility training?

A

Correct muscle imbalances; increase joint range of motion; decrease tension of muscles; relieve joint stress; improve extensibility; maintain normal functional length of muscles; improve optimum neuromuscular efficiency; improve function

51
Q

What are the warm-up steps for a Stabilization-level client?

A

SMR, static stretching, 5-10 minutes light cardio

52
Q

What is the minimum amount of time static stretches should be held?

A

30 seconds

53
Q

What are some suggested steps for cool-down?

A

5-10 minutes light cardio, SMR, static stretching

54
Q

Which type of training involves performing exercises as fast and explosively as possible?

A

Reactive-power

55
Q

Exercises with little to no motion of the spine and pelvis used to improve neuromuscular efficiency and intervertebral stability

A

Core-stabilization

56
Q

What is the minimum duration pressure should be sustained on adhesions while performing self-myofascial release?

A

30 seconds

57
Q

An informal method used to gauge exercise training intensity.

A

Talk test

58
Q

The level of demand that activity places on the body

A

Intensity

59
Q

The normal extensibility of all soft tissues that allow full range of motion of a joint

A

Flexibility

60
Q

What are the warm-up steps for a Strength-level client?

A

SMR, active-isolated stretching, 5-10 minutes light cardio

61
Q

Which of the following involves the entire muscle action spectrum and contraction-velocity spectrum used during integrated, functional movements?

A

Plyometric-power training

62
Q

What are 3 things a client should have established prior to incorporating dynamic stretching into a program?

A

Good levels of tissue extensibility, core stability, balance capabilities

63
Q

What is the often overlooked segment of a workout that provides the body with a smooth transition from exercise back to a steady state of rest?

A

Cool-down

64
Q

Altered reciprocal inhibition, synergistic dominance, and arthrokinetic dysfunction all lead to what?

A

Muscle imbalance

65
Q

What are the structures of the LPHC?

A

Lumbar spine, pelvic girdle, abdomen, hip joint

66
Q

The main goal of balance training is to continually increase a client’s awareness of his or her limit of stability awareness by creating which of the following?

A

Controlled instability

67
Q

Core-power exercises are easily identified by:

A

Explosive movements with medicine ball

68
Q

Law that states soft tissue models along lines of stress

A

Davis’s law

69
Q

What are 2 techniques used in corrective flexibility?

A

Static stretching and SMR (self-myofascial release)

70
Q

Pulling the navel toward the spine to increase core stability

A

Drawing-in maneuver

71
Q

Exercises that involve dynamic eccentric and concentric movement of the balance leg through a full range of motion are categorized as which of the following?

A

Balance-strength

72
Q

Which classificaion of exercises involve more dynamic eccentric and concentric movement through a full range of motion?

A

Plyometric-strength

73
Q

Stretching technique that focuses on the neural system and fascial system of the body by applying gentle force to an adhesion

A

Self-myofascial release

74
Q

What is the purpose of stretch-shortening cycles?

A

To produce the necessary force to change the direction of an object’s center of mass efficiently

75
Q

What stretching technique uses agonist and synergist muscles to move a limb through its entire range of motion while stretching the functional antagonist?

A

Active-isolated stretching

NASM CPT Study Guide Flash Cards (10 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions