PMP Mock 5,6,7 and 12

Question 1

All of the following are true about the project scope management plan EXCEPT:
A. It provides guidance on how project scope will be defined, documented, managed, and
controlled.
B. It provides guidance on how project scope will be verified.
C. It may be formal or informal, highly detailed, or broadly framed, based upon the needs of the
project.
D. It is separate from the project management plan.

Answer 1

D

Question 2

Collect Requirements is the process of defining and documenting stakeholders’ needs to
meet the project objectives. All of the following are true about this process EXCEPT:
A. The project’s success is directly influenced by the care taken in capturing and managing
project and product requirements.
B. Requirements include the quantified and documented needs and expectations of the sponsor,
customer, and other stakeholders.
C. Requirements become the foundation of the WBS. Cost, schedule, and quality planning are all
built upon these requirements.
D. The development of requirements begins with an analysis of the information contained in the
risk register.

Answer 2

D

Question 3

All of the following are true about the project scope statement EXCEPT:
A. It is an output of the Verify Scope process.
B. It describes, in detail, the project’s deliverables and the work required to create those
deliverables.
C. It provides a common understanding of the project scope among project stakeholders.
D. It may contain explicit scope exclusions that can assist in managing stakeholder expectations.

Answer 3

A

Question 4

All of the following are true about the Control Scope process EXCEPT:
A. Control Scope is the process of monitoring the Status of the project and product scope and
managing changes to the scope baseline.
B. Project scope control is used to manage the actual changes when they occur and is integrated
with the other control processes.
C. Scope changes can be avoided by developing clear and concise specifications and enforcing
strict adherence to them.
D. Scope control includes determining the cause and degree of variance relative to the scope
baseline and deciding whether corrective or preventive action is required.

Answer 4

C

Question 5

Which of the following statements is true about the work breakdown structure (WBS)?
A. The WBS is a deliverable-oriented hierarchical decomposition of the work to be executed by
the project team to accomplish the project objectives and create the required deliverables.
B. The WBS is an unstructured list of project activities in chart form.
C. The WBS is the same as the organizational breakdown structure (OBS).
D. The WBS is the bill of materials (BOM) needed to accomplish the project objectives and
create the required deliverables.

Answer 5

A

Question 6

The following is an example of a constraint associated with the project scope that limits
the team’s options in scope definition:
A. A predefined budget.
B. The threat of a strike by a subcontractor.
C. Existing relationships with sellers, suppliers, or others in the supply chain.
D. The method used to measure project performance.

Answer 6

A

Question 7

An input to the Define Scope process is:
A. The type of contract detail language.
B. Project Charter.
C. Work breakdown structure (WBS).
D. Decomposition.

Answer 7

B

Question 8

What is the WBS typically used for?
A. To organize and define the total scope of the project.
B. To identify the logical person to be project sponsor.
C. To define the level of reporting that the seller provides the buyer.
D. As a record of when work elements are assigned to individuals.

Answer 8

A

Question 9

The following is true about the WBS:
A. The WBS is another term for the bar (Gantt) chart.
B. Each descending level of the WBS represents an increasingly detailed definition of the project
work.
C. Work not in the WBS is usually defined in the scope statement of the project.
D. The WBS shows only the critical path activities.

Answer 9

B

Question 10

An output of the Define Scope process is:
A. Work breakdown structure (WBS).
B. Resource breakdown structure (RBS).
C. Project scope statement.
D. Scope and schedule delays control plan.

Answer 10

C

Question 11

Which of the following is true about the Verify Scope process?
A. It is the process of formalizing acceptance of the completed project deliverables,
B. Is not necessary if the project completes on time and within budget.
C. Occurs primarily when revisions or changes are made to project scope.
D. Scope verification is primarily concerned with correctness of the deliverables, while quality
control is primarily concerned with acceptance of the deliverables and meeting the quality
requirements specified for the deliverables.

Answer 11

A

Question 12

Which of the following is not an output of the Control Scope process?
A. Work performance measurements.
B. Change requests.
C. Project document updates.
D. Accepted deliverables

Answer 12

D

Question 13

The Project Time Management processes include:
A. Activity Definition, Activity Sequencing, Activity Execution, Activity Duration Estimation,
and Activity Control.
B. Define Activities, Sequence Activities, Estimate Activity Resources, Estimate Activity
Durations, Develop Schedule, and Control Schedule.
C. Identify Activities, Develop Schedule, Execute Activities, Control Activities, and Monitor
Schedule Results.
D. Determine Activities, Estimate Activity Durations, Develop Schedule, Implement Activities,
and Report Activity Results.

Answer 13

B

Question 14

In rolling wave planning:
A. Focus is maintained on long-term objectives, allowing near-term objectives to be rolled out as
part of the ongoing wave of activities.
B. The work to be accomplished in the near term is planned in detail and future work is planned
at a higher level of the WBS.
C. The work far in the future is planned in detail for WBS components that are at a low level of
the WBS.
D. A wave of detailed activities is planned during strategic planning to ensure that WBS
deliverables and project milestones are achieved.

Answer 14

B

Question 15

The precedence diagramming method (PDM):
A. Uses boxes or rectangles to represent activities. Therefore, it is also called activity-on-node
(AON).
B. Uses a probabilistic approach to scheduling project activities.
C. Is a time-phased graphical representation of the arrow diagramming method (ADM) and
shows durations of project activities as well as their dependencies.
D. Is more accurate than the critical path method for scheduling when there are uncertainties
about the durations of project activities.

Answer 15

A

Question 16

The duration of the activity is affected by all of the following EXCEPT:
A. The estimated activity resource requirements.
B. The resources assigned to the activity.
C. The availability of the resources assigned to the activity.
D. Using the precedence diagramming method (PDM) for scheduling activities instead of using
the Critical Path Method (CPM).

Answer 16

D

Question 17

The “fast tracking” method of schedule compression involves:
A. The use of industrial engineering techniques to improve productivity, thereby finishing the
project earlier than originally planned.
B. Performing in parallel activities that are normally performed in sequence, which may result in
rework and increased risk.
C. Going on a “mandatory overtime schedule” to complete the project on schedule or earlier if
possible.
D. Assigning “dedicated teams” to critical path activities to achieve project schedule objectives.

Answer 17

B

Question 18

An example of a mandatory dependency, as opposed to a discretionary dependency, is:
A. Project A, the company’s participation in a pump industry trade show, depends on the
successful completion of Project B, which is building the prototype pump that is going to be
displayed.
B. To start design only after completion and approval of all project requirements.
C. For the shrink-wrapping on the finished box of software to depend on enclosing the manual
and software first.
D. To schedule the final testing activity of a new Computer model to start seventy-two hours
after the start of the mandatory seventy-two hour “burn-in” period.

Answer 18

C

Question 19

Inputs to the Define Activities process are:
A. Work breakdown structure, project schedule, and network diagram.
B. Project schedule, progress reports, and change requests.
C. Project network diagram, constraints, and assumptions.
D. Schedule Management Plan, Scope baseline, enterprise environmental factors, and
organizational process assets.

Answer 19

D

Question 20

A schedule compression technique to determine how to obtain the greatest amount of
compression for the least incremental cost is called:
A. Crashing.
B. Program evaluation and review technique (PERT).
C. Precedence diagramming method (PDM).
D. Fast tracking.

Answer 20

A

Question 21

Bar charts show:
A. The level of effort for an activity.
B. Activity start and end dates, as well as expected durations.
C. Availability of resources assigned to perform project activities.
D. Relative priority of activities.

Answer 21

D

Question 22

The precedence diagramming method (PDM) shows:
A. Various levels of the work breakdown structure.
B. Activities likely to be involved in project integration and resource allocation processes.
C. The logical relationships that exist between activities.
D. The project completion date based on normal resource availability.

Answer 22

C

Question 23

The critical path is established by calculating the following dates:
A. Start-to-start, start-to-finish, finish-to-finish, finish-to-Start.
B. Early start, early finish, late start, late finish.
C. Predecessor-to-successor, predecessor-to-predecessor, successor-to-successor.
D. Primary-to-secondary, primary-to-finish, secondary-to-secondary, finish-to-finish.

Answer 23

B

Question 24

All of the following are true about resource leveling EXCEPT:
A. It can be used to keep resource usage at a constant level during certain time periods.
B. It can often cause the original critical path to change.
C. It is used to optimize the distribution of work among resources.
D. It is used to develop a resource-based WBS.

Answer 24

D

Question 25

The following is true about the critical chain:
A. It is a network scheduling technique that allows development of an optimum project schedule
when resources are unlimited.
B. It is a schedule network analysis technique that modifies the project schedule to account for
limited resources.
C. It is another name for the bar chart.
D. It is primarily used to ensure safety in major construction projects.

Answer 25

B

Question 26

‘Crashing” in time management is:
A. A schedule compression technique that typically includes reducing schedule activity
durations and increasing the assignment of resources on schedule activities.
B. A schedule compression technique in which phases or activities that normally would be done
in sequence are performed in parallel.
C. The timely input of data to calculate the critical path.
D. Equivalent to minimizing float in the project schedule network.

Answer 26

A

Question 27

All of the following choices represent inputs to the Estimate Activity Resources process
EXCEPT:
A. Activity list.
B. Enterprise environmental factors.
C. The actual resource cost of the last project.
D. Organizational process assets.

Answer 27

C

Question 28

Output from the Estimate Activity Resources process includes:
A. Job descriptions of resources required for the project.
B. Salary schedules for various project human resources.
C. Identification of the types and quantities of resources required for each activity.
D. Analogous estimating of resource requirements.

Answer 28

D

Question 29

As one of the tools and techniques of the Sequence Activities process, a lead:
A. Directs a delay in the successor activity.
B. Could be accomplished by a finish-to-start relationship with a delay time.
C. Means that the successor activity cannot start until after the predecessor is completed.
D. Allows an acceleration of the successor activity.

Answer 29

D

Question 30

Program evaluation and review technique (PERT) uses:
A. The weighted average of the triangular distribution duration estimates to calculate the activity
early finish date.
B. The weighted average of three point duration estimates to calculate the expected activity
duration.
C. Dummy activities to represent logic ties.
D. Free float instead of total float in the schedule calculations.

Answer 30

B

Question 31

Analogous duration estimating is:
A. The same as bottom-up estimating.
B. Frequently used to estimate project duration when there is a limited amount of detailed
information about the project.
C. Similar to multiple duration estimating.
D. Generally more accurate than other duration estimating methods when expert judgment is
used.

Answer 31

B

Question 32

The critical chain:
A. Focuses on managing the resources applied to the project buffer and to feeding buffer
activities.
B. Alters the required dependencies in the project schedule to optimize resource constraints.
C. Adds duration buffers that are work schedule activities to manage risk and maintains focus on
the total float of network paths.
D. Adds duration buffers that are non-work schedule activities to manage uncertainty and
focuses on managing remaining buffer durations against the remaining durations of task chains.

Answer 32

D

Question 33

Project Cost Management includes all of the following processes EXCEPT:
A. Estimate Costs.
B. Level Resource.
C. Determine Budget.
D. Control Costs.

Answer 33

find

Question 34

All of the following are true about cost estimates EXCEPT:
A. Cost estimates are generally expressed in units of some currency (i.e., dollars, euro, yen, etc.),
although in some instances other units of measure, such as staff hours or staff days, are used.
B. Costs are estimated for all resources that will be charged to the project.
C. Information in the risk register should not be used to adjust cost estimates, because risks can
be either threats or opportunities and their impact tends to balance out.
D. Cost estimates are quantitative assessments of the likely costs for resources required to
complete project activities.

Answer 34

C

Question 35

Project cost control includes all of the following EXCEPT:
A. Informing appropriate stakeholders of all approved changes and associated cost.
B. Monitoring cost performance to isolate and understand variances from the approved cost
baseline.
C. Monitoring work performance against funds expended.
D. Allocating the overall estimates to individual work packages to establish a cost baseline.

Answer 35

D

Question 36

An activity cost estimate includes all of the following resource categories EXCEPT:
A. Labor.
B. Materials.
C. Equipment.
D. Time shortages.

Answer 36

D

Question 37

Parametric estimating involves:
A. Defining cost or duration parameters of the project life cycle.
B. Calculating individual cost and duration estimates for each work package and integrating
them to obtain the total cost or duration of the project.
C. Using a statistical relationship between historical data and other variables to calculate an
estimate for activity parameters, such as cost, budget, and duration.
D. Using the actual cost or duration of a previous similar project to estimate the cost or duration
of the current

Answer 37

C

Question 38

Analogous cost estimating:
A. Integrates bottom-up estimating techniques with relevant statistical relationship to estimate
the cost of the current project.
B. Relies on the actual cost of previous, similar projects as the basis for estimating the cost of
the current project.
C. Is used most frequently in the later phases of a project.
D. Summarizes estimates for individual work packages to estimate the cost of the current project.

Answer 38

B

Question 39

Which of the following represents processes concerned with establishing and
controlling the cost baseline?
A. Plan Resources and Contain Costs.
B. Estimate Costs, Develop Budget, and Adhere to Baseline.
C. Determine Budget and Control Costs.
D. Resource Planning, Cost Estimating, and Cost Control.

Answer 39

B

Question 40

Consider the following cumulative measures: 
BAC = 200 
AC = 120
EV = 80
CPI = 0.666 
Predicting that all future work will be accomplished at the budgeted rate, the estimate 
at completion (EAC) is:
A. 120.
B. 160.
C. 200.
D. 240.

Answer 40

D

Question 41

Consider the following cumulative measures:
BAC = 200
AC = 120
EV = 80
CPI = 0.666
Assuming that what the project has experienced to date can be expected to continue in
the future, the estimate at completion (EAC) is:
A. 220.
B. 240.
C. 300.
D. 320.

Answer 41

C

Question 42

The cost performance baseline has all of the following characteristics EXCEPT:
A. It is an authorized time-phased budget at completion (BAC) used to measure, monitor, and
control overall cost performance on the project.
B. It shows the actual cost expenditures throughout the life of the project.
C. It is developed as a summation of the approved budgets by time period.
D. It is typically displayed in the form of an S-curve.

Answer 42

B

Question 43

The estimate at completion (EAC) is typically based on:
A. The earned value (EV) and the actual cost for work completed (AC).
B. The cost performance index (CPI) and the cost variance (CV).
C. The actual costs incurred for work completed (AC) and the cumulative cost performance
index (CM).
D. The actual costs incurred for work completed (AC), and the estimate to complete (ETC) the
remaining work.

Answer 43

A

Question 44

The cost management plan has all of the following characteristics EXCEPT:
A. It is based on the project cost estimates and is separate from the project plan.
B. It may specify variance thresholds for monitoring cost performance to indicate an agreedupon amount of variation to be allowed before some action needs to be taken.
C. It may be formal or informal, highly detailed or broadly framed, based upon the needs of the
project.
D. It sets out the format and establishes the criteria for planning, structuring, estimating,
budgeting, and controlling project costs.

Answer 44

A

Question 45

Your earned value management analysis indicates that your project is falling behind its
baseline schedule. You know this because the cumulative EV is much:
A. Higher than the cumulative AC.
B. Higher than the cumulative PV.
C. Lower than the cumulative PV.
D. Lower than the cumulative CPI.

Answer 45

C

Question 46

Which of the following cumulative measures indicates that your project is about 9%
under budget?
A. The cumulative AC was 100, and the cumulative EV was 110.
B. The cumulative PV was 100, and the cumulative AC was 110.
C. The cumulative AC was 110, and the cumulative EV was 100.
D. The cumulative EV was 100, and the cumulative PV was 110.

Answer 46

A

Question 47

Earned value management (EVM) is a commonly used:
A. Analysis of the value of the equipment that has been installed as of the status date.
B. Analysis of the sum of the labor costs, which have been incurred on the project to date.
C. Method of project performance measurement.
D. Method of measuring the amount of money that has been spent to date.

Answer 47

C

Question 48

During the sixth monthly update on a ten month, $300.000 project, the earned value
management analysis shows that the cumulative PV is $190.000, the cumulative AC is
$120.000, and the cumulative EV is $150,000. In planning its action, the project
management team can conclude all of the following from these measures EXCEPT:
A. Less has been accomplished than was planned.
B. Less has been spent than planned.
C. Continuing performance at the same efficiency with no management intervention, the project
will probably be completed behind schedule and under budget.
D. Continuing performance at the same efficiency with no management intervention, the project
will probably be completed ahead of schedule and over budget.

Answer 48

D

Question 49

In earned value management, the cost variance is equal to:
A. EV minus PV.
B. EV minus AC.
C. AC minus EV.
D. PV minus EV

Answer 49

B

Question 50

Earned value (EV) involves all of the following EXCEPT:
A. Value of work performed expressed in terms of the approved budget assigned to that work for
an activity or work breakdown structure component.
B. Actual cost for an activity or work breakdown structure component.
C. Budgeted cost of work performed.
D. Budgeted for amount the work actually completed.

Answer 50

B

Question 51

If cumulative PV = 100, cumulative EV = 98, and cumulative AC = 104, the project is
likely to be:
A. Ahead of schedule.
B. Headed for a cost overrun.
C. Operating at project cost projections.
D. Under budget at completion.

Answer 51

B

Question 52

Cumulative data for questions 98-99:
Item PV AC EV
1 10,000 11,000 10,000
2 9,000 8,000 7,000
3 8,000 8,000 8,000
4 7,000 7,000 5,000

Which item is MOST over budget?
A. Item 1
B. Item 2
C. Item 3
D. Item 4

Answer 52

A

Question 53

Cumulative data for questions 98-99:
Item PV AC EV
1 10,000 11,000 10,000
2 9,000 8,000 7,000
3 8,000 8,000 8,000
4 7,000 7,000 5,000

Which item has the LOWEST SPI?
A. Item 1
B. Item 2
C. Item 3
D. Item 4

Answer 53

D

Question 54

Understanding, evaluating, defining, and managing expectations are essential to 
satisfying:
A. Customer requirements.
B. The scope statement.
C. Upper management.
D. Functional requirements.

Answer 54

A

Question 55

All of the following are inputs to the Plan Procurements process EXCEPT:
A. Scope baseline.
B. Risk register.
C. Application area extensions
D. Enterprise environmental factors

Answer 55

C

Question 56

Generally, a bid differs from a proposal in that the term:
A. Proposal is used when source selection will be based on price.
B. Proposal is used when the project time frame is limited.
C. Bid is used when the seller selection decision will be based on price
D. Bid is used when technical capability and technical approach considerations are paramount.

Answer 56

C

Question 57

The buyer structures procurement documents to accomplish all of the following
EXCEPT:
A. Facilitate an accurate and complete response from each prospective seller.
B. Include a description of the desired form of the response.
C. Include the relevant procurement statement of work (SOW) and any required contractual
provisions.
D. Provide a list of potential bidders to each prospective seller.

Answer 57

D

Question 58

Approved change requests can generally include all of the following EXCEPT:
A. Modifications to the terms and conditions of the contract.
B. Modification to pricing.
C. Seiler invoices.
D. Modification to the description of the products, services, or results to be provided.

Answer 58

C

Question 59

Which of the following is false about advertising as one of the Conduct Procurements
process tools and techniques?
A. Some government jurisdictions require public advertising of certain types of procurement
items.
B. Advertising can often be used to expand existing lists of potential sellers.
C. Advertising in general circulation publications can cause public pressure resulting in bid
disputes.
D. Advertising can be placed in general circulation publications, such as selected newspapers,
or in specialty trade publications

Answer 59

C

Question 60

Payment systems generally include all of the following characteristics EXCEPT
A. Payments are typically processed after certification of satisfactory work by an authorized
person on the project team.
B. All payments should be made and documented in strict accordance with the terms of the
contract,
C. Renegotiations of price and other terms of the contract are typically conducted prior to
authorizing payments to the seller.
D. Payments to the seller are typically processed by the accounts payable System of the buyer.

Answer 60

C

Question 61

The buyer, usually through its authorized procurement administrator, provides the
seller with __________________ as an output of the Close Procurements process.
A. Formal written notice that the deliverables have been accepted or rejected.
B. Letters of commendation to all project team members.
C. Informal notice of acceptance of the deliverables.
D. A copy of the internal notice of completion provided to senior management.

Answer 61

A

Question 62

In which type of contract must buyers precisely specify the product or services being 
procured?
A. Cost plus award fee contract.
B. Fixed-price contract.
C. Cost-reimbursable contract.
D. Partnership contract.

Answer 62

B

Question 63

Which of the following is one of the terms used to describe contested changes and
potential constructive changes where the buyer and seller cannot reach an agreement
on compensation for the change, or cannot agree that a change has occurred?
A. Forcing.
B. Mediation.
C. Complaints.
D. Claims.

Answer 63

D

Question 64

Constructive changes are:
A. Postponed as long as possible to protect the budget.
B. Viewed as negative, quantified, and tabulated.
C. Uniquely identified and documented by project correspondence.
D. Submitted for bids to the relevant vendor list.

Answer 64

C

Question 65

The procurement audit has all of the following characteristics EXCEPT:
A. It maintains a complete file of procurement-related records.
B. It is a structured review of the procurement process.
C. It is a review of the procurement process originating from the Plan Procurements process
through the Administer Procurements process.
D. Its objective is to identify successes and failures that warrant recognition.

Answer 65

A

Question 66

Different types of contracts may be in the best interests of the project. Contracts
generally fall into one of the following broad categories EXCEPT:
A. Request for proposal (RFP).
B. Fixed-price contracts.
C. Cost-reimbursable contracts.
D. Time and material contracts (T&M).

Answer 66

A

Question 67

All of the following are true about the statement of work (SOW) for a procurement
EXCEPT:
A. It describes the procurement item in sufficient detail to allow prospective sellers to
determine if they are capable of providing the products, services, or results.
B. It should be as ambiguous, incomplete, and wordy as possible to allow for future
negotiations.
C. It can include specifications, quantity desired, quality levels, performance data, period of
performance, work location, and other requirements.
D. It can be revised and refined as required as it moves through the procurement process until
incorporated into a signed contract award.

Answer 67

B

Question 68

Outputs from the Close Procurements process generally include all of the following
EXCEPT:
A. Closed procurements.
B. Formal written notice that the deliverables have been accepted or rejected.
C. The Request for Proposal (RFP) or Request for Quotation (RFQ), and the contractor’s
working proposal.
D. Lessons learned documentation.

Answer 68

C

Question 69

Source selection criteria are developed and used to rate or score seller proposals.
These criteria have generally all of the following characteristics EXCEPT:
A. They are often included as a part of the procurement solicitation documents.
B. They can be objective or subjective.
C. They can be limited to the purchase price if the procurement item is readily available from a
number of acceptable sellers.
D. They generally require specification of the name of the transportation organization
responsible for delivery of procured products.

Answer 69

D

Question 70

All of the following are tools and techniques of the Conduct Procurements process 
EXCEPT:
A. Proposal evaluation techniques.
B. Independent estimates.
C. Procurement negotiations.
D. Resource distribution system.

Answer 70

D