CNS infections Flashcards

1
Q

congenital infections of the fetal and neonatal brain are commonly referred to as the group of ____. they often result in significant brain injury, and congenital brain malformations are more frequently seen with earlier onset of infections in utero due to disruption of the normal CNS development during fetal gestation

A

TORCH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

TORCH infection includes

A

toxoplasmosis, other infections (syphilis, varicella zoster, lymphocytic choriomeningitis), rubella, cytomegalovirus, herpes simplex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

another important virus now recognized prenatal CNS infection aside from TORCH

A

Zika virus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

member of the herpes family of viruses andis the most common congenital CNS infection. In utero transmission occurs hematogeneously during viral reactivation in seropositive pregnant women or primary infection during pregnancy

A

Cytomegalovirus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

30 to 50% of CMV infection is from

A

transplacental transmission

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

symptomatic neonates with this viral infection may have hepatosplenomegaly, jaundice, cerebral involvement (psychomotor retardation), chorioretinitis and deafness. virus also preferentially multiplies along the ependyma and germinal matrix resulting in a periventricular pattern of injury and development of dystrophic calcifications

A

CMV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

calcifications of the basal ganglia or cortex are not seen in CMV but are noted in

A

congenital toxoplasmosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

this viral infection cause loss of periventricular white matter which then forms custs, ventriculomegaly and microcephaly. infection during the first trimester can result in neuronal migration anomalies such as heterotopia and lissencephaly and disorders of cortical organization including schizencephaly, polymicrogyria and cortical dysplasia. delayed myelination and cerebellar hypoplasia are also common findings

A

CMV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

caused by parasite protozoan, results from hematogeneous spread after pregnant woman eats undercooked meat or is exposed to cat feces, both of which can harbor viable oocysts

A

toxoplasmosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

toxoplasmosis causes

A

necrotizing encephalitis of fetal brain, during first 2 trimester of gestation, but typically no developmental malformations. microcephaly, chorioretinitis and mental retardation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

imaging findings of toxoplasmosis

A

atrophy, dilated ventricles, dystrophic calcifications scattered in the white matter, basal ganglia and cortex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

a rodent-borne arena virus which can closely mimic toxoplasmosis and CMV on neonatal neuroimaging. onset of infection in first trimester often leads to spontaneous abortion. presents with chorioretinitis, either hydrocephalus or microcephaly but with results of accompanying microbiologic and serologic studies being negative for more common congenital pathogens. cerebral calcifications can be periventricular in location and/or distributed between white matter, deep gray nuclei and cortex

A

lymphocytic choriomeningitis virus (LCMV)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

encephalitis in neonates often results from infection during descent through the birth canal when the mother has genital infection with _____

A

herpes virus type 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

if patient survives with neonatal HSV 2, the following manifestations may be seen

A

varying degrees of microcephaly, mental retardation, microphthalamia, enlarged ventricles, intracranial calcifications and multicystic encephalomalacia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

early in the course of HSV encephalitis, US will show

A

increased parenchymal echogenicity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

CT findings in HSV encephalitis

A

diffuse brain swelling or bilateral patchy areas of hypodensity in the cerebral white matter and cortex, with relative sparing of the basal ganglia, thalami and posterior fossa structures. these hypodense lesions correspond to areas of T2 hyperintensity on MRI and progress to areas of necrosis and cystic encephalomalacia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

true or false: opportunistic infections and neoplasms seen in adults with AIDS are not usually seen in young children

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

affected infants of this viral infection are more susceptible to respiratory infections and diarrhea that can present with encephalopathy, developmental delay and failure to thrive. it primarily affects white matter and basal ganglia, especially globi pallidi, best seen with CT, while MRI alows better demonstration of T2 hyperintense white matter abnormalities. in some cases, there is associated vasculopathy with fusiform dilatation and ectasia of the intracranial arteries

A

congenital HIV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

viral infection that cause diffuse meningoencephalitis, brain infarction and necrosis. infants who survive severe infection present with microcephaly, ocular abnormalities and deafness. CT reveals dystropic calcifications in the deep gray nuclei and cortex, whereas MRI better demonstrates infarcts, white matter loss and occassionally delayed myelination

A

rubella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

is a flavivirus which originated in Africa and southeast asia and is transmitted by several species of mosquitoes, especially Aedes aegypti. presents with congenital microcephaly and CNS malformations. unlike CMV, it does not have predilection for the germinal matrix

A

Zika virus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

this virus impairs cell proliferation and promotes apoptosis and cell death. CT best demonstrates both punctate or linear calcifications which localize predominantly to the gray-white junction in the frontal and parietal lobes, and to a lesser extend along the deep gray nuclei and periventricular zone. MRI may show brain volume loss, ventriculomegaly, abnormal myelination, callosal dysgenesis, heterotopia, lissencephaly and polymicrogyria

A

Zika virus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

these extra-axial collections are generally confined by dural attachments which prevent rapid expansion of abscesses and account for their lentiform shape and convex inner margins

A

epidural

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

these extra-axial collections can spread more easily thoough the subdural space and be more acutely life threatening, thus requiring rapid neurosurgical intervention

A

subdural empyemas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

frontal sinusitis in children can be complicated by osteomyelitis, with subperiosteal, epidural or subdural abscesses. this is referred to as

A

pott puffy tumor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

how to differentiate subdural empyemas from subdural effusions in MRI

A

subdural empyemas can be hyperintense on DWI allowing them to be distinguished from subdural efusions which can also enhance mildly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Mild, smooth dural or meningeal enhancement may be seen after craniotomies and in patients with ventriculostomy catheters, especially with MRI. this enhancement can persist for years and should be considered benign in this clinical setting. it is most likely reflects a _____ from perioperative hemorrhage and/or dural scarring

A

chemical meningitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

bacterial meningitis is caused by ___ in children, ____ in teens and young adults, _____ in older adults, _____ in neonates, _____ in premature newborns

A

Haemophilus influenzae- children
Neisseria meningitidis- teens and young adults
Streptococcus pneumonia- older adults
Group B streptococcus and E.coli meningitis -neonates
Citrobacter meningitis -premature newborns

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

inflammatory exudate caused by meningitis appears ___ on CT and FLAIR

A

hyperdense on CT and hyperintense on FLAIR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

most common form of CNS tuberculosis

A

tuberculous meningitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

true or false: in TB meningitis, chest radiograph may be normal in 40 to 75% of cases

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

CSF findings in TB meningitis

A

pleocytosis, elevated protein, markedly reduced glucose levels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

this type of meningitis will show thickened and enhancing meninges, especially along the basal cisterns, corresponding to a thick gelatinous inflammatory exudate

A

TB meningitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

meningeal enhancement in this type of meningitis is usually more peripherally distributed and less thick when compared to TB and other granulomatous meningitides

A

bacterial meningitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

most common complication of TB meningitis

A

infarct due to extension of inflammatory exudates in the basal cisterns, along the perivascular spaces causing an arteritis with irregular narrowing or occlusion of vessels, most commonly along the distribution of lenticuolstriates and thalamoperforating arteries in the deep gray nuclei

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

this type of meningitis also cause thick meningeal enhancement of the basal cisterns just like in TB, but with varying degrees of enhancement, based on the immunocompetence of the patient. extension of this type of meningitis to the brain also occurs less often than with TB or pyogenic meningitis

A

Fungal meningitis; except in aspergillosis and mucormycosis wherein brain extension is also common

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

occurs when the larvae of the pork tapeworm Taenia solium infest the subarachnoid space, especially the basal cisterns. the larval cysts may grow in grape-like clusters or conform to the shape of the involved cisterns

A

Meningobasal or racemose cysticercosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

common complications of meningobasal or racemose cysticercosis

A

cysts may obstruct the foramen of Monro, sylvian aqueduct, third and fourth ventricles, resulting in hydrocephalus. death may result from acute hydrocephalus and ventriculitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

viral meningitis are more commonly caused by what agents

A

enteroviruses, mumps, Epstein-Barr virus, togavirus, lymphocytic choriomeningitis virus, HIV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

true or false: in viral meningitis, patients do not require tx and neurologic deficits are uncommon unless infection progresses to encephalitis. neuroimaging are typically normal but mild meningeal enhancement may occur

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

subdural effusion are common with what type of viral meningitis

A

H. influenzae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

noninfectious granulomatous disease of unclear etiology which involves the CNS in up to 14% of patients at autopsy. helpful for diagnosis involve increased seruma and CSF levels of angiotensin-converting enzyme

A

sarcoidosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

this type of meningitis primarily affects the leptomeninges, and abnormal leptomeningeal and dural enhancement can be seen with both CT and MRI. thickening and enhancement of the cranial nerves and the hypothalamic-pituitary axis are not uncommon. calcifications are not typical

A

sarcoidosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

most common organisms that cayse pyogenic cerebritis and abscess

A

anaerobic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

infection with this bacteria is common after surgery or trauma

A

Staphylococcys aureus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

with pyogenic cerebritis or abscess resulting from hematogeneous spread, this lobes are most commonly involved, with the abscess centered at the gray-white junction

A

frontal and parietal lobes (MCA distribution)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

this lobe is most commonly affected with spread of sinus infection

A

frontal lobes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

usually involved in patients with spread from otomastoiditis

A

temporal lobes or cerebellum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

true or false: in pyogenic cerebritis or abscess, fever is absent more than 50% if the time. Meningeal signs are present in only 30% of patients

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Solitary abscess is usually treated with

A

stereotactic needle aspiration followed by antibiotic therapy, in an eloquent area of the brain. if there is significant mass effect or the lesion is in a relatively “safe” area, a formal drainage or resection is performed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

four pathologically described stages of cerebritis and brain abscess

A

early cerebritis, late cerebritis, early capsule and late capsule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

in this stage or cerebritis and abscess, the infected portion of the brain is swollen and edematous. Areas of early necrosis are filled with inflammatory polymorphonuclear leukocytes, lymphocytes and plasma cells. organisms are present in both the center and the periphery of the lesion which has ill-defined margins. CT scan may be normal or show an area of low density. On MRI, lesion is hypointense or isointense on T1 and hyperintense on T2 and FLAIR images. There may be mild mass effect and patchy areas of enhancement within the lesion on both CT and MRI. a ring of enhancement is not present on this stage

A

early cerebritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

stage of cerebritis and abscess that occurs within 1 or 2 weeks of infection. central necrosis progresses and begins to coalesce, with fewer organisms detected pathologically. there is vascular proliferation at the periphery of the lesion, with more inflammatory cells and early granulation tissue, which represent the brain’s effort to contain the infection. centrally, there is increased hypodensity on CT, hypointensity on T1 and hyperintensity on T2 and FLAIR sequences. DWI may show some increased signal intensity within the center of the lesion. there is worsening vasogenic edema present outside the enhancing rim and overall increased mass effect. No discrete capsule is evident

A

Late cerebritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

stage of cerebritis and abscess that occurs within 2 weeks, the infection is wall off as capsule of collagena dn reticulin forms along the inflammatory vascular margin of the infection. Macrophages, phagocytes and neutrophils are also present in the capsule. CT and MR shows a well-defined, usually smooth and thin, rim of enhancement

A

Early capsule stage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

stage of cerebritis or abscess wherein the rim of enhancement becomes even better defined and thicken, reflecting more complete collagen in the abscess wall. Multiloculation is common. CT or MR scans reveal enhancement of the ependymal lining of the ventricles and altered density and signal intensity of the intraventricular CSF

A

Late capsule stage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

this clinical features of prominent central hyperintensity on DWI, smooth complete enhancing rim, significant surrounding vasogenic edema, and T2 hypointensity of the capsule should strongly suggest a

A

brain abscess

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

an incomplete ring of enhancement and accompanying characteristic white matter lesions favor this diagnosis rather than abscess

A

demyelinating lesions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

MRS findings in confirming cerebral abscess

A

elevated lactate and amino acids in the center of the lesion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

presents with a thicker, more irregular ring of enhancement that persists within an area of infarction should suggest the diagnosis of

A

septic embolus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

septic emboli may lead to _____, which can result in intraparenchymal or subarachnoid hemorrhage

A

mycotic aneurysm formation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

focal mycobacterial infection of the brain occurs in 2 forms, namely

A

tuberculoma and abscess

61
Q

it is a granuloma with central caseous necrosis

A

tuberculoma

62
Q

it has characteristic similar to those of a pyogenic abscess but usually develops in patients with impaired T-cell immunity

A

tuberculous abscess

63
Q

true or false: most tuberculomas are not associated with TB meningitis

A

true

64
Q

true or false: in tuberculomas, up to 50% of patients have abnormal chest radiograph

A

true

65
Q

most tuberculomas in adults are located

A

supratentorially, involving the frontal or parietal lobes

66
Q

60% of tuberculomas in children are in the

A

posterior fossa, usually the cerebellum

67
Q

in tuberculoma, surrounding edema is usually ____, and the center of tuberculoma is usually _____ than the center of bacterial abscess due to caseous necrosis

A

relatively mild edema, with denser core

68
Q

this is a rare complication of TB seen primarily in immunocompromised patients. Impaired T-cell function prevents the normal host response required for tuberculoma formation with caseous necrosis. lesions are often large and multiloculated, in distinction to tuberculomas

A

tuberculous abscess

69
Q

true or false: fungal CNS involvement is a manifestation of disseminated infection, with hematogeneous spread, usually from pulmonary disease

A

true

70
Q

most frequent presentation of blastomycosis

A

meningitis

71
Q

frequent manifestation of coccidioidomycosis

A

parenchymal abscesses and granuloma

72
Q

true or false: most fungal granulomas are small and show solid or thick rim enhancement

A

true

73
Q

most common opportunistic fungal CNS infections are

A

cryptococcosis, aspergillosis and mucormycosis and candidiasis

74
Q

CNS aspergillosis may arise from

A

infected paranasal sinuses, leading to meningitis or meningoencephalitis

75
Q

almost all patients with CNS mucormycosis are

A

diabetic or immunocompromised

76
Q

most frequently reported CNS fungal infection. it preferentially involves immunosuppresed patients, and especially those with AIDS, but cases also seen in immunocompetent individuals

A

Cryptococcosis

77
Q

specific cryptococcus that preferentially involves the immunosuppresed patients, usually from bird excreta

A

Cryptococcus neoformans

78
Q

specific cryptococcus that is found in patients with normal immune function, usually from tropical and subtropical trees

A

Cryptococcus gattii

79
Q

usual manifestation of cryptococcal CNS infection

A

meningitis

80
Q

these are small, usually multiple, solid-enhancing peripherally located parenchymal nodules with vasogenic edema in CNS cryptococcosis

A

Cryptococcomas

81
Q

these are cysts found in immunocompromised, especially AIDS patients afflicted by cryptococcus. brieflym they cause dilatation of the perivascular spaces filled with the organism and mucinous material. they appear as rounded, smoothly marginated lesions in the basal ganglia that are nearly isodense and isointense to CSF. there is minimal, if any, peripheral edema or enhancement

A

cryptococcal gelatinous pseudocysts

82
Q

most common parasitis CNS infections

A

cysticercosis, echinococcosis, toxoplasmosis and amoebiasis

83
Q

most common causes of mortality from parasitic infetions

A

malaria and amoebiasis

84
Q

caused by the larvae of the pork tapeworm Taenia solium. Transmission occurs via fecal-oral route. it is the most common cause of seizures in Latin america

A

Neurocysticercosis

85
Q

imaging findings in the earliest stage of infestation of cysticercosis

A

minimal, if any, edema, and/or nodular enhancement

86
Q

in this stage of neurocysticercosis, viable parasitic cysts appear as small (usually 1 cm or less) solitary or multiple rounded lesions that are hypodense on CT and isointense to CSF on MRI. lesions are usually distributed peripherally near the gray-white junction or in the gray matter. a small marginal nodule representing the scolex is sometimes seen. there is usually no enhancement or edema

A

vesicular stage

87
Q

this stage of neurocysticercosis ensues when the cyst dies and its fluid leaks into the surrounding brain inciting inflammation. this produce clinical symptoms of acute encephalitis, which may be severe depending on the number of lesions. imaging studies show ring-enhancing lesions with surrounding vasogenic edema

A

colloid stage

88
Q

in this stage or neurocysticercosis, the dead cyst further degenerates in the nodular granula stage, becomes smaller and causes less edema, but shows increasing nodular or irregular peripheral enhancement

A

nodular granular stage

89
Q

this is the last stage of neurocysticercosis wherein a dense residual calcification is left with no remaining edema or enhancement. Plain CT scan excels at detecting these small, peripherally distributed calcifications. With MRI, calcifications are best seen on T2* weighted GRE sequence

A

Nodular calcified stage

90
Q

spinal cysticercosis is usually

A

intradural but can either be intra- or extramedullary

91
Q

also known as hydatid disease, occurs in South America, Africa, Central Europe, Middle East and rarely in the southwestern US. etiologic agent is the dog tapeworm

A

Echnococcosis

92
Q

CNS echinococcosis presents as cysts that are usually solitary, unilocular or multilocular, large, round and smoothly marginted, often located in the ____ and may rarely have mural calcifications. There is usually no surrounding edema or abnormal contrast enhancment, unless the cyst has ruptured, leading to an inflammatory reaction and more acute presentation

A

supratentorial

93
Q

most often implicated organisms in Amebic meningoencephalitis

A

Entamoeba histolytica, Acanthamoeba, Naegleria fowleri

94
Q

this pathogen can enter the nasal cavity of patients swimming in infested freshwater ponds and extend through the olfactory apparatus and cribriform plate into the brain. Severe meningoencephalitis results and is usually fatal

A

N. fowleri

95
Q

early infection findings in amebic meningoencephalitis

A

there may be meningeal and/or gray matter enhancement. associated vasculitis and cerebral infartion can occassionally be observed

96
Q

later findings in amebic meningoencephalitis

A

diffuse cerebral edema and hemorrhage may occur

97
Q

true or false: amebic abscesses are more common in debilitated or immunosuppresed patients

A

true

98
Q

caused by sexually transmitted spirochete treponema pallidum. develops in 5% of patients who are not treated for the primary infection. involvement of the CNS usually occurs in the secondary or tertially stages

A

Neurosyphilis

99
Q

true or false: patients with neurosyphillis are commonly asymptomatic. neuroimaging can therefore be normal or demonstrate cerebral volume loss and nonspecific T2-hyperintense white matter lesions on MRI

A

true

100
Q

small enhancing nodules at the surface of the brain with adjacent meningeal enhancement, related to neurosyphilis

A

gummas or syphilitic granulomas

101
Q

this form of neurosyphilis presents as an acute stroke syndrome or subacute illness with a variety of symptoms. pathologically, there is thickening of the meninges and a medium-to-large vessel arteritis. May show multiple segmental constrictions and/or occlusions of large and medium arteries including the distal internal carotid, anterior cerebral, middle cerebral, posterior cerebral and distal basilar arteries in MRA or CTA

A

meningovascular syphilis

102
Q

a multisystem spirochete infection, which is most commonly caused by Borrelia burgdorferi in North America. Spreads to humans worldwide via ticks from deer, mice, raccoons and birds. Neurologic abnormalities are found in 10 to 15% of patients, presenting with peripheral and cranial neuropathies, radiculopathies, myelopathies, encephalitis, meningitis, pain syndromes and cognitive and movement disorders

A

Lyme disease

103
Q

Commonly affected cranial nerves in lyme disease

A

CN III to VIII, more commonly in CNS VII

104
Q

cranial neuritis in Lyme disease presents as

A

thick, enhancing cranial nerves

105
Q

parenchymal CNS Lyme disease presents as

A

multiple, small white matter lesions, similar to that seen with MS, often enhance with nodular or ring-like pattern

106
Q

occurs in immunocompetent patients of all ages and is the most common cause of sporadic encephalitis

A

Herpes simplex virus type 1

107
Q

herpes infection may cause what manifestations in CNS involvement

A

encephalitis or cranial neuritis. it is commonly secondary to reactivation of latent HSV1, especially within the trigeminal ganglion

108
Q

these CNS viral infection may show normal or poorly defined hypodense regions in one or both temporal lobes in CT. symmetric or asymmetric gyral pattern of hyperintensity on T2 and FLAIR sequences. Frontal lobes and cingulate gyrus in particular may also be involved

A

Herpes simplex

109
Q

True or false: Varicella zoster rarely cause encephalitis that can be similar to the caused by herpes simplex

A

true

110
Q

Unlike HSV, VZV has less predilection for temporal lobe, it is distributed

A

more multifocal distribution

111
Q

it is the usual cause of herpes zoster ophthalmicus which can be complicated by ipsilateral cerebral angiitis causing cerebral infarction and contralateral hemiparesis

A

VZV

112
Q

VZV may infect any of the cranial nerves, but these CNs are most commonly involved and result in herpes zoster oticus (Ramsay Hunt syndrome)

A

CNs VII and VIII

113
Q

In this syndrome caused by VZV, there is ear pain and facial paralysis accompanied by a vesicular eruption about the ear. CT scans are usually normal but MRI of the internal auditory canals should reveal abnormal enhancement of one or both of these cranial nerves

A

Herpes zoster oticus or Ramsay Hunt Syndrome

114
Q

unusual cause of encephalitis except when encountered in congenital form or in immunosuppressed adult patients, especially those with AIDS

A

cytomegalovirus

115
Q

very rare condition caused by chronic infection by a variant of the measles virus. it typically presents in children and young adults with prior measles infection before the age of 2 years and after an intervening asymptomatic period of up to years. disease causes progressive dementia, seizures, myoclonus and paralysis and virtually always leads to death

A

Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE)

116
Q

Initial findings in SSPE

A

can often be normal but can reveal early asymmetric patchy or diffuse swelling with hypodensity and T2 hyperintensity of cerebral white matter. enhancement is usually absent

117
Q

equine encephalitides are caused by

A

arbovirus (insect borne)

118
Q

arbovirus preferentially affect the

A

deep gray nuclei and brainstem

119
Q

a mosquito-borne arbovirus increasingly seen in the US which incites a meningoencephalitis of widely variable clinical severity

A

West Nile virus

120
Q

mosquito-borne arbovirus causing meningoencephalitis of widely variable clinical severity endemic in Asia

A

Japanese encephalitis

121
Q

these mosquito-borne arboviruses can demonstrate symmetric swelling , hypodensity and T2 hyperintensity of the thalami, basal ganglia, and brainstem. Associated enhancement and reduced diffusion may also be observed

A

West nile and japanese encephalitides

122
Q

same imaging pattern of west nile and japanese encephalitides but with additional superimposed hemorrhage is seen in acute necrotizing encephalitis in children and has been associated with what virus

A

influenza A and B virus

123
Q

it is a devastating disease of childhood and of unknown etiology. Viral and/or autoimmune encephalitis are implicated. clinical course is characterized by intractable seizures, progressive neurologic deficits, and frequently, coma

A

Rasmussen encephalitis

124
Q

in this encephalitis, it typically affects one cerebral hemisphere. MR study show focal cortical swelling and T2 hyperintensity with minimal, if any, enhancement in the involved hemisphere early on, but these progress to dramatic asymmetric atrophy later. the affected hemisphere has been shown to be hypometabolic by SPECT and PET nuclear scans

A

Rasmussen encephalitis

125
Q

these pathogens have a notable predilection for the brainstem and cerebellum, causing rhomboencephalitis

A

Listeria and Mycoplasma

126
Q

an acute demyelinating disease that occurs most commonly after a recent viral illness or vaccination but sometimes spontaneously. autoimmune demyelination is the currently accepted mechanism, and infectious pathogens have not been isolated

A

Acute disseminated encephalomyelitis (ADEM)

127
Q

rare, severe variant of ADEM that is often fatal. Major imaging feature is rapid progresion of white matter lesions over the course of several days. pathologically there is perivascular hemorrhagic necrosis, primarily in the centrum semiovale

A

Acute hemorrhagic leukoencephalitis

128
Q

transmissible spongiform encephalopathy caused by an infectious proteinaceous particle or “prion”. It is rare, uniformly fatal and rapidly progressive neurodegenerative disorder

A

Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease

129
Q

protease-resistant particles resulting from altered conformation of a normal host cellular protein encoden by the PrP gene. they accumulate in the neural tissue and result in cell death. Patients initially present with variable neurologic signs but ultimately develop a rapidly progressive dementia with myoclonic jerks and akinetic mutism

A

Prions

130
Q

In this condition causing neurodegenerative disorders, CT is not helpful and is usually normal or shows generalized cerebral volume loss. DWI and FLAIR sequences are most if these patients undergo MRI. Both sequences can demonstrate hyperintensity in the striatum (caudate and putaminal nuclei) symmetrically and/or subtle ribbon-like hyperintensity in scattered areas of the cerebral cortex in early cases

A

Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease

131
Q

Iatrogenic Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease can be contacted from

A

neurosurgical tools, corneal transplants, use of cadaveric dura mater or pituitary extracts

132
Q

this variant of Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease is linked to bovine spongiform encephalopathy whereby prions are transmitted to humans who eat the meat of infected cow. MRI shows different findings of symmetric T2 hyperintensity in the posterior and dorsomedial aspects of the thalamic nucle (pulvinar and “hockey-stick” sign)

A

New variant CJD

133
Q

common site of involvement in patients with AIDS

A

CNS

134
Q

most common CNS infections include

A

HIV encephalopathy, toxoplasmosis, cryptococcosis, and other fungal infections; CMV and herpes encephalitis; mycobacterial infection, PML, meningovascular syphilis

135
Q

most common CNS neoplasm associated with AIDS

A

Primary CNS lymphoma

136
Q

Most severely involved in HIV encephalopathy

A

centrum semiovale, but all white matter tracts, including brainstem and cerebellum may be affected. the cortical gray matter is usually spared

137
Q

Known as the AIDS dementia complex

A

subcortical dementia with cognitive, behavioral and motor deterioration

138
Q

used to descibe infants and children wih HIV encephalitis who exhibit loss of developmental milestones, apathy, failure of brain growth and myelination, spastic paraparesis

A

HIV-associated progressive encephalopathy

139
Q

most common manifestation of HIV infection of the brain on neuroimaging

A

Diffuse atrophy, largely central atrophy, reflecting predominant white matter involvement

140
Q

presents as diffuse, symmetric, ill-defined often hazy pattern of T2 hyperintensity in the deep and periventricular white matter or multiple small T2-hyperintense white matter lesions are the most common findings in patients afflicted with HIV

A

HIV encephalopathy

141
Q

most common observations in young children with HIV encephalitis

A

generalized atrophy and symmetric calcifications in the basal ganglia

142
Q

most common opportunistic CNS infection and brain mass in AIDS patients, occuring in about 13% to 33% of these patients with CNS complications. Occurs in patients with CD4 lymphocyte counts <200 cells/mm3

A

toxoplasmosis

143
Q

CNS toxoplasmosis in HIV usually have imaging findings of

A

necrotizing encephalitis, results with formation of thin-walled abscesses

144
Q

true or false: fungal, mycobacterial and amebic abscesses do occur but bacterial abscesses are rare in AIDS patients

A

true

145
Q

most common fungal infection in HIV patients

A

CNS cryptococcosis

146
Q

diagnosis of cryptococcosis is made by

A

detection of cryptococcal antigen in serum or CSF

147
Q

infection of the immunosuppresed patient caued by reactivation of the latent JC polyomavirus.

A

Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopthy

148
Q

Most common CNS infection in AIDS patients pathologically, but does not usually result in frank tissue necrosis and is usually subclinical

A

CMV

149
Q

True or false: Intracranial mycobacterial infections occur in relatively small percentage of AIDS patients. Most of these patients are IV drug abusers with pulmonary TB

A

true