Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Phase 2 mine > ICS immunology and pathology > Flashcards

ICS immunology and pathology Flashcards

1
Q

Why is a death reffered to a coroner?

A

Cause of death not known, not seen by doctor in last illness, peri/post operative deaths, anaesthetic deaths, accidents suicide unlawful killings

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Who referrs to a coroner?

A

Doctors, relatives poleace registrar, anatomical pathology technicians

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Who performs autopsies?

A

Histopathologists usually for natural deaths and hospital deaths or a forensic pathologist who does it for crimes or death due to a 3rd party

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the roles of a coroner/

A

Find out who they were, when they died, where the died, how did they come about their death?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is involved in an autopsy?

A

pictures of outside potentially scans, microbioloy internal eternal removal of organs histology.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the purpose of inflammation to the body?

A

Destruction of invading microorganisms and the walling off of a cavity to prevent infection spreading.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

How can inflammation be a problem?

A

space occupying lesions, fibrosis from chronic inflammation can dirupt the structure and function of tissues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is acute inflammation?

A

Initial and transiant erios of tissue reactions to injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is chronic inflammation?

A

The subsequent and prolonged tissue reactions following acute inflamation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What separates chronic and acute inflammation?

A

the types of cells involved in the inflammatory response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are the steps involved in acute inflammation?

A

Injury to tissue, dilation of vessels, exudative vascular leakage of protein-rich fluid, neutrophil polymorph is the characteristic cell that is recruited.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are the end points of acute inflammation?

A

Resolution, suppuration(abscess) organisation or progression to chronic inflammation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What can cause acute inflammation?

A

Microbial infection, hypersensitivity reactions, pysiical agents like trauma or radiation, chemicals bacterial toxins or tissue necrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

How is microbial infection inflammation mediated?

A

Viruses destroc cells, bacteria release exotoxins, additionally some orgnisms cause immunologically mediated inflamation from hypersenistibity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is a hypersensitivity reaction?

A

when the reaction is not proportiantd to the dammage to cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Why might tissue necrosis occur?

A

Death of tissues from lack of oxygen or nutrients often from inadequate blood flow,

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are the macroscopic appearaces of acute inflammation?

A

Rubor(redness) Calor(heat) Tumor(swelling) Dolor(pain)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What causes redness?

A

Dilatation of small blood vessels of the area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What causes heat in inflammation?

A

Increased peripheral bloodflow (hyperaemia) or a systemic fever

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is cellulitis?

A

Acute inflammation and redness (erythema) on the lateral side of the foot due to vasclar dilatation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What causes swelling in inflammation?

A

From oedema accumulation of fluid in the extravascular space as part of the fluid exudate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What causes pain in inflammation?

A

tissue deformation, some chamical mediators can induce pain, serotoin prostalandins and bradykinin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What happens in the early stages of acute inflammation?

A

Fibrin oedema fluid, neutrophil polymorphs accumlate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What happens in blood vessels during inflammation?

A

they dilate and become more permeable.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What increases vascular permeability?

A

histamine bradykinin, nitric oxide, C5a leucotriene B4 platelety activating factors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

How do white blood cells leave the vessels?

A

Through the endothelial gaps through the basal lamina into the adventitia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What are the effects of histamine and thrombin on the endothelial surcace?

A

Increase expression of molecules that activate neutrophils to adhere to the endothelium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What chemical mediators are released by cells?

A

Histamine also lysosomal compounds ecosanoids serotonin(5hydroxytruptamine and chemokines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

what are the four enzymatic cascade systems of plasma?

A

Complement, the kinins, coagulation factors and the fibrinolytic system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What feeds the complement system?

A

Kinin and fibrinolytic sustem

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is the kinin system?

A

Factor 12 produces kallikrein and kininogens that produce kinins lie bradykinin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What are the differences in the transient phase and prolonged phase of vascular permeability?

A

Histamine is transient then other mediators prolong it. NO, Leucotriene, Prostaglandins, Bradykinin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What does neutrophil polymorph do?

A

They engulf lysosomes and phagocytic vacuoles,

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What are the negative effects of inflammation?

A

Digestion of normal tissues, Swelling inappropriate inflammation response.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What causes suppuration?

A

Excessive exudate and cn lead to rupture and discharge of pus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What can happen after excessive necrosis?

A

Repair and organisation and fibrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What leads to chronic inflammation?

A

Persistent causal agents often leads to chronic inflammation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What are the systemic effects of inflammation?

A

Pyrexia, constitutional symptoms, weight loss reactive hyperplasia of reticuloendothelial system, haematological changes amyloidosis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What is resolution?

A

initiating factor removed. tissue undamaged or able to regenerate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is repair?

A

Initiating factor still present, tissue damaged and unable to regenerate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What happens in the repair of skin?

A

Replacement of damaged tissue by fibrous tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Which cells are thought to not regeneragre/

A

The heart cells and neurones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Which cells are known to regenerate?

A

Hepatocytes, neumocytes all blood cells gut epithelium skin epithelium and osteocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What are required for a thrombus to form?

A

Change in the vessel wall, change in blood flow or a change in blood constituents

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What is an embolus?

A

A mass of material in the vascualr system able to become lodged within a vessel and block it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What is ischemia?

A

Reduction in blood flow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What is an MCCD?

A

Medical certificate cause of death

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

which cells come first in inflamation?

A

neutrophil polymorphs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What do macrophages do?

A

They break up old tissue and ingest bateria and debris can be antigen presenting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

How long can lymphocytes like?

A

Years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What do lymphocytes do?

A

They produce chemicals which attract other inflammatory cells and memory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What is the role of fibroblasts?

A

They produce fibrous tissue.(scar tissue)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What is a granuloma?

A

Specific pattern of lymphocytes and macrophages in inflamation in TB sarcoidosis, leprocy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What is granulation tissue/

A

Macroscopic tissue that looks bobbly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What is prostaglandin synthetase?

A

It is an enzyme that produces prostaglandins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

How do steroids reduce inflamation?

A

They regulate DNA that give more inhibitors of inflammation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What is antihistamine?

A

competitive inhibitor for histamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What is resolution?

A

It goes back to normal it can repair fully or the tissue is undamaged

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What can the liver regenerate from?

A

When you have one big insult to it it can go back to normal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What permanently damages the liver?

A

continuous damage, to the liver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What is fibrous vs cirrhosis?

A

cirrhoses is nodular when regrowth has begun.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What are the lungs like in repair/ regeneration?

A

Resolution can happen as long as architecture is not damage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What is the affect of COVID-19 on lungs?

A

Can cause small damage and fluid but can cause fibrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What happens in skin abrasion repair?

A

The cells at the bottom divide and repain the skin, can grow back from the hair follicle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What is first intention healing?

A

Heals after the incision and bring the edges together to allow strong collagen to join it.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What is second intention healing?

A

When there is a hole in the skin and it cant be brought back together and healing takes longer to get together as cells grow in from the edges

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What is granulation tissue in skin healing?

A

Small loops of blood vessels causing granulations on damaged skin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Where does fibrous tissue usually form?

A

In tissue that can’t regenerate, spinal cord heart attack, brain, skin somethimes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What is gliosis?

A

Brain scarring fibrous tissue has thinner fibrous strands

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What makes up a granuloma?

A

Macrophages and fused macrophages with lymphocytes around the outside

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What type of inflammation is a granuloma?

A

Chronic inflammation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

What can inflammation do even when treated?

A

can destroy tissue still

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

What do anti inflammatory drugs also affect?

A

They can affect immunity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

what is rebound tenderness?

A

When remove pressure from abdomen it causes pain acute abdomen infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

What is diverticulitis?

A

When outpouching of large bowel ruptures and gets infected

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

What are the key element of acute inflamation?

A

Polymorph neutrophils formation of puss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

What prevents clotting normally?

A

Laminar flow and the endothelial lining

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

How does COVID affect thrombosis?

A

Damages the blood vessels with microthrombi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

What is an end artery?

A

only have one blood supply to get it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Which organs are not end artery supplied?

A

Lungs liver some ares of the brain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

When does atherosclerosis usually happen?

A

In later years of life around 50 onwards

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Which arteries are most likely to get atheroma and why?

A

The aorta and systemic arteries because they are at a higher pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

What is atheroma?

A

Build up of tissue in the arteries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

What forms an atherosclerotic lesion?

A

Lipids and cholesterol then fibrous tissue builds up as inflammation takes place

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

What layer starts an atherosclerotic plaque?

A

the endothelial lining can affect the internal elastic lamina

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

What are the risk factors of atheroma?

A

Smoking Diabetes high BP high lipids being a man

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

What is it about smoking that affects endothelial cells?

A

free radicals nicotine and CO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Why does diabetes cause endothelial damage?

A

Superoxide anions, glycosylation products.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

What factors can lead to apoptosis?

A

detachment from the adhesion surface certain extracellular factors, DNA dammage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

What can induces apoptosis?

A

DNA damage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

What signals the cell to apoptose?

A

Fas ligands Bcl2 protein activating, caspases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

How is apoptoses involved in disease?

A

HIV too much cancer too little

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

What can cause necrosis?

A

Venom, frost bite burns, ischemia infection with bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

What are the types of necrosis?

A

Coagulative, liquifactive and caseous necrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

What is the first stage of atherosclerosis?

A

fatty streak can be undone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

What makes up a plaque?

A

Fibrous tissue, lipids(cholesterol), lymphocytes(chronic inflammation),

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

Does diabetes always damage arteries?

A

Not unless it is uncontrolled

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

What is lipid insudation theory?

A

the theory that high lipids lead to lipids passing through endothelial lining. disproven now.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

What is the main theory of the formation of plaque?

A

The endothelial dammage theory. they can be killed or damage by toxins from various sources, high blood pressure shearing forces on endothelia cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

what prevention can there be?

A

Baby aspirin to stop platelet aggregation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

How does apoptosis happen?

A

Nucleus condenses pyknosis, the organelles go into blebs and phagocytes eat the blebs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

What are caspases?

A

They are molecules that initiate apoptosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

What is fas ligand?

A

The ligand for fas receptor to signal apoptosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

What is the use of apoptosis in embryology?

A

Helps the formation of the shape of organs and tissues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

What is coagulative necrosis?

A

semi solid death

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

What is liquefactive necrosis?

A

When the brain digests all of the material in that has died.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

What is caseous necrosis?

A

Smooth cheese texture often in TB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

Are all congenital diseases genetic?

A

No some can come from foetal nutrition or exposure to toxins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

What does multifactorial mean?

A

That there are many causes both genetic and environmental that affect the incidence of disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

What shows strong evidence of genetic causes for disease?

A

Family studies and studies on twins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

What are HLA types?

A

Human leucocyte antigens they are expressed on the surface of nucleated cells and on the cells that interact with t lymphocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

What is a neoplasm?

A

They are tumours new growths

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

What chemical agents can cause disease?

A

Strong acids from body or environment, metabolic effects like alcohol impare processes, membranes can be dammaged, certain chemicals can affect embrysos and allergic reactions to chemicals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

How does carbon monoxide affect the arterial endothelial cells/

A

It causes hypoxia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

What are the types of growth?

A

Hypertorphy and hyperplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

What is hypertrophy?

A

The size of the cells themselves increases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

What is hyperplasia?

A

When the cells repilcate and increase in number

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

Where does hyperplasia happen in normal function?

A

Breast tissue during lactation

119
Q

What can cause pathological atrophy?

A

Loss of blood supply, denervation, pressure lack of nutrients, lack of hormonal stimulation or from hormonal stimulation

120
Q

What is metaplasia?

A

Reversible transformation of one type of mature cell into another fully differentiated cell type.

121
Q

When does metaplasia happen?

A

As an adaptive response to injurios stimuli

122
Q

What is dysplasia?

A

A premalignant condition characterised by increased growth cellular atypua and decreased differentiation

123
Q

What is ageing?

A

Progressive degeneration or loss of function

124
Q

What are common areas to lose function in with age?

A

The brain ear, joints,

125
Q

What could lead to cells dying and therefore aging?

A

Free radicals defective repair fragility syndrome, telomeric shortening

126
Q

What does aging to to skin?

A

Wrinkling due to loss of elastin and collaen, fragle and bruises easily.

127
Q

What is sarcpenia?

A

Loss of muscle mass

128
Q

What changes happen to bones with ageing?

A

Osteoarticular ageing where the bones lose mass and stretch and the articular surfaces wear.

129
Q

What happens to the immune system in ageing?

A

Impaired immunity thymus atrophy leads to fewer immune cells,

130
Q

What happens to the cardiovascular system in ageing?

A

Atherosclerosis, loss of elacticity in the aorta, distension of certain arteries, calcification of blood vessels,

131
Q

What type of growth can nerve cells do?

A

Hyperplasia

132
Q

What is optic atrophy?

A

The whitening of the optic disk

133
Q

Which tissues are dividing?

A

Skin , gut epithelium

134
Q

What is likely to cause sarcopenia?

A

Decreased growth hormone and testosterone

135
Q

How does basal cell carcinoma spread?

A

Only spreads locally and never spreads to other parts of the body

136
Q

How to cure basal cell carcinoma?

A

Remove the damaged tissue

137
Q

Where does cancer spread first?

A

To the lymph nodes that drain that area of the body

138
Q

Which are the most common cancers to spread to bone?

A

Breast, prostate, Lung thyroid and kidney

139
Q

How do they go about breast cancer treatment?

A

Confirm diagnosis see if it has spread to the lymph nodes, if it has they need removing otherwise chemo or radiotherapy

140
Q

Why does complete removal of a tumour not always work?

A

There can be micrometastases present in the body

141
Q

What is adjuvant therapy?

A

Extra treatment given after surgery such as anti oestrogen after breast cancer

142
Q

What often leads to systemic infection with cancer?

A

Cancers of the blood or circulatory cells

143
Q

Are all tumours benign or malignant?

A

They are between the extremes of highly spreadable and not at all

144
Q

What is carcinogenesis?

A

Transformation of normal cells to neoplastic cells through genetic alterations or mutations

145
Q

What is oncogenesis?

A

Benign or malignant tumours

146
Q

What is the first step of cancer formation?

A

Causative agent like a toxin or radiation or sporadic mutation

147
Q

What is a carcinogenic subastance?

A

One that causes cancer

148
Q

What is an oncogenic substance?

A

Causes a tumour to be formed

149
Q

Where are most cancer risks coming from/

A

85% from the environment

150
Q

What are occupational or behavioural risks of cancer?

A

Smoking or industrial work

151
Q

How can cancers be investigated ?

A

animal testing but can be different in human models

152
Q

What are the classes of carcinogen?

A

Chemical viral ionising and non-ionising radiation, hormones parasites and mycotoxins also others

153
Q

What are chemical carcinogens?

A

No general structure, some directly act others are metabolised which leads to one that affects you

154
Q

What kind of cancers can radiation cause?

A

Thyroid, lung skin cancer

155
Q

Which biological gents lead to cancers?

A

Oestrogen to mamanry and endometriu, mycotocis to liver cancer, parasites to cholangiocarcinoma

156
Q

List some premalignant conditions?

A

Undescended testis, ulcerative clitis, cervical dysplasia colonoc polyps

157
Q

What is neoplasm vs tumour?

A

A tumour is any swelling that could be neoplasm inflammation hypertrophy hyperplasia

158
Q

What are the characteristics of neoplasia?

A

Autonomous, abnormal, persistent, new growth

159
Q

What are the characteristics of neoplastic cells?

A

Derive from nucleated cells, grow in sme pattern as parent and do the same function as parent cell

160
Q

What is stroma neoplasm?

A

Connective tissue growth around the neoplastic cells

161
Q

What step is essential to tumour growth greater than 2mm?

A

Angiogenesis

162
Q

What are the uses of classifying a neoplasm?

A

To get right treatment, provide prognosis,

163
Q

How can neoplasms be defined?

A

Behavioural: benign or malignant
Histogenetic: by cell of origin

164
Q

What are benign neoplasms like?

A

Localised non-invasive, Slow growth rate low mitotic activity, close resemblance to normal tissue circumscribed or encapsulated. nucleus normal rare necrocis or ulceeration

165
Q

Why can benign neoplasms cause problems?

A

Production of hormones, obstruc flow or put pressure on other structures, transformation to malignant neoplasm

166
Q

what do malignant neoplasms look like?

A

Invasive, Metastases, rapid growth variable resemblance to normal tissue poorly defined or irregular border, hyperchromatic nucleu pleomorphic nucles more mitosis necrosis and ulceration are common

167
Q

What are the problems with malignant neoplasms?

A

Destroys tissue, metastases, blood loss, obstruction of flow hormone production paraneoplastic effects, pain

168
Q

What does suffix oma mean?

A

Neoplasm

169
Q

What does the prefix of the cancer mean?

A

The behaviour and cell type

170
Q

What is papilloma?

A

Benign tumour of non-glandular non secretory epithelium can prefix with squamous

171
Q

What is adenoma?

A

Benign tumour of glandular or secretory epithelium

172
Q

What is carcinoma?

A

Malignant tumour of epithelial cells

173
Q

What is a carcinoma of glandular epithelium called?

A

Adenocarcinoma

174
Q

What is lipoma?

A

adipocytes

175
Q

What is chondroma?

A

cartilage

176
Q

What is osteoma?

A

Bone

177
Q

What is angioma?

A

Vascular

178
Q

What is rhabdomyoma?

A

Striated muscle

179
Q

What is leiomyoma?

A

Smooth muscle

180
Q

What is neuroma?

A

Nerves

181
Q

What is a malignant connective tissue name?

A

Sarcoma sar meaning fleshy

182
Q

What does anaplastic mean?

A

Cant tell where it is from

183
Q

What are nomenclature exceptions for cancerous growths?

A

Melanomer is malignant mesothelioma is malignant and lymphoma is malignant some omas are not neoplasms granuloma mycetoma tuberculoma

184
Q

What does endophytic growth mean?

A

They grow into the underlying tissue

185
Q

What is in-situ neoplasia?

A

epithelial neoplasms where the neoplasia has the basement membrane intact.

186
Q

What is invasion?

A

When a malignant neoplasm spreads from the initial site to directly adjacent tissues.

187
Q

What is metastasis?

A

When a malignant tumour spreads from its primary site to produce a tumour at a secondary site it can occur by blood vessels lymhatics or body cavities

188
Q

What is haematogenous spread?

A

Spread by blood vessels

189
Q

What is trans-coelomic?

A

Spread by body cavities

190
Q

What is involved in the metastatic cascade?

A

Detachment invasion intravasation evasion of host defences arrest extravasation and vascularisation

191
Q

What are the characteristics of chemotherapy?

A

non selective for tumour cells other than tumour will be more affected as its dividing more, hits normal cells like white blood cells hair causes diarrhoea

192
Q

What is the appropriate treatment for in situ carcinoma?

A

Excision!

193
Q

What is micro-invasive carcinoma?

A

one which has only just breached the basement membrane

194
Q

What helps with invasion of cancer?

A

collagenase cathesin D urokinase-type plasminogen activator

195
Q

How do the cancer cells avoid being recognised tumour cells ?

A

Aggregation with platelets, shedding surface antigens, adhesion to other tumour cells.

196
Q

What is extravasation?

A

They have adhesin receptors, collagenases, cell motility to come out of the vessel into the tissue

197
Q

Where is a common site for metastasises?

A

In the lungs

198
Q

Where doses colon usually metastasise to?

A

The liver

199
Q

What do lots of cancer drugs do?

A

They bind to apparatus to stop DNA replication

200
Q

When do conventional cancer treatments not work?

A

They don’t work in cancers where there is a lack of apoptosis rather than over replication

201
Q

What types of genetic mutatios are cancerous?

A

Growth promoting proto-oncogenes, Growth inhibiting cancer suppressor genes, Genes that regulat apoptosis, genes that regulate repair of damaged DNA

202
Q

What does the immune system do?

A

Recognise pathogens and destry organisms

203
Q

What is the innate immunity?

A

Instinctive, non-specific does not depend on lymphocytes

204
Q

What is the adaptive immune system?

A

Specific aquiredd and learned ummunity requires lymphocytes, antibodies.

205
Q

What is serum?

A

Plasma without fibrinogen and other clotting factors

206
Q

What is the mediator for phagocytes?

A

Complement and cytikines

207
Q

What is the mediator for t cells?

A

Cytokines

208
Q

What is not generated by the common myeloid progenitor?

A

The lymphocytes

209
Q

Which lymphocytes are polymrphnuclear?

A

Neutrophil, eosinophil and basophil

210
Q

What are the soluble mediators of the Immune system?

A

Complement antibodies and cytokines and chemokines

211
Q

What are complement molecules?

A

They are secreted by the liver but need to be activated to be functional and they are activated as part of the immune response

212
Q

What are the modes of action of complement?

A

Direct lysis, attract mroe leukocytes to the site of infection and coat invading organisms

213
Q

What are antibodies?

A

Molecules that bind to antigens

214
Q

What are the types of immunoglobulin?

A

IgG(1-4) IgA(1,2), IgM, IgD, IgE

215
Q

What shape is IgG?

A

It is Y shaped

216
Q

What shape is IgM?

A

Pentagon

217
Q

Which is the most common antibody in the blood?

A

IgG 70-75%

218
Q

Where are IgM antibodies found?

A

In the blood as too big to cross the endothelium

219
Q

What are IgM antibodies involved with?

A

primary immune response initial contact with antigen

220
Q

What shape is IgA?

A

Double ended one

221
Q

Where is IgA found?

A

In mucous secretions

222
Q

Where is IgD found?

A

Transmembrane monomeric present on mature B cells

223
Q

Which is the least common antibody?

A

IgE

224
Q

Which cells have a lot of IgE on the outside of them?

A

Basophils and mast cells

225
Q

What do antibodies do?

A

Help things bind to antigens on a pathogen

226
Q

What is an interferon?

A

Induce a state of antiviral resistance in uninfected cells and limit the spread of viral infection

227
Q

What are interleukins?

A

They are produced by many cells and can be pro-inflammatory and cause cells to divide or secrete different factors

228
Q

What are chemokines?

A

Chemotactic cytokines they direct movement of leukocytes and other celsl into the tissue

229
Q

Is innate or adaptive immunity faster?

A

adaptive is faster

230
Q

Which type of immunity is involved with lymphocytes/

A

Adaptive

231
Q

What are the components of the innate immunity?

A

Physical and chemical barriers, phagocytic cells neutrophils and macrophages, blood proteins

232
Q

What are the physical barriers of the body?

A

The skin, tears, saliva, bronchi, ph of intestines and stomach

233
Q

What is extravasation?

A

Movement of leukocytes ut of the blood vessels

234
Q

Where can microbes be sensed?

A

In the blood by monocytes and neutrophils and in tissues by macrophages and dendritic cells

235
Q

What are PAMPs?

A

Pathogen associated molecular patterns

236
Q

PRR

A

patter recognition receptors on cells

237
Q

What are Toll like receptors?

A

They sense microbes with receptros

238
Q

What are the two types of complement?

A

Classical bound antibodies bind to microbe and C’ binds to microbe Lectin activated by mannose binding lectin bound to microbe

239
Q

What does complement do?

A

Lyse microbes directly, chemotaxs opsonisation

240
Q

What are the mechanisms of microbial killing?

A

Reactive oxygen intermediates, Superoxides, Nitric oxide (NO), also enzymes proteins and pH

241
Q

Why is adaptive immunity needed?

A

Microbes are evolving and learn to Hide from our immune system

242
Q

What attacks intracellular microbes?

A

Cell mediated T cells

243
Q

What are primary lymphoid tissues?

A

thymus bone marrow

244
Q

What are secondary lymphoid tissues?

A

Spleen, lymph nodes, MALT

245
Q

Which cells react to antigen presenting cells?

A

T lymphocytes

246
Q

What is major histocompatability complex?

A

It keeps the antigen presenting cells from being attacked by the immune system

247
Q

What is the process of removal of self recognising T cells called?

A

T cell selection in thymus

248
Q

what codes for major histocompatibility complex?

A

Human leukocyte antigen genes

249
Q

Which MHC is on antigen resenting cells?

A

Class 2

250
Q

Which T cell kills intracellular pathogen?

A

CD8

251
Q

what are antibodies made of?

A

Soluble glycoprteins

252
Q

How do antibodies protect against infection?

A

Neutralise toxins, immobilise microbes, prevent binding to host cells, form complexes, it can inhance innate mechanisms like complement and bind Fc receptors

253
Q

What is the function of T helper cells(CD4+ve)?

A

Help B cells make antibodies help develop cytotoxic T cells and activate macrophages and natural killer cells

254
Q

What is the function of cytotoxic cells?

A

Recognise and kill infected host cells (CD8+ve)

255
Q

What do T regulatory cells do?

A

They supress the immune system

256
Q

Which cells express MHC I?

A

All nucleated cells display antigens to T killer cells

257
Q

Which cells express MHC 2?

A

Expressed by macrophaes, dendritic cells and B cells, display antigen to CD4+ve t helper cells

258
Q

What are IL-2 gamma interferon and TNFbeta involved in?

A

Classic cell-mediated immunity and important in intracellular infections

259
Q

What are TH2 cells that produce IL-4 5 6 10 and 13 involved in?

A

Activating eosinophils and mast cells involved in helminth infections and allergy

260
Q

How does the body deal with viruses?

A

Kill the cell to stop replication

261
Q

What are the groups of patterns that can be recognised by the body?

A

Gram positive or negative dsRNA CpG motifs in the cell walls and DNA

262
Q

What are TLR molecules?

A

They recognise many different molecules on pathogens and then they can activate signalling inside the cell to react to an effect can also be for damage to tissues

263
Q

What is passive immunisation?

A

Through the placenta or breast milk by transfer of maternal antibodies to the baby or from treatment with antibodies injected into an adult

264
Q

What is the problem with passive immunity?

A

It doesn’t providel long term immunity and doesnt contribute to immuniological memory

265
Q

What is active immunisation?

A

vaccination where the immune system is sort of trained to be better and mobilise the right thing

266
Q

What is the difference between innoculation and immunisation?

A

Inoculation is only introducing a pathogen into something immunisation is to stiulate a response and immunity

267
Q

What are the stages of active immunisation?

A

Engage the innate immune system, elicit danger signals using PAMPs and TLR receptors that activate antigen presenting cells then engages adaptive immunity to generae memory T and B cells

268
Q

What is usually happening with the secondary response?

A

IgG is more predominant much faster response and higher peak

269
Q

What is the importance of onset time of diseases to be vaccinated against?

A

If its fast need to have enough immunity to ramp up antibody production quickly enough flu is fast acting polio can take 3 days

270
Q

What are the classes of vaccine?

A

Whole organism, subunit. peptides, DNA vaccines, Engineered virus

271
Q

What are the types of whole organism vaccine?

A

Live modified live attenuated pathogen, or killed inactivated

272
Q

What are the benefits of a whole organism vaccine attenuated?

A

transient infection get a full natural immune response, prolongued contact witht eh immune system, T and B cell memory response, prolongued comprehensive protection, only often need single vaccianation

273
Q

What are the negatives of whole organism vaccination attenuated?

A

immunocompromised patients can become infected and ill, complicatins like encephalitis, can revert to virulent form leading to outbreak

274
Q

What are the benefits of inactivated pathogen?

A

No risk of infection easier storage, wide rance of antigneic components so good immune response

275
Q

What are the risks of inactivated pathogen?

A

Tend to just activate humoral responses, can be weak immune response as no replication, repeat booser vaccine often needed which brings problems of compliance

276
Q

What are sub unit vaccines?

A

Ones where part of a toxin is injectes or polysaccharides found on it or recombinant microbial antigens

277
Q

What are the advantages of subunit vaccines?

A

Safe as only bits of the pathogen are used, easy to store and no risk of infection

278
Q

What are the disadvantages of subunit vaccines?

A

Immune response less powerful repeated vaccinations and adjuvants and have to considered

279
Q

Which vaccines use live attenuated pathogen?

A

TB polio

280
Q

Which vaccines use inactivated pathogen?

A

Hep A

281
Q

What are bacterial exotoxins?

A

The toxin that a pathogen can produce is given to sensitise the body to it a toxoid is an inactivated toxin

282
Q

What are synthetic peptides as vaccines?

A

Can produce peptides that are good to select for Bcells and HLA is quite hard

283
Q

What are DNA vaccines?

A

They are aiming to transiently epress genes from pathogens in host cels and generate an immune response similar to a natural infection leading to T and B cell memory responses.

284
Q

What are the benefits of a DNA vaccine?

A

Safe even in immunocompromised patients. No requirement for complex storage and transportation, drug delivery can be simple and adaptable to widespread vaccination programs

285
Q

What are hte disadvantage of DNA vaccines?

A

No transient infection and only induce a mild response so often need boosting

286
Q

What are recombiant vector vaccines?

A

Aim to imitate the effects of transient infection with pathogen but using a non-pathogenic organism the genes for major pathogen antigens are introduced into a non-pathogening or attenuated organism and given to the host.

287
Q

What are adjuvants in a vaccine?

A

Substances added to stimulate the immune system

288
Q

What are Interferons?

A

They induce a state of antiviral resistance in uninfected cells

289
Q

What are interleukins?

A

Produced by many cells can be pro-inflammatory or anti-inflammatory

290
Q

What are colony stimulating factors?

A

Involved in directing the division and differentiation of bone marrow stem cells and precursors of leukocytes

291
Q

How are microbes sensed in the blood?

A

Monocytes and neutrophils

292
Q

How are microbes detected in tissues?

A

Macrophages and dendritic cells

293
Q

What stimulates TH2 formation?

A

IL-12

294
Q

What stimulates TH1 formation?

A

IL-4/5

Phase 2 mine (13 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions