Lecture 7-Glucose Control Flashcards

1
Q

What protein is released from the CNS when there is glucose in the bloodstream; released to give you a feeling of fullness after eating; works in the pancreas to have the pancreas release insulin from the beta islet cells; and works in the liver to go from glycogenolysis to gluconeogenesis?

A

Glucagon like peptide (GLP1)

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2
Q

What protein breaks down GLP1 to stop its activity?

A

Dipeptidylpeptidase (DPP4)

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3
Q

Type I diabetes–historically ___ (juvenile/older) onset; ___ (abrupt/slow) onset; ___ (does/does not) require exogenous insulin to treat; ___ (prone/not prone to) ketoacidosis; ___ (small/large) fluctuations in blood glucose concentration; ___ (thin/thicker) body habitus

A

type I diabetes–historically juvenile onset; abrupt onset; does require exogenous insulin to treat; prone to ketoacidosis; large fluctuations in blood glucose concentration; thin body habitus

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4
Q

Patients are genetically predisposed to type I diabetes–T/F?

A

True

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5
Q

Genetic predisposition to type I diabetes is caused by altered human lymphocyte antigen on the short arm of chromosome ___; this defect causes “___itis”

A

chromosome 6; this defect causes “insulinitis”

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6
Q

Autoantibodies may be detected at the time of type I diabetes diagnosis but may be absent years later–T/F?

A

True

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7
Q

What are the main signs and symptoms at time of type I diabetes diagnosis?–___glycemia; ___acidosis; 3 P’s

A
  • Hyperglycemia
  • Ketoacidosis
  • 3 P’s–polyuria, polyphagia, polydypsia
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8
Q

Type II diabetes–historically ___ (juvenile/adult) onset; ___ (does/does not) require exogenous insulin; ___ (prone/not prone to) ketoacidosis; ___ (stable/unstable) blood glucose concentration; ___ (thin/obese) body habitus

A

Type II diabetes–historically adult onset; does not require exogenous insulin (patients may still be on it though); not prone to ketoacidosis; stable blood glucose concentration; obese body habitus

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9
Q

What are (3) signs and symptoms of type II diabetes?

A

3 P’s–polyuria, polydypsia, polyphagia

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10
Q

The younger a patient is when they develop type II diabetes, the more likely they will require exogenous insulin (in addition to oral hypoglycemics)–T/F?

A

True

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11
Q

(4) medication classes that can cause hyperglycemia–gluco___; anti___; ___ medications; ___

A

glucocorticoids; antipsychotics; HIV medications; octreotide

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12
Q

(3) stressful situations that can cause hyperglycemia

A

illness, trauma, pregnancy

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13
Q

Diagnosis of diabetes–fasting blood glucose ___ mg/dl or greater; random blood glucose > ___ mg/dl

A

fasting blood glucose 126 mg/dl or greater; random blood glucose > 200 mg/dl

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14
Q

By the time patients are diagnosed with type II diabetes, ~90% of their beta islet cells are gone–T/F?

A

True–early diagnosis/treatment is key

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15
Q

BG monitoring–ISO guideline 15197 suggests that for glucose levels < 75 mg/dl, a meter should read within ___ mg/dl of the reference sample, and for levels > 75 mg/dl, the reading should be within ___%. A meter should also be able to meet these targets in at least ___% of the samples tested

A

for glucose levels < 75 mg/dl, a meter should read within 15 mg/dl of the reference sample, and for levels > 75 mg/dl, the reading should be within 20%. A meter should also be able to meet these targets in at least 95% of the samples tested.

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16
Q

Normal HgA1C = ___-___%

A

4-6%

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17
Q

ADA recommends HgA1C < ___-___%, depending on the age of the diabetic patient

A

< 7-8.5%

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18
Q

HgA1C gives an idea of the degree of control of blood glucose levels over the past ___ months

A

3 months

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19
Q

HgA1C assesses the long-range effectiveness of glucose control–T/F?

A

True

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20
Q

Urinary ___ are assessed by reagent strips if patients develop symptoms of cold, flu, vomiting, abdominal pain, polyuria, or on finding an unexpectedly high glucose level

A

Urinary ketones

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21
Q

Urinary ketones can be used to monitor patients at risk of going into diabetic ___, type ___ diabetics

A

diabetic ketoacidosis, type I diabetics

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22
Q

Diabetes treatment–___ changes are first line treatment for pre-diabetics

A

dietary changes are first line treatment for pre-diabetics

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23
Q

Diabetes treatment–oral ___ agents for type II diabetics

A

oral hypoglycemic agents for type II diabetics

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24
Q

Diabetes treatment–___ for type I and advanced type II diabetics

A

insulin for type I and advanced type II diabetics

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25
Q

What does PI-3K do?–It moves a ___ into the cell wall of cells

A

It moves a glucose transporter into the cell wall of cells

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26
Q

Insulin MOA–binds to plasma membrane ___ receptors; phosphorylated receptor substrates then activate or inactivate numerous enzymes and other mediating molecules; translocation of ___ to plasma membranes

A

binds to plasma membrane insulin receptors; phosphorylated receptor substrates then activate or inactivate numerous enzymes and other mediating molecules; translocation of glucose transporters to plasma membranes

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27
Q

Glucose transporters facilitate ___ diffusion into cells; shift intracellular glucose metabolism toward ___ (glyco___); stimulate cellular uptake of ___ acids, ___ate, ___ium, and ___ium; stimulate protein ___ and inhibit proteo___; regulate ___ expression via insulin regulatory elements in target DNA

A

Glucose transporters facilitate glucose diffusion into cells; shift intracellular glucose metabolism toward storage (glycogenesis); stimulate cellular uptake of amino acids, phosphate, potassium, and magnesium; stimulate protein synthesis and inhibit proteolysis; regulate gene expression via insulin regulatory elements in target DNA

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28
Q

___ occurs when there is an impaired intracellular insulin signal that results in decreased recruitment of glucose transport proteins to the plasma membrane and subsequent decreased glucose uptake

A

Insulin resistance

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29
Q

Compensatory ___insulinemia occurs to overcome insulin resistance

A

Compensatory hyperinsulinemia occurs to overcome insulin resistance

Cells send signals to the CNS that they’re starving (because insulin signal is messed up and isn’t bringing glucose into the cells); body sends signals to the pancreas to make more glucose/release more insulin, resulting in hyperinsulinemia; hyperinsulinemia leads to eventual burnout of the pancreas and worsening of diabetes

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30
Q

Insulin receptor saturation occurs with ___ (low/high) circulating concentrations of insulin; ___ (more/less) insulin receptors are popped into the cell walls as a result

A

Insulin receptor saturation occurs with low circulating concentrations of insulin; more insulin receptors are popped into the cell walls as a result

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31
Q

The number of insulin receptors in a cell wall is ___ (inversely/directly) related to the plasma concentration of insulin

A

The number of insulin receptors in a cell wall is inversely related to the plasma concentration of insulin

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32
Q

The higher the plasma concentration of insulin, the ___ (less/more) insulin receptors in the cell wall

A

The higher the plasma concentration of insulin, the less insulin receptors in the cell wall

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33
Q

The lower the plasma concentration of insulin, the ___ (less/more) insulin receptors in the cell wall

A

The lower the plasma concentration of insulin, the more insulin receptors in the cell wall

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34
Q

Insulin can up or down regulate its number of receptors in cell walls in response to circulating concentrations of insulin–T/F?

A

True

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35
Q

Elimination half-life of insulin is ___-___ minutes

A

5-10 minutes

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36
Q

Insulin is metabolized by the ___ and ___

A

kidneys and liver

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37
Q

___% of the insulin that reaches the liver via the portal circulation is metabolized on a single pass through the liver

A

50% of the insulin that reaches the liver via the portal circulation is metabolized on a single pass through the liver

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38
Q

What prolongs the elimination half-life of insulin more–kidney or liver disease?

A

Kidney disease prolongs the elimination half-life of insulin more than liver disease

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39
Q

Despite rapid clearance from the plasma, there is a sustained pharmacologic effect of insulin for ___-___ minutes because insulin is tightly bound to ___ receptors

A

Despite rapid clearance from the plasma, there is a sustained pharmacologic effect of insulin for 30-90 minutes because insulin is tightly bound to tissue receptors

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40
Q

Insulin administered subQ is released ___ (slowly/quickly) into the circulation to produce a sustained biological effect

A

Insulin administered subQ is released slowly into the circulation to produce a sustained biological effect

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41
Q

Basal rate of insulin secretion by the pancreas is ___ unit/hr

A

Basal rate of insulin secretion by the pancreas is 1 unit/hr

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42
Q

Food prompts a ___-___ fold increase in insulin secretion

A

Food prompts a 5-10 fold increase in insulin secretion

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43
Q

Total daily secretion of insulin is approximately ___ units/day

A

Total daily secretion of insulin is approximately 40 units/day

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44
Q

Insulin response to glucose is greater for IV infusion than oral ingestion–T/F?

A

FALSE–insulin response to glucose is greater for oral ingestion than IV infusion

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45
Q

Long acting insulins should be used for acute diabetic attacks–T/F?

A

FALSE–long acting insulins should NOT be used for acute diabetic attacks

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46
Q

What long acting insulin acts just like basal rate insulin; is sgiven once a day; good for people who have very brittle diabetes/lots of swings in glucose levels; also good for patients who are not good at keeping a schedule for giving themselves insulin?

A

Degludec (Tresiba)

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47
Q

Rates of hypoglycemia with Degludec (Tresiba) are no greater than any other insulins–T/F?

A

True

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48
Q

What insulin is given at bedtime and helps to counteract the morning burst of hormones?

A

Glargine (Lantus)

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49
Q

Insulin preparations–newer agents are produced by ___ technology

A

recombinant technology

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50
Q

What is the advantage of newer insulin preparations?–___ or ___ that could accompany administration of animal insulins is no longer a significant problem

A

Allergy or immunoresistance that could accompany administration of animal insulins is no longer a significant problem

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51
Q

Only ___ acting insulin may be given IV/via pump

A

only short acting insulin may be given IV/via pump

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52
Q

Side effects of insulin–___glycemia; ___kalemia; ___magnesemia; ___phosphatemia; ___ reactions; ___dystrophy; insulin ___; drug ___

A

hypoglycemia; hypokalemia; hypomagnesemia; hypophosphatemia; allergic reactions; lipodystrophy; insulin resistance; drug interactions

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53
Q

Hypokalemia/hypomagnesemia that may occur with insulin administration puts patients at risk for ___

A

arrhythmias

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54
Q

Hypophosphatemia that may occur with insulin administration puts patients at risk for respiratory ___

A

respiratory depression

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55
Q

___ syndrome can occur in patients who have been NPO for awhile; get ___ (up/down) regulation of insulin receptors because the cells are hungry and waiting for more glucose to be introduced into the body

A

Refeeding syndrome can occur in patients who have been NPO for awhile; get up regulation of insulin receptors because the cells are hungry and waiting for more glucose to be introduced into the body

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56
Q

What happens if you give someone who has been NPO for so long 100% of their caloric requirements for the day?

A

Refeeding syndrome–they will get massive rush of insulin release from the pancreas; insulin will bind to all of the up regulated receptors; and there will be a rush of potassium, magnesium, and phosphate into the cells

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57
Q

What is the most serious side effect of insulin?

A

Hypoglycemia

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58
Q

Symptoms of hypoglycemia reflect the compensatory effects of increased ___–___esis, ___cardia, ___tension

A

increased epinephrine–diaphoresis, tachycardia, hypertension

Epi is released in response to hypoglycemia because it kickstarts gluconeogenesis/glycogenolysis to increase blood glucose levels

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59
Q

Rebound ___glycemia caused by ___ (sympathetic/parasympathetic) nervous system activity in response to hypoglycemia may mask the correct diagnosis–this is known as the ___ Effect

A

Rebound hyperglycemia caused by sympathetic nervous system activity in response to hypoglycemia may mask the correct diagnosis–this is known as the Somogyi Effect

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60
Q

CNS symptoms of hypoglycemia include mental ___ progressing to ___ and ___

A

mental confusion progressing to seizures and coma

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61
Q

Diagnosis of hypoglycemia under general anesthesia is ___ (easy/difficult)

A

difficult

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62
Q

Treatment of hypoglycemia–___ and ___ IV

A

dextrose and glucagon IV

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63
Q

Use of human insulin has eliminated the problem with systemic allergic reactions that could be associated with animal preparations of insulin–T/F?

A

True

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64
Q

Local allergic reactions to insulin are red hardened areas that develop at the site of injection; they are due to non insulin materials in the preparation–T/F?

A

True

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65
Q

Chronic NPH administration may lead to the development of antibodies to ___

A

protamine

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66
Q

Lipodystrophy is atrophy of fat at sites of ___

A

subQ insulin injection

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67
Q

Lipodystrophy occurs if you continue to inject in the ___ spot

A

same spot

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68
Q

Lipodystrophy is minimized by ___ the site of injection

A

rotating the site of injection

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69
Q

Insulin resistance occurs in patients requiring > ___ units/day (remember avg daily insulin release from the body is ~___ units/day)

A

Insulin resistance occurs in patients requiring > 100 units/day (remember the avg daily insulin release from the body is ~40 units/day)

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70
Q

Acute insulin resistance is associated with ___, ___, and ___

A

trauma, surgery, and infection

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71
Q

___resistance has been eliminated with the switch from animal insulin to human insulin

A

Immunoresistance

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72
Q

Hypoglycemic effects of insulin are countered by ___ or ___ steroids; ___en; ___on

A

ACTH or glucocorticoid steroids; estrogen; glucagon

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73
Q

Insulin drug interactions–hypoglycemic effects of insulin are countered by ___ or ___ steroids; ___en; ___on

A

ACTH or glucocorticoid steroids; estrogen; glucagon

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74
Q

Insulin drug interactions–epinephrine ___ (inhibits/stimulates) the secretion of insulin; ___ (inhibits/stimulates) glycogenolysis

A

epinephrine inhibits the secretion of insulin; stimulates glycogenolysis

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75
Q

Insulin pumps are only for ___/___ insulins (___/___ acting)

A

regular/analog insulins (rapid/short acting)

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76
Q

Methods of insulin administration–multiple SQ insulin injections–administer 70% of total insulin dose as ___ or ___ acting at ___ (basal insulin); type I diabetics may require ___ or ___ acting insulin in the ___ as well

A

administer 70% of total insulin dose as intermediate or long acting at bedtime (basal insulin); type I diabetics may require intermediate or long acting insulin in the morning as well

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77
Q

Methods of insulin administration–multiple SQ insulin injections–administer a ___ acting insulin prep before each meal or snack; doses should be adjusted based on blood ___ level and/or anticipated ___ intake

A

administer a rapid acting insulin prep before each meal or snack; doses should be adjusted based on blood glucose level and/or anticipated carbohydrate intake

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78
Q

Methods of insulin administration–insulin pumps–pump site is changed every ___-___ days; use a ___ acting insulin (___ or ___); administer a ___ rate with preprandial ___; basal rate is usually ___-___ unit/hr

A

pump site is changed every 2-4 days; use a rapid acting insulin (regular or lispro); administer a basal rate with preprandial boluses; basal rate is usually 0.5-1 unit/hr

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79
Q

Inhaled insulin = ___

A

Afreeza

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80
Q

Inhaled insulin (Afreeza) is ___ (rapid/long) acting; onset ___-___ minutes; duration ___ hours; available as single use cartridges of ___, ___, and ___ units

A

Inhaled insulin (Afreeza) is rapid acting; onset 10-15 minutes; duration 3 hours; available as single use cartridges of 4, 8, and 12 units

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81
Q

Basal bolus insulin administration matches the ___ process

A

physiologic process

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82
Q

Basal bolus insulin administration–___% long acting, ___% divided to AC/HS

A

70% long acting, 30% divided to AC/HS

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83
Q

Insulin sliding scales should be used alone–T/F?

A

FALSE–should NOT be used alone…need some sort of basal glucose control

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84
Q

Rapid acting insulin only temporarily corrects elevated blood glucose–T/F?

A

True

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85
Q

Goals of insulin therapy = maintain blood glucose levels as close to ___ as possible; delay or minimize long term complications of ___

A

maintain blood glucose levels as close to normal as possible; delay or minimize long term complications of diabetes

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86
Q

Long term complications of diabetes = athero___; ___pathy; ___pathy; ___pathy

A

atherosclerosis; neuropathy; nephropathy; retinopathy

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87
Q

Risks of hyperglycemia in the perioperative period = micro___; impaired ___ function; cerebral ___; impaired ___ healing; postoperative ___; ___natremia

A

microangiopathy; impaired leukocyte function; cerebral edema; impaired wound healing; postoperative sepsis; hyponatremia

Microangiopathy = disease of the capillaries–walls become so thick/weak and bleed, leak protein, and slow the flow of blood

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88
Q

The key to managing blood glucose levels perioperatively = set ___ goals, monitor blood glucose ___, and ___ therapy to achieve these goals

A

set clear goals, monitor blood glucose frequently, and adjust therapy to achieve these goals

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89
Q

What is desired under general anesthesia–higher or lower blood glucose? Why?

A

Higher blood glucose because general anesthesia can mask signs of low blood glucose

90
Q

Perioperative management of blood glucose–optimal blood glucose levels ___-___ mg/dl; < ___ mg/dl for total joints; glucose infusion if blood glucose decreases to < ___ mg/dl

A

optimal blood glucose levels 110-180 mg/dl; < 150 mg/dl for total joints; glucose infusion if blood glucose decreases to < 80 mg/dl

91
Q

Surgical stress may alter the expected blood glucose–T/F?

A

True

92
Q

It is important to maintain optimal glucose levels in the intraoperative period and ___-___ hours postoperatively

A

24-72 hours postoperatively

93
Q

Ideally, diabetic patients should be scheduled for surgery as ___

A

as the first case of the morning

94
Q

“Non-tight” control regimen–give ___ to ___ the dose of intermediate or long acting insulin as the last dose prior to procedure; if the procedure is short, may give ___ daily dose

A

give 1/4 to 1/2 the dose of intermediate or long acting insulin as the last dose prior to procedure; if the procedure is short, may give regular daily dose

95
Q

“Non-tight” control regimen–if patient is on tresiba (degludec), ___ dose

A

if patient is on tresiba (degludec), hold dose

96
Q

“Non-tight” control regimen–small dose of short acting or rapid acting insulin ___ (can/cannot) be administered as needed

A

small dose of short acting or rapid acting insulin can be administered as needed

97
Q

“Non-tight” control regimen–coverage with short or rapid acting insulin is based on blood ___ concentrations; should give ___ unit regular for every ___-___ mg/dl blood glucose

A

coverage with short or rapid acting insulin is based on blood glucose concentrations; should give 1 unit regular for every 50-60 mg/dl blood glucose

98
Q

For longer/serious procedures, follow the “___” regimen

A

“tight control” regimen

99
Q

“Tight control” regimen–continuous IV ___ infusion to maintain target glucose level; ___ units/kg/hr (___-___ unit/hour)

A

continuous IV insulin infusion to maintain target glucose level

100
Q

“Tight control” regimen–start insulin drip at plasma glucose level/___ (divide by ___ if patient is on steroids)

A

start insulin drip at plasma glucose level/150 (divide by 100 if patient is on steroids…allows for tighter control)

101
Q

“Tight control” regimen–maintenance fluid ___/electrolytes IV at ___ ml/hr/70 kg body weight

A

maintenance fluid D5W/electrolytes IV at 50 ml/hr/70 kg body weight

102
Q

“Tight control” regimen–IV boluses of regular insulin can create dangerous ___ of glucose levels because regular insulin has a half-life of ___-___ minutes with a biological half-life of ___-___ minutes, resulting in short, but high levels of insulin

A

IV boluses of regular insulin can create dangerous swings of glucose levels because regular insulin has a half-life of 4-5 minutes with a biological half-life of 15-20 minutes, resulting in short, but high levels of insulin

103
Q

Perioperative management for patients with insulin pumps–prior to surgery, can have ___ liquids with or without sugar; maintain ___ infusion rate; turn off ___; measure blood glucose every ___; know the typical bolus for the patient to decrease blood glucose by ___ mg/dl

A

patients with insulin pumps–prior to surgery, can have clear liquids with or without sugar; maintain basal infusion rate; turn off preprandial boluses; measure blood glucose every hour; know the typical bolus for the patient to decrease blood glucose by 50 mg/dl

104
Q

What are the (8) classes of oral hypoglycemics?–___ureas; ___ inhibitors; ___nides; ___nides; ___diones; ___ inhibitors; ___ mimetics; ___inhibitor

A
  • Sulfonylureas
  • Alpha-glucosidase inhibitors
  • Meglitanides
  • Biguanides
  • Thiazolidinediones
  • DPP4 inhibitors
  • Incretin mimetics
  • SLGT2 inhibitor
105
Q

Sulfonylureas MOA–act at ___ cells to stimulate release of ___

A

act at pancreatic beta cells to stimulate release of insulin

106
Q

Sulfonylureas were traditionally a ___ dosing schedule; newest generation dosed ___

A

traditionally a meal time dosing schedule; newest generation dose once daily

107
Q

In order for sulfonylureas to work, you need to have a functioning ___

A

pancreas

108
Q

Sulfonylureas are orally effective in ___ (lowering/raising) blood glucose levels even to the point of ___glycemia

A

lowering blood glucose levels even to the point of hypoglycemia

109
Q

Sulfonylureas have high ___ rates

A

high failure rates

20% primary failures (1 in 5 patients they won’t work for at all); each year 10-15% secondary failures

110
Q

Sulfonylureas should be avoided in patients with allergy to ___ drugs

A

sulfa drugs

111
Q

If patient took their sulfonylurea the morning of surgery, he/she will be at high risk for ___glycemia; have ___ or ___ available

A

he/she will be at high risk for hypoglycemia; have D50 or glucagon available

112
Q

Sulfonlyureas are primarily metabolized by the ___ and excreted by the ___; have ___ and ___ metabolites

A

Sulfonylureas are primarily metabolized by the liver and excreted by the kidneys; have active and inactive metabolites

113
Q

___ patients are at high risk of hypoglycemia from sulfonylureas

A

Renal failure patients are at high risk of hypoglycemia from sulfonylureas (because they are renally eliminated…renal failure prolongs their duration of action)

114
Q

Most common severe complication of sulfonylureas is ___

A

hypoglycemia

115
Q

Risk of hypoglycemia from sulfonylureas is highest with ___ and ___

A

glyburide and chlorpropamide (because they have the longest elimination half-life)

116
Q

Duration of action of a sulfonylurea is up to ___ days

A

up to 7 days

117
Q

Hypoglycemia from sulfonylureas is ___ (more/less) frequent than with insulin; it is often ___ and more ___ than hypoglycemia due to insulin

A

Hypoglycemia from sulfonlyureas is less frequent than with insulin; it is often prolonged and more dangerous than hypoglycemia due to insulin

118
Q

Do sulfonylureas cross the placenta?

A

Yes–can cause fetal hypoglycemia

119
Q

Other side effects of sulfonlyureas–weight ___ (gain/loss)/___; ___ disturbances in 1-3%–___/___; abnormal ___s; ___stasis

A

weight gain/edema; GI disturbances in 1-3%–nausea/vomiting; abnormal LFTs; cholestasis

120
Q

Avoid sulfonylureas (except ___) in patients with ___ disease

A

Avoid sulfonylureas (except acetohexamide) in patients with liver disease

121
Q

Contraindications/precautions for sulfonylurea use–hypersensitivity to ___; patients with ___glycemic unawareness; poor ___ function

A

hypersensitivity to sulfonamides; patients with hypoglycemic unawareness; poor renal function

122
Q

What are (3) 2nd generation sulfonylureas?

A
  • Glyburide (DiaBeta, Micronase)
  • Glipizide (Glucotrol)
  • Glimepiride (Amaryl)
123
Q

Glyburide (DiaBeta, Micronase) is given as a ___ daily dose for 24 hour effects; cleared from plasma in ___ hours

A

Glyburide (DiaBeta, Micronase) is given as a single daily dose for 24 hour effects; cleared from plasma in 36 hours

124
Q

What sulfonylurea is safest to use in patients with poor kidney function?

A

Glipizide (Glucotrol)

125
Q

Glipizide (Glucotrol) stimulates insulin secretion over a ___ hour period; effects persist for prolonged periods (at least ___ years) without evidence of tolerance; ___ (does/does not) have active metabolites

A

Glipizide (Glucotrol) stimulates insulin secretion over a 12 hour period; effects persist for prolonged periods (at least 3 years) without evidence of tolerance; does not have active metabolites

126
Q

If CrCl is above 10, it ___ (is/is not) safe for the patient to take glipizide

A

it is safe for the patient to take glipizide

127
Q

If someone took a sulfonylurea the morning of surgery, they are at risk for ___, especially if they took ___

A

they are at risk for hypoglycemia, especially if they took glyburide

128
Q

What are (3) 1st generation sulfonylureas?

A
  • Tolbutamide (Orinase)
  • Acetohexamide
  • Chlorpropamide (Diabinese)
129
Q

Which 1st generation sulfonylurea is the shortest acting and least potent and is associated with the fewest side effects?

A

Tolbutamide (Orinase)

130
Q

Most of the hypoglycemic action from acetohexamide is due to its principle metabolite, ___; ___ excrete the active metabolite

A

Most of the hypoglycemic action from acetohexamide is due to its principle metabolite, uricosuric; kidneys excrete the active metabolite

131
Q

Which 1st generation sulfonylurea is the longest acting?

A

Chlorpropamide (Diabinese)

132
Q

Chlorpropamide (Diabinese) duration of action may approach ___ hours; 20% of the drug is excreted unchanged by the ___; it is associated with ___-like reactions; can cause severe ___natremia

A

duration of action may approach 72 hours; 20% of the drug is excreted unchanged by the kidneys; it is associated with disulfiram-like reactions; can cause severe hyponatremia (< 129)

Disulfiram = drug that causes an adverse reaction to alcohol, leading to nausea, vomiting, flushing, dizziness, throbbing headache, chest/abdominal discomfort, and general hangover-like symptoms

133
Q

Effects and risk of hypoglycemia from chlorpropamide (Diabinese) can be prolonged in impaired ___ function

A

can be prolonged in impaired renal function

134
Q

(2) alpha-glucosidase inhibitors = ___ and ___

A

acarbose (precose) and miglitol (glyset)

135
Q

Alpha-glucosidase inhibitors MOA–decreased intestinal hydrolysis of ___

A

decreased intestinal hydrolysis of complex carbohydrates

136
Q

Side effects of alpha-glucosidase inhibitors = GI ___; increased ___s; avoid in ___ disease and ___

A

GI upset; increased LFTs; avoid in inflammatory bowel disease and obstructions

137
Q

Once complex carbohydrates are broken down into glucose, alpha-glucosidase inhibitors are ineffective–T/F?

A

True

138
Q

(2) meglitinides = ___ and ___

A

Repaglinide (Prandin) Nateglinide (Starlix)

139
Q

Meglitinides MOA–increase ___ secretion from islet cells like ___ (what other drug class?)

A

increase insulin secretion from islet cells like sulfonylureas

140
Q

Meglitinides have a ___ (slower/faster) onset and ___ (shorter/longer) duration of action than sulfonylureas

A

faster onset (1 hour) and shorter duration of action (4 hours)

141
Q

Meglitinides should be administered ___-___ minutes before meals

A

15-30 minutes before meals

142
Q

Meglitinides can be administered while fasting–T.F?

A

FALSE–NEVER administer while fasting

143
Q

Meglitinides are active only in the presence of ___; this decreases the risk of prolonged ___glycemic episodes

A

active only in the presence of glucose; this decreases the risk of prolonged hypoglycemic episodes

144
Q

Side effects of meglitinides–___glycemia (___ (more/less) than sulfonlyureas); weight ___ (gain/loss); ___ infection

A

hypoglycemia (less than sulfonylureas); weight gain; upper respiratory infection

145
Q

What is the name of (1) biguanide that is the #1 medication in type 2 diabetes treatment guidelines?

A

Metformin (Glucophage)

146
Q

Metformin (Glucophage) decreases blood glucose concentrations with a very ___ (low/high) risk of hypoglycemia; has a positive effect on ___ concentrations; and leads to mild weight ___ in obese patients

A

very low risk of hypoglycemia; has a positive effect on lipid concentrations; and leads to mild weight loss in obese patients (unlike sulfonlyureas and meglitinides, which both cause weight gain)

147
Q

Metformin MOA–___ (increased/decreased) hepatic glucose production [gluconeogenesis]; ___ (increases/decreases) glucose absorption from the intestine [similar to acarbose]; and ___ (increases/decreases) insulin sensitivity at the skeletal muscle cells

A

decreased hepatic glucose production [gluconeogenesis]; decreases glucose absorption from the intestine [similar to acarbose]; and increases insulin sensitivity at the skeletal muscle cells

148
Q

Metformin produces satisfactory results in 50% of sulfonylurea failures–T/F?

A

True

149
Q

Why should type 2 diabetics continue their metformin even if they are started on insulin?

A

Because metformin enhances the action of insulin at skeletal muscle cells

150
Q

Metformin gut microbiota changes–___ (increases/decreases) bacteroides fragilis; higher rates of bacteroides fragilis are linked to ___ity, glucose ___, and ___ (increased/decreased) insulin sensitivity

A

decreases bacteroides fragilis; higher rates of bacteroides fragilis are linked to obesity, glucose intolerance, and decreased insulin sensitivity

Also…metformin increases GUDCA (FXR antagonist) and inhibits FXR, which regulates bile acid associated with metabolic disease

151
Q

Common side effects of metformin = ___, ___, and ___

A

anorexia, nausea, and diarrhea

152
Q

Rare side effect of metformin = ___

A

lactic acidosis

Black box warning for metformin

153
Q

Signs of lactic acidosis from metformin–___/___; ___ (increased/decreased) RR, HR; ___ pain; ___

A

nausea/vomiting; increased RR, HR; abdominal pain; shock

154
Q

Metformin can exaggerate post-op nausea/vomiting–T/F?

A

True

Starting regular dose of metformin post-op can make patient very sick after surgery

155
Q

Discontinue metformin ___ hours prior to elective surgery d/t risk of lactic acidosis in the intraoperative period

A

48 hours prior to elective surgery

156
Q

Metformin and IV contrast = increased risk of ___toxicity; hold ___ hours prior to and after dye, check ___ levels

A

increased risk of nephrotoxicity; hold 48 hours prior to and after dye, check creatinine levels

157
Q

Metformin contraindications/precautions–new recommendations for renal impairment–contraindicated in patients with eGFR < ___ ml/min; do not initiate or re-evaluate patients with eGFR < ___ ml/min

A

contraindicated in patients with eGFR < 30 ml/min; do not initiate or re-evaluate patients with eGFR < 45 ml/min

158
Q

Metformin contraindications/precautions–age > ___ years old; ___ impairment; ___

A

age > 80 years old; hepatic impairment; CHF

159
Q

(2) thiazolidinediones–___ and ___

A

rosiglitazone (Avandia) and pioglitazone (actos)

160
Q

Thiazolidinediones MOA–___ (increase/decrease) insulin resistance; ___ (increase/decrease) hepatic glucose output

A

decrease insulin resistance; decrease hepatic glucose output

161
Q

Thiazolidinediones require the presence of ___ and are especially effective in ___ patients

A

require the presence of insulin and are especially effective in obese patients

162
Q

Thiazolidinediones side effects–weight ___ (loss/gain); ___toxicity; peripheral ___; ___ exacerbations; risk of ___

A

weight gain; hepatotoxicity; peripheral edema; CHF exacerbations; risk of bone fractures

163
Q

Why was rosiglitazone (avandia) pulled from the market?

A

Controversial increase in MI and CV death

164
Q

(4) DPP4 inhibitors

A
  • Sitagliptin (Januvia)
  • Saxagliptin (Onglyza)
  • Linagliptin (Tradjenta)
  • Alogliptin (Nesina)
165
Q

DPP4 inhibitors MOA–___ (increase/decrease) pancreatic insulin secretion; ___ (limit/enhance) glucagon secretion; ___ (slow/speed up) gastric emptying; ___ (promote/inhibit) satiety

A

increase pancreatic insulin secretion; limit glucagon secretion; slow gastric emptying; promote satiety

166
Q

How do DPP4 inhibitors specifically work though? They slow down metabolism of what protein?

A

slow down metabolism of GLP-1

167
Q

Side effects of DPP4 inhibitors–___ infection and ___ infections; ___ache; weight ___ (loss/gain/neutral); ___ (lower/higher) risk of hypoglycemia…___ (increased/decreased) risk of hypoglycemia if using in combo with other agents

A

upper respiratory infection and urinary tract infections; headache; weight neutral; lower risk of hypoglycemia…increased risk of hypoglycemia if using in combo with other agents

168
Q

Post-marketing, DPP4 inhibitors were found to cause ___titis, ___edema, ___ syndrome, ___laxis

A

pancreatitis, angioedema, Stevens Johnson syndrome, anaphylaxis

169
Q

DPP4 inhibitors 08/2015 FDA safety warning for ___

A

joint pain

170
Q

Incretin mimetics are also known as ___ analogs and ___ analogs

A

GLP-1 analogs and amylin analogs

171
Q

(4) incretin mimetics–GLP-1 analogs

A
  • Exanatide (Byetta, Bydureon)
  • Liraglutide (Victoza)
  • Albiglutide (Tanzeum)
  • Dulaglutide (Trulicity)

^ These are injectables

172
Q

GLP-1 analogs ___ (slow/speed up) gastric emptying; ___ (reduce/enhance) postprandial glucagon secretion

A

slow gastric emptying; reduce postprandial glucagon secretion

173
Q

Amylin analogs ___ (increase/decrease) insulin secretion; ___ (slow/speed up) gastric emptying; ___ (increase/decrease) beta cell growth; ___ (suppress/stimulate) central appetite

A

increase insulin secretion; slow gastric emptying; increase beta cell growth; suppress central appetite

174
Q

What is (1) amylin analog? Why is it not really used?

A

Pramlinide (Symlin)–too expensive

175
Q

Where does pramlinide (symlin) come from?

A

Gila monsters

176
Q

What is a risk postoperatively if the patient takes a GLP-1 analog?

A

Postop nausea/vomiting because GLP-1 analogs slow down the GI tract

177
Q

Side effects of GLP-1 analogs–___/___/___; ___titis; acute ___ failure; weight ___ (loss/gain)

A

nausea/vomiting/diarrhea; pancreatitis; acute renal failure; weight loss

178
Q

Specific GLP-1 analog precautions–avoid Byetta in ___ failure; avoid Victoza in ___ carcinoma

A

avoid Byetta in renal failure; avoid Victoza in thyroid carcinoma

179
Q

Side effects of amylin analogs–black box warning: ___glycemia, especially in type ___ diabetics; ___/___; ___rexia; ___ache; gastro___

A

black box warning: hypoglycemia, especially in type I diabetics; nausea/vomiting; anorexia; headache; gastroparesis

180
Q

(3) SGLT2 inhibitors

A
  • Canagliflozin (Invokana)
  • Dapagliflozin (Farxiga)
  • Empagliflozin (Jardiance)
181
Q

SGLT2 inhibitors MOA–___ (increased/decreased) urinary glucose excretion from the ___ tubule

A

increased urinary glucose excretion from the proximal tubule

182
Q

Contraindications for SGLT2 inhibitors–CrCl < ___ ml/min, end stage ___ disease, patients on hemo___

A

CrCl < 30 ml/min, end stage renal disease, patients on hemodialysis

183
Q

Warnings for SGLT2 inhibitors–___tension, ___ side effects

A

hypotension, urinary side effects

184
Q

Increased risk of ___ and ___ with SGLT2 inhibitors

A

gangrene and amputations, primarily toe

185
Q

What does SGLT2 inhibitor mean?

A

sodium glucose transporter 2 inhibitor

186
Q

SGLT2 inhibitors–increased risk of perioperative ___glycemic keto___

A

euglycemic ketoacidosis

187
Q

Thyroid gland hormones review–hypothalamus releases ___; pituitary releases ___; thyroid releases ___ and ___

A

hypothalamus releases thyroid releasing hormone (TRH); pituitary releases thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH); thyroid releases T3 ad T4

188
Q

Clinical presentation of HYPOthyroid (Hashimoto disease)–___ (cold/heat) intolerance; ___ (moist/dry) skin; ___ness; weight ___ (loss/gain); ___cardia; ___ (slow/fast) reflexes; ___ (coarse/fine) skin and hair; periorbital ___; painful/heavy ___; ___ coma

A

cold intolerance; dry skin; weakness; weight gain; bradycardia; slow reflexes; coarse skin and hair; periorbital swelling; painful/heavy menstruation; myxedema coma

189
Q

Clinical presentation of HYPERthyroid (Graves disease)–weight ___ (loss/gain); ___ (increased/decreased) appetite; ___ (cold/heat) intolerance; ___er; ___ (coarse/fine) hair; ___cardia; ___iety; ___nia; ___ (lighter/heavier) periods/___menorrhea; ___ (cold/warm) skin; ___thalmos; ___ storm

A

weight loss; increased appetite; heat intolerance; goiter; fine hair; tachycardia; anxiety; insomnia; lighter periods/amenorrhea; warm skin; exophthalmos; thyroid storm

190
Q

Armour thyroid composition ratio of T4 to T3 is ___:___

A

4:1

191
Q

Effectiveness of armour thyroid therapy is demonstrated by the return of TSH to normal and decrease in the size of the goiter–T/F?

A

True

192
Q

Armour thyroid suppresses the responsiveness and causes regression of TSH sensitive malignant tumors–T/F?

A

True

193
Q

T4 = ___ (active/inactive)

A

T4 = inactive

194
Q

T3 = ___ (active/inactive)

A

T3 = active

195
Q

What is the most frequently administered drug for the treatment of diseases requiring thyroid hormone replacement (i.e.: hypothyroidism)?

A

Levothyroxine (T4) (Synthroid)

196
Q

What mechanism of administration is preferred for levothyroxine?

A

Oral (but IV is available)

197
Q

If a patient is on PO Synthroid and is unable to take oral meds for several days, do they need immediate IV replacement of Synthroid? Why?

A

No because Synthroid has a long elimination half-life (7 days)

After 7 days, if patient is still not able to take PO, you can administer half the oral dose IV

198
Q

The elimination half-life of Synthroid is ___ days

A

7 days

199
Q

In the body, Synthroid is deiodinated and converted to ___

A

T3

200
Q

Liothyronine (Cytomel) is a levorotatory isomer of ___

A

T3

201
Q

Liothyronine (T3) (Cytomel) is __-__x as potent as levothyroxine

A

2.5-3x as potent as levothyroxine

202
Q

Liothyronine (T3) (Cytomel) is usually added on if someone is on a max dose of Synthroid and their body isn’t responding appropriately to it–T/F?

A

True

203
Q

Liothyronine (T3) (Cytomel) has a ___ (slow/rapid) onset and ___ (short/long) duration of action

A

rapid onset and short duration of action

204
Q

Hypothyroidism anesthetic implications–___ (increased/decreased) sensitivity to depressant drugs, including inhaled anesthetics; ___dynamic (hyper/hypo) CV system; ___ (increased/decreased) CO d/t ___ (increased/decreased) HR and SV; ___ (slow/fast) metabolism of drugs, particularly opioids; unresponsive ___ reflexes; ___ (increased/decreased) intravascular fluid volume; impaired ventilatory response to ___ (low/high) PaO2 and/or ___ (increased/decreased) PaCO2; ___ (delayed/enhanced) gastric emptying; ___natremic; ___thermic; ___nemic; ___glycemic; primary ___ insufficiency

A

increased sensitivity to depressant drugs, including inhaled anesthetics; hypodynamic CV system; decreased CO d/t decreased HR and SV; slow metabolism of drugs, particularly opioids; unresponsive baroreceptor reflexes; decreased intravascular fluid volume; impaired ventilatory response to low PaO2 and/or increased PaCO2; delayed gastric emptying; hyponatremic; hypothermic; anemic; hypoglycemic; primary adrenal insufficiency

205
Q

Two antithyroid drugs to treat hyperthyroidism–___ and ___

A

propylthiouracil (PTU) and methimazole (tapazole)

206
Q

Methimazole MOA–inhibit the formation of ___ hormone

A

thyroid hormone

207
Q

PTU blocks the peripheral deiodination of ___ to ___

A

T4 to T3

208
Q

PTU and methimazole are useful in treating ___thyroidism (including thyroid ___) before elective ___

A

useful in treating hyperthyroidism (including thyroid storm) before elective thyroidectomy

209
Q

PTU and methimazole are only available ___

A

orally

210
Q

PTU and methimazole require several days for full effect because pre-formed hormone must be depleted–T/F?

A

True

211
Q

Antithyroid medication side effects–transient ___penia; ___; ___gias; ___-like symptoms; ___; ___cytosis early in therapy

A

transient leukopenia; rash; arthralgias; lupus-like symptoms; fever; granulocytosis early in therapy

212
Q

What is the oldest effective treatment for hyperthyroidism?

A

Iodines–Lugol’s solution, saturated KI (potassium iodide) solution

213
Q

Iodines inhibit the release of ___ hormone into the circulation

A

inhibit the release of thyroid hormone into the circulation

214
Q

Iodines are combined with ___olol to treat hyperthyroidism before thyroidectomy

A

propranolol

215
Q

___ is a severe exacerbation of hyperthyroidism due to a sudden excessive release of thyroid hormone

A

Thyroid storm (thyrotoxicosis)

216
Q

Signs of thyroid storm–___thermia, ___cardia, ___, ___hydration, and ___

A

hyperthermia, tachycardia, CHF, dehydration, and shock

217
Q

Thyroid storm resembles ___

A

malignant hyperthermia

218
Q

Thyroid storm is more likely to occur in the first ___-___ hours postop than intraop

A

first 6-19 hours postop

219
Q

Thyroid storm has a/an ___ (abrupt/delayed) onset

A

an abrupt onset

220
Q

Treatment of thyroid storm–IV infusion of ___ (warm/cold) crystalloid solutions; sodium ___ IV to reduce the release of active hormones from the thyroid gland; ___ IV to treat acute primary adrenal insufficiency from increased metabolism and use of corticosteroids; ___ IV to alleviate the CV effects of thyroid hormones; ___ PO to reduce synthesis of new thyroid hormone

A

IV infusion of cold crystalloid solutions; sodium iodide IV to reduce the release of active hormones from the thyroid gland; cortisol IV to treat acute primary adrenal insufficiency from increased metabolism and use of corticosteroids; propranolol IV to alleviate the CV effects of thyroid hormones; PTU PO to reduce synthesis of new thyroid hormone

221
Q

Avoid ___ for elevated temperature because it may displace thyroxine from carrier proteins

A

Avoid aspirin for elevated temperature because it may displace thyroxine from carrier proteins (so then there will be more circulating thyroxine)