Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

COMLEX > Pulm > Flashcards

Pulm Flashcards

1
Q

large, centrally located mass with cavitation and mildly enlarged mediastinal lymph nodes

  • hypercalcemia
  • malignant cells with abundant cytoplasm, intercellular bridges (desmosomes) and keratin pearls, often described as waxy, deeply staining eosinophilic cytoplasmic material
A

SCC

- can secrete a parathyroid-like hormone as a paraneoplastic syndrome, causing hypercalcemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

MC lung cancer in nonsmokers

  • manifests at the periphery of the lungs
  • irregular mucin-producing glands invading fibrous stroma
A

adenocarcinoma

- mutation in EGFR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

aggressive subtype of lung cancer that almost always arises in patients with a smoking history and typically as a centrally located mass

  • paraneoplastic: Cushings, SIADH, or Lambert-Eaton syndrome
  • Malignant cells with scant cytoplasm, nuclear molding, and crush artifact
A

small cell lung carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

bilateral hilar LAD

  • noncaseating granuloma
  • elevated ACE and Ca
A

sarcoidosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

increased airway resistance, which causes decreases in FEV1, FVC, and the FEV1/FVC ratio
- resistance is especially great during expiration, causing an increased RV (air get’s trapped), and increased TLC

A

obstructive lung disease, COPD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

patients have trouble expanding their lungs during inspiration and, as a result, will manifest decreases in TLC, FEV1, FVC
- degree of FEV1 decrease is sometimes less than that of the FVC so FEV1/FVC ratio may be increased/NL

A

restrictive lung disease, idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

which TB med is notorious for increasing uric acid levels and causing gout?

A

pyrazinamide
- antimicrobial that inhibits the fatty acid synthetase I (FASI) enzyme of M. tuberculosis

don’t forget: thiazides, aspirin, and niacin also precipitate gout

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

does hyperventilation cause respiratory acidosis or alkalosis?

A

respiratory alkalosis

  • less O2 in air (high altitude) -> body increases ventilation -> decreasing the arterial PCO2 (alkalosis)
  • kidneys will compensate by excreting more bicarb (low serum bicarb)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what effect does standing up have on ventilation of the lungs?

A

ventilation decreases at the apex (gravity draws blood downward)
- diameter of the alveoli increases at the apex with standing because gravity causes greater traction on the alveoli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

destruction of lung elastic tissue, mostly by neutrophils. This decreases elasticity, and thus increases compliance.

A

COPD

- the lungs become too compliant; thus, it is difficult to exhale (obstructive)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

aerobic, facultative intracellular, Gram-negative rods that infect alveolar macrophages once inside the lungs

A

legionella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Male in 20-30’s, or female 60-70’s w/acute renal failure, proteinuria, and urinary sediments including dysmorphic RBCs, RBC casts, and granular casts
- also have pulmonary sx! MC alveolar hemorrhage -> hemoptysis

A

rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis (RPGN)

- crescentic glomerulonephritis and anti-GBM antibodies by immunofluorescence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Necrotizing granulomas are a histopathologic hallmark of what?

A

granulomatosis with polyangiitis (GPA)
- found in the sinuses, lungs, and kidneys

also TB (sarcoidosis is NONcaseating)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

affects medium-sized arteries and is strongly associated with hepatitis B and C

A

polyarteritis nodosa (PAN)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

increased or decreased compliance in emphysema

A

increased comliance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

alpha 1-antitrypsin deficiency?

A

panlobular emphysema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

tx for Q fever?

A

doxycycline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what organism resides in the phagosomes of alveolar macrophages?
- produces a protein that prevents fusion of the phagosome with lysosomes

A

TB

- Ghon complex of primary TB favors the upper part of the lower lobe and the lower part of the upper lobe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

why does secondary TB prefer the right apex?

A

it has the highest oxygen pressure of all regions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

prodrome of fever and fatigue before the onset of lower respiratory symptoms

  • N/V/D, bilateral patchy infiltrates
  • hyponatremia, elevated hepatic transaminases, and elevated C-reactive protein
A

legionella

  • charcoal yeast agar
  • tx is fluoroqunolone
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what are the blood gas levels in emphysema?

A 
decreased ventilation:
- decreased P02
- increased PC02
causes prolonged *respiratory acidosis*
- metabolic compensation by increasing bicarb production
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

leukocytosis exceeding 50,000/microL

- will see an increase in early neutrophil precursors and bands in the peripheral blood

A

leukemoid reaction

- severe infection (left shift)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

when would you see neutrophilic leukocytosis following treatment of acute exacerbation of COPD?

A

after prednisone administration

- steroids decrease the migration of polymorphonuclear leukocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what is the most common type of amiodarone-induced pulmonary toxicity?

A

interstitial pneumonitis

- restrictive pattern and a low carbon monoxide diffusion capacity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

smoker w/ central mass and mediastinal LAD
- malignant cells with scant cytoplasm, nuclear molding and crush artifact, and coarsely dispersed “salt and pepper” chromatin

A

small cell lung carcinoma

  • look out for SIADH -> hyponatremia
  • or Chushing’s sx -> high cortisol d/t ACTH
  • or Lambert-Eaton myasthenic syndrome (progressive proximal muscle weakness and oculobulbar findings d/t decreased ACh release from presynaptic terminal)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

psammoma bodies and Calretinin(+) in lung?

A

mesothelioma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q
  • Small, dark blue cells
  • Chromogranin A +
  • Synaptophysin +
A

small oat cell carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q
  • Keratin pearls
  • Intracellular bridges
  • hypercalcemia (d/t PTHrP)
A

SCC of lung

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

what is the MC side effect associated with corticosteroid use, especially in diabetic patients?

A

hyperglycemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

what short-acting muscarinic blocker is used for the tx of acute COPD exacerbation?

A

ipratropium (M3 antag)

- look for antimuscarinic side effects (dry mouth, urinary retention, elevated HR)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

what side affect is associated with inhaled glucocorticoids?

A

oral candidiasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

when do type II pneumocytes begin to proliferate?

A

week 20-22

  • respiratory tree development by 24 weeks
  • levels of surfactant sufficient to support survival by 26-28 weeks
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

what is the lymphatic drainage system for the lower extremities, pelvis, abdomen, left pleural cavity, left upper extremity, and left head and neck

A

the thoracic duct

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

what is responsible for draining the right side of the thorax, upper limb (including right axilla), head, and neck

A

the right lymphatic duct

- empties into the junction of the right internal jugular and subclavian veins or the right brachiocephalic vein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

when would you see interstitial fibrosis with ferruginous bodies?
- stain positive with Prussian blue

A

asbestosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Patient presents with acute hypoxia and dyspnea due to diffuse alveolar damage
- CXR shows bilateral diffuse/patchy infiltrates

A

ARDS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

what increases the risk of developing tuberculosis, secondary to macrophage dysfunction?
- CXR demonstrates multiple small nodules throughout the lung fields

A

silica dust exposure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

chronic upper and lower respiratory infections, recurrent middle ear infections beginning in early childhood, infertility, and situs inversus

A

Kartagener syndrome aka primary ciliary dyskinesia (AR)

  • defect in dyenin
  • presents similar to CF except for the situs inversus!
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

what is the MCC of bronchiolitis in children under 2?

- nasal flaring or use of accessory muscles/retractions

A

RSV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

what is the most frequent cause of the common cold?

A

rhinovirus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

MCC of diarrhea in kids under 5?

A

reovirus (dsDNA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Kulchitsky cells

- stain positive for neuroendocrine markers including enolase, chromogranin A, and synaptophysin

A

Small cell lung cancer

- neuroendocrine -> think of ACTH, SiADH…

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

what is the MOA of ethambutol?

A

inhibits arabinosyl transferase

- stops mycolic acid synthesis (cell wall synthesis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

what TB med lowers pH to destroy bacteria?

A

pyrazinamide

  • forms pyrazinoic acid
  • can cause liver toxicity, muscle weakness, and increase uric acid -> gout !
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q
  • Absent breath sounds on the left
  • Hyperresonance to percussion on the left
  • Reduced tactile fremitus
  • Hypotension due to decreased venous return to the heart and external compression of the heart
  • Flattened or inhaled diaphragm due to increased intrathoracic pressure on the right side
  • Presence of jugular venous distension due to compressed superior vena cava
A 
tension pneumothorax (on left)
- would see mediastinal shift to right
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

how does a tension pneumo differ from a spontaneous pneumo or atelectasis?

A

a patient with a spontaneous pneumothorax or atelectasis presents with ipsilateral tracheal deviation because the collapsed lung tissues pulls the structures toward it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Milky fluid withdrawn during a thoracentesis
- caused by disruption of lymphatic drainage either as a result of trauma (such as damage to the thoracic duct during thoracic surgery) or from a medical condition such as lymphoma

A

chylothorax

- the presence of chyle and increased triglycerides within the pleural space

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

when would you see elevated adenosine deaminase?

A

TB

- an ADA level >40 IU/L in a lymphocytic-predominant effusion has a 92% sensitivity and 90% specificity for tuberculosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

when would you see ipsilateral diaphragm elevation and ipsilateral tracheal deviation?

A

resorption (obstructive) atelectasis

  • history of recent surgery, fever, and dyspnea within 48 hours post-op
  • absent tactile fremitus ipsilaterally
  • inspiratory lag caused by a collapsed lung that does not expand on inspiration
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

when would you observe increased tactile fremitus?

A

conditions that consolidate the lung tissue like pneumonia will increase the transmission of sound waves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

when would you observe decreased tactile fremitus?

A
  • conditions that decrease sound wave transmission, like pleural effusion and pneumothorax
  • conditions that eliminate sound wave transmission, such as obstructive (resorption) atelectasis
52
Q

cytokine involved in survival, activation and proliferation of CD4 and CD8 T cells

A

IL2
- Helper T cells secrete IL-2 and interferon (IFN)-γ that allow for the activation of both macrophages and CD8-positive cytotoxic T cells

53
Q

delayed separation of the umbilical cord, increased circulating neutrophils, and recurrent bacterial infections that lack pus formation

A

leukocyte adhesion deficiency

- caused by a defect in integrins, proteins used by leukocytes to adhere to a vessel wall during an infection

54
Q

defect in transportation of proteins

  • increased risk of pyogenic infections, giant granules in leukocytes
  • albinism, peripheral neuropathy
A

Chediak-Higashi syndrome

55
Q

recurrent infections with catalase-positive organisms, including Staphylococcus aureus, Pseudomonas aeruginosa, Burkholderia cepacia, Aspergillus, and Nocardia

A

Chronic granulomatous disease

  • occurs because of a NADP-oxidase deficiency
  • patients have poor oxygen-dependent killing systems
56
Q

what is the tx for anthrax poisoning?

A

dual antibiotic therapy plus antitoxins such as raxibacumab

57
Q

why does Lambert-Eaton syndrome cause weakness?

A

antibodies develop against voltage-gated calcium channels required for ACh release
- leads to proximal muscle weakness, depressed tendon reflexes, and autonomic changes

58
Q

multisystem granulomatous disorder of unknown etiology

  • noncaseating granulomas
  • MC in African Americans
  • hilar lymphadenopathy, parenchymal lung disease, and/or pulmonary fibrosis
  • erythema nodosum (tender nodules on the shins), skin nodules, arthralgias, or uveitis
  • elevated ACE
A

sarcoidosis
- constellation of dyspnea, hypoxia, eye involvement, possible erythema nodosum, and an elevated ACE level is most concerning for sarcoidosis

59
Q

broad-based budding yeast most likely found in the Southeastern and South-central United States, as well as states along the Mississippi and Ohio River basin

A

Blastomycosis

60
Q

acute angle branching mold

- ground glass attenuations surrounding a halo sign in the lungs

A

aspergillus

61
Q

found in the Southwestern United States and can cause pneumonia and meningitis
- histology will reveal large spherule with multiple, round endospores

A

Coccidioides immitis

62
Q

opportunistic fungal infection that may cause meningitis

  • more likely to be found in an immunocompromised host
  • narrow-based budding yeast
  • commonly associated with pigeon droppings
  • india ink staining
A

Cryptococcus neoformans

63
Q

one of the fungal mycoses that may cause pneumonia and pneumonitis

  • commonly found in the Mississippi and Ohio River valleys (cave spalunking)
  • icroscopically, the Histoplasma can be seen within macrophages
A

histoplasmosis

64
Q

small vessel vasculitis characterized by positive p-ANCA

  • occurs primarily in the lung and heart, resulting in severe asthma attacks -> seen in pts w/hx of asthma
  • massive eosinophil invasion of the vessel walls and surrounding tissues
A

Churg-Strauss aka eosinophilic granulomatosis with polyangiitis

65
Q

does surfactant increase or decrease surface tension?

A

decreases surface tension, increasing compliance

- surfactant keeps small alveoli open by decreasing surface tension

66
Q

is asthma obstructive or restrictive?

A

obstructive

67
Q

what type of HsRxn is reactive TB ?

A

delayed type hypersensitivity reaction (type IV)

- T-cells and macrophages initiate granulomatous inflammation

68
Q

what is a sign of reactivated tuberculosis?

A

cavitary lesions

- due to erosion of the granuloma

69
Q

what are the most common trigger of asthma exacerbations in both children and adults

A

Respiratory viral infections

70
Q

when would you see transudate in the lungs?

- clear fliud, low protein, low LDH

A

Transudate can result from congestive heart failure, nephrotic syndrome, and hepatic cirrhosis

71
Q

when would you see exudate in the lungs?

- Cloudy fluid with high protein and LDH

A

Exudate can result from malignancy, pneumonia, collagen vascular disease, and trauma

72
Q

fungus with rounded, single-celled, tuberculate macroconidia formed on short, hyaline, undifferentiated conidiophores

  • hilar LAD
  • immunocompromised pts may present with fever, headache, malaise, myalgia, abdominal pain, and chills, progressing to severe dyspnea resulting from diffuse pulmonary involvement
A

histoplasma

- seen within macrophages (small bois)

73
Q

soil fungus native to the San Joaquin Valley of California

A

coccidiomycosis

74
Q

hypercapnia

A

retention of CO2 -> respiratory acidosis

75
Q

In addition to a SABA, what is the next additional medication for the chronic management of asthma and allergic symptoms?

A

montelukast

- leukotriene receptor antag blocks LTD4 and LTC4

76
Q

what is tx for preterm neonate with RDS?

A

exogenous surfactant

- CPAP, or intubatation/mechanical ventillation

77
Q

college student presents with malaise, headache, and muscle pain

  • nonproductive cough and sore throat
  • extensive diffuse infiltrates in both lungs
A

atypical pneumonia caused by Mycoplasma pneumoniae

78
Q

what is first-line treatment for mild persistent asthma?

A

inhaled steroid: beclomethasone

- can also add montilukast

79
Q

MCC of community-acquired pneumonia?

A

strep pneumo

80
Q

currant jelly sputum and Maconkey agar?

A

klebsiella

81
Q

Recurrent pulmonary infections in patients with CF are most likely due to what?

A

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

- aerobic, oxidase-positive, Gram-negative rod noted for its ability to produce a green pigment

82
Q

asthma, chronic rhinosinusitis with nasal polyps, and acute upper and lower respiratory tract reactions following aspirin ingestion
- what is it called and what could have prevented a flare up?

A

aspirin-exacerbated respiratory disease
- Aspirin-induced hypersensitivity results from poorly regulated arachidonic acid metabolism leading to enhanced leukotriene production -> give leukotriene antags (montelukast, zafirlukast, pranlukast)

NOTE: albuterol is short acting (rescue med), will never be the answer to what med could have prevented

83
Q

what is the MC manifestation of Q fever?

A

endocarditis

- look out for pt w/ weakened immune response, preexisting condition (rheumatic heart dz)

84
Q

what is the virulence factor of Yersinia pestis that is antiphagocytic and keeps the alveolar macrophages from phagocytizing the organisms when delivered to the lungs?

A

protein capsule

85
Q

what virulence factor helps Yersinia resist phagocyte killing and suppresse cytokine production by white blood cells to lower the immune reaction?

A

type III secretion system

86
Q

what virulence factor binds to another bacterial protein, called protective antigen, that helps it evade the immune system by killing macrophages?

  • is a Zn2+-dependent endoprotease that clips off the N-terminus of mitogen-activated protein kinase kinases
  • Inhibiting these host cell kinases leads to altered signaling pathways and apoptosis of the host cells
A

lethal toxin of B. anthracis

87
Q

functional spleen increases the risk for infections with encapsulated bacteria, including what?

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae and Neisseria meningitidis

- also Salmonella typhi

88
Q

what is the drug class of choice for COPD?

A

Muscarinic antagonists: ipratropium, tiotropium
- Methylxanthines (theophylline, aminophylline) are not widely used anymore d/t adverse effects: cardiac arrhythmia, CNS stimulation, GI distress (structure is similar to caffeine)

89
Q

what two bacteria are associated with hot tubs?

A

legionella and pseudomonas

NOTE: legionella causes pulmonary problems (inhaled water droplets), white pseudomonas causes skin infections (folliculitis)

90
Q

what is the growth medium for pseudomonas?

A

Maconkey agar

91
Q

what is the growth medium for bordatella pertussus?

A

Bordet-Gengou agar

92
Q

what is the growth medium for Mycoplasma pneumoniae?

A

eaton agar

93
Q

blood pH at high altitude?

A

respiratory ALKALOSIS -> increased pH

- low atmospheric O2 -> increased ventilation -> decreases PaCO2 = alkalosis

94
Q

what effect does hypoxia have on the lungs

A

causes pulmonary vasoconstriction

95
Q

young child, 3-5 days of high fever, strawberry tongue, lymphadenopathy, and desquamation of hands and feet

A

Kawasaki

- treated with high dose aspirin and IV IgG

96
Q

what effect does CO poisoning have on O2 levels?

A

CO outcompetes O2 for Hgb binging spot

- less O2 -> cells shift to anaerobic metabolism -> making H+ (lactic acidosis)

97
Q

what is the normal V/Q ratio in the lung apex?

A

3

98
Q

what is the normla V/Q ratio in the lung base?

A

.6

99
Q

how would a PE change the V/Q ratio in the lungs?

A

it would increase the V/Q ratio

  • perfusion (Q) decreases
  • when the denominator gets smaller, ratio gets higher
100
Q

what is the treatment for an acute asthma attack?

A
  • supplemental oxygen
  • short acting β-2 agonists (albuterol)
  • IV steroids (methylprednisolone)
101
Q

what asthma med is only used for maintenance of persistent asthma?

A

long acting β-agonist (salmeterol)

102
Q

what are all the inflammatory mediators essential in recruiting leukocytes to the site of an infection?

A

TNF-a, IL1, IL8, bacterial products

103
Q

what causes RSV in a premie?

A

less surfactant -> more surface tension -> instability of the lung during expiration -> less compliance

104
Q

pt has trasudative plural effusion

- you’ve ruled out kidney and liver causes, what test do you need to confirm CHF dx?

A

echo

105
Q

young/college student with malaise, HA, muscle pain, sore throat, non productive cough
- CXR shows extensive diffuse infiltrates

A

ALWAYS think M. pneumoniae (atypical pneumonia)

- mild sx can last up to 4 weeks

106
Q

what lung lobe silhouettes the right heart border

- onlateral radiograph is confirmed to be anteriorly locate

A

right middle lobe

- right lower lobe is more posterior than the right middle lobe*

107
Q

what is the correct placement for a needle decompression for tension pneumo?

A

second intercostal space along the midclavicular line

NOTE: needle decompression is always followed by chest tube placement as soon as the patient is stabilized

108
Q

what is the correct placement for a chest tube?

A

fourth intercostal space along the midaxillary line

109
Q

bacterium that resist decolorization by acids

- military opacities on CXR

A

TB

110
Q

what does a B6 deficiency lead to?

A

muscle weakness, peripheral neuropathy, uncoordinated movements

111
Q

what do mast cells contain?

A

basophilic granules

112
Q

mast cell stabilizer used to control inflammation in asthma and to prevent exercise-induced bronchospasm
- inhibits the degranulation of mast cells, which prevents the release of inflammatory modulators such as histamine and leukotrienes

A

cromolyn sodium

- used to prevent bronchoconstriction and inflammation, but it does not provide relief for acute symptoms

113
Q

large, round, densely staining nucleus with minimal amounts of pale cytoplasm

A

lymphocytes (B cells, T cells, NK cells)

114
Q

what antineoplastic is known to cause dilated cardiomyopathy

  • inhibits topoisomerase II (causing DNA strand breaks)
  • tx for Hodgkin’s lymphoma, breast/lung/ovary tumors, and sarcomas and myelomas
A

doxorubicin

115
Q

vasopressin receptor antagonist which prevents the action of ADH in the collecting duct
- used to treat SiADH in small cell lung carcinoma

A

conivaptan

116
Q

what is erythema nodosum and when would you see it?

A

tender nodules on bilateral shins

- seen in sarcoidosis, TB and IBD

117
Q

what two meds can be given to kid with croup in severe respiratory distress?

A
  • corticosteriods

- racemic epinephrine -> utilized to reduce upper airway swelling until the corticosteroids can kick in

118
Q

what causes hypervitaminosis D?

A

sarcoidosis
- noncaseating granulomas have the ability to secrete 1,25 vitamin D, potentially causing hypercalcemia and hypervitaminosis D in affected individuals

119
Q

what does low partial pressure of oxygen in the lung cause?

A

hypoxic vasoconstriction

- shifts blood away from poorly ventilated regions of the lung to well-ventilated regions of the lung

120
Q

dipalmitoylphosphatidylcholine (lecithin) is a major component of what?

A

surfactant

121
Q

how do you know when a fetus’ lungs have reached maturity?

A

the amniotic fluid lecithin/sphingomyelin ratio reaches 2:1 (around 36 weeks)

122
Q

fever, night sweats, and cheese-like material in hilar lymph nodes?

A

TB

- cheese in LN = caseous necrosis

123
Q

what is the MCC of tuberculosis-like symptoms in patients with AIDS the CD4 count drops below 50 cells/mm3

A

M. avium

124
Q

industrial exposure

  • eggshell calcifications
  • small round nodules in upper lobes
A

silicosis

125
Q

industrial exposure

  • ferruginous bodies
  • interstitial fibrosis in lower lobes
A

asbestosis

126
Q

young pt w/ cough, weight loss, fine crackles

  • XCR shows interstitial reticular opacities
  • restrictive pattern
  • **lymphocytic infiltrate with NONcaseating granulomas*
A

hypersensitivity pneumonitis- similar to idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis, but pt is younger, and has granulomas

COMLEX (14 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions