10 - Reporting and Analyzing Liabilities Flashcards

1
Q

Liabilities are sometimes known as ________’ ______ on total assets.

A

Liabilities are sometimes known as creditors’ claims on total assets.

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2
Q

A ________ liability is a liability that will be paid or settled within one year from the date on the statement of financial position or within one operating cycle.

A

A current liability is a liability that will be paid or settled within one year from the date on the statement of financial position or within one operating cycle.

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3
Q

A floating (or variable) interest rate changes as _______ _____ _____ change and is usually based on the prime borrowing rate.

A

A floating (or variable) interest rate changes as market interest rates change and is usually based on the prime borrowing rate.

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4
Q

Security, called _________, is often required by banks as protection against a possible default on the loan by the borrower.

A

Security, called collateral, is often required by banks as protection against a possible default on the loan by the borrower.

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5
Q

Collateral for an operating line of credit normally includes some of the company’s _______ ______ but may also include some ____ ____.

A

Collateral for an operating line of credit normally includes some of the company’s current assets (such as accounts receivable or inventory) but may also include some non-current assets (such as investments or property, plant, and equipment).

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6
Q

Sales tax is expressed as a percentage of the sales _____.

A

Sales tax is expressed as a percentage of the sales price.

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7
Q

Property taxes are generally for a _______ _____, although bills are not usually issued until the _____ of each year.

A

Property taxes are generally for a calendar year, although bills are not usually issued until the spring of each year. (March)

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8
Q

As employees perform services for their employer, the employer incurs three types of liabilities related to the employees’ salaries or wages:

(1) the amount _____ to employees,
(2) employee payroll ______, and
(3) employer payroll _______.

A

As employees perform services for their employer, the employer incurs three types of liabilities related to the employees’ salaries or wages:

(1) the amount owed to employees,
(2) employee payroll deductions, and
(3) employer payroll obligations.

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9
Q

Management and administrative personnel are generally paid _______, which are expressed as a specific amount per week (weekly), per two weeks (biweekly), per month (monthly), or per year (annually).

A

Management and administrative personnel are generally paid salaries, which are expressed as a specific amount per week (weekly), per two weeks (biweekly), per month (monthly), or per year (annually).

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10
Q

Part-time employees or employees paid on an hourly basis or by the work produced (an amount per unit of product) are normally paid _______.

A

Part-time employees or employees paid on an hourly basis or by the work produced (an amount per unit of product) are normally paid wages.

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11
Q

The total amount of salaries or wages earned by the employee is called _____ pay.

A

The total amount of salaries or wages earned by the employee is called gross pay.

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12
Q

Payroll deductions are also commonly referred to as _______ deductions because they are being withheld from the employee at the “______” of the payment.

A

Payroll deductions are also commonly referred to as source deductions because they are being withheld from the employee at the “source” of the payment.

Ex. CPP, EI, vacation pay

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13
Q

Accounts payable and notes payable that result from transactions with ______ are often called trade payables.

A

Accounts payable and notes payable that result from transactions with suppliers are often called trade payables.

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14
Q

A fixed interest rate is a _______ rate for the entire _____ of the note.

A

A fixed interest rate is a constant rate for the entire term of the note.

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15
Q

Notes payable are also commonly referred to as _____ payable, and interest expense is also referred to as ______ costs.

A

Notes payable are also commonly referred to as loans payable, and interest expense is also referred to as finance costs.

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16
Q

An account payable is supported by an _______ and gives an ______ promise to pay, while a note payable is a written _______ to pay that gives the payee a stronger _____ _____.

A

An account payable is supported by an invoice and gives an informal promise to pay, while a note payable is a written promise to pay that gives the payee a stronger legal claim.

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17
Q

Record sales separately from _____ _____. Recall that sales tax is a liability until _______.

A

Record sales separately from sales tax. Recall that sales tax is a liability until remitted.

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18
Q

interest = ____ × _____ × ____

A

interest = principal (face) value × annual interest rate × time

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19
Q

Liabilities can either be ______ (definitely determinable) or ______.

A

Liabilities can either be certain (definitely determinable) or uncertain.

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20
Q

Liabilities with a known payee, due date, and amount payable are _____ liabilities.

A

Liabilities with a known payee, due date, and amount payable are certain liabilities.

Ex. Accounts payable, sales tax payable, property tax payable, salaries payable, notes payable

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21
Q

Provisions are _____ of _______ timing or amount; however, there is no uncertainty about the fact that a liability should be recorded, only that its value and settlement date are uncertain. They are recorded because

(1) their outcome is probable and
(2) the amount owed can be estimated.

A

Provisions are liabilities of uncertain timing or amount; however, there is no uncertainty about the fact that a liability should be recorded, only that its value and settlement date are uncertain. They are recorded because

(1) their outcome is probable and
(2) the amount owed can be estimated.

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22
Q

Under IFRS, probable is defined as “more likely than not,” which is normally interpreted to mean more than a ___% probability of occurring.

A

Under IFRS, probable is defined as “more likely than not,” which is normally interpreted to mean more than a 50% probability of occurring.

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23
Q

Provisions are _______ but contingent liabilities ______. Contingent liabilities are disclosed in the ____ to the financial statements except when the possibility of an outflow of resources is _____.

A

Provisions are recorded but contingent liabilities are not. Contingent liabilities are disclosed in the notes to the financial statements except when the possibility of an outflow of resources is remote.

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24
Q

Provisions are recorded when they are ______ and can be ______.

A

Provisions are recorded when they are probable (more likely than not) and can be estimated.

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25
Q

Contingent liabilities are not _________. If the liability is probable or cannot be determined or the amount cannot be estimated, it should be disclosed. If it is unlikely (remote), it is not disclosed.

A

Contingent liabilities are not recorded. If the liability is probable or cannot be determined or the amount cannot be estimated, it should be disclosed. If it is unlikely (remote), it is not disclosed.

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26
Q

A non-current liability is an obligation that is ________ to be paid after _____ year or more.

A

A non-current liability is an obligation that is expected to be paid after one year or more.

Ex. instalment notes payable, bonds payable, finance leases, deferred income taxes, and pension liabilities.

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27
Q

Long-term notes and loans may be ______ or _______. A secured note pledges _______ (ownership) to specific assets as collateral or security for the loan.

A

Long-term notes and loans may be secured or unsecured. A secured note pledges title (ownership) to specific assets as collateral or security for the loan.

Ex. A note or loan that has property as collateral is known as a mortgage.

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28
Q

_________ notes and loans offer no collateral to the lender and are issued against the general ______ of the borrower.

A

Unsecured notes and loans offer no collateral to the lender and are issued against the general credit of the borrower.

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29
Q

Repayments on notes/loans are referred to _________ and are paid monthly, annually, or at other defined intervals of time.

A

Repayments on notes/loans are referred to instalments and are paid monthly, annually, or at other defined intervals of time.

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30
Q

Each instalment payment consists of a mix of (1) _______ on the unpaid balance of the loan, and (2) a _______ of a portion of the loan principal.

A

Each instalment payment consists of a mix of (1) interest on the unpaid balance of the loan, and (2) a repayment of a portion of the loan principal.

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31
Q

The actual instalment payments generally take one of two forms: (1) _____ principal payments plus _____, or (2) ______ principal and _______ payments.

A

The actual instalment payments generally take one of two forms: (1) fixed principal payments plus interest, or (2) blended principal and interest payments.

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32
Q

Instalment loans with fixed principal payments are repayable in ______ periodic amounts plus ______.

A

Instalment loans with fixed principal payments are repayable in equal periodic amounts plus interest.

33
Q

Blended principal and interest payments are made in ______ periodic amounts.

A

Blended principal and interest payments are made in equal periodic amounts.

34
Q

Solvency ratios, such as the debt to total assets and times interest earned ratios, measure a company’s ability to ______ its long-term debt and ______ over a long period of time.

A

Solvency ratios, such as the debt to total assets and times interest earned ratios, measure a company’s ability to repay its long-term debt and survive over a long period of time.

35
Q

One measure of a company’s solvency is ____ to ______ assets.

A

One measure of a company’s solvency is debt to total assets.

36
Q

Debt to Total Assets = ________ ÷ _______

A

Debt to Total Assets = Total Liabilities ÷ Total Assets

37
Q

For Liquidity Ratios, _______ values generally indicate that a company has a greater ability to meet its current obligations.

A

For Liquidity Ratios, higher values generally indicate that a company has a greater ability to meet its current obligations.

38
Q

For the Debt to Total Assets ratio, a _____ value indicates that the company has not used as much debt to finance its assets.

A

For the debt to total assets ratio, a lower value indicates that the company has not used as much debt to finance its assets.

39
Q

Times Interest Earned Ratio gives an indication of a company’s ability to meet _______ payments as they come due.

A

Times Interest Earned Ratio gives an indication of a company’s ability to meet interest payments as they come due.

40
Q

Times Interest Earned Ratio is also known as the ______ ______ ratio.

A

Times Interest Earned Ratio is also known as the interest coverage ratio.

41
Q

Times Interest Earned = ( _____ + ____ + _____ ) ÷ Interest Expense

A

Times Interest Earned = ( Net Income + Interest Expense + Income Tax Expense ) ÷ Interest Expense

42
Q

_____ Income = earnings before interest and taxes (often abbreviated as EBIT).

A

Net Income = earnings before interest and taxes (often abbreviated as EBIT).

43
Q

If an operating lease covers a long period of time, it may be viewed as “____–_____ _____ ______.

A

If an operating lease covers a long period of time, it may be viewed as “off–balance sheet financing.

44
Q

Credit-rating agencies, such as the Dominion Bond Rating Service (DBRS), provide opinions about a company’s _______to make ______ payments (of principal and interest) on its short- and long-term _____.

A

Credit-rating agencies, such as the Dominion Bond Rating Service (DBRS), provide opinions about a company’s ability to make timely payments (of principal and interest) on its short- and long-term debt.

45
Q

Short-term debt is rated using an “____” scale, with R-1 being the ____ credit quality.

A

Short-term debt is rated using an “R” scale, with R-1 being the highest credit quality.

46
Q

R-1 (_____), R-2 (_____), and R-3 (____) to further distinguish between high, superior, and satisfactory credit quality.

Short-term debt rated as R-4 or R-5 is considered to be “_____,” which is a term used to describe a high degree of _____.

A

R-1 (high), R-2 (middle), and R-3 (low) to further distinguish between high, superior, and satisfactory credit quality.

Short-term debt rated as R-4 or R-5 is considered to be “speculative,” which is a term used to describe a high degree of risk.

47
Q

The ____-quality long-term debt is rated as AAA, _____ quality as AA, and _____ quality as A.

The credit scale descends to the ___, or ____, category.

A

The highest-quality long-term debt is rated as AAA, superior quality as AA, and good quality as A.

The credit scale descends to the D, or default, category.

48
Q

Long-term debt rated below BBB is referred to as ______ and ____-investment grade, with a higher risk of ____.

A

Long-term debt rated below BBB is referred to as speculative and non-investment grade, with a higher risk of default.

49
Q

Debt ______ help lenders monitor the risk of default.

A

Debt covenants help lenders monitor the risk of default.

Most borrowing agreements include restrictions called debt covenants that restrict a company’s ability to invest, pay dividends, or make other decisions that might adversely affect the company’s ability to pay interest and principal on its outstanding debt.

50
Q

A bond is a promise to repay a ____ amount of _____ (a _____ value) at a fixed ____ date in addition to ____ _____ payments throughout the term of the bond.

A

A bond is a promise to repay a specified amount of money (a face value) at a fixed future date in addition to periodic interest payments throughout the term of the bond.

51
Q

A bond is often used instead of other types of debt when the amount of financing needed is ____ ____ for one lender.

A

A bond is often used instead of other types of debt when the amount of financing needed is too large for one lender.

52
Q

When a company issues bonds for a large amount, say $100 million, this is done by issuing ______ bonds in different _______, typically with the smallest one being $____, although this can vary.

A

When a company issues bonds for a large amount, say $100 million, this is done by issuing numerous bonds in different denominations, typically with the smallest one being $1,000, although this can vary.

  • more than one lender can participate
53
Q

Face Value is also known as the ____ value.

A

Face Value is also known as the par value.

54
Q

This rate, which determines the amount of interest to pay to bondholders, is known as the _______ _______ rate and is always quoted as an _____ rate.

A

This rate, which determines the amount of interest to pay to bondholders, is known as the coupon interest rate and is always quoted as an annual rate.

55
Q

Unsecured bonds are also known as ________.

A

Unsecured bonds are also known as debentures.

56
Q

Coupon Interest Rate is also known as the ________ interest rate or the _____ interest rate.

A

Coupon Interest Rate is also known as the contractual interest rate or the stated interest rate.

57
Q

A significant difference between notes and bonds is that bonds can be ______ on a ______ _______ in the same way that _____ _____.

A

A significant difference between notes and bonds is that bonds can be traded on a public exchange in the same way that shares trade.

58
Q

Bond prices are quoted as a ______ of the ______ value of the bonds.

A

Bond prices are quoted as a percentage of the face value of the bonds.

59
Q

Market Interest Rate is the rate investors ________- to earn for lending their money.

A

Market Interest Rate is the rate investors demand to earn for lending their money.

60
Q

The market interest rate and the _____ interest rate are also known as the
_____.

A

The market interest rate and the effective interest rate are also known as the
yield.

61
Q

Issuing bonds at an amount different from ____ _____ is quite common. By the time a company prints the bond certificates (which provide the legal documentation for the bonds) and markets the bonds, it is unlikely that the ______ _____ rate and the ______ rate are the same.

A

Issuing bonds at an amount different from face value is quite common. By the time a company prints the bond certificates (which provide the legal documentation for the bonds) and markets the bonds, it is unlikely that the market interest rate and the coupon rate are the same.

62
Q

The issue of bonds at a discount does not mean there is ______ about the financial ______ of the issuer.

A

The issue of bonds at a discount does not mean there is doubt about the financial strength of the issuer.

63
Q

A discount or premium on a bond is essentially a form of _________ _______ (in the case of a discount) or ______ _______ (in the case of a premium) to the company issuing the bond.

A

A discount or premium on a bond is essentially a form of additional interest (in the case of a discount) or interest saving (in the case of a premium) to the company issuing the bond.

64
Q

Effective-interest Method is an accounting standard used to _______, or _______ a bond.

A

Effective-interest Method is an accounting standard used to amortize, or discount a bond.

65
Q

Calculation of amortization using effective-interest method:

Amortization Amount = _____ - _____

A

Amortization Amount = Bond Interest Expense - Bond Interest Paid

66
Q

Bonds are retired either:

(1) when they _______, or
(2) when the issuing corporation _______ them on the open market ______ they mature.

A

Bonds are retired either:

(1) when they mature, or
(2) when the issuing corporation purchases them on the open market before they mature.

67
Q

Bonds that can be retired at a specified price before maturity at the option of the company (the issuer) are known as _______ (or ______) bonds.

A

Bonds that can be retired at a specified price before maturity at the option of the company (the issuer) are known as redeemable (or callable) bonds.

68
Q

Why would a company want to have the option to retire its bonds early?

A

If interest rates drop, it can be financially advantageous to retire the bond issue and replace it with a new bond issue at a lower interest rate. Or a company may become financially able to repay its debt earlier than expected.

69
Q

Regardless of the issue price of bonds, their carrying amount at maturity will equal their ______ ____ because by that time, any discount or premium will have been fully ______.

A

Regardless of the issue price of bonds, their carrying amount at maturity will equal their face value because by that time, any discount or premium will have been fully amortized.

70
Q

This concept of an increasing bond value over time occurs because of the ___ ___ of ____, which simply means that over time money can become more _____ because it earns _____.

A

This concept of an increasing bond value over time occurs because of the time value of money, which simply means that over time money can become more valuable because it earns interest.

71
Q

The value of a bond (or any future cash flow) today is known as a ______ value while the value at a future date (such as the maturity date) of a bond is known as a _____ value.

A

The value of a bond (or any future cash flow) today is known as a present value while the value at a future date (such as the maturity date) of a bond is known as a future value.

72
Q

Present value is always _____ than future value. The difference between present and future value is _____.

A

Present value is always less than future value. The difference between present and future value is interest.

73
Q

The present value of a bond is the amount that it _____ for in the _______.

A

The present value of a bond is the amount that it sells for in the marketplace.

74
Q

The issue price of a bond (present value), therefore, depends on three factors:

(1) the dollar amounts to be _____ in the future, such as the ___ amount and ___ (if any is paid);
(2) the length of ____ until the amounts are received; and
(3) the market ___ rate.

A

The issue price of a bond (present value), therefore, depends on three factors:

(1) the dollar amounts to be received in the future, such as the maturity amount and interest (if any is paid);
(2) the length of time until the amounts are received; and
(3) the market interest rate.

75
Q

The process of finding the present value is referred to as ________ the _____ ____ _____.

A

The process of finding the present value is referred to as discounting the future cash flows.

76
Q

The issue price is also called the _______ price, ____ value, or _____ value of the bonds.

A

The issue price is also called the selling price, fair value, or market value of the bonds.

77
Q

To calculate the present value of the face value, you use a _____ (the present value of $1) to determine the factor to use to calculate the present value of the principal or face value of the bond.

A

To calculate the present value of the face value, you use a table (the present value of $1) to determine the factor to use to calculate the present value of the principal or face value of the bond.

78
Q

Bond prices vary _______ with changes in the market interest rate.

A

Bond prices vary inversely with changes in the market interest rate.

Ex. As market interest rates increase, bond prices decrease.