18-8: Nodules and Tumors Flashcards

1
Q

what are the benign hepatic masses?

A

nodular hyperplasias

hemangiomas

adenomas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what are the malignant hepatic masses?

A

hepatoblastoma

hepatocellular carcinoma

cholangiocarcinoma

angiosarcoma

lymphoma

metastatic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what is focal nodular hyperplasia?

A

a single well-demarcated lesion with central scar

incidental finding in otherwise normal liver

map-like pattern of strong cytoplasmic GS staining

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what conditions are associated with FNH?

A

hepatic or extra-hepatic hemangioma

vascular malformations

some brain tumors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what is nodular regenerative hyperplasia?

A

multiple nodules that resemble cirrhosis however there is no fibrous septa

risk of portal hypertension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what conditions are associated with NRH?

A

HIV

rheumatologic disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what is the most common benign neoplasm of the liver?

A

cavernous hemangioma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what is the presentation of cavernous hemangioma?

A

F > M

usually asymptomatic and incidental discovery

risk of hemorrhage due to subcapsular location

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what is the presentation of hepatocellular adenoma?

A

F > M

associated with oral contraceptives and anabolic steroids

increased incidence with obesity and metabolic syndrome

usually an incidental finding on imaging but may be found due to rapid growth or hemorrhage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what are the adenoma subtypes?

A

HNF1-a inactivated adenoma

Inflammatory adenoma

B-Catenin activated adenoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

HNF1-a inactivated adenoma

A

strong female predilection

fatty tumor without atypia

minimal risk of malignant transformation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Inflammatory adenoma

A

strongly associated with females and obesity/metabolic syndrome

overexpress CRP and amyloid A

risk for malignant transformation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

B-Catenin activated adenoma

A

40% occur in men

associated with oral contraceptives and anabolic steroids

high risk for malignant transformation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what is the clinical presentation of hepatoblastoma?

A

< 3 years old

asymptomatic abdominal swelling

occasionally presents with jaundice and pruritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what are the histological features of the epithelial type hepatoblastoma?

A

small polygonal fetal cells or smaller embryonal cells forming acini, tubules or papillary structures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what are the histological features of the mixed type hepatoblastoma?

A

contains primitive mesenchyme of osteoid, cartilage or striated muscle along with epithelial tissue

17
Q

where is a hepatoblastoma likely to metastasize?

A

the lungs

18
Q

what conditions are associated with hepatoblastoma?

A

FAP

Beckwith-Wiedemann Syndrome

19
Q

what is the most common primary malignancy of hepatocytes?

A

hepatocellular carcinoma

20
Q

where is HCC most common?

A

in Asia and sub-Saharan Africa where chronic HBV infection is common

21
Q

what factors are most important in the formation of HCC?

A

viral infections (HBV and HCV)

toxic injuries (aflatoxins and alcohol)

22
Q

what typically precedes HCC?

A

chronic liver disease with cirrhosis

*15-20% arise in noncirrhotic livers

23
Q

what are the macroscopic and microscopic features of HCC?

A

macro: single, large, hard, scirrhous tumor with fibrous bands
micro: large polygonal cells with granular cytoplasm, vesicular nuclei with a prominent nucleolus and parallel lamellae of dense collagen bundles

24
Q

what is the treatment for HCC?

A

Surgical resection for noncirrhotic livers or cirrhotic livers with adequate function

Transplant for advanced cirrhotic livers

Tumor ablation for unresectable tumors or those that cannot receive a transplant

25
Q

what is the origin of intrahepatic cholangiocarcinoma?

A

arising from the intrahepatic biliary tree

26
Q

what is the origin of biliary adenocarcinoma?

A

arising from extrahepatic bile ducts

27
Q

where is intrahepatic cholangiocarcinoma most common?

A

Southeast Asian countries where liver fluke infestations are endemic

28
Q

what are some risk factors associated with intrahepatic cholangiocarcinoma?

A

fibropolycystic liver disease

primary sclerosing cholangitis

liver fluke infestation

hepatolithiasis

Hep B and C

Nonalcoholic fatty liver disease

29
Q

where are the majority of intrahepatic cholangiocarcinoma located within the biliary tree?

A

at the bifurcation of the biliary system (Klatskin tumors)

30
Q

What features are similar between intrahepatic and extrahepatic tumors?

A

clearly defined glandular/tubular structures lined by malignant epithelial cells embedded in an abundant fibrous stroma

lymphovascular and perineural invasion are common

31
Q

how do the presentations of intrahepatic and extrahepatic tumors differ?

A

intrahepatic may be asymptomatic or present as a liver mass

extrahepatic present with symptoms related to biliary obstruction

32
Q

angiosarcoma is caused by exposure to which substances?

A

vinyl chloride

arsenic

Thorotrast

33
Q

what diseases are associated with hepatic lymphoma?

A

Hep B and C

HIV

Primary biliary cholangitis

34
Q

which is more common, primary liver cancer or metastatic malignancy?

A

metastatic malignancy from another primary source

ex: colon, breast, lung and pancreas

35
Q

what symptoms are universal to all hepatic malignancies?

A

anorexia

fevers

jaundice

nausea

RUQ pain

sweats

weight loss